CNST 100 Final Study Guide

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CNST 100 Final Exam Study Guide Part I – Previous Quiz Questions Chapter 1 Quiz 1. What is the name of the stone carvings dating back to the pyramids that contained the first written regulations pertaining to construction, commonly referred to as the first known building code? A. Amon’s Law C. B. Rules of Osiris C. Code of Hammurabi D. Canon of Tutankhamen 2. By what specific measurement is construction used as an economic indicator for the U.S. economy? A. Housing starts A. B. Sales and Inventories C. Monthly sales for retail and food services D. Annual construction costs 3. Which of the following is NOT one of the primary sectors of the construction industry? A. Health Care Construction. A. B. Commercial Building C. Heavy Civil Construction D. Industrial Construction 4. What is the name of the organization credited with promoting construction management as a legitimate and unique area of study at four-year universities? A. Associated Schools of Construction (ASC) B. Accreditation Board for Engineering and Technology (ABET) A. C. Association to Advance Collegiate Schools of Business (AACSB) D. Design Build Institute of America (DBIA) 5. What is the role of the owner on a construction project? A. To develop the final building plans, specifications, and construction details B. To interpret the plans and specifications and prepare cost estimates and time schedules to meet the requirements of the project

C. To develop the program for the building, define the scope of the project, create the budget, and provide the funding for the project C. D. All of the above 6. What is the name of the weekly magazine dedicated solely to the construction industry? A. Environmental Design and Construction Magazine (ED+C) B. U.S. Developers Journal C. Construction Executive Magazine. D. D. Engineering News Record (ENR) 7. Which of the following is NOT associated with the construction industry? A. Associated General Contractors (AGC) B. Associated Builders and Contractors (ABC) C. National Builders Organization (NBO) C. D. National Association of Home Builders (NAHB) 8. What does LEED stand for? A. Leaders Enriching Environmental Decisions B. Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design B. C. Light Emitting Energy Drivers D. None of the above 9. What two construction associations offer voluntary certification programs for construction managers? A. American Institute of Constructors (AIC) B. Construction Management Association of America (CMAA). D. C. Associated School of Construction (ASC) D. Both A and B 10. What is lean construction? A. Philosophy that focuses on adding value with less work and the elimination of waste in the building process B. Fast tracking the construction project to finish faster. A. C. Reducing costs by value engineering D. Utilizing sustainability practices for construction methods 11. What industry does the lean concept stem? A. Farming Industry B. Health Care Industry C. Homebuilding Industry D. Manufacturing Industry. D.

12. Who are the primary players in a construction project? A. Owners B. Design Professionals C. Construction Professionals D. All of the above. D 13. By whom was the first form of concrete used? A. Greeks B. Egyptians C. Romans. C D. Venetians 14. Which of the following is a primary player in a construction project? A. Owner B. General Contractor C. Architect D. All of the above. D 15. Who is considered by many to be the precursor to the modern-day architect? A. Leone Battista Alberti. A B. Frank Owen Gehry C. Benjamin Latrobe D. Zaha Hadid Chapter 2 Quiz 1. All of the following are functions of construction management except: A. Financing the project A. B. Planning the project C. Scheduling the project D. Estimating the project 2. Which is not a part of the three-legged stool of construction? A. Time B. Cost C. Quality D. Efficiency 3. Which of the following is the definition for project scope? A . Sets the parameters for the work and defines what work needs to be done. A

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B. Sets the budget as identified by the chief estimator C. A set of guidelines that establishes the budget for the project D. None of the above 4. Which of the following is NOT a project delivery method? A. Agency CM B. CM-at-Risk C. Design-Bid-Build D. Design-Build. D 5. Who determines what method of delivery is used on a project? A. General Contractor B. Architect C. Engineer D. Owner. D 6. What sums up the role of an area superintendent? A . Assists the project superintendent on large projects. A B. Company’s representative at the job site C. Oversee one specific branch of labor D. None of the above 7. What sums up the role of a field engineer? A. Works directly for the superintendent B. Responsible for project layout and dimensional accuracy C. Responsible for communication with subcontractors D. All of the above. D 8. What is the best description of design-build construction? A. The owner contracts with a design-build entity, which is responsible for the design and construction of the project B. The owner has the project designed, then a design-build entity takes it to completion C. The design-build entity designs the project, then sends it to a general contractor for construction D. The general contractor is only a part of the design-build entity for the construction phases of the project 9. What sums up the role of the quantity surveyor? A. Works with the senior estimator B. Must have a basic understanding of the construction process C. Good plan-reading skills

