SURGICAL FIRST ASSIST TEST 1 COMPLETE EXAM UPDATE WITH ALL QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

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SURGICAL FIRST ASSIST TEST 1 COMPLETE EXAM UPDATE WITH ALL QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Q. A patient appears disheveled and recently suffered the death of a spouse. Which assessment would you perform? - A. NGASR Explanation: NGASR The Nurses Global Assessment Risk for Suicide is used to determine a patient's suicide risk. A patient who recently lost a spouse and does not appear concerned with hygiene may have an increased risk for depression and suicide. Q. Which of the following would not be included on a surgeon's preference card? - A. Patient's insurance plan Explanation: Some of the things that could be included on the surgeon's preference card includes: Glove size Drapes Sutures Patient's name Surgeon's name Positioning Instruments Procedure Medications Disposable supplies Patient data Sponges Notes Any special request Prep Q. Erik Erikson described development that occurs throughout the lifespan. In which of Erikson's stages of psychosocial development does a child need to begin asserting control and power over his environment? - A. initiative vs. guilt Explanation: In the stage of initiative vs. guilt children need to begin asserting control and power over the environment. Success in this stage

leads to a sense of purpose. Children who try to exert too much power experience disapproval, resulting in a sense of guilt. Q. A family unit that consists of two parents and a child is known as which of the following? - A. Nuclear family. Explanation: Families consisting of two parents and children are nuclear families. Assessing family structure helps a nurse better understand the support and barriers present for the patient and his or her care. Careful attention to family dynamics and roles not only helps the nurse to better understand the patient, but also plays a role in planning effective care. Q. Debridement is what? - A. Removal of necrotic tissue. Explanation: Correct answer: Removal of necrotic tissue Debridement is the process of surgically removing dead or damaged tissue from the patient. It is similar to the term amputate but amputation usually involves cutting off a limb. Q. Agreement by a patient to accept a course of treatment is known as which of the following? - A. Informed consent. Explanation: The agreement by a patient to a course of treatment, based on the information provided, is informed consent. Children under 18 cannot provide informed consent, but only assent; a parent's informed consent is needed for most procedures. Be familiar with local laws regarding exceptions, as some minors can seek some care without parental consent. Informed consent must involve a signature. Q. Of the following statements, which would not be correct when setting up for robotic surgery? - A. The robotic cart should be placed at the patient's head. Explanation: The robotic cart should not be placed at the patient's head. If the robotic cart is placed at the patient's head, it could interfere with anesthesia activities and be a safety problem Q. Of the following, which would be considered one of the five basic types of MIS (minimally invasive surgery)? - A. All of the above Explanation: The five basic types of MIS consists of: single incision laparoscopic surgery, robotic surgery, video assisted thoracoscopic surgery, multiple-incision MIS and natural orifice transluminal endoscopic surgery.

Q. What is septicemia - A. Presence of pathogens contaminating the blood Explanation: Septicemia means the blood has become septic (contaminated)--a systemic infection. This condition is due to the presence of bacteria or pathogens in the blood. It can start from infections elsewhere such as a respiratory infection or simple infected cut and become worse very quickly. Septicemia is a serious, life-threatening complication following surgery requiring prompt medical care. Q. What is spinal anesthesia used to block - A. Somatic sensory nerves and motor fibers Explanation: Spinal anesthesia blocks somatic sensory and motor fibers. It often used for surgery on the legs or in the pelvic region. Q. Actions undertaken by an individual to promote health and well being or to detect disease when it is early or asymptomatic are known as which of the following? - A. Health behaviors. Explanation: Health behaviors are behaviors undertaken by an individual before illness presents itself. Health behaviors are focused on promoting health and well being, as well as on catching disease in the early stages. Q. Which of these surgical dressings could be used in minor surgeries and for minor wounds to approximate small incisions and protect the wound? - A. Steri-Strips Explanation: When applying the Steri-Strips, a small amount of biological adhesive such as benzoin spray can be applied before the strips are put on to help them have extra adhesion. With some incisions, the Steri-Strips can protect the incision line and serves as a dressing. Q. The scrub technician receives a medication from the circulator. It is no longer in its original container, which of the following interventions should the scrub technician do next? - A. Label the medication immediately Explanation: Typically, most medications are clear in color and it would be very easy to mix medications up if they are not labeled. Q. What is a disadvantage of using a standardized care planning form in a multidisciplinary setting? - A. Reduce individual intervention. Explanation: The need for a nurses individual intervention may diminish with standardized care planning. It may also limit the focus to problems that are predictable. The other answers are pros of standardized care planning.

