CRJ150 Q5 and Q6

Quiz #5 will cover Chapters 9-11. Quiz #6 will cover Chapters 12-14. Please make sure you use the answer sheet. Quizzes are due in the classroom OR my emailbox by Wednesday, 05/10. Quiz #5: Chapters 9-11 Chapter 9 1. What type of jurisdiction of a state court would handle a felony charge? a. special b. general c. minimal d. limited e. criminal 2. What type of state court jurisdiction would handle a traffic ticket? a. special b. general c. minimal d. limited e. civil 3. What are discussions between the defense counsel and the prosecution in which the accused agrees to plead guilty in exchange for certain considerations (such as reduced charges) referred to as? a. plea bargaining b. imploration requesting c. declaration of entreaty d. intermediate sanctioning e. demands for diminished sanctions 4. Approximately what percent of criminal appeals are processed by the nation’s appellate courts? a. 10 b. 25 c. 40 d. 50 e. 75 5. In what case, did the Supreme Court reaffirm the legitimacy of its jurisdiction over state court decisions when such courts handle issues of federal or constitutional law? a. Martin v. Hunter’s Lessee (1816) b. Georgia Diagnostic v. Davis (1901) c. Burgoyne v. Butler (2002) d. Plessy v. Ferguson (1872) e. Bush v. Gore (2000) 6. Which of the following are reasons for court congestion, as presented in the text? a. rapid population decreases in some areas b. less aggressive policing tactics that target minor offenses (such as panhandling) c. the crime rate, which is always on the rise d. legal reforms and new laws e. incentives for lawyers to get as many plea bargains as possible

7. Which individuals are responsible for delivering jury instructions? a. judges b. prosecutors c. defense attorneys d. bailiffs e. senior court clerks 8. Assume that the United States is on the verge of passing mass immigration reform laws that mandate the granting of immediate citizenship to all illegal aliens, of any nationality, at the start of the new year. The legality of the case was heard in federal court and is now in the hands of the Supreme Court. How many justices must agree that the matter is worth hearing in the Supreme Court before the case will come before them? a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 e. 9 Chapter 10 9. The legal and administrative actions that take place after arrest and before trial are called ______. a. indictments b. arraignments c. complaints d. pretrial procedures e. due process procedures 10. In which case was the U.S. Supreme Court’s interpretation of the Eighth Amendment’s provisions on bail set in 1951? a. Stack v. Boyle b. Crosby v. Malkin c. Tennessee v. Martin d. McNamara v. Driscoll e. Illinois v Gates 11. Under what condition could a defendant be eligible for pretrial release? a. unconditional bond b. release on recognizance c. criminal bail d. unconditional bail e. preventative detention 12. Defendants who are rearrested for a felony while out on bail are referred to as ______. a. preventive detainees b. avertable recidivists c. obviate detainees d. precluded recidivists e. double timers

Chapter 11. 19. Which of the following was the most common state-administered punishment in early Greek and Roman civilizations? a. mutilation b. burning at the stake c. banishment d. the death penalty e. service in the military 20. Which of the following ended the transportation of prisoners from England to the United States? a. The War of 1812 b. The Revolutionary War c. The publication of The Fatal Shore d. France’s participation in the free trade act of 1786 e. The Battle of Waterloo 21. Which of the following assumes that the act of sentencing a person to life in prison for murder will serve as an example for other people? a. specific deterrence b. incapacitation c. retribution and just desserts d. general deterrence e. direct incapacitation 22. What term refers to the court process that is aimed at sparing non-dangerous offenders from the stigma and labeling of a criminal conviction and further involvement with the justice process? a. diversion b. incapacitation c. restoration d. rehabilitation e. equity 23. How many days could be deducted from a federal inmate’s sentence each year for good time? a. 10 b. 54 c. 107 d. 125 e. 180 24. Under truth-in-sentencing schemes, what percent of the sentence must an offender serve before being eligible for release? a. 65 b. 75 c. 85 d. 90 e. 100

