LAWS 1002 B- Mock Exam1

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Course: LAWS 1002 B Facilitator: Brie Bhasin Mock Exam It is most beneficial to you to write this mock midterm UNDER EXAM CONDITIONS . This means:   1. • Complete the midterm in 120 Minutes .   2. • Work on your own and attempt every question.   3. Keep your notes and textbook closed.     After the time limit, go back over your work with a different colour or on a separate piece of paper and try to do the questions you are unsure of. Record your ideas in the margins to remind yourself of what you were thinking when you take it up at PASS.   The purpose of this mock exam is to give you practice answering questions in a timed setting and to help you to gauge which aspects of the course content you know well, and which are in need of further development and review. Use this mock exam as a learning tool in preparing for the actual exam.   Please note:  Complete the mock exam before attending the take-up session. During the session you can work with other students to review your work.     Often, there is not enough time to review the entire exam in the PASS workshop. Decide which questions you most want to review – the Facilitator may ask students to vote on which questions they want to discuss in detail.    Facilitators will not distribute an answer key for mock exams . The Facilitator’s role is to help students work together to compare and assess the answers they have. If you are not able to attend the PASS workshop, you can work alone or with others in the class.     PASS worksheets are designed as a study aid only for use in PASS workshops. Worksheets may contain errors, intentional or otherwise. It is up to the student to verify the information contained within by attending the PASS workshop.    Good Luck writing the Mock Exam!!   Take-up Session #1: April 14 th , 11:35-1:25 pm (MacOdrum Library 402) Take-up Session #2:   April 15 th , 12:05-1:55 pm (Paterson Hall 111)    Office Hour: April 16th th , 11:05-11:55 am (Southam Hall 308)   Contact Information: Briebhasin@cmail.carleton.ca     MOCK EXAM (FOR PRACTICE ONLY)
Course: LAWS 1002 B Facilitator: Brie Bhasin Mock Exam 1. Which of the following does Legal-Rational Authority NOT indicate: a) Authority is invested in a set of rules and rule-bound institutions b) Creating and changing the rules are outside of the direct control of those who administer them c) Authority derived from long-standing customs, beliefs, or traditions d) The power of individuals influences the process 2. What are the two resolution options on the spectrum a) Informal and Formal b) Mediation and Negotiation c) Formal and Objective d) Substantive and Private 3. Which of the following is NOT one of the 3 essential characteristics of Canadian courts? a) Adversarial b) Distanced c) Accessible d) Formality 4. Approximately how many criminal offences are “plead out” before trial? a) 15% b) 95% c) 53% d) 35% 5. Which of the following does NOT depict private settlement to public policy? a) Establish Norms b) Ratification c) Administrative Bureaucrats d) End cases 6. Which of the following is NOT a hurdle to seeking court dispute resolution as per Vago and Nelson? a) Justiciability b) Adjudication c) Standing d) Principe of de minimis non curat lex 7. What does “ubi jus ibi remedium” mean? a) The law does not deal with matters considered trivial b) Like cases be decided alike c) Justice delayed is justice denied d) No law without a remedy
Course: LAWS 1002 B Facilitator: Brie Bhasin Mock Exam 8. Which best describes the principle of de minimis non curat lex? a) Trifles b) Issue of personal damages c) Defining legal relations d) Framework for private individual ordering 9. Which of the following best describes an adversarial court structure? a) Determines between at least two competing truths, judges appointed from lawyers, best outcome emerges through competition, and aims to determine the independent truth of the case. b) Judges play a passive role, often a panel of judges, determining between at least two competing truths, and the trial process. c) Judges passive, determines between at least two competing truths, best outcome emerges through competition, and trial. d) Judges are active, professional judges, trial process, the best outcome emerges through competition. 