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Q. Of the following, which would be considered types of hemostats? - A. Kelly and Lambott Explanation: A Lambott is considered an elevator. The common hemostats would be: Kelly Schnidt Mosquito Crile Mayo Right angle Mixter All of the following trade names would be correct for silk sutures except? - A. Vascufil Explanation: Vascufil would be a trade name for polybutester sutrures. The silk suture trade names would be: Mersilk, Sofsilk, Perma-hand. Q. Of the following, which of the following procedures should be done first when arriving in the surgical department each day? - A. The first hand cleansing with a brush scrub Explanation: When a person arrives at the surgical department, the first thing that should be done would be the first hand cleansing with a brush scrub. When a person does a surgical scrubbing they should use a brush, antiseptic soap, and water. Q. Nonabsorbable suture is used in what? - A. Tendons Explanation: Nonabsorbable sutures are used in places where additional wound support is required such as in tendons and fascia. It is also often used in cardiovascular and neurosurgery Q. What agent should be used for prepping burned skin? - A. Normal saline Explanation: Normal saline solution should be used to prep burned skin. It can also be used for denuded skin Q. Which nursing intervention would you prioritize as first for a diagnosis of ineffective thermoregulation with febrile signs? - A. Administer antipyretics

Explanation: The patient has a fever and requires antipyretics. This should be prioritized before the other nursing interventions. The temperature should be monitored after the antipyretics are administered. Q. The largest body cavity which extends from the diaphragm to the lesser pelvic wall would be? - A. Abdominal Cavity Explanation: The abdominal cavity is the largest cavity in the body. This cavity holds the stomach, liver, pancreas, intestines, spleen and kidneys. Q. The hardest working organ in the human body even though it's only the size of a closed fist would be which of the following? - A. Heart Explanation: Even though it is fairly small, the heart is the hardest working organ in the human body, the heart is solely responsible for pumping the blood through the body's circulatory system. Q. Instrument equipment that can be used for visualization of the bronchus and trachea would be considered - A. Bronchoscope Explanation: A gastroscope would be used to view the stomach.A colonoscope would be used to view the entire large intestines. An arthroscope would be used to view the intra-articular surfaces such as the knee. A bronchoscope would be used to view the bronchus and trachea. Q. In which of the following cases would a nurse be allowed to disclose confidential information? - A. if the patient is a danger to himself or others. Explanation: Confidential information can be disclosed under certain circumstances. For example, the nurse must disclose such information when authorized by a patient (but only to the extent authorized), when a patient is a danger to himself or others, or when required by law for a reportable communicable disease or suspected abuse. Q. Nutritional therapy for a patient with chronic kidney disease includes all of the following except: - A. using protein supplements Explanation: All of the choices are part of the nutritional therapy for a patient with chronic kidney disease except this one. Patients should be taught to avoid high protein diets and protein supplements. They may overstress the diseased kidneys Q. Behaviors that are motivated by a desire to prevent disease, catch disease early, or return to optimum function even with disease are known as which of the following? - A. Health protection Explanation: Health

protection is a set of behaviors designed to prevent disease, catch disease early, or return to optimum functioning even with disease. This is sometimes also known as disease prevention Q. The set of steps used to make a nursing decision is known as which of the following? - A. algorithm Explanation: The algorithm is the set of steps used to make a nursing decision. The procedure refers to the set of "how-to" action steps; the standard of care refers to a description of the acceptable level of patient care. Clinical practice guidelines are statements outlining appropriate practice for clinical condition or procedure. Q. A smoke plume contains which of the following? - A. Harmful toxins Explanation: The laser equipment should be used according to the manufacturer's instructions. The smoke plume contains harmful toxins. The filters are considered toxic waste and should be handled according to the facility and government policy. Q. Patient care should reflect ongoing management. An adverse outcome related to preparing the patient for a procedure would include: - A. Changes in the patient's health status are not identified and reflected in the patient care plan before procedures Explanation: Nurses failing to reflect changes in the patient care plan before a procedure is an adverse preparation or planning related outcome and nursing goal deficit . The other answer choices reflect adverse outcomes that may occur during the implementation/intervention nor planning phase of treatment. Q. A recovering patient developed a rash on her wrist from the latex (gloves). Everytime a nurse touched the patient's wrist, it irritated the patient's skin sensitivity, and eventually a rash appeared. This patient had an adverse outcome for which care event category? - A. Monitoring and controlling the environment Explanation: A reaction to latex exposure is an adverse outcome associated with monitoring and controlling the environment. It is not due to drugs or solutions because the question specified the gloves. Additionally, positioning and handling of cultures and specimens are not proper answer choices.

