Study Guide: Essentials of Industrial Hygiene Concepts

NATIONAL SAFETY COUNCIL MISSION STATEMENT The mission of the National Safety Council is to educate and inﬂuence society to adopt safety, health, and environmental policies, practices, and procedures that prevent and mit- igate human suffering and economic losses arising from preventable causes. COPYRIGHT, WAIVER OF FIRST SALE DOCTRINE The National Safety Council's materials are fully protected by the United States copyright laws and are solely for the noncommercial, internal use of the purchaser. Without the prior written consent of the National Safety Council, purchaser agrees that such materials shall not be rented, leased, loaned, sold, transferred, assigned, broadcast in any media form, publicly exhibited or used outside the organization of the purchaser, or reproduced, stored in a retrieval system, or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise. Use of these materials for training for which com- pensation is received is prohibited, unless authorized by the National Safety Council in writing. DISCLAIMER Although the information and recommendations contained in this publication have been compiled from sources believed to be reliable, the National Safety Council makes no guar- antee as to, and assumes no responsibility for, the correctness, sufficiency, or completeness of such information or recommendations. Other or additional safety measures may be required under particular circumstances Copyright  2002 by the National Safety Council All Rights Reserved Printed in the United States of America 06 05 04 03 02 1 2 3 4 5 ISBN: 0-87912-236-6 5C0302 Product Number: 15107-0000 ©2002 National Safety Council

iii Contents 1 Overview of Industrial Hygiene 1 2 The Lungs 13 3 The Skin and Occupational Dermatoses 23 4 The Ears 35 5 The Eyes 47 6 Industrial Toxicology 57 7 Gases, Vapors, and Solvents 67 8 Particulates 77 9 Industrial Noise 87 10 Ionizing Radiation 97 11 Nonionizing Radiation 113 12 Thermal Stress 123 13 Ergonomics 133 14 Biological Hazards 145 15 Evaluation 157 ©2002 National Safety Council

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iv iv iv 16 Air Sampling 169 17 Direct-Reading Instruments for Gases, Vapors, and Particulates 181 18 Methods of Control 189 19 Local Exhaust Ventilation 201 20 Dilution Ventilation of Industrial Workplaces 213 21 General Ventilation of Nonindustrial Occupancies 219 22 Respiratory Protection 231 23 The Industrial Hygienist 243 24 The Safety Professional 251 25 The Occupational Medicine Physician 263 26 The Occupational Health Nurse 269 27 The Industrial Hygiene Program 277 28 Government Regulations 289 29 History of the Federal Occupational Safety and Health Administration 299 ©2002 National Safety Council

1 1 Overview of Industrial Hygiene Quiz 1 (25 total points) True/False (7 points) 1. Environmental stress has no effect on the aging process. a. true b. false 2. The first vital component to an effective health and safety program is the commitment of senior management and line management. a. true b. false 3. It is possible that the responsibilities of a safety professional and an industrial hygienist can be found in the same person. a. true b. false 4. In many cases it is extremely difficult to differentiate between the symptoms of occupa- tional and nonoccupational disease. a. true b. false 5. The majority of occupational health hazards arise from living organisms that can cause adverse responses in humans. a. true b. false ©2002 National Safety Council

2 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 2 6. Solvent vapors enter the body mainly by skin absorption, although some inhalation can occur. a. true b. false 7. Storage of dangerous chemicals should be limited to one week’s supply. a. true b. false Multiple Choice (8 points) 8. The _____ must draw upon specialized knowledge in the physical and social sciences, including knowledge of engineering, physics, chemistry, statistics, mathematics, and princi- ples of measurement and analysis. a. senior manager b. safety professional c. line manager d. occupational medicine physician 9. The _____ provides the critical link between the employee’s health status, the work process, and the determination of employee ability to do the job. a. occupational health nurse b. line manager c. occupational medicine physician d. employee 10. The primary goal of the _____ is to prevent occupational illness and, when illness occurs, to restore employee health within the context of a healthy and safe workplace. a. line manager b. occupational medicine physician c. occupational health nurse d. safety professional 11. Joint labor-management safety and health committees are often used where employees are represented by a _____. a. lawyer b. agent c. union d. senior manager ©2002 National Safety Council

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3 1 Overview of Industrial Hygiene 12. In what year did the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) come into official existence? a. 1969 b. 1970 c. 1971 d. 1972 13. What is the principle federal agency engaged in occupational health and safety research? a. Occupational Safety and Health Administration b. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health c. American Academy of Industrial Hygiene d. American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists 14. _____ are capable of destroying living tissue and have a destructive effect on other sub- stances, particularly on combustible materials. a. Explosives b. Toxic chemicals c. Corrosives d. Oxidizing materials 15. _____ are chemicals that decompose rapidly under certain conditions to yield oxygen. a. Explosives b. Oxidizing materials c. Corrosives d. Dangerous gases Short Answer (8 points) 16. Define industrial hygiene . 17. In late 1994, four major U.S. industrial hygiene organizations gave final endorsements to a revised Code of Ethics for the Practice of Industrial Hygiene. Name these four organizations. 18. Name at least three individuals or groups that should belong to an occupational health and safety team. 3 ©2002 National Safety Council

4 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 4 19. What are the key components of an industrial hygiene program? 20. The employee plays a major role in the occupational health and safety program. What is that role? 21. The 1970 Occupational Safety and Health Act, known as the OSHAct, sets out two duties for employers. What are those duties? 22. What is a Health Hazard Evaluation? 23. What factors determine the severity of a hazard in the use of organic solvents and other chemicals? Short Essay (2 points) 24. Summarize the six Canons of Ethical Conduct. 25. Name and brieﬂy describe the four basic types of environmental factors or stresses. ©2002 National Safety Council

5 1 Overview of Industrial Hygiene Quiz 2 (27 total points) True/False (7 points) 1. Hazard is the capacity of a material to produce injury or harm when the chemical has reached a sufficient concentration at a certain site in the body. a. true b. false 2. People function efficiently in a very narrow body temperature range, measured on the skin or at body extremities. a. true b. false 3. The body attempts to counteract the effects of high temperature by increasing the heart rate. a. true b. false 4. Allergy is usually a factor in primary irritation dermatitis. a. true b. false 5. Alpha-particles do not penetrate thin barriers such as paper, cellophane, or skin. a. true b. false 6. Broadcast radio waves can produce heating of the body. a. true b. false 7. Sick-building syndrome is a clinically diagnosed disease in one or more building occupants. a. true b. false Multiple Choice (8 points) 8. According to the Hearing Conservation Amendment, in all cases when the sound levels exceed _____ dBA on an eight-hour time-weighted average, a continuing, effective hearing conservation program shall be administered. a. 75 b. 80 c. 85 d. 90 5 ©2002 National Safety Council

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6 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 6 9. Humidity, or the moisture content of the air, is generally measured with a _____ a. dry bulb thermometer. b. psychrometer. c. barometer. d. odometer. 10. _____ is an important mechanism for increasing body temperature by causing metabolic heat production to increase to several times the resting rate. a. Shivering b. Conduction c. Vasoconstriction d. Sweating 11. Of the following types of radioactivity, which is not used in ordinary manufacturing opera- tions? a. alpha b. beta c. neutron d. x ray 12. A barrier such as concrete or lead is required to stop _____ a. beta-radiation. b. alpha particles. c. x rays. d. none of the above. 13. Which device measures accumulated amounts of radiation? a. dosimeter b. psychrometer c. Geiger-Mueller meter d. ionization chamber-type instrument 14. _____ are the volatile form of substances that are normally in the solid or liquid state at room temperature and pressure. a. Fumes b. Vapors c. Mists d. Gases ©2002 National Safety Council