D. All of the above 10. Which of the following is considered a trait of a good construction manager? A. Tenacious B. Risk-taker C. Business knowledge D. All of the above 11. Open bidding is required on public projects because _____? A. They are funded by taxpayer dollars. A B. They require an invitation to bid C. They are only available to certain contractors D. They are funded by private officials 12. What is the tool used to reduce the number of bidders on a public project and to increase the quality of the contractor pool? A. Invitation to bid B. Prequalification. B C. Requirement for proposal statement D. Detailed list of the company’s financial statements 13. Which type of bond guarantees that the payment for a contractor’s labor and materials used on the project will be made? A. Bid bond B. Payment bond C. Performance bond D. Labor and materials payment bond. D 14. Where are the notice documents that inform the public of upcoming projects found? A. Posted electronically on construction project lead services B. Newspapers C. Trade magazines D. All of the above. D 15. Identify the correct pairing of the most common procurement method and selection criteria? A. Design-build and low-bid selection B. Design-bid-build and qualifications-based selection C. Design-build and qualifications and prose selection D. Design-bid-build and low-bid selection. D

16. What is the name of the official document that notifies the contractor to start construction? A. Notice to proceed. A B. Startup letter C. Initiation notice D. Letter of intent. 17. Which best describes the weighted criteria evaluation process? A. Award the project based on high total points for qualitative and price components. A B. Award the project based on low total points for qualitative and price components C. Award the project based on low cost D. Award the project based on highest qualitative score 18. Which are factors that are commonly considered before deciding to bid on a construction job? A. Location of the project B. Size of the job C. Who the architect/owner is D. All of the above. D 19. If missing, which one of the below items would deem a bid nonresponsive? A. Bid bond B. Certificates of insurance C. Subcontractor lists D. All of the above. D 20. Narrowing the field of offers through the selection of the most qualified proposers on the basis of qualifications is known as: A. Shortlisting. A B. Best value C. Prequalification D. Technical proposal Chapter 4 Quiz 21. Today, when hand-drafted plans are reproduced, the product is referred to as_______. A. Blueprints B. Bluelines. B C. Vellum drawings D. CAD plans

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22. Which of the following documents expresses the quality of the work that is to be performed? a. Plans b. Details c. Sections d. Project manual. D 23. Who is involved in the production of the project drawings? a. Architect b. Civil Engineer c. Structural Engineer d. All of the above. D 24. Which of the following would you NOT expect to find on the drawings when a project is put out for bid? a. Owner’s name b. Contractor’s name. B c. Geographical location d. Sheet index 25. Which of the following drawings takes precedence if a discrepancy occurs in the plans? a. Plan view drawing b. Elevation drawing c. Section drawing d. Detail drawing. D 26. Which of the following drawings comes first in a set of plans? a. Structural drawings b. Architectural drawings c. Mechanical drawings d. Civil drawings. D 27. Which of the following is included in the bidding documents? a. Advertisement to bidders b. Instruction to bidders c. Agreement form d. All of the above. D 28. Which of the following is NOT discussed in the technical specifications? a. Owner provided materials. A

b. Material quality c. Standards of workmanship d. Methods of installation 29. In the CSI MasterFormat, which division contains “finishes.” a. Division 6 b. Division 7 c. Division 8 d. Division 9. D 30. Who determines the type of contract to be used on a construction project? a. Owner. A b. Architect c. Contractor d. Bonding agency 31. Which of the following contract types is most popular with design-build project delivery? a. Lump-sum b. Cost-plus-fee c. Guaranteed maximum price. C d. Unit-priced 32. Which of the following contracts is the most common on construction projects? a. Lump-sum. A b. Cost-plus-fee c. Guaranteed maximum price d. Unit-priced 33. Which of the following contracts is the most common on heavy civil highway-type construction projects? a. Lump-sum b. Cost-plus-fee c. Guaranteed maximum price d. Unit-priced. D 34. Which of the following would you expect to find in the supplementary conditions? a. Soil testing information b. Job signage requirements c. Phasing or special schedule requirements d. All of the above. D

35. How many divisions are there in the CSI MasterFormat? a. Five b. Twelve c. Sixteen d. Fifty. D Chapter 5 Quiz 36. Select the four fundamental stages of the construction management process. A. Pre-construction, procurement, construction, and post-construction. A B. Bidding, pre-construction, construction, and post-construction C. Design development, contract documents, pre-construction, and post construction D. Site layout, staging, SWPP, and warranty period 37. The design process has five distinct stages, what are they? A. Design, bid, build, warranty, operate B. Design, bid, contract award, notice to proceed, pre-construction C. Programming and feasibility, schematic design, design development, contract documents, and as-builts. C D. Design, award the contract, procurement, pre-construction, construction 38. Choose the best definition of due diligence as it pertains to construction. A. Extreme attention to detail B. The process of identifying any problems associated with the project early to be factored into decisions. B C. A late payment to be made to a sub-contractor D. Solving problems as they come to your attention 39. Name two procurement instruments used to buy out a job. A. Subcontracts and purchase orders. A B. Punch-out and commissioning C. Final documentation and inspection D. Subcontracts and bonds 40. What are three positions that typically make up members of the on-site management team? A. Estimator, contract administrator, and payroll B. Superintendent, assistant superintendent, project engineer. B C. Project engineer, foreman, estimator D. Estimator, payroll, human resources