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Q. A desired patient outcome is the patient should be free from infection or injury from retained instruments. A common method used to confirm retention of instruments includes what? - A. Taking an X-ray Explanation: An adverse outcome related to the use of surgical instruments includes retained instruments. The retention of an instrument can be confirmed by an instrument count and taking x-rays. Q. In terms of coagulation test results, which of the following is within normal range for partial thromboplastin time? - A. 25 sec Explanation: This is within normal range. The partial thromboplastin time has a range of 21-35 seconds. Q. Which of the following risk factors can impair the integrity of the patient's skin resulting in an adverse outcome? - A. Pooling of prepping solutions Explanation: Patients can experience irritation, an allergic reaction or the skin may breakdown from prepping agents that have pooled underneath them. It is important that during prepping towels be placed under the patient and that all solutions are cleaned promptly. Q. When an organ is shaped or positioned incorrectly, the term used to describe this situation would be considered which of the following? - A. Abnormal Anatomy Explanation: This term would be considered abnormal anatomy. The fact that the patient may have an abnormal anatomy is of importance to the surgeon and could cause issues during the surgical procedure. Q. A _____ is an abnormal heart sound when auscultating a patient? - A. Rub Explanation: Auscultation is an important part of an examination. An abnormal heart sound is a rub. This sound may indicate pericarditis. The other answers are normal sounds during an auscultation. Q. Which of the following statements about compensation (the return of an abnormal pH to a normal pH) is least accurate? - A. In metabolic acidosis with a base excess, the lungs compensate through hypoventilation. Explanation: This is the least accurate statement. In metabolic acidosis with a base excess, the lungs compensate through hyperventilation. This lowers PaCO2 and returns the pH to normal.

Q. Which of the following is a type of delegation that gives attention to scheduling? - A. Partnering Explanation: Working closely with one another leads to better commitment to one another. Partnering is when a RN and LPN work together on a regular basis. They are scheduled to work with each other on a constant basis. This type of delegation leads to attention to scheduling unlike pairing which does not. Q. A patient teaching plan would include all of the following EXCEPT: - A. patient's willingness to learn Explanation: This would not be part of the actual teaching plan, although the patient's willingness to learn is essential to the success of the education. All of the other choices are part of the actual teaching plan. Q. When a person finds him or herself occupying multiple roles and unable to meet all the expectations, he or she is experiencing which of the following? - A. Role overload Explanation: Role overload occurs when a person occupies multiple roles and is unable to meet all the demands. Role overload often occurs in families where there is illness because of the shift in responsibilities and the new responsibilities. Caregivers are especially at risk of role overload. Q. The contemplation stage can last how long? - A. 2 Years. Explanation: The contemplation stage can sometimes last for 2 years. Patients may procrastinate or be ambivalent about the change. Q. When a patient is having a surgical procedure, which of the following would be the typical length of time that pressure injuries can become more common? - A. 1 hour Explanation: Pressure injuries most commonly occur in surgery after an hour or longer. If a surgery is a long one, the patient should be repositioned if at all possible to help prevent pressure injuries. Q. The intentional mistreatment or harm of another person is known as which of the following? - A. Abuse Explanation: Abuse is intentional harm to another human. This may or may not be physical. Nurses have an obligation to report abuse by other nurses or family/significant others if they observe signs or questionable behavior.