7 1 Overview of Industrial Hygiene 15. When sampling air, where should the sample be taken from? a. ground level b. near entryways c. breathing zone d. warmest area Short Answer (9 points) 16. What are the typical functions of a safety and health committee? 17. The degree of hazard is determined by many factors or elements. What are the key elements to be considered when evaluating a health hazard? 18. What are the effects of noise on the human body? 19. What factors inﬂuence the effect of noise exposure? 20. What are the signs of heat exhaustion? 21. Radioactive materials can be hazardous in two different ways. Name and describe these ways. 22. What are the most common strong producers of ultraviolet radiation in industry? What is the overall most common exposure? 23. What is barotrauma ? 7 ©2002 National Safety Council

8 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 8 24. What organs form the respiratory system? What are the main respiratory hazards? Short Essay (3 points) 25. The eye is the organ that is most vulnerable to injury by laser energy. What factors affect the degree of eye injury induced by laser light? Name at least four. 26. The injuries resulting from manual handling of objects and materials make up a large proportion of all compensable injuries. This problem is of concern to the safety and health professional and represents an area where biomechanical data relating to lifting and carry- ing can be applied in the work layout and design of jobs that require handling of materials. Data concerning lifting can be classified into three major categories. Name each of these categories and include two variables for each category. 27. There is a basic, systematic procedure for recognizing and evaluating environmental health hazards. Name at least five questions that you should ask. ©2002 National Safety Council

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9 1 Overview of Industrial Hygiene Case Study (Scoring Guidelines—Answers should encompass knowledge from text, class discussion, and overheads. Scoring can be adapted to fit individual classroom use.) World Trade, Inc. has decided to hire an independent industrial hygienist to help them get ready for their upcoming inspection with OSHA. Rather than simply choose someone at ran- dom from the phone book, management has decided to interview several candidates for the assignment. Professional ethics are one of their greatest concerns, and they wanted to find someone who was affiliated with one of the four major U.S. industrial hygiene organizations. 1. What are the four major U.S. industrial hygiene organizations? It is also important to World Trade, Inc. that the selected candidate be familiar with and adhere to the Canons of Ethical Conduct. 2. Brieﬂy stated, what are these canons? 9 ©2002 National Safety Council

10 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 10 World Trade, Inc. was particularly impressed with Christina Mentes, a young industrial hygiene professional from Tennessee. During the course of her work, Ms. Mentes will compile a list of environmental stress factors that can cause sickness, impaired health, or significant dis- comfort in workers. 3. What are the general classifications for such hazards? 4. How would Ms. Mentes make use of MSDSs? ©2002 National Safety Council

There are approximately 200 biological agents, such as infectious microorganisms, biological allergens, and toxins, that are known to produce infections or allergenic, toxic, or carcinogenic reactions in workers. Ms. Mentes would like the working population of World Trade, Inc. to be better educated as to the use of toxic substances. In particular, she would like them to be better aware of the route of entry for toxic substances. 5. Describe these routes. 11 1 Overview of Industrial Hygiene ©2002 National Safety Council

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13 2 The Lungs Quiz 1 (20 points total) True/False (5 points) 1. The nose serves only as a passageway for air going to and from the lungs. a. true b. false 2. Breathing is controlled by a series of respiratory centers in the nervous system. a. true b. false 3. The two lungs are mirror images of each other. a. true b. false 4. An emphysema patient can breathe in, but cannot breathe out efficiently. a. true b. false 5. The common term for trachea is throat. a. true b. false ©2002 National Safety Council

14 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 14 Multiple Choice (5 points) 6. What are the vocal cords? a. rings of cartilage b. muscles c. folds of membranes d. ligaments 7. Approximately how many air sacs, or alveoli, does the human respiratory tract have? a. 300 million b. 150 million c. 75 million d. 20 million 8. How many pairs of ribs does the human body have? a. 7 b. 10 c. 12 d. 13 9. What are the last two pairs of ribs called? a. Adam’s ribs b. ﬂoating ribs c. diaphragmatic ribs d. sternal ribs 10. What is the common term for pharynx? a. throat b. voice box c. mouth d. tonsils Short Answer (7 points) 11. What are the six parts of the body that make up the respiratory system? 12. How are sounds and speech created? ©2002 National Safety Council

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15 2 The Lungs 13. The trachea divides into two tubes. Name them. 14. Define metabolism . 15. What are the four classes that the AMA Guides use to classify respiratory impairment? 16. What is bronchitis? 17. What is the average rate of respiration per minute in a relaxed state? Short Essay (3 points) 18. What is a pneumothorax and what effect does it have on the body? 19. Why does carbon dioxide diffuse from tissue cells and tissue ﬂuid into the blood? 15 ©2002 National Safety Council

16 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 16 20. Describe the nose and its purpose. Quiz 2 (20 points total) True/False (5 points) 1. The organ of voice is the larynx. a. true b. false 2. Only the skin has a more extensive and intimate contact with the ambient atmosphere than do the lungs. a. true b. false 3. Significant impairment of respiratory function can exist even though the patient can per- form the tests of ventilatory function normally. a. true b. false 4. Constriction of the bronchial tube muscles in response to irritation, allergy, or other stimu- lus is called rhinitis. a. true b. false 5. Carbon monoxide is a toxic gas that is transferred from the lungs into the bloodstream but does not damage the lungs. a. true b. false ©2002 National Safety Council

17 2 The Lungs Multiple Choice (4 points) 6. What is the structure that guards the opening of the trachea? a. septum b. cilia c. pharynx d. epiglottis 7. What are the anterior nares? a. nerve filaments for smell b. the nostrils c. a double membrane covering the lungs d. the opening of the trachea 8. What does spirometry mean? a. measurement of carbon dioxide in tissues b. rate of respiration during exertion c. pressure equalization across a permeable membrane d. measurement of air, i.e., the ventilatory capacity of the lungs 9. What is the typical vital capacity of the lungs? a. 4-5 liters b. 3-4 liters c. 2-3 liters d. 1-2 liters Short Answer (9 points) 10. What are the two passageways at the bottom of the throat? 11. What are cilia? 12. How many lobes do the lungs have? 13. What are two diseases that are associated with an obstructive ventilatory defect? 17 ©2002 National Safety Council

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18 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 18 14. Why are fine aerosols potentially more harmful than larger aerosols? 15. What happens to fine particles that do reach the alveolar sacs? 16. On what is the classification of respiratory impairment based? 17. How is vital lung capacity measured? 18. What are two common forms of pneumoconiosis? Short Essay (2 points) 19. Explain the basic difference between obstructive and restrictive ventilatory defects. 20. What are the three general categories of inhaled contaminants and what hazard does each category present? ©2002 National Safety Council