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41. Which occurrence marks the official completion of the project? A. Certificate of occupancy B. Commissioning C. Final completion D. Certificate of substantial completion. D 42. ___________ keep track of and manages the completion of all loose ends, minor repairs, and adjustments at the end of the job. A. Punch list. A B. Field Engineers C. Owners D. Subcontractors 43. What process optimizes resources to achieve the greatest value for the money being spent? A. Pre-construction B. Commissioning C. Permitting D. Value-engineering. D 44. Select the correct chronological order of these milestones. A. Commissioning, certificate of occupancy, owner move-in B. Substantial completion, final completion, certificate of occupancy. B C. Owner move-in, punch out, final inspection D. Final completion, final inspection, punch out 45. What activities usually occur during the mobilization stage? A. Bidding, permitting, and value engineering B. Set up field office, secure site, provide and place portable toilets. B C. Site work, foundations, basement construction D. Final documentation, release retainage, owner move-in 46. Select the implied warranty. A. A warranty of fitness for a particular purpose. A B. A warranty that work will be performed in a good and workmanlike manner C. A warranty that materials will eb new and of good quality D. A warranty that the work will conform to the requirements of the contract documents 47. Select the following that are usually included in the final documentation to the owner.

A. Warranties, operation manuals, inspection and testing reports, and as-built drawings. A B. Certificate of occupancies, location of office trailer, and temporary utilities C. Punch lists and operations manuals D. Certificate of occupancy, commissioning papers, MSDS sheets 48. Select the best definition of as-built drawings. A. Record drawings completed by the contractor and turned over to the owner at the end of the project that identify changes to original plans and specifications. A B. The point at which all punch list work has been completed and the owner can occupy or take possession of the new facility C. A process of testing and checking all equipment and systems within the facility at the end of a project. D. Minor adjustments, repairs, and work items that must be completed 49. Select the best definition of punch list. A. A process of testing and checking all equipment and systems within the facility at the end of a project. B. Minor adjustments, repairs, and work items that must be completed. B C. The point at which all punch list work has been completed and the owner can occupy or take possession of the new facility D. Record drawings completed by the contractor and turned over to the owner at the end of the project that identify changes to original plans and specifications 50. Select best definition of substantial completion. A. A process of testing and checking all equipment and systems within the facility at the end of a project. B. Minor adjustments, repairs, and work items that must be completed C. The point at which all punch list work has been completed and the owner can occupy or take possession of the new facility. C D. Record drawings completed by the contractor and turned over to the owner at the end of the project that identify changes to original plans and specifications Chapter 6 Quiz 51. Who is NOT a key member of the project team? A. Owner B. Principle design firm C. Building inspector. C D. General contractor

52. What is a common factor that will influence your ability to trust or not trust members of your team? E. Relative power and authority F. Competence and ability G. Character H. All of the above. D 53. How is vulnerability-based trust related to accountability within the team? I. Team members should only focus on their own tasks and deliverables J. Team members should check in with one another to see how things are going. C K. Team members should concentrate on their own individual success L. Team members can choose whether or not to answer questions honestly 54. Which of these is NOT of the basic speech acts according to Fernando Flores? M. Requesting N. Promising O. Repeating. C P. Asserting 55. What is committed speaking? Q. Using non-specific language to convey your point R. Speaking during a meeting because it’s expected S. Moving through your points quickly to expedite communication T. Speaking with intention and using specific words to convey your exact meaning. D 56. What is an example of effective listening? U. Making sure you say what you need to regardless of who is talking V. Answering as soon as you think you know the question W. Paraphrasing to ensure your understanding. C X. Quickly evaluate what someone is saying 57. What is an example of effective speaking? Y. Ask for specifics and clarifications. A. Z. Ignore non-verbal cues AA. Don’t assign specific timing to tasks BB. Speak with broad statements 58. How does low-bid mentality challenge the ability for the AEC industry to make cultural shifts? CC. There’s no room for any real value generation DD. It limits innovative solution finding

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EE.It hinders the ability to optimize the client’s return on investment FF.All of the above. D 59. What is the difference between management and leadership? GG. We manage people and lead things HH. Management rarely comes with a title, but leadership frequently does II. We lead people and manage things. A JJ. Leadership focuses on the project while management focuses on the team 60. What is NOT a characteristic of an Integrated Project Leader (IPL)? KK. Has primary accountability for leading the design-build team LL.Always taking over the role of the superintendent on the team. B MM. Demonstrating a high degree of emotional intelligence NN. Understanding the various design practices and services provided by architects and engineers Chapter 7 Quiz 61. When does pre-construction take place? A. After the design is complete B. Before design is complete and construction begins. B C. During the bidding process D. Prior to the design phase 62. How can an owner benefit from alternative project delivery methods? E. Improved schedule F. Greater value G. Less waste H. All of the above. D 63. What is the definition of pre-construction services? I. Problem-solving issues that arise during the construction phase J. Construction activities that take place before the design phase K. Anticipatory planning, analytical, and evaluation activities that take place prior to construction. C. L. Services provided to the owner during the bidding process 64. Which one of these is NOT a pre-construction service? M. Submittals. A N. Feasibility studies O. Conceptual estimating P. Life-cycle cost analysis