10. Which of the following are the two main principles of the Adversarial System? a) Party-autonomy and Party-Prosecution b) Informal and Formal c) Subjective and Objective d) Onus on Crown and Onus on Party 11. Which of the following is NOT a reason for more legitimacy? a) In line with liberal political and economic ideology b) Cathartic Effect c) Appearance of impartiality d) Justiciability 12. Which of the following best summarizes Frank’s Fight theory vs Truth Theory? a) Objective measures can never yield the truth b) Courts only facilitate legal fights c) Inquisitorial systems always treat justice like a fight, rather than allowing the truth to prevail d) The law needs to outweigh the factual evidence of a case 13. Frank says we must acknowledge that frequently we are: a) Overlooking what true justice means b) Selling justice c) Treating conflict as property d) Allowing the institution to dominate us 14. Which of the following is NOT one of the four themes mentioned as an alternative to the inquisitorial system? As per Kent Roach. a) Greater role for judges
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Course: LAWS 1002 B Facilitator: Brie Bhasin Mock Exam b) Law Appeals c) Innocence Commissions d) Innocence Procedures 15. Which of the following is NOT one of the underlying issues exasperated by the adversarial system? a) Alienation b) Responsibilitization c) Outcomes d) Criminalization 16. What does the acronym C.A.S.E stand for? a) Cost, accessibility, speed, and efficiency b) Crime, access, systems, efficiency c) Crown, Adversarial, Systemic, Efficiency d) Crown Culture, Adversarial, State-sponsored, Evidence 17. Which of the following is NOT one of the 3 Broad Critical Perspectives on ADR? a) Liberal Critique b) Conflict Perspective c) Critical Legal Perspective d) Feminist Perspective 18. Who looks at the concept of Harmony Ideology? a) Nader b) Fiss c) Frank d) Black 19. Which of the following is NOT one of the core elements of restorative justice? a) Penalty Phase b) Accountability of offenders c) Not limited by expertise and is informal practice d) Offenders need to recover (return to status quo) 20. Which of the following is NOT one of Daly’s Limits? a) Sincere apologizes may be difficult to achieve b) The potential to re-traumatize victims c) Procedure is easier to achieve than restorativeness d) It inhibits the accountability of offenders
Course: LAWS 1002 B Facilitator: Brie Bhasin Mock Exam 21. Which of the following is NOT one of the objectives of drug treatment courts? a) To encourage and strengthen the use of alternatives to incarceration, with a particular emphasis on Indigenous men and women and sex workers. b) To assist offenders in gaining a better understanding of their addiction and ultimately lead them towards a life of recidivism. c) To build knowledge and awareness among criminal justice, health and social services practitioners, and the public about drug treatment courts. d) To collect information and data on the effectiveness of the Drug Treatment Courts to promote best practices and continue the refinement of approaches. 22. Therapeutic Justice places a new focus on the offender as a: a) Autonomous individual b) Perpetrator c) Patient d) NCR individual 23. Which of the following statements is false: a) Law and Science are both processes of truth production b) There is a short history of science in the courts c) Law is still perceived to be the dominant discourse as judges still act as gatekeepers d) Science and law together cause an interplay of common sense and expert knowledge 24. Which is NOT one of the 3 reasons that law is different from science? a) Not probabilistic b) Independent and not partisan c) Specific case at hand d) An equitable balance can be reached 25. Which is the key question to assess from the case against William Mullins-Johnson a) Is law’s reliance on science, then, the problem or the solution? b) Is there too much reliance on professional codes of conduct? c) Should the law be less adversarial, and science must recognize the need for closure? d) Should reconciliation be the solution? 26. Former Chief Justice McLachlin comments: a) Problems go beyond isolated acts of bad apples in the system b) We need repeat players in the Justice System as they maximize resources for the rule change c) Middle-class Canadians increasingly frozen out of the judicial system d) Elaborated codes of practice need to be uncovered 27. What does Chief Justice McLachlin propose to deal with the uses of addiction and mental illness which she says continue to overwhelm the courts? a) An emphasis on ADR measures