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19 2 The Lungs Case Study (Scoring Guidelines—Answers should encompass knowledge from text, class discussion, and overheads. Scoring can be adapted to fit individual classroom use.) Tombigbee Textiles is a mill in central Alabama that produces cotton fabrics. Although the heavy machinery involved in textile production presents its own array of hazards, one particu- lar health hazard endemic to cotton mills is cotton dust. Douglas Knight, the safety manager at the mill, is handling an orientation session with several new employees in the personnel department. It is important for them to understand the potential dangers for the workers. 1. Potential health hazards from dust occur on three levels. What are they? 2. What is generally considered an adequate recovery time for a healthy lung to cleanse itself after exposure to dust? 3. A number of procedures are useful in evaluating impairment of the respiratory system. Name at least three. 19 ©2002 National Safety Council

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20 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 20 Overhead 2-1. The Respiration Process The term respiration refers to the tissue enzyme oxidation processes that use oxygen and produce carbon dioxide. More generally, this term des- ignates the phases of oxygen supply and carbon dioxide removal. The following are the general subdivisions of the overall process: • breathing—movement of chest/lung complex to ventilate the alveoli • external respiration—exchange of gas (oxygen and carbon dioxide) between lung (alveolar) air and blood • internal respiration—exchange of gas between tissue blood and the tissue cells • intracellular respiration—ultimate utilization of oxygen by the cells with the coincident release of carbon dioxide ©2002 National Safety Council

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21 2 The Lungs Overhead 2-2. Lung Volumes The four primary lung volumes that do not overlap are as follows: 1. tidal volume (TV)—the volume of gas inspired or expired during each respiratory cycle 2. inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)—the maximal volume that can be forcibly inspired following a normal inspiration (from the end-inspiratory position) 3. expiratory reserve volume (ERV)—the maximum amount of air that can be forcibly expired following a normal expi- ration 4. residual volume (RV)—the amount of air remaining in the lungs following a maximum expiratory effort 21 ©2002 National Safety Council

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23 3 The Skin and Occupational Dermatoses Quiz 1 (24 total points) True/False (5 points) 1. When it is injured, the epidermis can form new tissue, a scar, to repair itself. a. true b. false 2. Ulcerations are the most frequent causes of occupational skin disease. a. true b. false 3. The skin is the largest organ of the body. a. true b. false 4. Chloracne can be accompanied by systemic toxicity and is often resistant to therapy. a. true b. false 5. For workers to keep their skin reasonably free of injurious agents, they must use washing facilities at least three times a day, before lunch, after lunch, and before leaving the facility. a. true b. false ©2002 National Safety Council

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24 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 24 Multiple Choice (6 points) 6. Where is the epidermis the thickest? a. on the eyelids b. on the scalp c. on the soles of the feet d. on the elbows 7. Which industry group has the highest incidence of occupational dermatoses? a. services b. manufacturing c. construction d. agriculture 8. Which of the following can sensitize the skin to light? a. coal tar b. poison ivy c. chromic acid d. nickel 9. When absorbed through the skin, which of the following can cause central nervous system depression? a. aniline b. carbon tetrachloride c. carbon disulfide d. halogenated naphthalenes 10. Which of the following helps to prevent contact with acids, alkalis, and some types of metallic acids? a. solvent-repellent cream b. water-repellent cream c. vanishing cream d. none of the above 11. Which of the following is not a basic requirement of industrial skin cleansers? a. They should ﬂow easily through dispensers. b. They should be adequately protected against microbial contamination. c. They should not harmfully dehydrate the skin. d. They should be relatively abrasive in order to quickly remove industrial soil. ©2002 National Safety Council

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25 3 The Skin and Occupational Dermatoses Short Answer (7 points) 12. How do fats and oil solvents affect the skin? 13. _____ and _____ serve as routes for the percutaneous absorption of such drugs as nicotine, nitroglycerine, estrogen, and scopolamine. 14. Which of three types of contact urticaria is the most common? 15. What are the skin’s two lines of defense against sunlight? 16. Characterize a hydroﬂuoric acid burn. 17. Temperatures _____ than room temperature decrease the breakthrough time of chemicals. 18. Categories of glove standards depend on three factors. What are these factors? Short Essay (6 points) 19. What factors affect the incidence of allergic contact dermatitis and what is a key difference between irritation and allergic contact dermatitis? What are some exceptions to this rule? 25 ©2002 National Safety Council

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26 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 26 20. The routine use of preplacement patch tests to determine sensitivity to various materials is not recommended. Why? Quiz 2 (24 total points) True/False (5 points) 1. For some people, contact with natural rubber latex can result in generalized urticaria, angioedema, asthma, vascular collapse, and even death. a. true b. false 2. Most of the body’s 2 to 3 million sweat glands are concentrated on the forehead and neck. a. true b. false 3. Detergents are classified as strong, or absolute, primary skin irritants. a. true b. false 4. Anthrax can produce granulomas, or chronic, indolent areas of inﬂammation that can be localized or generalized. a. true b. false 5. Most workers’ compensation claims for occupational skin diseases involve temporary total or permanent partial disability. a. true b. false ©2002 National Safety Council

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27 3 The Skin and Occupational Dermatoses Multiple Choice (6 points) 6. Skin is the chief rate-limiting barrier against _____ a. organic solvents. b. alkalis. c. gases. d. aqueous solutions. 7. The highest percentage of dermatological injuries is due to _____ a. nonchemical burns. b. lacerations and punctures. c. abrasions. d. cold injuries. 8. What percentage of occupational dermatoses are caused by primary irritants? a. 90 percent b. 80 percent c. 70 percent d. 60 percent 9. Which of the following types of ionizing radiation cannot injure the skin? a. alpha-radiation b. beta-radiation c. gamma-radiation d. none of the above 10. Which of the following classes of skin disorders implies intermittent confinement at home or at another domicile? a. Class 2 b. Class 3 c. Class 4 d. Class 5 11. A _____ burn is almost always deep and often extensive, with the type of clothing being a major factor in severity. a. ﬂame b. steam c. molten-metal d. hot-solid 27 ©2002 National Safety Council

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28 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 28 Short Answer (7 points) 12. Is body heat lost when we perspire or when sweat evaporates? 13. Most of the causes of occupational skin diseases can be classified under five broad headings. What are these headings? 14. _____ and _____ are the two types of photosensitivity that are generally recognized. 15. What are the two main types of glands found in the dermis? 16. What is the primary function of environmental control measures in preventing occupational dermatitis? 17. When evaluating glove performance, what are four important chemical parameters that should be considered? 18. Clothing worn on the job should not be worn at home. Why? Short Essay (6 points) 19. What are some of the complications of extensive burns? ©2002 National Safety Council

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29 3 The Skin and Occupational Dermatoses 20. What are the classifications of dermatologic reactions to gloves? Case Study (Scoring Guidelines—Answers should encompass knowledge from text, class discussion, and overheads. Scoring can be adapted to fit individual classroom use.) For the first time in nearly two decades, Healthy Meals Inc. has seen a serious outbreak of occu- pational skin disease, including miliaria, among its workers. Industrial hygienists at the com- pany are reviewing the situation and trying to understand the reasons for the sudden change. Healthy Meals has been in the food processing industry for more than fifty years and has over two hundred employees. Recently the company has had to hire younger workers with less experience, including several bakers and laboratory technicians, after some of its long-time employees decided to retire. The company’s Florida location makes it attractive to workers of all ages, so it did not have any problems recruiting new staff. The location also allows Healthy Meals to benefit from the state’s agricultural resources. Inside the plant, equipment and other work surfaces are cleaned on a routine basis and there are plenty of washbasins available to workers. Given this information, the team of industrial hygienists needs to explain to management why so many workers are suffering from skin diseases. 1. Is it possible that predisposing factors are involved? 29 ©2002 National Safety Council