They also have an obligation to refrain from abusing patients and family members in any way Q. Allied health professionals deliver - A. High quality services for patient care Explanation: Allied health professionals bring high quality services in the patient care field. Allied health care professionals make the health care system function properly. They typically work in teams to accomplish this. Q. In formulating a goal for a patient, which of the following is least appropriate? - A. Describe something that the nurse will do for the patient. Explanation: This is not a good characteristic of a goal for a patient. The goal should describe something that the patient will do, not something that the nurse will do. Q. To provide effective postoperative care, the nurse must be aware of the factors influencing convalescence. Which of the listed factors is not a critical factor in the patient's convalescence? - A. Patient's gender. Explanation: The critical factors influencing convalescence include: preprocedure condition, amount of blood transfused, procedure time/length, and the organ system involved. The patient's gender is not a critical factor influencing convalescence. Q. The endocrine system is controlled by stress, which can contribute to adverse outcomes. The two major endocrine glands affected by stress are which of the following? - A. Adrenal and pituitary Explanation: The adrenal and pituitary glands are the two glands most affected by stress. The adrenals produce the stress "hormones" which cause the "flight or fight" response. The stress hormones are cortisol, norepinephrine, and growth hormone. Q. The principle of nursing which holds that nurses should always tell the truth is known as which of the following? - A. Veracity Explanation: Veracity is a principle of nursing which holds that nurses should always tell the truth. Lying to or withholding information from a patient risks harming the trust between nurse and patient which is key for a functioning therapeutic relationship. Q. The scrub nurse or specialist performing the scrub role would do what? - A. Arrange the instruments on the sterile table

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Explanation: The scrub nurse would arrange instruments on the sterile table prior to surgery. A circulating nurse would send specimens to the lab, test a tourniquet, and provide the family a report on the patient's status. Q. The maintenance stage is said to begin when? - A. 6 months after a person ceases a risky behavior Explanation: The maintenance stage is said to begin 6 months after a person ceases a risky behavior. Many people never get beyond maintenance - they end up in a cycle of maintenance and relapse for life. Q. To promote independent lifelong behavioral changes, a perioperative nurse refers an obese patient to classes given onsite and offsite by fitness and nutrition experts in the community. This strategy fosters which behavior in patients? - A. Self-learning Explanation: The nurse's action of referring the patient connects the patient to helpful community resources. This nurse is fostering self-learning in and helping the patient to appreciate the support provided by other professionals or experts. Q. The cortex and medulla of the kidneys are made up of functional units of the kidneys known as which of the following? - A. Nephrons Explanation: The functioning units of the kidneys are the nephrons. Each kidney contains approximately 1.3 million nephrons. Q. Which of the following statements about rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is least accurate? - A.Nursing interventions should begin with teaching the patient how to prevent RA. Explanation: This is the least accurate statement. Prevention of RA is not possible at this time. However, education should include information on symptom recognition to promote early diagnosis and treatment. Q. How many clocks are typically displayed in an operating room? - A. Two Explanation: Typically there are two clocks in an operating room. One clock is a standard clock, either analog or digital. The second clock is typically a time-elapsed clock. Q. In terms of nursing research, when people in the research study are arbitrarily assigned to different groups, this is known as which of the following? - A. randomization

Explanation: Using randomization helps ensure research quality. Randomization requires arbitrarily assigning people to different groups. This makes it a hallmark of high-quality research. Q. A situation where two or more moral principles apply but point to diverging and contradicting courses of action is known as which of the following? - A. Ethical dilemma Explanation: An ethical dilemma is said to occur when two or more moral principles are at work but the courses of action are contradictory. This may occur when two equally undesirable choices are posed, or when and individual's ethics or values conflict with the law. Q. The errors with specimens could be caused by which of the following? - A. The specimen requisition and the specimen container. Explanation: For years there have been errors made with patient specimens. The specimen requisitions and the specimen containers have been identified as the cause of some of these errors. Causes such as unlabeled specimens, empty containers, incorrect side designation, no identified tissue site or incorrect or no patient name has the potential to cause these errors also. Q. Hemostatic agents could include which of the following types? - A. Fibrin sealants and Active hemostats Explanation: The hemostatic agents include these types: Fibrin sealants Active hemostats Flowables Q. Of the following, which would be considered correct for how medications would typically be obtained in the surgical suite? - A. The circulating nurse obtains the medications and then delivers them to the scrub technician. Explanation: The circulating nurse who is nonsterile typically obtains the medications, prepares them, and then delivers them to the scrub technician who remains sterile. The sterile scrub technician is the person responsible for passing the medications to the surgeon during the procedure. When the scrub technician passes the medication, they should clearly state the name of the medication and strength to the surgeon Q. Which of the following is a right of patients? - A. Right to self determination, right to fair treatment, and right to privacy and dignity.