Course: LAWS 1002 B Facilitator: Brie Bhasin Mock Exam b) Specialized Courts c) Judicial panels d) Inquisitorial integration 28. According to Galanter, the legal system is composed of 4 elements; which of the following is NOT one of them? a) Parties b) Disputes c) Rules d) Lawyers 29. Which of the following is NOT true with regards to Repeat-Players? a) Stakes and risks are lower in each individual case b) Long-term interest in the make-up of the rules and institutions c) Not interested primarily in rule change but in the resolution of their own case d) Use the courts in many similar litigations over time 30. Which of the following is NOT a reason that RPs have an advantage? a) RPs have ready access to specialists b) RPs can play the rules c) RPs willing to spend resources to achieve rule change d) RPs prioritize the resolution of their own case 31. Which of the following is an identified problem with overload in the court system? Answer as per your lecture. a) Dominates interests b) Eliminates party-autonomy c) Increases costs to the parties d) Favours priorities unjustly 32. Which of the following is NOT one of the 4 strategies proposed for reform? a) Improved Legal Institutions b) Rule-Change c) Improved Legal Services d) Improved Strategic Position of the Haves 33. Which of the following is NOT an element of Judicare? a) Fee-for-service b) Role of the lawyer is to mitigate and eliminate power inequalities c) Maintain the system’s Status-Quo d) Problem-solving focus 34. Which of the following is NOT an element of legal services? a) Focus on issues that affect the marginalized the most
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Course: LAWS 1002 B Facilitator: Brie Bhasin Mock Exam b) Elimination of poverty/inequality c) Same service for all d) Neighbourhood oriented 35. Which of the following is a limit to accessing legal aid? a) It maintains a norm that one must earn a certain amount of money to qualify; hence, socioeconomically disadvantaged individuals are denied the service. b) It maintains a selective standard, and lawyers can choose whatever cases they wish to take on, allowing them to select the ones they believe will be most beneficial for them. c) It has a threshold of how little individuals must make, and individuals who do not earn accordingly are screened out. Unfortunately, it is an extremely small sum of money. d) Legal aid does not accept all cases and it is quite selective in what is accepted. 36. What is the percentage of cuts in Ontario (referring to legal services)? As per your slides. a) 67% b) 30% c) 15% d) 82% 37. Tort is mainly trying to establish: a) Guilt b) Sensibility c) Liability d) Negligence 38. What is the standard for tort? a) Balance of probabilities b) Beyond a reasonable doubt c) Burden of proof c) A balance of means 39. Criminal law replaces traditional practices of legalized _______ and __________. Fill in the blanks. a) Revenge and Compensation b) Codification and Standardization c) Order and Security d) Justice and Reparations 40. Criminal law is tied to the goals of the state. Which two goals of the state? a) Order and Peace b) Security and Standardization c) Justice and public order d) Security and Order
Course: LAWS 1002 B Facilitator: Brie Bhasin Mock Exam 41. Which of the following is NOT one of the 3 Types of Offences? a) Offences against persons b) Offences against property c) Offences considered to be evil in and of themselves d) Offences against society 42. Which of the following is FALSE about mens rea? a) It stands for guilty mind b) It is a zero-sum measure c) Mens rea must be established for a conviction to be entered d) There is a subjective and objective strand 43. Which of the following is NOT one of the 3 Elements of Mens Rea? a) The accused made a choice to do something deemed wrong by the law b) The choice was made freely c) The choice had to be pre-meditated d) The accused must be able to recognize that the choice was wrongful 44. What are the four levels of intent for different crimes? a) Knowledge, intent, recklessness, and carelessness b) Negligence, willful blindness, knowledge, advanced c) Recklessness, carelessness, intent, and pressure d) Consideration, intent, recklessness, deliberation 45. Which of the following is NOT one of the 3 Elements of Actus Reus? a) Conduct b) Circumstances c) Consideration d) Consequences 46. Which of the following is the main argument of the R.v. Bedford case? a) The criminalization of practices associated with sex-worker was causing more harm to sex workers than the good it was trying to achieve b) Sex working in Canada is considered obscene, and a community standards test is required to address this. c) The prohibition on sex work in Canada has prompted sex workers to actively pursue legal complaints. d) It is an inequitable paradox that selling sex is illegal, yet purchasing it is not.