65. Who benefits most from feasibility studies? Q. Contractor R. Architect S. Owner. C. T. Engineer 66. Who should perform the constructability review? U. Owner V. Contractor. B. W. Engineer X. Architect 67. What are two benefits of using conceptual estimating? Y. It helps clients and architects track the impacts of design as it develops. A. Z. It helps the contractor process change orders and submittals AA. It gives the owner cost certainty much earlier in the design process. C. BB. A and C 68. Which of these is NOT used to build a cost model? CC. Using current data from the project DD. Using historical data from previous projects. B. EE.Estimating based on similar projects FF.Using a model cost database. D 69. How can value be added to a project? GG. Improving benefits and reducing cost HH. Maintaining benefits and reducing cost II. Increasing benefits and increasing cost JJ. All of the above. D. 70. What is a life-cycle cost? KK. Short-term cost projections LL.Cost based on feasibility studies MM. Long-term cost projections for building use. C NN. Cost to operate a building for one year Chapter 8 Quiz 71. What is a construction estimate? A. Summary of probable costs of materials, labor, and equipment. A. B. Machine used in the field

C. A type of safety equipment D. None of the above 72. Which of the following is NOT a cost category in the construction estimate? A. Materials B. Labor C. Equipment D. Property. D 73. When meeting with a client for the first time, the estimate type we might use to help establish a rough budget is: A. Rough order of magnitude estimate. A B. Detailed estimate C. Quantity take-off estimate D. None of the above 74. Which is NOT one of the four preparation steps taken to start the estimating process when competing for a project? A. Review plans and specs B. Develop a query list C. Attend pre bid meeting D. Contract with subcontractors. D 75. What are general conditions? A. Indirect costs incurred to construct a project and run a job. A B. The overhead to run the office C. Costs of direct materials D. None of the above 76. What is a scope sheet? A. Identifies all of the items of work to be performed under a specific trade. A B. A cut sheet from the specifications C. Spreadsheet showing all current projects D. None of the above 77. When do you know the true accuracy of your estimate? A. When the project is complete and all actual costs are known. A B. As soon as you complete the estimate C. As soon as the architect presents you with the engineer’s estimate D. None of the above

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78. What might be the consequences of an inaccurate estimate? A. There are no consequences because the estimate is not legally binding B. If you overestimate you may not win the job C. If you underestimate you will lose money on job D. Both B and C. D. 79. An electronic pen-shaped stylus or mouse curser used in conjunction with software to assist the take-off task is a _________. A. Digitizer. A B. Electronic counter C. Take-off wizard D. Pendulum 80. A conceptual estimate is commonly used in what type of project delivery? A. Public work B. Low-bid C. Design-build. C D. Construction management 81. Which one of the below that is an indirect cost A. Material B. Supervision. B C. Labor D. Equipment 82. Which one of the below that is a direct cost A. Job trailer B. Bonds C. Insurance D. Subcontracts. D 83. An organizational tool utilized by the construction estimator to create the basic building blocks of both the estimate and schedule is called A. Work breakdown structure. A B. Scope definition C. MasterFormat structure D. Uniformat structure 84. Which one of the following that is used as resource for price and productivity A. Newspaper B. Magazines

C. R.S. Means. C. D. Search engine Chapter 9 Quiz 85. Who should ideally be at the pre-construction conference? A. Owner (or rep), Architect, Engineers B. Contractor’s PM, field staff, major subcontractors C. Public utility personnel, fire marshals, and other outside parties D. All of the above 86. What is the intent of partnering? A. To gather all stakeholders early in the project to establish accepted protocol. B. Create a win-win situation for everyone involved in the project. C. To make an alliance with the architect in order to control the design process. D. Both A and B 87. An RFI A. Asks the owner for clarification for a future team meeting time and place B. Is always easily processed and answered quickly C. Is a written request for clarification of a section of the plans or specifications D. Stands for Request for Initiation 88. Data, samples, details, colors, or product literature issued to the architect for approval are known as: A. Submittals B. RFIs C. Shop drawings D. Contract documents 89. What is the name for a physical model or small sample of construction to allow the architect and owner to review the appearance and function of materials, colors, textures, etc.? A. Submittal B. Shop drawing C. Mock-up D. Model 90. A shop drawing is typically produced by the: A. Owner B. Subcontractor or vendor