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31 3 The Skin and Occupational Dermatoses Overhead 3-1. Magnified Cross Section of the Skin (Reprinted with the permission of the AMA. Today’s Health Guide. Chicago: AMA, 1965.) HAIR SHAFT STRATUM CORNEUM (HORNYLAYER) CLEAR LAYER GERMINATIVE LAYER CAPILLARY NETWORK DUCT OF SEBACEOUS GLAND SEBACEOUS GLAND ARRECTOR MUSCLE SENSORY CORPUSCLE ARTERY BULB OF HAIR LOBULES OF FAT VEIN PORE OF SWEAT GLAND EPIDERMIS SUBCUTANEOUS TISSUE DUCT OF SWEAT GLAND SWEAT GLAND DERMIS (TRUE SKIN) ©2002 National Safety Council

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33 3 The Skin and Occupational Dermatoses Overhead 3-3. Predisposing Factors for Occupational Dermatoses • age and experience • skin type • sweating • gender • seasons and humidity • hereditary allergy • personal hygiene • preexisting skin disease ©2002 National Safety Council

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35 4 The Ears Quiz 1 (22 total points) True/False (7 points) 1. The auricle is the most visible part of the ear. a. true b. false 2. The ossicles are the smallest bones in the body. a. true b. false 3. The cochlea serves to equalize pressure on either side of the tympanic membrane. a. true b. false 4. The pinna is especially susceptible to frostbite and sunburn. a. true b. false 5. Infections localized to the eardrum are very common. a. true b. false 6. Otosclerosis is a prime example of fixation. a. true b. false ©2002 National Safety Council

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36 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 36 7. There is no medical cure for sensorineural deafness. a. true b. false Multiple Choice (6 points) 8. The _____ collects sound waves from the air and funnels them into the ear canal to the tym- panic membrane. a. auricle b. eardrum c. ear canal d. external auditory canal 9. What is another name for the external auditory canal? a. pinna b. meatus c. vibrissae d. Eustachian tube 10. What is the name for the waxy substance secreted by the ceruminal glands? a. vibrissae b. pinna c. cerumen d. malleus 11. The ossicles connect the eardrum to an opening in the wall of the inner ear called the _____ a. Fenestra Rotundum. b. Fenestra Vestibuli. c. semicircular canals. d. cochlea. 12. The eardrum is shaped like a _____ a. child’s toy drum. b. snail. c. spider web. d. anvil. 13. Our sense of balance is dependent on the _____ a. cochlea. b. vestibular system. c. perilymph. d. organ of Corti. ©2002 National Safety Council

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37 4 The Ears Short Answer (8 points) 14. What three items make up the ossicular chain? 15. Why is the ear canal prone to infection? What are some common problems? 16. What should you do if a live insect enters the ear canal? 17. Why should you avoid the use of cotton-tipped swabs? 18. What are some common causes for perforation or rupture of the tympanic membrane? Can these perforations be repaired? 19. What can cause obstruction of the Eustachian tubes? What happens when the Eustachian tubes cannot ventilate properly? 20. How would disease of the ossicles impair hearing? 21. When should an individual be referred to a physician for further medical evaluation of hearing loss? Short Essay (1 point) 22. Brieﬂy describe the process of how the ear hears and interprets sound. 37 ©2002 National Safety Council

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38 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 38 Quiz 2 (21 total points) True/False (6 points) 1.The measurement of hearing is done using an odometer. a. true b. false 2. The threshold of hearing is the very softest level at which a person is able to hear. a. true b. false 3. Noise exposure has no effect on pregnant women. a. true b. false 4. Vowel sounds are located in the upper frequencies and are the more powerful speech sounds. a. true b. false 5. Most ambient noise is low frequency. a. true b. false 6. Most noise-induced hearing loss occurs rapidly. a. true b. false Multiple Choice (6 points) 7. A steady loss of hearing acuity occurs as we grow older. The normal young ear can hear tones within a range of 20 Hz up to high-pitched sounds of _____. a. 12,000 Hz b. 20,000 Hz c. 26,000 Hz d. 30,000 Hz ©2002 National Safety Council

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39 4 The Ears 8. Millions of workers in the United States are exposed to significant levels of noise on the job. For this reason OSHA has required formal hearing conservation programs for most employ- ees exposed above the Action Level. What is the current Action level for an eight-hour workday? a. 75 dBA b. 80 dBA c. 85 dBA d. 90 dBA 9. Sensorineural hearing loss is the hearing difficulty caused by _____ ear damage. a. outer b. middle c. inner d. Both A and B 10. Conductive hearing loss is hearing loss that arises from conditions affecting the _____ ear. a. outer b. middle c. inner d. Both A and B 11. The _____ filter out particular matter and other large pieces of debris. a. cerumen b. cartilaginous meatus c. vibrissae d. pinna 12. The eardrum has about ____ times as much surface area as the oval window. a. 2 b. 10 c. 15 d. 25 Short Answer (8 points) 13. What is stenosis and what are the causes of this condition? 39 ©2002 National Safety Council

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40 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 40 14. What are some of the ailments that can affect the delicate cochlea, semicircular canals, and eighth cranial nerve of the inner ear? Name at least three. Also give at least one specific example of workplace factors that can affect hearing. 15. What is Ménière’s disease? What causes it? Describe some of the characteristics of this disorder. 16. What is acoustic neuroma? How would it affect the decision to hire an employee? 17. What are the two types of tinnitus? 18. What is an audiogram? 19. What are the factors that determine the duration and severity of noise-induced hearing loss? 20. What are some of the nonauditory effects of noise? ©2002 National Safety Council

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41 4 The Ears Short Essay (1 point) 21. Describe how to test hearing using the air conduction method and the bone conduction method. Case Study (Scoring Guidelines—Answers should encompass knowledge from text, class discussion, and overheads. Scoring can be adapted to fit individual classroom use.) You have been hired by Calhoun Industrial Plastics to conduct routine hearing exams of the entire plant staff. Mr. Sachdev, an assembly line worker, is your first patient. Although he wears earplugs while on the job, he complains of hearing loss. His medical records indicate he is 54, so you say to him that a steady loss of hearing acuity often occurs as we age. “But we will check your ears anyway, in case there is a problem.” 1. What are the possible reasons, both pathological and environmental, that may be causing Mr. Sachdev to experience loss of hearing? Come up with as complete a list as possible. 41 ©2002 National Safety Council

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42 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 42 “There are a few methods commonly used to check hearing,” you tell Mr. Sachdev. “There’s a bone conduction test and an air conduction test.” 2. Describe how each of these tests work. Which method will you most likely use on Mr. Sachdev? As it turns out, Mr. Sachdev does have some hearing loss, most likely caused by exposure to noise. 3. What are the factors that determine the duration and severity of noise-induced hearing loss? ©2002 National Safety Council

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Mr. Sachdev has many questions for you about how the ear works, and you decide that it would be beneficial to educate the employees on the hearing process. When you are done see- ing patients, you arrange with management to hold a hearing clinic for any interested parties. 4. How would you explain the hearing process to your class? 43 4 The Ears 43 ©2002 National Safety Council