Course: LAWS 1002 B Facilitator: Brie Bhasin Mock Exam 47. Which of the following is NOT one of the fails, of the government response to the Bedford case? a) Increased surveillance of Sex Workers b) Limit the role of third parties c) Ongoing Stigma and Discrimination d) Increased communication with sex-workers 48. Which of the following groups is not seen as disproportionately overrepresented in the CJS? a) Men offenders b) Unemployed individuals c) Women-as-victims d) Seniors 49. In Toronto, Black individuals are more than ____ likely to be checked (carded) a) 10x higher b) 8x higher c) 7x lower d) 17x higher 50. What does, Fruit of Poisoned Tree refer to? a) Criminalization/Marginalization leads to symbolic and practical effects, which lead to each other. b) Justice system into disrepute c) When an ordinary person in the situation would feel they were not free to leave d) CJS needs major repair and numerous problems including racism, incompetence, indifference, etc. 51. Which of the following is a myth of overrepresentation? a) Social and Economic inequalities b) Differential Enforcement c) Biological reasonings d) Systemic Racism 52. Entry into the CJ process is all about what? a) Sentencing stage b) Momentum c) Systemic Oriented and Actor Oriented change d) Trial processes 53. Which of the following is not another solution proposed by the Royal Commission? a) Judicial inquires b) Alternative Structures c) Cross-Cultural Training
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Course: LAWS 1002 B Facilitator: Brie Bhasin Mock Exam d) Sentencing adaptation 54. Which of the following is NOT one of the 3 roles that victims are reduced to? a) To supply the system with conflicts b) To supply evidence c) To maintain power imbalances d) To serve as a ceremonial or symbolic presence, legitimizing the State’s actions against the accused 55. Who said, “Crime is the price that society pays for the possibility of progress- more reason why society should compensate those few who are martyrs to its health? a) Durkheim b) Patricia Clarke c) Donald Marshall d) Vago and Nelson 56. Patricia Clarke believes that victims have _________ participation in the CJS. Fill in the blank. a) Superficial b) Misguided c) Universal d) Zero 57. Which of the following is NOT one of the common solutions to victim marginalization? a) Victim advocates b) Victim Impact Statements c) Victim bill of rights d) Victim legislation 58. Green believes that Crown culture leads to: a) Mistrust of individuals b) Tunnel Vision c) Discrimination in hiring practices d) Maverick actors 59. Which of the following is NOT one of the 3 necessary elements needed for a contract? a) Offer b) Consideration c) Acceptance d) Lawful purpose 60. A Breach of Contract is the breach of a ____ to behave or not to behave in a certain way. a) Duty b) Promise c) Expectation
Course: LAWS 1002 B Facilitator: Brie Bhasin Mock Exam d) Obligation 61. Which of the following is NOT one of the 3 types of torts? a) Intentional tort b) Negligence c) Accident d) Omission 62. The standard for claims in negligence is a failure to act, often referred to by a: a) Foreseeable and Substantial risk b) Duty of care c) Duty of a reasonable person d) Proximity 63. Which of the following is NOT one of the defences in negligence? a) Voluntary assumption of risk b) Accident c) Contributory negligence d) Delayed reactivity 64. Which of the following is NOT one of the big issues in tort? a) Should tort be eliminated? b) Does the tort system meet its goals? c) Should torts seek to denounce more? d) Does tort disadvantage the have-nots? 65. Which of the following is NOT a critique offered by critics on if Tort law is effective? a) Tort provides compensation to a very small number of victims b) Victims must make a substantial investment to initiate the process c) It is generally accepted that the mechanism is an extremely inefficient mechanism to provide compensation d) The victim must show need, rather than fault and can only recover damages if fortunate enough to be wronged by someone with assets. 66. Which of the following consists of those processes which produce and reaffirm the existing social order and thereby legitimize class domination? a) Ideological Domination b) Neoliberalism c) Keynesian Economics d) Homogenous Societies
Course: LAWS 1002 B Facilitator: Brie Bhasin Mock Exam 67. The Donoghue v. Stevenson case (1932) determined which of the following: a) The standard of a reasonable person needs to be upheld in a court of law, especially in instances of reasonable foresight. b) Manufacturers owe ultimate consumers (proximity is extended), and the neighbour principle. c) Inadequate warnings can consist of negligence in a duty to warn d) There are other remedies available in tort law 68. Which of the following is NOT true regarding family law in Canada: a) Divorce rate is x4 higher than in the 1960s b) Common-law relationships are less widespread. Court has not recognized spousal obligation in the absence of marriage. c) Reproductive technologies are effective and widely accessible in modern society d) In the 1960s, the family was a “nuclear” two-parent family, with a male breadwinner and a female caregiver who depending on socio-economic status might also work PT out of the home. 69. What kind of jurisdiction does Canada have in Family Law? a) Provincial Jurisdiction b) Divided Jurisdiction c) Federal Jurisdiction