C. General Contractor D. Architect 91. It is best practice for the general contractor to pay the subcontractor: A. Only once the GC gets paid by the owner B. On time, despite the owner’s timing of payment C. Within 90 days of invoice D. Once the project is substantially complete 92. What is the name of the document that establishes the template for measuring work progress as it relates to requests for payment? A. Schedule of values B. Pay request continuation sheet C. Application for payment D. Retainage 93. What is the name of the document that formally and officially authorizes a payment to the contractor? A. Schedule of values B. Pay request continuation sheet C. Application for payment D. Retainage 94. LDs are A. Lost or damaged: Material that was delivered on site, yet has either been damaged by workers or weather or has been lost/stolen B. Late decline: If an architect responds to an RFI too slowly, the contractor may proceed as they like without repercussions C. Liquidated damages: A penalty assessed to the contractor for each day the projects extends beyond the necessary completion date D. Like design: Where the contractor claims that what has been installed is similar enough to the design that no replacement is necessary 95. A certain percentage of money owed to the contractor withheld to encourage completion of the project is known as: A. Withheld payments B. Retainage C. Lost wages

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D. Lost profit 96. The order of increasing cost and time commitment for the dispute resolution options is: A. Mediation, minitrial, arbitration, litigation B. Arbitration, mediation, minitrial, litigation C. Litigation, arbitration, minitrial, mediation D. Minitrial, mediation, arbitration, litigation 97. The mediator’s decision is________, and an arbitrator’s decision is ___________. A. Binding, Binding B. Nonbinding, Nonbinding C. Binding, Nonbinding D. Nonbinding, Binding 98. The most effective tool for tracking contract and project interactions is: A. Spreadsheets B. Log books C. File cabinets D. Contract administration software Chapter 10 Quiz 99. What is NOT one of the three main issues the superintendent must be concerned with when trying to manage construction operations. A. Subcontractor coordination B. Office communication structure. B C. Material and equipment deliveries D. Productivity 100. When scheduling subcontractors for the job, you should try to follow three fundamental rules. Which of the following is NOT one of them? A. Resist bringing subcontractors onto the job until you are 100 percent ready for them B. Make sure that once you bring a subcontractor on the job, they have everything they need to proceed C. Try to fit as many subcontractors into the same space at the same time to cut back on duration. C D. Pay all subcontractors promptly upon completion of their work 101. What does it mean to order something on will-call? A. Confirming an order day-of delivery that has been placed prior. A

B. Placing an order that can be picked up at the supplier’s facility C. Confirming an order with a signed paper D. Placing an order on good faith that it will arrive on time 102. Which is NOT a factor that negatively impacts construction productivity? A. Crowded work spaces B. On site meetings with the owner. B C. Poor supervision or lack of supervision D. Changes in the work plan 103. What is an environmental issue that would interfere with the project schedule and cause unexpected delays on the job? A. Discovering historical or cultural artifacts while excavating. A B. Migratory patterns of birds C. Dusty work areas D. A baseball field next to the site 104. What is a laydown area? A. The next area prepped for placing concrete B. A space designed for mock-up buildings C. A space set aside for labors who feel faint to lie down D. A designated storage area on site used for sorting out large orders. D. 105. On what kind of plan would a portable toilet, dumpsters, and on-site parking areas be shown? A. Site logistics plan. A. B. Site plan C. Necessities plan D. Job organization plan 106. Why is it important for the job superintendent and the other members of the onsite team to keep project diaries? A. In the stressful construction environment, it helps the team sort out their thoughts and feelings B. After the job is over others can read them and learn from their mistakes C. The diaries help to keep straight all of the communications, conversations, and activities. C. D. The owner requires that all members of the team submit a diary at the end of the project 107. Why is in important to accurately report hours and cost codes on time cards? A. If codes are recorded wrong on one time card then nobody gets paid

B. They provide fundamental information needed to track and monitor productivity and labor expenditures. B. C. Management doesn’t trust laborers and requires accurate time cards to verify their actual productivity D. They provide laborers with a personal record of their earnings so they can dispute management over compensation 108. What is one benefit of a webcam? A. Other companies can critic how well or poorly your project is going B. Management can stay in bed longer C. It can help increase overall owner involvement. C D. It can identify blemishes and mistakes on the building that are difficult to see close up 109. What does SWPPP stand for? A. Steam, Water, Pipes, and Plumbing Plan B. Storm Warning Prediction and Prevention Plan C. Storm Water Pollution Prevention Plan. C D. Steam Water Pollution Plumbing Plan 110. What would NOT be covered in a typical weekly subcontractor meeting? A. Changes in schedule B. Potential interface conflicts C. Procedural questions D. Performance reviews. D 111. What outside agency might a contractor never have to deal with in the course of construction? A. Independent testing agencies B. Marketing agencies. B. C. Utility companies D. Fire marshals 112. What are back charges? A. A fine charged to the contractor by the subcontractor for a failure to provide a clean working environment B. A fine issued by some contractors to subcontractors for failure to clean their working space and remove their waste from the site. B. C. A charge sent back to the owner from the contractor with a promise to remedy the cause of the fine D. Charges originally intended for subcontractors that the contractor ends up having to pay