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44 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 44 Overhead 4-1. The Outer, Inner, and Middle Ear (Reprinted with permission from Netter FH, Clinical Symposia . CIBA Pharmaceuticals Co.) ©2002 National Safety Council

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47 The Eyes Quiz 1 (22 points total) True/False (6 points) 1. The lacrimal gland secretes an oil to lubricate the eyelids. a. true b. false 2. Rods are more sensitive to light than cones. a. true b. false 3. Opticians prescribe eyeglasses and contact lenses. a. true b. false 4. Presbyopia develops when the human lens loses its elasticity. a. true b. false 5. Pink eye is an inherited form of color blindness. a. true b. false 6. Cigarette smoking increases the risk of developing glaucoma. a. true b. false 5 ©2002 National Safety Council

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48 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 48 Multiple Choice (7 points) 7. What is the common term for the sclera? a. lower lid b. white of the eye c. tear gland d. eyelashes 8. What is the circular aperture that is formed by the iris? a. pupil b. retina c. cornea d. lens 9. Approximately how many rods and cones does each eye have? a. 6 million rods and 120 million cones b. 60 million rods and 12 million cones c. 12 million rods and 60 million cones d. 120 million rods and 6 million cones 10. What instrument is used to measure the pressure in the eyeball? a. tonometer b. slit-lamp microscope c. phoropter d. ophthalmoscope 11. What is the estimated percentage of the American population that wears glasses? a. 10 percent b. 20 percent c. 30 percent d. 40 percent 12. What is the common term for hyperopia? a. nearsightedness b. farsightedness c. tunnel vision d. cataract 13. What is the most common form of glaucoma? a. acute-angle closure glaucoma b. chronic closed-angle glaucoma c. primary open-angle glaucoma d. idiopathic glaucoma ©2002 National Safety Council

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49 5 The Eyes Short Answer (7 points) 14. What are the three layers of tissue surrounding the internal structures of the eyeball? 15. What is the function of the tarsal glands? 16. What is the choroid? 17. What do the ciliary muscles do? 18. Name the two types of light-sensitive cells in the retina. 19. How does the American Academy of Ophthalmology define an ophthalmologist? 20. What is a phoropter? Short Essay (2 points) 21. What is stereoscopic vision? 49 ©2002 National Safety Council

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50 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 50 22. What is astigmatism? Quiz 2 (21 points total) True/False (5 points) 1. Optometrists are permitted to provide treatment for ocular diseases. a. true b. false 2. Pain can be relied on to alert a worker that there is a foreign body in his or her eye. a. true b. false 3. Harmful exposures to ultraviolet light usually occur in welding operations. a. true b. false 4. Caustic burns are much more injurious to the eyes than acids. a. true b. false 5. Use of water substitutes, such as neutralizing solutions or boric acid solutions, in eyewash fountains is encouraged. a. true b. false Multiple Choice (4 points) 6. What is the most common industrial test for distance acuity? a. visual field test b. refractive correction c. the Snellen chart d. a tonometer reading ©2002 National Safety Council

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51 5 The Eyes 7. In what group is the most prevalent form of occupational nystagmus seen? a. miners b. laboratory technicians c. data entry clerks d. agricultural workers 8. What particular item of eye protection is probably adequate for 90 percent of general indus- trial work? a. chipping goggles b. phototropic lenses c. splash goggles d. safety glasses 9. Which of the following is not one of the three spectral bands of radiation emitted in welding processes? a. ionizing b. ultraviolet c. visible d. infrared Short Answer (10 points) 10. What does the term low vision refer to? 11. What are the six leading causes of existing cases of blindness? 12. What is a diopter? 13. What is rod monochromatism? 14. What are common differences in the symptoms of viral, bacterial, and allergic eye inﬂam- mation? 51 ©2002 National Safety Council

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52 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 52 15. What are some industrial causes of cataracts? 16. What is nystagmus? 17. What is the common term for acute keratoconjunctivitis? 18. What regulatory requirements must safety eyewear meet? 19. What type of lenses is the most impact-resistant? Short Essay (2 Points) 20. Explain color “blindness” and who is more likely to have this condition. 21. How does the “eye-hazard area” concept work? ©2002 National Safety Council

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53 5 The Eyes Case Study (Scoring Guidelines—Answers should encompass knowledge from text, class discussion, and overheads. Scoring can be adapted to fit individual classroom use.) At the WoodCraft Company, the emphasis is on sturdy furniture at affordable prices. That means a lot of wood goes through a lot of power machinery, with minimal handwork. Gus Stiverson has been a supervisor at Woodcraft for seven years and has learned quite a bit about the various hazards in woodworking, including eye injuries. Gus wants to be sure that the newest workers on his shift understand the potential dangers. 1. What is the most common type of physical injury to the eye? 2. What is the most common complication with an industrial eye injury? 3. Is there any particular danger from wood particles? 53 ©2002 National Safety Council

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54 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene Overhead 5-1. Steps in a Vision Conservation Program There are four steps in a vision conservation program: 1. environmental survey 2. vision-screening program 3. remedial program 4. professional fitting and follow-up procedures ©2002 National Safety Council

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55 5 The Eyes Overhead 5-2. Guidelines for a Vision Conservation Program 1. Make it a 100 percent program; include everyone. 2. Make certain that safety eyewear is property fitted. 3. Include eye-care stations for first aid and for cleaning lenses. 4. Control eye hazards at the source. 5. Make sure all areas have adequate lighting, are free from glare, and are painted in colors that emphasize depth per- ception and highlight potential hazards. 6. Post signs such as “All Personnel and Visitors Must Wear Protective Eyewear” in all hazardous areas. 7. All employees should be given preplacement eye exami- nations, and periodic follow-up examinations should be scheduled. ©2002 National Safety Council

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57 Industrial Toxicology Quiz 1 (24 total points) True/False (5 points) 1. A toxic effect is any irreversible harmful effect on the body as a result of contact with a substance via the respiratory tract, skin, eye, mouth, or other route. a. true b. false 2. A good example of a substance that has unique effects on multiple organs is organic lead. a. true b. false 3. Lethal concentration is usually expressed as milligrams per kilogram or ppm. a. true b. false 4. The response to a new chemical can be assumed to be analogous to that produced by contact with a substance having a similar chemical and biological structure. a. true b. false 5. One of the shortcomings of air standards is the difficulty in acquiring a truly representative breathing zone sample. a. true b. false 6 ©2002 National Safety Council

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58 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 58 Multiple Choice (6 points) 6. The health effect of a chemical exposure is considered “acute” if it _____ a. appears within a week of exposure. b. is relatively short-lived. c. recurs periodically. d. is irreversible. 7. The total amount of a toxic compound absorbed via respiratory pathways depends on _____ a. its concentration in the air. b. pulmonary ventilation volumes. c. the duration of exposure. d. all of the above. 8. Which of the following is considered a central nervous system depressant? a. chloroﬂuorocarbon refrigerants b. lead c. styrene d. acetone 9. In addition to providing the EPA with test data and other information about the safety of a new chemical, a company is required to notify the EPA _____ before starting to manufacture the chemical. a. 30 days b. 60 days c. 90 days d. 120 days 10. According to the ACGIH’s rating system for carcinogenic substances, a substance with a rating of A4 is _____ a. a confirmed animal carcinogen with unknown relevance to humans. b. a suspected human carcinogen. c. not classifiable as a human carcinogen. d. not suspected as a human carcinogen. 11. Which of the following may be detected using either a urine sample or a blood sample? a. zinc b. ethyl benzene c. nickel d. acetone ©2002 National Safety Council