d) Civil Jurisdiction 70. Which of the following is NOT one of the State’s roles in marriage? a) The state maintains a clear role in when and how marriages are formed and dissolved b) Over time this has not lessened but the state has made it easier for divorces to be granted and allows for more private ordering. c) Family law, like all law, runs into procedural issues of evidence and standards in resolving disputes between parties and may contribute to inequality or promote a flawed status quo d) Family law maintains hierarchies and the intersectionality of marriages in the justice system 71. The post-1968 Divorces Act, removed the necessary condition of ______ from divorce. a) Fault b) Mutually agreement c) 1 Year minimum d) Civil law 72. Which of the following is NOT one of Mnookin’s 4 reasons offered in association with court involvement? a) Ceremonial Function b) May effect-out-of court settlements c) Review ensures “fair outcomes” and fairness between parties d) Women’s spousal rights
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Course: LAWS 1002 B Facilitator: Brie Bhasin Mock Exam 73. Which case highlighted the parens patriae jurisdiction? a) Childs v. Desmoreaux b) Donoghue v. Stevenson c) A.A v. B.B d) Mustapha v. Culligan of Canada 74. Which of the following is the definition of patriae jurisdiction? a) The requirement of the State to act in the best interests of persons who are unable to care for themselves. b) Manufacturing duty of care extends to every consumer of that initial product c) Family is unmoored from biology, status, and gender norms. d) You have a duty of care to help someone in a dangerous situation 75. Which section of the charter was examined to determine its constitutionalism in the Polygamy Reference? a) s. 293 b) s. 274 c) s. 97 d) s.137 76. A jury is supposed to be: a) Shaped to include a variety of critical perspectives offering valuable testimony to the law b) A jury of one’s peers c) Corrective administration d) A tailored community from a selected location 77. Approximately how many criminal cases in Canada are decided by a jury? a) Just less than 50% b) More than 95% c) Around 35% d) Less than 10% 78. Which section of the law protects juries? a) s.47 (b) b) s.11 (f) c) s.21 (a) d) s. 91 (b) 79. Which of the following is NOT true about jury nullification? a) It is extremely rare b) It is referred to as the CJS’s dirty little secret c) Judges are not allowed to tell juries about this power
Course: LAWS 1002 B Facilitator: Brie Bhasin Mock Exam d) If a jury refers to nullify, they are called a “hung jury” 80. Which of the following describes the Morgentaler Amendment? a) Nullification de factor power not right b) Abortions in Canada were decriminalized c) Supreme Courts could no longer be bound by their own decisions d) Appeal courts could no longer overturn juries 81. What is it called when a jury cannot reach a unanimous decision? Choose the best answer. a) Split jury b) Divided juries c) Hung Jury d) Imbalanced Juries 82. Which of the following is NOT included in the reasoning that Brooks and Doob provide for juries being unable to reach a verdict? a) Swayed by emotions b) Discrimination c) Increasing complexity of trial d) Arguments presented were not convincing 83. Which of the following corresponds best with Butler’s Thesis? a) Race is a legally and morally relevant factor to consider in determining guilty in cases b) Moral responsibility of Black jurors is to not emancipate some guilty Black jurors c) The CJS unfairly targets and cards Black individuals d) Increased surveillance in lower socio-economic neighbourhoods is another form of government control 84. Which of the following represents an, “us vs them” culture that is increasingly normalized? Choose the best answer. a) Medicalization b) Paramilitary Subculture c) Crown Culture d) Criminalization 85. Which of the following are often the 2 broad and traditional approaches to reform? a) Training and an increase in hiring minorities within legal institutions b) Defunding the police and training c) Training and community policing d) Culture of silence and prison abolition
Course: LAWS 1002 B Facilitator: Brie Bhasin Mock Exam 86. Which of the following statements is false: a) Suicide rates are higher for police officers, as are divorce rates b) Police officers heavily deal with the issue of mistrusting others c) Police officers are not alienated from communities and so do not develop insular communities and culture d) Police have strong discretion within CJS matters 87. Which of the following is false regarding defunding the police? a) Overall, 51% support defunding the police and 49% opposed it. b) 70% of Gen Y supported defunding the police, and 39% of Boomers. c) In rural areas 60% supported defunding the police, and 40% of urban recommended defunding. d) One goal of defunding the police is to showcase the costs of policing and determine where these funds could be better implemented. 88. The outcome of the Jane Doe case was that the police had a duty to warn but did not. Thus, it was determined that the police were: a) Negligent and stereotypical b) Blinded and negligent c) Slow and failures d) Within their rights to withhold information and prevent mass chaos 89. How many lawyers are there in Canada? a) 550,000 b) 100,000 c) 3,000,000 d) 300,000 90. Which of the following statements is false? a) There is a lack of diversity, disproportionately higher than other professionals b) Racialized lawyers earn less c) There are significant accessibility barriers to entering law school d) Discrimination in society is not mirrored in the legal profession but rather protects against it 91. Approximately how much debt may a student in law school leave with? a) $1,000,000 b) $80,000 c) $243,000 d) $54,000