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113. What are the three main responsibilities of a superintendent before construction can begin? A. Set up the field office, organize the job site, and establish the working hours. A B. Set up the field office, organize the job site, and clean the tools and equipment C. Set up the site logistics, organize the documenting process, and establish the working hours D. Clean the tools and equipment, hire laborers, and set up the site logistics Chapter 11 Quiz 114. What is the primary tool for project planning? A. Contract B. Plans and specs C. Cost estimate D. Schedule. D 115. The two types of schedules introduced in this chapter are? A. Gantt charts and network diagrams. A B. Linear schedule and bar charts C. Bar charts and fast-tracked schedules D. Network diagrams and continuous activity schedules 116. Gantt charts are used to: A. Show overall length of the project and each activity. A B. Show relationships between activities C. Show float D. Describe the work breakdown structure 117. What is one type of network diagram? A. Activity-on-date B. Activity-on-node. B C. Activity-on-dot D. Activity-on-backward pass 118. Which of the following is NOT a factor when determining what type of schedule to use? A. Size of the company B. Project size C. Requirements in the plans and specs D. Steel or concrete structure. D

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119. Which of the following is NOT how schedules are used? A. Detailed schedules B. Conceptual schedules. B C. Mini-schedules D. Special-purpose schedules 120. What is the typical period of time used in a short-interval schedule? A. One day B. Three months C. Three weeks. C D. One week 121. All of the following are stages of building a schedule except? A. Plotting stage. A B. Planning stage C. Scheduling stage D. Sequencing stage 122. All of the following are TRUE regarding project activities except? a. A task or function that has a time commitment b. Building blocks of all schedules c. Production, procurement, administrative d. Completing and submitting a bid. D 123. Long lead items that fall into procurement activities include which of the following? a. Steel b. Lighting c. Millwork d. All of the above. D 124. How do you determine the overall project duration? a. Add up all the durations created during the scheduling stage b. Add up all the durations assigned during the scheduling stage and multiply by 0.75 to account for activities occurring simultaneously c. Complete a forward and backward pass on your network logic diagram. C d. Use the length of the project allowed in the contract 125. The forward pass is used to determine the: a. Late start b. Early finish. B

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c. Late finish d. Float 126. What is a reason to update and communicate the schedule? a. The schedule is a dynamic tool b. Keeping owners and upper management informed c. Identifying when subcontractors need to have laborers on site d. All of the above. D 127. The network diagram of choice in the industry is the: a. AOA network diagram b. Gantt chart c. AON network diagram. C d. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) 128. In the activity-on-arrow network diagram the nodes are used to show what? a. Activities b. Start and end dates of the connected activities c. Relationships d. B and C. D Chapter 12 Quiz 129. What is NOT one of the fundamental steps that is included in the project control cycle? A. Develop the project plan B. Establish the project benchmarks C. Monitor the project performance D. Update technology. D 130. What is essential in an effective project control system? A. Information B. Good reporting system C. Both A and B. C. D. None of the above

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131. What is NOT an example of a source where you might gather field information needed to develop your project controls? A. Material invoices B. Requests for information. B C. Time cards D. Subcontractor billing statements 132. What is an example of a factor that can impact project performance? A. Weather B. Defective material C. Overcrowded job sites D. All of the above. D 133. What is an escalation clause? A. It is usually negotiated into the construction contract when there is suspicion that some pricing component of the estimate is in a high state of flux. A B. It is the same thing as a contingency and tries to account for unforeseen conditions C. It is a clause that covers risks associated with underground utilities, grading, and excavation D. None of the above 134. What is the riskiest element of the project control and project planning? A. Cost control B. Estimating productivity. B C. Scheduling D. None of the above 135. What does it mean to crash the schedule? A. To compress the overall schedule by accelerating certain activities within it so that they finish sooner. A B. Lengthening the overall schedule C. Taking out one task D. Combining tasks 136. What does it mean to forecast in project management? A. To estimate the weather delays B. Predict the startup cost of the project C. To predict the final cost and schedule outcomes on a project while the work is still in progress. C D. None of the above