25. Brent Weir is arrested for driving under the influence (DUI) in Ohio. On the night in question, Mr. Weir’s blood alcohol level was 0.16, twice the legal limit in Ohio. Brent has no prior arrests, has a college degree, and runs a local hotel in the Cleveland area. If the judge were to sentence Brent to six months in jail and $2,500 in fines, this would be an example of ______. a. general deterrence b. specific deterrence c. unambiguous deterrence d. exclusive deterrence e. direct incapacitation Quiz #6 Chapter 12 26. Which is a reason for the attractiveness of community sentences? a. They are less costly than a sentence to jail or prison. b. They help the victim maintain family and community ties. c. They can be structured to minimize security and maintain public safety. d. They are typically not scaled in severity to correspond to the seriousness of the crime. e. They deter future crime. 27. Which is a benefit of community sentencing that includes probation? a. It is more costly than jail or prison. b. It helps the offender maintain family and community ties. c. It acts as a means of general deterrence. d. It gives victims a “second chance.” e. It increases plea bargaining. 28. The medieval practice of allowing convicted offenders to go unpunished if they agreed to refrain from any further criminal behavior was known as ______. a. judicial waiver b. recognizance c. revocation d. judicial reprieve e. restoration 29. The modern idea of probation is credited to ______. a. Lawrence Driscoll b. John Augustus c. John Howard d. Zebulon Brockway e. Sir Robert Peel 30. What is one of the jobs of a probation officer? a. diagnosis b. risk classification c. creating probation laws d. meeting with victims e. prison supervision

36. A correctional facility designed to hold convicted violent felons while they serve their criminal sentence is a ______. a. jail b. prison c. boot camp d. house arrest e. penitentiary 37. A correctional facility designed to hold pretrial detainees and misdemeanants serving their criminal sentence is a ______. a. jail b. prison c. boot camp d. house arrest e. penitentiary 38. The birthplace of the modern prison system and the Pennsylvania system of confinement was at the ______. a. Pittsburgh City Jail b. Quaker Village Penitentiary c. Walnut Street Jail d. Philadelphia House e. Scranton Reform School 39. Which prison system eventually won out as the model used in the United States? a. Auburn b. Pennsylvania c. Philadelphia d. Quaker e. Scranton 40. Which model is a view of corrections holding that convicted offenders are victims of their environment who need care and treatment to transform them into valuable members of society? a. medical model b. treatment model c. warden-centered system d. custodial system e. gate-keeper perspective 41. What type of prison uses high- level security measures to incapacitate the nation’s most dangerous criminals? a. maximum-security b. super- maximum-security c. medium-security d. minimum-security e. halfway house

42. Three brothers were arrested over a seven-year period for three different crimes. The oldest brother, James, was arrested for second-degree murder and was sentenced to 20 years in prison. John, the second brother, was arrested for drug possession and was sentenced to 13 months in prison. Jason, the youngest, was arrested for grand larceny and is currently serving four to seven years in prison. John would most likely serve his time in what type of prison? a. minimum-security b. medium-security c. maximum-security d. super-maximum-security e. halfway house Chapter 14. 43. Before inmates are sent to prison, they must first go through a battery of psychological and personality tests in a process known as ______. a. cataloging b. divisional placement c. correctional clutching d. classification e. an entrance exam 44. What term refers to the loosely defined culture that pervades prisons and has its own norms, rules, and language? a. inmate social code b. inmate subculture c. prisonization code d. inmate cipher e. prison rules 45. How many inmates report being sexually victimized by a guard or inmate? a. One in 10 b. Three in 10 c. Five in 10 d. Eight in 10 e. Nine in 10 46. According to what theory does rioting and other forms of collective violence occur when prison officials make abrupt efforts to take control of the prison and limit freedoms? a. administrative-control b. inmate-balance c. prison overcrowding d. inmate deterrence e. repression-aggression