Explanation: The American Nurses Association created five basic rights for patients. These rights protect patients. They include: right to self determination, right to privacy and dignity, righty to anonymity and confidentiality, right to fair treatment, and right to protection from discomfort and harm. Q. The tissue in a person's brain and spinal cord which carries electrical impulses from one part of the nervous system to another would be considered which of the following? - A. White Matter Explanation: The white matter in the brain is made up of nerve fibers which have the responsibility of carrying the electric impulses through the nervous system. Unlike the gray matter, the white matter actually contains very few cell bodies. Q. Piaget's formal operations stage begins when a person reaches the age of? - A. 11 Explanation: Piaget's formal operations stage begins at age 11 years and continues through adulthood. The child can think logically about abstract positions and test hypotheses; can further develop logical thinking and reasoning; and achieves cognitive maturity. Q. Which of the following types of scissors would be considered tissue or dissecting scissors? - A. Sharp and Blunt. Explanation:The type of scissors to be used will be determined by the surgeon. This will depend on the type and location of the tissue that is to be cut. For tissue or dissecting, the sharp or blunt scissors are most often used Q. Which of the following is not factor in determining nursing priorities? - A. Determining the easiest tasks Expanation: A nursing priority mistake is performing the easier tasks first. The ease of a task does not determine priorities. The other answers need to be considered when determining nursing priorities. Q. A surgical procedure that replace part of a joint with a prosthesis is commonly referred to as which of the following? - A. Artheroplasty Explanation: Artheroplasty is the replacement of part of a joint with a prosthesis. Examples of such would include a hip artheroplasty or a knee artheroplasty.

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Q. An emergency cart should be in the operating suite at all times. This cart should include all of the following except? - A. Traction equipment Explanation: An emergency cart would not include traction equipment. An emergency cart should include: Intravenous fluids Resuscitation medications Life-support equipment Intravenous access equipment Q. Which of the following nursing interventions is least likely to be used for a patient with unstable angina? - A. monitoring for bleeding Explanation: Nursing considerations for a patient with unstable angina would include all of the choices except this one. Other considerations include: recording the amount of medication required to relieve pain, obtaining cardiac enzyme levels, administering oxygen, and administering medications as ordered. Q. A patient is being positioned for surgery and the genitalia and breast are padded. Which of the following positions would the patient more than likely be in? - A. Prone Explanation: If a patient is placed in a prone or any other position where they are face down, their genitalia and breast should be padded. Other parts that would need padding would include: Dorsum of the foot to protect the toes Anterior knees of kneeling patient Face/forehead/ears Q. What is a Gruenwald forceps be used for? - A. Gruenwald forceps would typically be used for neurological and nasal procedures. The Gruenwald bayonet forceps is considered a dressing forcep. They have a spring handle, long shanks, serrated jaws and are about 8 inches long. Q. To monitor the body tempature, which two indicators should be assessed? - A. Core and skin temperature Explanation: Routine monitoring of body temperature should include measuring the core and skin temperature. The nurse will also consider the patients age and body weight when identifying an outcome for this parameter. For instance, patients who are overweight may be less sensitive to the cold.

Q. A high pitched, short, soft sound produced by percussion over dense tissue is known as which of the following? - A. Dullness Explanation: Dullness results from percussion over dense tissue such as the liver or heart. It is a high-pitched, short, soft sound Q. Operating room attire can consist of which of the following? - A. Shoe covers and head covers. Explanation: This attire can consist of: Shoe covers Head covers Mask Eyewear Two piece pant-suite For the sterile personnel, surgical gowns and gloves would be added Q. Which of the following is true of the action stage? - A. It is the most risky stage of change, as it has the most potential for relapse Explanation: The action stage is considered the most risky stage of change. It is during the action stage that most people relapse into prior risky or unhealthy behaviors. Q. Which of the following weight loss surgeries is solely a restrictive type of surgery? - A. vertical banded gastroplasty Explanation: Restrictive and malabsorptive-restrictive are the two types of surgeries primarily used to promote weight loss. In gastric restriction, also known as vertical banded gastroplasty and adjustable gastric banding, the size of the stomach is surgically decreased so that a patient feels full after eating a small amount of food. The other choices are malabsorptive- restrictive procedures. Q. Use of gluteraldehyde would be an example of which level of disinfection? - A. High level Explanation: Housekeeping disinfectants and disinfectants used for surgical instruments are not interchangeable because of the level of disinfection. Gluteraldehyde is considered a high level disinfectant that is also capable of sterilizing items. Q. What is a common complication with drainage systems? - A. Infection