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137. What are the three primary tracking elements when monitoring project performance? A. Quality, performance, and owner satisfaction B. Quality, cost, and time. B C. Cost, schedule, and risk issues D. Owner satisfaction, subcontractor delays, material deliveries 138. What is the cost code chart usually made up of? A. Activity B. Code C. Project number D. All of the above. D 139. The cost or time difference between the actual project performance and the planned project performance is the definition of what? A. Cost code B. Variance. B C. Escalation D. Actual costs 140. Periodic predictions stated in reports as to the final cost and schedule outcomes on a project while the work is still going on are known as: A. Forecasts A. B. Delay notices C. Risks registers D. None of the above Chapter 13 Quiz 141. All of the following are fundamental objectives of a quality management plan EXCEPT: A. Do things right the first time B. Prevent things from going wrong C. Appoint a quality manager. C D. Continually improve the process 142. Which of the following is a difference between quality control and quality assurance? A. Quality control happens at the project level while quality assurance happens at the process level A B. Quality assurance happens at the project level while quality control happens at the process level

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C. Quality control happens in the office while quality assurance happens in the field D. Quality control happens in the field while quality assurance happens in the office 143. Which quality control mechanism is NOT mandated by the construction contract and used to check for conformance to the plans and specifications? A. Submittals B. Mock-ups C. Shop drawings D. Bonding. D 144. What is the concept behind a zero-punch list? A. Complete the final walk-through with few or no punch items noted on the list. A B. Please every expectation of the owner C. To have no change orders on the project D. To ensure timeliness of deliveries 145. What is a FOR? A. A report used to track delivery of materials to the jobsite B. A report used to track questionable quality and safety performance on the jobsite. B. C. A report used to track changes to project scope D. A report used to track personnel on the jobsite 146. Which agency is responsible for establishing safety standards and enforcing them through inspections conducted at construction jobsites? A. PHSA B. UMED C. BBTK D. OSHA. D 147. Which of the following is NOT a primary component of an effective safety management plan? A. Personal protection B. Common sense. B C. Substance abuse policies D. Hazardous material communications 148. Which of the following is NOT a primary cause of injuries in the construction industry? A. Laziness. A B. Falls. C. Being crushed or trapped

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D. Electrical shocks 149. Which of the following is NOT an item of personal protective equipment that might be used by workers on the jobsite? A. Hardhat B. Gloves C. Sunglasses C D. Reflective vest 150. What is an MSDS? A. Maximum Strength Determination System B. Material Safety Data Sheet. B C. Minimal Safety Data Sheet D. Material Strength Data Sheet 151. Which of the following shows the general relationship between the level of quality and cost? A. When quality increases, cost increases. A B. When quality decreases, cost increases C. When quality remains stagnant, cost increases D. None of the above 152. Which of the following does NOT describe preparatory inspections? A. Preparatory inspections are sometimes called pre-inspections B. Preparatory inspections are designed to check progress C. Preparatory inspections are never done by personnel employed by the contractor. C D. Preparatory inspections make sure everything is ready for the next stage of construction 153. Quality assurance includes all of the following practices EXCEPT: A. Hiring practices B. Training programs C. Employee incentives D. Testing standards. D 154. The name of the testing agency for construction in the United States is: A. MSTA B. MTAS C. ATSM D. ASTM. D

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155. Which of the following is NOT a type of personal protection equipment? A. Body protection B. Skin protection. B C. Head protection D. Hand Protection Chapter 14 Quiz 156. If a project is high risk or complicated, how can you mitigate risk? A. Add contingencies B. Joint venture C. Decline project D. All of the above D. 157. What should be paramount when considering construction risks? A. Materials B. Safety. B C. Labor availability D. Theft issues 158. What risk does the contractor have the least control over? A. Construction B. Financing C. Political / legal / regulatory. C. D. Environmental 159. What issues impact the community or nearby businesses? A. Working hours B. Dust C. Site access D. All of the above. D 160. What type of public projects are likely targets for protest? A. Prisons B. Sewage plants C. Industrial facilities D. All of the above D 161. What type of project is NOT susceptible to environmental issues? A. Every project is at risk. A B. Water systems

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C. Industrial facilities D. Sewage plants 162. Who is likely to create a joint venture? A. Contractor and subcontractor B. Two or more general contractors. B C. Chief estimator and senior project manager D. Subcontractors and owner 163. Who should be involved in a risk evaluation? A. Estimator B. Project Manager C. Subcontractor D. All are recommended. D 164. When is a risk analysis for a project NOT required? A. You are familiar with owner B. You have performed on similar projects multiple times C. It is not stated in the general or supplemental conditions D. A risk analysis should always be done D 165. Which is NOT a risk mitigation strategy? A. Risk retention B. Risk delivery. B. C. Risk abatement D. Risk allocation 166. What two factors are used to complete the risk rating? A. Probability and impact. A B. Consequence and strategy C. Factor score and probability D. Impact and factor score 167. Risk management includes which of the following? A. Identification B. Mitigation C. Quantification D. All of the above. D 168. Which best describes a latent design defect? A. Change in design standards

