We all probably have hear that in the United States we have what we commonly call a "separation of church and state". This principle is incorporated in the 1st Amendments Establishment Clause where it specifically states "Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion...." What did the framers mean by this? What has the Supreme Court done with interpreting this clause? Is the separation of Church and State and absolute wall or are there time and circumstances where government can be involved with religious faiths and to what degree?
We all probably have hear that in the United States we have what we commonly call a "separation of church and state". This principle is incorporated in the 1st Amendments Establishment Clause where it specifically states "Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion...." What did the framers mean by this? What has the Supreme Court done with interpreting this clause? Is the separation of Church and State and absolute wall or are there time and circumstances where government can be involved with religious faiths and to what degree?
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We all probably have hear that in the United States we have what we commonly call a "separation of church and state". This principle is incorporated in the 1st Amendments Establishment Clause where it specifically states "Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion...." What did the framers mean by this? What has the Supreme Court done with interpreting this clause? Is the separation of Church and State and absolute wall or are there time and circumstances where government can be involved with religious faiths and to what degree?
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