1,3,4 smartbook ?'s pdf

1. What is defined as the design, operation, and improvement of the systems that create and deliver the firm's primary products and services. Operations and supply chain management. 2. Inventory turnover is a way to evaluate. Supply chain efficiency. 3. Is defined as one or more activities that turn inputs into outputs? TRANSFORMATION PROCESS 4. MAKING Is where the major product is produced, or the service provided? 5. A process that cannot be weighed or measured is known as? INTANGIBILITY 6. When can a service innovation be patented? NEVER 7. Operations and supply chain management is focused on the systems that create and deliver an organization's products and services. True 8. Which of the following is an example of a goods producing business? An automobile manufacture and a jewelry store 9. The specifications of a service are defined and evaluated as a package of features that affect the five senses. which of the following is not one of those features? Self-serve services 10. What does medical care fall on the goods-service continuum? PURE SERVICES 11. Which of the following is a characteristic of goods? TANGIBLE 12. There are five essential differences between services and goods. which of the following is not one of those differences? Service are inherently homogeneous 13. PURE Services may need little in the way of facilitating goods, but what they do use are critical to their performance. 14. Which of the following is an example of a service business? 15. Variety, consistency, quantity of the physical goods that go with the service; for example, and the food items that accompany a meal service. Facilitating goods 16. Building service activities into a firm’s product offering is known as? Product service bundling. PRODUCT SERVICE BUNDLING

17. Where do food products fall on the goods-service continuum? PURE GOODS 18. Who works with people to figure out the best way to deliver the goods and services of the firm. OSCM manager 19. A process that cannot be weighed or measured is known as? INTANGIBILITY 20. Oversees all aspects of running a warehouse, including replenishment, customer order fulfillment, and staffing. WAREHOUSE DISTRIBUTION MANAGER 21. CORE GOODS Providers already provide a significant service component as part of 22. Doing the things that will create the most value for the company is? Effectiveness 23. A common set of financial indicators that wall street tracks to benchmark companies are called what? Management efficiency ratios 24. Product service bundling refers to a company building service activities into its product offerings for its customers. which of these service activities would not be included in the product-service bundle? PRODUCT DESIGN 25. A hospital wishes to improve its patient check in process by studying the check in process at the most renowned local hospital. what is this called? BENCHMARKING 26. An operations and supply chain manager helps firms determine the best way to deliver its goods and services. TRUE 27. Measures the number of times receivables are collected, on average during the fiscal year. Accounts receivables turnover ratio 28. oversees human resource management, staffing, supplies, and finances at a health care facility. HOSPITAL ADMINSTRATOR 29. Formula for inventory turnover. Cost of goods sold/average inventories. 30. Doing something at the lowest possible cost is known as? EFFICIENCY 31. Which of the following is used to calculate inventory turnover? 32. A process in which one company studies the processes of another company for best practices is known as. BENCHMARKING

8. A contract manufacturer is an organization that performs manufacturing and/or purchasing needed to produce a product or device for whom? ANOTHER FIRM 9. What are the outputs of the detail design phase. Check all that apply. The specifications of purchased parts The process plans for the fabrication and assembly of the product Drawings or computer files describing the geometry of each part 10. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a core competency? Immediate financial improvement 11. Phase number _5_ is the production ramp-up phase of product design. 12. How many total phases are in the generic product development process? 6 stages 13. True or false: The planning phase precedes the project approval. TRUE 14. Which of the following describes a market-pull situation? THE MARKET DRIVES THE DEVELOPMENT DECISIONS. 15. In what phase are the needs of the target market identified? CONCEPT 16. Characteristics of the product are highly constrained by the production process. PROCESS-INTENSIVE PRODUCTS. 17. True or false: The testing and refinement phase precedes the detail design phase. FALSE 18. Identify the activities of the production ramp-up phase. Begin operation of entire production system Evaluate early production output Place early production with key customers 19. In developing technology-push products, a firm begins with what type of technology? Check all that apply. Proprietary New 20. Different organizations may follow a different product design process. TRUE 21. A platform product is built around a preexisting technological subsystem. TRUE 22. When a firm begins a new product and uses appropriate technologies to satisfy the market, that is known as a MARKET PULL. 23. System must be decomposed into several subsystems and many components. COMPLEX SYSTEMS 24. Which of the following is a case when the production process has an impact on the properties of the product? PROCESS INTENSIVE PRODUCT. 25. Which of the following is the type of product that is developed in response to a specific order by a customer? CUSTOMIZED PRODUCT 26. Which of the following best describes technology-push products? I. Begins with a new technology and looks for an appropriate market II. Looks for an appropriate market and develops a new technology

III. Purchases new technology and creates an appropriate market 27. The generic product development process is modified to face high-risk situations by taking steps to address risks in the earliest stages of product development. 28. Which of the following is not a platform product? A FUEL CELL MOTORCYCLE 29. For quick-build products, what happens when time or budget run out? Check all that apply. Low-priority features may be omitted Features may be added to the next generation 30. CONCURRENT ENGINEERING emphasizes cross-functional integration and concurrent development of a product and its associated processes. 31. For a process-intensive product the product design cannot be separated from the production process design. TRUE 32. Which of the following criteria involves designing the product so that it can be produced at a low cost? VALUE 33. Customized products are slight variations of what? STANDARD CONFIGURATIONS 34. Designing for aesthetics is generally termed. INDUSTRIAL DESIGN 35. What types of risk are involved in high-risk products? TECHNICAL AND MARKET 36. The QFD process begins with studying and listening to Blank ______ to determine the characteristics of a superior product. CUSTOMERS 37. Which type of product takes advantage of the fast prototyping cycle by using the result of each cycle to learn how to modify the priorities for the next cycle. QUICK BUILD PRODUCTS 38. A matrix that helps a product design team translate customer requirements into operating and engineering goals. HOUSE OF QUALITY 39. When designing a complex system, SYSTEM LEVEL DESIGNS BECOME CRITICAL.