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B. Noncompliance with design standards C. Incomplete design that delays construction D. Unknown flaw in design that is revealed after construction D Chapter 15 Quiz 169. What is a BIM model? A. A 2D model of a 2D set of drawing documents B. A digital representation of the physical and functional characteristics of a building displayed as a 3D model B. C. A 3D model of a building without digital representation of the physical and functional characteristics D. A 2D set of drawings for combined for differing trades 170. Virtual construction is defined as: A. Using a hologram to give a digital representation of an existing project. B. An in depth 1/8th scale model with accurate placement of MEP and all architectural elements C. A process by which the builder simulates, analyzes, and plans a building project in a computer before the actual construction process. C D. An up-to-date model of as-built in a computerized environment in order to help with historical data 171. How is a design-intent model different from a construction model? A. A design intent model focuses on communicating design information through a 3D model while a construction model does not. A B. A construction model focuses on communicating design information through a 3D model while a design intent model does not C. A design model contains construction-specific information such as cost data and scheduling duration and sequences D. There is no difference between a construction model and a design-intent model 172. How is a central repository approach different from the distributed repository approach? A. The distributed repository approach is still a theory and is considered not feasible by many people in the construction industry B. A central repository approach consists of a collection of separate databases which a BIM model can link to C. A central repository approach consists of one database while a distributed repository approach is a collection of separate databases. C. D. The distributed repository approach links all information of a BIM model to one database 173. What is clash detection?

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A. A strategy used to determine how effectively members from different trades will get along with one-another during the construction phase B. A process for effectively identifying unintended conflicts between material or trade interfaces in a 3D project model. B C. The process of organizing drawings in a systematic fashion so one can easily find the details needed to construct the project D. Creating lift-drawings between different scopes within the drawing set 174. Which two create the 6 th and 7 th dimensions of BIM A. Schedule and estimate B. Material data and cost data C. Sustainability and facility management. C D. Means and methods 175. What does the term interoperability mean? A. Restricting the capability of a system to interact with other systems in order to be more efficient B. The capability of a system to interact with other systems without access or implementation limitations or restrictions B. C. The process of creating a 3D video display of a computer-generated virtual reality environment D. The process of linking an estimate and a schedule to a BIM model 176. Which of the following is NOT a common way that contractors use BIM? A. Design assistance and review B. Site planning and utilization C. Integration of subcontractor and supplier data D. Determining owner and end-user needs. D. 177. What is stereoscopic projection? A. A site utilization tool used before the construction process takes place B. A system which links an estimate and a schedule to a BIM model C. A 3D video display of a computer-generated virtual reality environment. C D. An integrated process of determining best practices for operations and maintenance 178. When did CAD start making its way into the market place? A. 1960s B. 1990s C. 1970s. C D. 2000s 179. Which of the following can be assigned to an object in a 3D model? A. Size B. Manufacturer C. Installation data D. All of the above D.

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180. Which of the following are ways contractors can use BIM? A. Constructability review B. Design assistance C. Prefabrications D. All of the above D. Chapter 16 Quiz 181. Which of these is part of the life-cycle of building products? A. How materials are extracted and processed B. How materials are purchased and used C. How materials are disposed of D. All of the above D 182. Define Life-Cycle Cost Analysis (LCCA). A. Determining the most cost-effective option among different alternatives. A B. Determining which products are the least expensive in the short-term C. Determining which options will keep the project on schedule D. Determining which options will have the fewest change orders 183. Which of these is NOT a principle of sustainable building design? A. Protect and conserve water B. Enhance indoor environmental quality C. Using the least expensive heating and cooling options C D. Optimize operational practices 184. How can we reduce and optimize energy use? A. Give each building occupant access to adjust the heating and cooling systems B. Specify energy efficient HVAC and lighting systems C. Use programmable thermostats and occupancy sensors D. Both B and C. D 185. Which of these is NOT a green building material? A. Reclaimed material B. Disposable material C. Local material. B D. Rapidly renewable material 186. How can construction waste be minimized? A. Recycling B. Reusing. C. Eliminating waste in the first place

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D. All of the above. D 187. What is the triple bottom line? A. Measuring business success by financial performance, environmental factors, and social factors. A. B. Making sure the project comes in under budget, on time, and meets the owner’s expectations C. Tracking the budgets of the contractor, architect, and engineer D. Analyzing the conceptual estimate, final cost, and life-cycle analysis 188. Which of these is NOT a type of environmental performance measurement? A. Water quality B. Electricity consumption C. Hazardous waste quantities D. Building occupancy D. 189. What does the acronym LEED stand for? A. Leadership on Enterprising Environmental Design B. Leadership on Energy and Environmental Design. B C. Leadership on Energy and Electrical Design D. Leadership on Electricity and Efficient Design 190. Which of these is a level of LEED certification? A. Bronze B. Compliant C. Platinum. C D. Green Part II – CSI Divisions You will be quizzed over the CSI MasterFormat. This section will be comprised of 25 matching or multiple choice questions where you will either be given the name or the number of a CSI division and must match it to its corresponding name or number.

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