Explanation: Infection is a common complication of drainage tubing. The site of the tube insertion should be constantly monitored to ensure there are no changes in the skin. Q. Severe and sustained hypertension or hypotension can occur when the local anesthetic epinephrine is given with all of the following except for? - A. Povidone-iodine Explanation: Local anesthetics may have severe adverse reactions with other drugs. Epinephrine is one drug that may react adversely with other drugs. For instance, severe and sustained hypertension or hypotension can occur when the local anesthetic epinephrine is combined with tricyclic anti- depressants, monoamine oxidase inhibitors, and phenothiazines. Povidone-iodine is commonly used for prepping the surgical site and is not a common risk with epinephrine. Q. A health promotion stratey that is focused on returning a patient to optimum health and functioning is known as which of the following? - A. Tertiary prevention Explanation: Tertiary prevention strategies are focused on returning a patient to optimum health and functioning after illness or injury. Rehabilitation, physical therapy, and health counseling are all tertiary prevention strategies. Q. Which of the following would be considered correct for the interaction between the pathogenic microorganism, the environment, and the host? - A. Infectious disease process Explanation: The infectious disease process would be the interaction between the pathogenic microorganism, the environment, and the host. The infectious disease process consists of six stages. Q. The electronic information on a computer is referred to as ______? - A. Data Explanation: Inputting would be the process of entering information into the computer. Images would be pictures on the computer screen. The process is used in order to make the equipment work. The electronic information is referred to as data. Q. Nursing supervision generally involves all of the following except for: - A. Providing licensure or certification for nurses

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Explanation: The nursing supervision role is broad and varies from facility to facility. In general, nursing supervisors provision orientations, in- services, and continuing education. They discuss policies and procedures with nursing team members and conduct performance appraisals. They do NOT certify, license, or provide credentialing for nurses. Q. The ability to recognize one's own emotions and the role they play in the care relationship is known as which of the following? - A. Emotional intelligence Explanation: Emotional intelligence is a key component of quality care. This is the ability to recognize one's own emotions and the role they play in the care relationship. This includes emotional reactions to patients whose beliefs, practices, and values may be very different from your own. Q. A dynamic state of well being that includes the physical, social, spiritual and cultural factors of a family Is known as the following? - A. Family health Explanation: Family health focuses on the many factors that can impact the functioning of both members of a family and the family system. When working with pediatric, elderly, disabled, or very ill patients, assessing family health is especially key, as these patients are likely to be highly dependent on family for daily needs and for caregiving. Q. The _____ must be consulted when the nurse is creating goals and plans? - A. Patient Explanation: The goals and expected outcomes are based on the needs and expectations of the patient. You need patient buy in for patients to achieve the outcomes. The family may assist, but the patient must be consulted. Q. What is the last part of a research study? - A. Discussion section Explanation: The last part of a research study is the discussion section. In this part of the study, the researches put together all of the information from the study and look at it in a single picture. Q. What is one role of the risk manager in a healthcare facility providing perioperative services? - A. Evaluate outcomes of patient care Explanation: Risk management in healthcare facilities oversee any concerns related to hazards for patients and staff. They evaluate outcomes of patient care and often work closely with performance improvement committees to provide quality care and minimize facility costs.