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59 6 Industrial Toxicology Short Answer (7 points) 12. The cutaneous absorption rate of some organic chemicals increases when _____ and _____ increase. 13. The dose-response relationship can be expressed as the product of two variables. What are these variables? 14. What is hypersusceptibility? 15. According to NIOSH, when should a substance be considered a suspected carcinogen to humans? 16. If epidemiological data and cases of human exposure are not available for study, what is the preferred method for determining TLVs ® ? 17. Rates of _____, _____, and _____ determine when it is most appropriate to analyze biologi- cal samples in relation to duration and time of exposure. 18. What types of samples are used to determine Biological Exposure Indices ® ? Short Essay (6 points) 19. What do toxicologists feel is the difference between toxicity and hazard ? 59 ©2002 National Safety Council

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60 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 60 20. Compare and contrast teratogens and mutagens. Quiz 2 (24 total points) True/False (5 points) 1. A toxic substance can enter the body by more than one route depending on its specific properties. a. true b. false 2. Although all substances produce harmful effects at some dose, a toxic substance causes harmful effects at low doses. a. true b. false 3. Irritation from airborne contaminants is generally reversible after short-term exposure. a. true b. false 4. Animal testing is an accurate and easy means of measuring the toxicity of a chemical for humans and determining acceptable Threshold Limit Values  . a. true b. false 5. If a substance is not included on the Toxic Substances List, the substance is not toxic. a. true b. false Multiple Choice (6 points) 6. Which of the following factors can be used to determine the degree of hazard of a toxic sub- stance? a. route of entry b. environmental variables c. physiological state d. all of the above ©2002 National Safety Council

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61 6 Industrial Toxicology 7. Prolonged exposure is typically defined as _____ a. less than 24 hours. b. 5 to 7 days. c. 2, 4, or 6 weeks. d. 3 months. 8. Which of the following is not a simple asphyxiant? a. methane b. carbon monoxide c. hydrogen d. nitrogen 9. Which of the following types of human epidemiological data identifies a change in preva- lence of a disease in a subgroup of a population? a. descriptive b. prospective c. illustrative d. retrospective 10. Air monitoring measures _____ a. the amount of a chemical that has been absorbed via the lungs. b. the composition of the external environment surrounding the worker. c. the effects of increased work load resulting in increased air intake of the contaminant. d. the total exposure, both on and off the job, to harmful substances. 11. Which of the following is true of irritation and irritants? a. The degree of local irritation of many liquid irritants is related to their systemic toxicities. b. A primary irritant exerts extensive systemic toxic action. c. Most frequently irritation results from a direct mechanical reaction with constituents in the tissue. d. Irritants are often grouped according to their site of action. Short Answer (7 points) 12. The toxicity of a chemical depends on _____. 13. If the skin comes in contact with a toxic substance, one of four possible actions will result. What are these four actions? 61 ©2002 National Safety Council

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62 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 62 14. Why is it difficult to discover the connection between the exposure and the manifestation of genetic damage caused by mutagens? 15. What is the “Hazcom” or “right-to-know” regulation? 16. When two or more hazardous substances that act on the same body organ system are pres- ent, primary consideration should be given to _____. 17. If inhaled gases are fat-soluble and are not metabolized, how are they primarily cleared from the body? 18. When filling out a Material Safety Data Sheet for a substance made from ingredients that are a trade secret, is a company required to name the ingredients? Short Essay (6 points) 19. Define LD 0 , LD 50 , and LD 100 . 20. What is included in a complete substance-specific standard, such as those established by NIOSH and OSHA? ©2002 National Safety Council

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63 6 Industrial Toxicology Case Study (Scoring Guidelines—Answers should encompass knowledge from text, class discussion, and overheads. Scoring can be adapted to fit individual classroom use.) Macken Materials has been using chemical agents in its manufacturing processes for many years. It has had an industrial toxicologist, Robert Caberno, on its staff for just as long. Mr. Caberno has been responsible for monitoring existing chemical hazards and identifying new hazards as various chemicals were introduced into the manufacturing processes over the years. The inhalation, skin absorption, ingestion, and injection hazards in the plant have been evalu- ated on a regular basis, and Mr. Caberno has made sure Macken is adhering to federal guide- lines for worker safety in the industry. In particular, he has emphasized air sampling and TLV ® standards as ways of assessing possible degrees of exposure for Macken employees. In addi- tion, he has integrated some biological sampling into his program. In recent weeks you were hired to assist Mr. Caberno. Your first project is to evaluate the use of TLVs ® , air sampling, and biological sampling in monitoring hazardous substances. 1. How were TLVs ® developed and what are the more common drawbacks of TLVs ® and air sampling? 2. Can biological sampling be used in place of air sampling? 63 ©2002 National Safety Council

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66 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 66 Overhead 6-2. Federal Regulations Covering Industrial Toxicology • Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHAct) • Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA) • NIOSH/OSHA Standards Other Important Standards • The Toxic Substances List (a requirement of the OSHAct) • ACGIH Threshold Limit Values (TLVs ® ) (voluntary pro- fessional guides) ©2002 National Safety Council

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67 Gases, Vapors, and Solvents Quiz 1 (21 total points) True/False (6 points) 1. Solvents are good for cleaning materials, but should not be used to transport solutes. a. true b. false 2. In general, there is a high potential hazard for inhaling vapors from aqueous solutions. a. true b. false 3. Water is a highly polar solvent. a. true b. false 4. In the United States, TLVs ® have been adopted as a legal standard. a. true b. false 5. Benzene is now indicated as a leukemogenic agent, which has greatly increased its use as a solvent. a. true b. false 6. All alcohols are formed by the replacement of one or more hydrogen atoms by one or more hydroxyl groups. a. true b. false 7 ©2002 National Safety Council

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68 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 68 Multiple Choice (6 points) 7. A _____ is a formless ﬂuid that completely fills its container and that exerts an equal pressure in all directions. a. vapor b. gas c. liquid d. solvent 8. Vapor pressure is highly dependent on _____ a. temperature. b. surface area. c. evaporation. d. solubility. 9. Compounds with only carbon and hydrogen atoms are called _____ a. hydrocarbons. b. halogenated hydrocarbons. c. isomers. d. soluble. 10. The _____ of a liquid is the lowest temperature at which it gives off enough vapor to form an ignitable mixture with the air near the surface of the liquid. a. ﬂammability b. ﬂash point c. reactivity d. combustibility 11. Which of the following is most likely to be an upper respiratory tract irritant? a. sulfuric acid b. nitrogen dioxide c. ozone d. phosgene 12. What is the minimum percentage of atmospheric oxygen required to support life? a. 75 percent b. 64 percent c. 32 percent d. 18 percent ©2002 National Safety Council