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Course: LAWS 1002 B Facilitator: Brie Bhasin Mock Exam 92. Which of the following is NOT a reason why the LSATs suck, as per your lecture slides? a) It is an unfair predictor of student success b) It measures other factors such as community involvement, social attributes, etc. c) They are a biased instrument d) Only 1/15 students can successfully complete them 93. Which of the following is NOT one of Dodek’s 3 Categories of Lawyer Power? a) Collective power b) Bargaining power c) Individual power d) Status power 94. “From Umpires to Clerks. From Gavels to Rubber Stamps,” is an example of: a) Criminalization b) Settlement c) Bureaucratization d) Air of Formality 95. There is pressure to make courts (as per your lecture): a) Open and transparent b) Accessible and Informal c) Regionally representative d) Secular and distinguished 96. Which of the following is NOT something the Canadian Judicial Council can do? a) Investigate b) Admonish judge for behaviour c) Transfer the judge’s ruling region d) Make recommendations to whom Parliament can remove 97. Which of the following does Justice Wilson believe? a) Bias in inescapable b) Impartiality and neutrality are not synonymous c) To be superhuman means you must not concede women d) Having fewer women on the bench will make a positive difference in law 98. The long history of judicial independence can be found where? Choose the best answer. a) In legislation by the Judicial council b) Judges Act c) Constitution d) Tenure Agreement
Course: LAWS 1002 B Facilitator: Brie Bhasin Mock Exam 99. Who believed that we could identify law by its institutional form, which for them meant its bureaucratic form? a) Weber b) Mnookin c) Brooks d) Roach 100. Approximately what percentage of cases end with not guilty? a) 15% b) 3% c) 35% d) 68% 101. Define, “Ad Hoc” a) A decision made at that moment for a specific purpose. b) The law is not concerned with trifles c) Law cannot be used neutrally d) The decision is appealed on an issue of fact 102. Which form of ADR gives all the power to the parties? a) Negotiation b) Mediation c) Arbitration d) Substantive 103. Which form of ADR adds a third party to take some of the power (including Ombudsmen processing), but not done formally. a) Arbitration b) Mediation c) Negotiation d) Substantive 104. Which of the following statements is true? a) We have a narrow view of victims in our justice system. When someone is victimized usually there are a lot of people who are victimized. b) Victim impact statements are read before a jury delivers their verdict and often have great influence. c) Double victimization is the process in which a victim is a victim by their perpetrator multiple times, as a result of police and legal actors not dealing with the situation when it happened. d) What constitutes an expert is an objective standard
Course: LAWS 1002 B Facilitator: Brie Bhasin Mock Exam 105. Who discusses how we might be able to recognize how the current system always advantages the haves? a) Galanter b) Weber c) Green d) Roach 106. Which of the following is associated with structural analysis? a) Everyone in the structure seems to be doing everything right, but the system still fails. b) We need to rebuild the structures from the ground up to achieve meaningful reform c) Less about one specific system but looking at all of them. d) We must evaluate each level of a structure to determine where there are errors 107. Patricia Clarke says that often when we talk about victim rights, we fail to acknowledge what we really mean by the rights of victims, and that is the right to ________. a) Report b) Influence c) Participate d) Re-direct 108. The Three components of a contract, are also commonly referred to as: a) The triangular bond b) The holy contract trinity c) The necessitates d) Exchanges 109. How does the role of the federal and provincial government differ when it comes to marriage? a) Provincial governments legitimize marriages for the provinces, but Federal governments do not. b) Federal government intervenes in the process of marriage and the provincial government does not. c) Canada has a divided jurisdiction in family law, so both the federal and provincial governments have an equal part in defining marriage. d) Federal governments define marriage, but provincial governments marry 110. Which is the way that the Parens Patriae may come? a) Rescue a child from danger b) Where the law does not seem to be applicable c) Where there is an established duty of care d) All of the above e) both a and b f) both a and c
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Course: LAWS 1002 B Facilitator: Brie Bhasin Mock Exam g) both b and c 111. What does double jeopardy mean? a) You committed two crimes, so one more and you were sentenced indefinitely b) You cannot be tried for the same crime twice c) You cannot enter a plea bargain if you have entered one in the past d) If you have a hung jury twice, your case is automatically decided by a judge GOOD LUCK WITH YOUR EXAM!!!!