Q. There are two respiratory movements in breathing, one that draws air into the lungs and one that forces air out of the lungs. These movements would be referred to as which of the following? - A. Inspiration/expiration Explanation: Inspiration is the drawing of air into the lungs while expiration is forcing the air out of the lungs. These are the two movements involved in breathing. The control centers for each of these movements is located in the medulla. Q. A patient outcome must be measurable and observable. All of the following are appropriate parts of a measurable outcome EXCEPT: - A. evaluative language Explanation: Evaluative language is not a part of writing a patient outcome that is measurable and observable. The parts of a measurable and observable outcome include: subject, verb, conditions, performance criteria, and target time. Q. Which of the following is NOT a clinical sign of malnutrition? - A. increased skin turgor Explanation: Clinical signs of malnutrition appear in areas of rapid turnover of epithelial and mucosal cells. The signs include dry, flaky, or discolored skin; brittle hair and nails; bleeding gums and swollen tongue; muscle wasting; decreased skin turgor; ascites; and peripheral edema. Q. A family which has difficulty budgeting, providing proper nutrition, and otherwise meeting the basic needs of its members is known as which of the following? - A. Chaotic Explanation: A chaotic family may have financial difficulties, which can lead to difficulties in providing for basic needs. This may not be intentional, but the result of instability due to unemployment and other factors. The patient may see the nurse as a much-needed source of stability and thus want to depend on him or her. When working with a chaotic family, establish trust and work to help the family get basic needs met. Q. The Swan-Ganz catheter is threaded towards the heart through all the following veins, EXCEPT? - A. External jugular Explanation: The external and internal jugular are a pair of veins that collect blood from the head, brain, face, and neck. The Swan-Ganz catheter is threaded through the internal jugular into the subclavian vein towards the heart.

Q. SSI stands for? - A. Surgical site infection Explanation: SSI stands for surgical site infection. SSI is often the result of contamination of the tissues by microorganisms during the intraoperative period. Q. The _____ saw is an unpowered type saw that is used during amputations? - A. Gigli Explanation: Most saws and bone-cutting instruments are powered. The one that is not powered that is commonly used during an amputation would be the Gigli saw. Q. LEEP stands for which of the following? - A. Loop electrode excision procedure Explanation: LEEP stands for loop electrode excision procedure The loop electrode excision procedure is a electrosurgical loop technique which can be used to help remove a core of tissue from the patient's cervical canal. Q. Patients with congenital or valvular heart disease or prosthetic valves are susceptible to what? - A. Bacterial endocarditis Explanation: The patient who has a congenital heart defect, valvular disease or a prosthetic valve is at risk for developing bacterial endocarditis. Acute bacterial endocarditis affects the lining of the heart valves, while bacterial meningitis affects the lining of the spinal column and brain. In both cases, antibiotics are used to treat the condition Q. Which of the following would be considered the study of occurrence and distribution of disease? - A. Epidemiology Explanation: Epidemiology would be considered the study of a diseases' occurrence and distribution. Epidemiology could also be considered the sum of all of the factors which controls the presence or absence of a disease. Q. Perioperative nursing includes three phases of the surgical experience. In which phase would the nurse assess the cardiovascular, pulmonary, GI, and neurologic systems for baseline functioning? - A. preoperative phase Explanation: Perioperative nursing includes three phases of the surgical experience: preoperative, intraoperative, and postoperative. Physical assessment such as assessing the cardiovascular, pulmonary, GI, and

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neurologic systems for baseline functioning is part of the preoperative phase. Q. Which of the following would not be considered a comorbid condition which would be considered important to the risk assessment in anesthesia for the patient with an endocrine disorder? - A. Cirrhosis Explanation: Cirrhosis would be a condition of hepatic disease. The endocrine disorder would include these conditions: Diabetes mellitus Thyroid disease Parathyroid disease Hypothalamic pituitary adrenal disorder Q. Postprocedural pneumonia is treated with which of the following? - A. Antibiotics Explanation: Antibiotics are used to treat postcedural pneumonia. In more severe cases, bronchoscopy may be required. Q. Your patient has been diagnosed with multiple sclerosis and is having a hard time dealing with the diagnosis. She tells you that she feels helpless and worthless to her family now. She is having a problem with which of the following stages of Maslow's hierarchy of needs? - A. self-esteem needs Explanation: This patient is not meeting her self-esteem needs. At the level of self-esteem needs, when a person doesn't meet the need to feel self- confident and valuable as a person, she feels helpless, and worthless. Q. A patient voices his concerns to the nurse about being able to maintain a recommend exercise program and diet. The nurse finds community resources to help the patient post-discharge. This nurse shows an example of which counseling skill? - A. Facilitation Explanation: Counseling skills are important to helping patients make behavioral changes. In this case the nurse best exemplifies facilitation because she directs the patient to resources necessary to make the recommended lifestyle changes.

SURGICAL FIRST ASSIST TEST 1 COMPLETE EXAM UPDATE WITH ALL QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

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