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69 7 Gases, Vapors, and Solvents Short Answer (8 points) 13. What are the three fundamental states of matter? 14. What are the most commonly used guidelines in the United States to assist industrial hygienists in interpreting the hazard posed by specific concentrations of gases and vapors in the workplace? 15. What is a functional group in an organic molecule? 16. Name at least one reference manual used for classifying and understanding the composition of a solvent. 17. What are the safety concerns posed by a cryogenic liquid? What is the most common cryo- genic ﬂuid? 18. What is the ﬂammable range of a liquid or gas? 19. What is the difference between a simple asphyxiant and a chemical asphyxiant? 20. What factors should an industrial hygienist take into consideration when evaluating the degree of risk a volatile chemical will have in the workplace? 69 ©2002 National Safety Council

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70 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 70 Short Essay (1 point) 21. Where a solvent system is in use, three distinct possible routes of exposure must be considered. What are these routes, and which is considered the most important route of exposure and why? Quiz 2 (21 total points) True/False (7 points) 1. Organic chemistry is the chemistry of the compounds of oxygen. a. true b. false 2. Esters should never be used as an anesthetic. a. true b. false 3. The greatest safety hazard of saturated and unsaturated alkyl ethers is that they have a tendency to form explosive peroxides. a. true b. false 4. Respirators can be used as the primary or only means of protection against hazardous chemicals. a. true b. false 5. Hydrocarbons are a major factor in the formation of photochemical smog. a. true b. false 6. The ANSI Z87.1 standard has removed the prohibition on contact lenses in eye hazard areas. a. true b. false ©2002 National Safety Council

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71 7 Gases, Vapors, and Solvents 7. Barrier creams are every bit as effective as impervious gloves. a. true b. false Multiple Choice (6 points) 8. The fire point of a liquid is usually about ____the ﬂash point temperature. a. 10 F below b. 5 F below c. 5 F above d. 10 F above 9. Which of the following is a chemical asphyxiant? a. nitrogen b. hydrogen c. carbon monoxide d. carbon dioxide 10. Aliphatic compounds take their name from the Greek word aliphe , meaning _____ a. water. b. fat. c. dizzy. d. round. 11. It is estimated that there are _____ different hydrocarbons in gasoline. a. 150 b. 500 c. 875 d. 1,025 12. Which of the following have been used as anesthetics? a. cyclic hydrocarbons b. aliphatic hydrocarbons c. lipophilic solvents d. none of the above 13. Which of the following is an important solvent for acetate rayon and vinyl resin coatings? a. aldehydes b. methanol alcohol c. nitrohydrocarbons d. ketones 71 ©2002 National Safety Council

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72 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 72 Short Answer (7 points) 14. What does NTP stand for? 15. What is a Threshold Limit Value ® ? 16. What is the proper treatment for HF exposure? What damage can it do? 17. What are the eight classifications for common organic solvents? 18. What elements make up the halogens? 19. What are the two most important industrial alcohols? What are some effects of exposure? 20. What is the greenhouse effect? Short Essay (1 point) 21. What are some of the physiological effects of organic solvents on the human body? Be as detailed as possible. ©2002 National Safety Council

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Case Study (Scoring Guidelines—Answers should encompass knowledge from text, class discussion, and overheads. Scoring can be adapted to fit individual classroom use.) Cicely Chemical Company, located outside of Los Angeles, California, was recently featured in an exposé on one of the local television stations. The show accused Cicely Chemical of con- tributing to the ever-growing smog problem by releasing hydrocarbons into the atmosphere. 1. What are hydrocarbons? 2. What are the different classifications of hydrocarbons? 3. Name as many sources for hydrocarbons as you can, both man-made and those that occur naturally. 73 7 Gases, Vapors, and Solvents ©2002 National Safety Council

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74 4. Hydrocarbons are a major factor in the formation of photochemical smog. What effect does photochemical smog have on the environment? Further investigations revealed that Cicely Chem was also guilty of using ﬂuorocarbons banned by the Montreal Protocol. 5. What is the Montreal Protocol supposed to protect? 6. What might happen to the environment if it is unsuccessful? Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene ©2002 National Safety Council

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At another one of Cicely Chem’s plants, it was discovered that they were releasing large amounts of CO 2 into the environment. 7. What effect can large concentrations of CO 2 have on the atmosphere? Alfred Weiss, CEO of Cicely Chemical Company, was confronted by reporters as he tried to get into his car. “Mr. Weiss!” one of them shouts. “Aren’t you afraid that your company’s negligent policies will make the air unbreathable?” Mr. Weiss snarls in reply, “If you’re so worried, buy yourself a gas mask.” 8. Even if he had been serious in his answer, would a respirator adequately protect one against hazardous chemical vapors? Why or why not? 75 7 Gases, Vapors, and Solvents ©2002 National Safety Council

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77 Particulates Quiz 1 (22 points total) True/False (6 points) 1. The primary route of exposure for most hazardous particulate is inhalation. a. true b. false 2. The number of asbestos fibers inhaled is not as important as the mass. a. true b. false 3. The relative toxicity of the six forms of asbestos remains in debate. a. true b. false 4. Most particles demonstrate toxicity only when they are deposited in the alveolar region of the respiratory tract. a. true b. false 5. Excess cancer rates have been associated with living in houses with high levels of radon daughters. a. true b. false 8 ©2002 National Safety Council

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78 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 78 6. Both of the main analytical methods available for free crystalline silica are quite imprecise by industrial hygiene standards. a. true b. false Multiple Choice (4 points) 7. What types of particles are found in a polydisperse particle cloud? a. particles in a wide range of sizes b. particles caused by acid digestion c. particles that fall within a very narrow size range d. particles resulting from vaporization and recondensation 8. Why is the aerodynamic equivalent diameter of a particle important? a. It helps to determine what type of personal protective equipment is needed. b. It determines where in the respiratory tract the particle is most likely to be deposited. c. It indicates toxicity levels. d. It is necessary for compliance with OSHA’s permissible exposure limits. 9. What is one of the few particulate matters (PMs) that is routinely analyzed by size-selective microscopic counting? a. tobacco smoke b. asbestos c. coal dust d. lead 10. Where are asbestos exposure and monitoring mostly found? a. asbestos mines b. building maintenance and renovation c. asbestos manufacturing facilities d. asbestos mills Short Answer (10 points) 11. How is particulate matter defined in the field of industrial hygiene? 12. Why are particles smaller than about 0.001 μ not treated as particulate matter? ©2002 National Safety Council

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79 8 Particulates 13. What are the five primary mechanisms of particle deposition? 14. What makes asbestos fibers particularly hazardous? 15. What are industrial hygienists concerned with rather than the actual diameter of a particle? 16. List three types of particle sampling that are common in industrial hygiene. 17. List four reasons for conducting surface sampling. 18. What are two problems with the optical methods of asbestos analysis? 19. What is the most common method for differential fiber counting in asbestos sampling? 20. What is the basic principle of operation for direct-reading particle detectors? Short Essay (2 points) 21. What factors contribute to the toxicity of inhaled radiological materials? 79 ©2002 National Safety Council