55. A matrix that helps a product design team translate customer requirements into operating and engineering goals. HOUSE OF QUALITY 56. Which of the following is not one of the basic categories of cash flow for a typical new-product development project? RESEARCH COST 57. Which of the following is used to understand project trade-offs? SENSITIVITY ANALYSIS 58. Which of the following is not a performance measure for new product development projects? COMPETITIVENESS CHAPTER 4 SMARTBOOK ?’S 1. Which of the following types of projects represents the most amount of change? a. breakthrough projects 2. Which of the following are required for a project? Check all that apply. a. Series of related jobs b. Requiring a significant period of time c. Having a major output 3. All of the following are constraints addressed in project management except: a. People 4. All of the following are types of project organizational structures except. a. Process 5. A benefit of a pure project is that you share equipment and people across projects. a. False 6. Which of the following types of projects represents the least amount of change? a. Derivative projects 7. Which of the following is defined as a series of jobs usually directed toward some major output and requires a significant period of time to perform? a. Project 8. An advantage of a functional project is that team members can work on multiple projects at once. a. True

9. Which of the following are resources controlled by project management? Check all that apply. a. Material b. People c. Equipment 10. Which of the following is not a form of a matrix project? a. Major 11. Identify the three main forms of project. a. Pure project b. Functional project c. Matrix project 12. A project milestone is a specific event in a project. 13. Which of the following are advantages of a pure project? Check all that apply. a. Team pride, motivation, and commitment are high. b. Lines of communication are shortened. c. Team members report to one boss. d. The project manager has full authority over the project. 14. The work breakdown structure is further subdivided into TASKS. 15. Which of the following is not a major development project category? a. Product development 16. What term describes the group of activities assigned to a single organizational unit? a. Work package 17. Which of the following are advantages of the functional project organizational structure? Check all that apply. a. A team member can work on several projects. b. The functional area is a home after the project is completed. c. Functional-area experts creates synergistic solutions to technical problems. d. Technical expertise is maintained within the functional area. 18. Which of the following are disadvantages of the matrix form of project organization? Check all that apply. a. Suboptimization is a danger. b. There are two bosses. c. It is doomed to failure unless the project manager has strong negotiating skills. 19. A specific event that should be reached at a certain point in time are often referred to as? a. Project milestone 20. What term best describes the written description of the objectives to be achieved in a project? a. A statement of work. 21. The hierarchy of project tasks, subtasks and work packages is known as a work breakdown structure.

38. Rank the following terms in regards to a project from the highest level down to the lowest. a. Program b. Project c. Task d. Subtask e. Work package 39. Which of the following is not a step in CPM? a. Calculate the shortest path 40. The foundational principle of EVM is that a true understanding of stock performance relies first on measuring technical performance objectively. a. False 41. For the schedule and cost variances greater than zero is generally good. 42. How many immediate predecessors does B have? a. One 43. is based on the assumption that project activity times can be estimated accurately and that they do not vary. a. CPM critical path method 44. critical path method IS THE LONGEST CHAIN OF ACTIVITIES IN A PROJECT. 45. In the below identification of Activity C, the number represents which of the following? C(4) a. The expected duration 46. For some activities in a project there may be some leeway in when an activity can start and finish. This is called the a. Slack time 47. A schedule that lists all activities by their early start times is a(n) a. Early start schedule 48. How many immediate predecessors does A have? a. None 49. Activity A is a predecessor for Activities B and C. When determining the late finish time for Activity A, you select a. The smaller of the late starts for B and C 50. When a single time estimate of an activity completion time is not reliable, you should use. a. Three-time estimates 51. When calculating the slack time of an activity, it is the difference between an activity's. a. Late start and early start times 52. What are the points in time that we need to calculate for each activity in the project? a. Late finish time b. Late start time c. Early finish time

d. Early start time 53. Activities that need to be completed before an activity are referred to as a. Immediate predecessors 54. The ESTIMATED activity time is calculated using a weighted average of a minimum, maximum, and most likely time estimate. 55. The early finish is calculated by. a. Adding the early start and duration 56. Which of the following is the formula for Z ? a. D-TE/ square root eo2 57. When calculating the expected completion time for an activity using the formula based on the beta statistical distribution, the most likely time is weighted times more than the optimistic and pessimistic times. a. 4 58. Time–cost models attempt to develop a minimum-COST schedule for an entire project. 59. For some activities in a project there may be some leeway in when an activity can start and finish. This is called the a. Slack time 60. Crashing creates a SHORTER project that costs MORE. 61. A schedule that lists all activities by their early start times is a(n) a. Early start schedule 62. The expected completion time is computed as a + Xm + bY �+Xm+�� . What are the values of X and Y, respectively. a. 4,6 63. The costs associated with sustaining a project are referred to as a. Indirect cost 64. When calculating activity variance, what is X in the following calculation? ( X 6 ) �6 2 a. B-a 65. Project managers are as much concerned with the COST to complete a project as with the TIME to complete the project. 66. The assumption needed to make a probability estimate in the three- time-estimate approach is that the activity duration times are random variables. a. Independent 67. refers to the compression or shortening of the time to complete the project. a. CRASHING 68. When working on time-cost trade-off projects, which of the following pieces of information is not required? a. Expected time 69. What is the major assumption when determining the cost per unit of time to expedite each activity. a. A linear relationship between time and cost 70. Which of the following is not a direct activity cost?