Suppose that the monopolist can prevent the existence of a second-hand market. In other words, there can be no resale of the product between consumers after the initial purchase from the monopolist. What would the profit be for the monopolist from charging only one price to the entire market?
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Suppose that the monopolist can prevent the existence of a second-hand market. In other words, there can be no resale of the product between consumers after the initial purchase from the monopolist. What would the profit be for the monopolist from charging only one price to the entire market?
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Again, with no second-hand market possible, suppose the monopolist can distinguish between type H and type L consumers and can offer a discount to type L consumers. What are the profit-maximizing prices the monopolist will charge? How many units of the good will each type of consumer buy? What will the monopolist’s total profit be?
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What is total
consumer surplus with only one price (part a)? What is total consumer surplus with 3rd degreeprice discrimination (part b)?
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