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80 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 80 22. What are the airborne limits for radioactive particles, and how do they differ from chemical exposure limits? Quiz 2 (21 points total) True/False (5 points) 1. The environmental limits for exposure of the general population to particulate matter are generally much lower than the occupational limits. a. true b. false 2. OSHA requires preexposure medical assessment for workers who will be exposed to certain hazardous particulates. a. true b. false 3. The majority of occupational exposure limits are based on the results of air sampling. a. true b. false 4. Diesel exhaust has been shown to be carcinogenic. a. true b. false 5. It is unusual for an industrial hygienist to be asked to sample for infectious airborne bacte- ria, fungal spores, or viruses. a. true b. false Multiple Choice (4 points) 6. What is often a primary factor for the toxicity of a material? a. size of particles b. number of particles c. length of exposure d. chemical composition 7. What regulates most U.S. exposure levels for particulate matter? a. OSHA PELs b. NIOSH RELs c. AIHA WEELs d. ACGIH TLVs ® ©2002 National Safety Council

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81 8 Particulates 8. Most samples taken to assess exposure to particulate matter are ______ a. blood samples. b. surface sampling. c. sputum samples. d. air samples. 9. What work force is especially subject to radon progeny exposure? a. mining b. construction c. farming d. metalworking Short Answer (10 points) 10. Define pneumoconiosis . 11. What is the ceiling limit for chemical compounds? 12. What is fibrosis? 13. Why is there a growing emphasis on using particle size-selective sampling? 14. What improvement does the ACGIH’s Inhalable Particle Mass criterion offer over tradi- tional total dust collection? 15. How are ultraviolet ﬂuorescent powders used to evaluate dermal exposure? 16. When is gravimetric analysis most often used? 81 ©2002 National Safety Council

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82 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 82 17. What biological organisms are most often of interest to the typical industrial hygienist? 18. What are general area samples commonly used for? 19. What are radon progeny? Short Essay (2 points) 20. How is the situation of concurrent exposure to multiple toxic agents addressed? 21. What are two critical factors to consider when sampling PM in a moving airstream? ©2002 National Safety Council

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83 8 Particulates Case Study (Scoring Guidelines-Answers should encompass knowledge from text, class discussion, and overheads. Scoring can be adapted to fit individual classroom use.) Maryvale Farm is part of the agribusiness chain. The farmland produces a variety of vegetables that are sold to a conglomerate that processes and distributes the finished product. Producing food is big business, as farm manager Luis Herrera knows. Certain pesticides and herbicides are necessary to maximize the yield from each acre, but proper application of these chemicals is important not only for the vegetables, but also for the safety of the farm workers. Luis makes sure that the workers are carefully instructed in pesticide usage, but he also has arranged for a safety and health consulting firm to monitor the situation. 1. Although inhalation of particulate matter is a concern, what other hazard is especially pres- ent with pesticides and what type of monitoring is often used for it? 2. NIOSH 9201 is a method that was developed to monitor chlorinated and organonitrogen pesticides. What is the basic approach with this method? 83 ©2002 National Safety Council

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84 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 84 Overhead 8-1. Critical Factors in Determining Acceptable Exposure The nature of the health problems caused by inhalation of particulate matter is inﬂuenced by a number of factors: • chemical and biological composition of the particles and stability of their nuclei (radioactivity) • crystalline, structural, and isotopic forms of the particles • the shape of the particles • the size of the particles • the dose, or the concentration of particles in the work envi- ronment and exposure duration • preexisting health or genetic status of the workers • concurrent exposure to other toxic agents ©2002 National Safety Council

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87 Industrial Noise Quiz 1 (24 total points) True/False (5 points) 1. Noise does not always have particular physical characteristics that distinguish it from wanted sound. a. true b. false 2. The sound power radiated from a source remains constant even though intensity dimin- ishes as the distance from the source increases. a. true b. false 3. An individual’s ability to hear sentences and repeat them correctly in a quiet environment is not satisfactory evidence of adequate hearing ability because it does not demonstrate the person’s ability to hear pure tones. a. true b. false 4. Sound can be transmitted to the inner ear by hearing-protective devices, such as earplugs and earmuffs. a. true b. false 5. A hearing conservation program becomes mandatory at an eight-hour TWA exposure of 90 dBA. a. true b. false 9 ©2002 National Safety Council

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88 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 88 Multiple Choice (6 points) 6. Which of the following does not apply to frequency? a. Broadband noise can be somewhat more harmful than single frequencies. b. The audible range of frequencies for humans is between 20 Hz and 20,000 Hz. c. Frequency is perceived by the human ear as pitch. d. The frequency composition of a sound is known as its spectrum. 7. What is the answer to the following equation: 75 dB + 71 dB = _____ a. 73 dB. b. 76 dB. c. 77 dB. d. 79 dB. 8. General guidelines for conducting preliminary noise surveys include which of the following? a. The survey should define areas where hearing protection will be required. b. The information recorded should cover workers’ TWA exposures. c. The information recorded should allow another individual to reproduce the measured data. d. The survey should be carried out in areas where workers within 10 feet of one another have to shout to communicate. 9. Most damage-risk criteria are written for _____ because it is the easiest to define in terms of amplitude, frequency content, and duration. a. intermittent noise b. continuous noise c. impact noise d. cyclical noise 10. Which of the following protective devices can reduce bone-conducted sound? a. earmuffs b. earplugs c. canal caps d. helmets 11. Which of the following industries is not covered by the Hearing Conservation Amendment? a. agriculture b. gas well drilling c. construction d. all of the above ©2002 National Safety Council

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89 9 Industrial Noise Short Answer (7 points) 12. What is the definition of occupational hearing loss? 13. What is the root-mean-square (rms) sound pressure used to measure and what units are used for these measurements? 14. Changing the frequency of a sound changes its relative loudness. Why? 15. What is the difference between a source measurement and an ambient-noise measurement? 16. Every noise problem can be broken down into three parts. What are these parts? 17. What are the four categories of personal hearing-protective devices? 18. If an employee has experienced a standard threshold shift (STS), a protective device must reduce his or her level of noise exposure to _____ or below. Short Essay (6 points) 19. Describe a semireverberant location. How can the sound level be measured in such a location? 89 ©2002 National Safety Council

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90 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 90 20. Who should take preplacement hearing-threshold tests and why are such tests important? Quiz 2 (24 total points) True/False (5 points) 1. A wall is not an effective shield against low-frequency sounds, but it can offer more protec- tion against high-frequency sounds. a. true b. false 2. Doubling sound pressure is the equivalent of doubling sound power. a. true b. false 3. The range of greatest interest in most noise measurements is between 20 Hz and 20,000 Hz. a. true b. false 4. OSHA sets specific standards for noise-generating equipment. These standards can be used as one type of administrative control for noise hazards. a. true b. false 5. A biological check of an audiometer is done by testing the hearing of a person whose hear- ing threshold is known and stable. a. true b. false Multiple Choice (6 points) 6. Which of the following is true of noise-induced hearing loss? a. It denotes injury to the sensorineural elements of the inner ear. b. It can result from direct trauma to the head or ear. c. It usually affects both ears equally in the extent and degree of loss. d. It can result from one or a few exposures to sudden intense acoustic energy. ©2002 National Safety Council

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91 9 Industrial Noise 7. The threshold of hearing can vary as much as _____ among healthy individuals. a. ±10 dB b. ±20 dB c. ±30 dB d. ±50 dB 8. Which of the following is a critical factor in the analysis of noise exposure? a. the frequency composition b. the duration of noise exposure c. the A-weighted sound level d. all of the above 9. If the noise level around a workstation is never greater than _____, the employee’s noise exposure can be considered satisfactory. a. 75 dBA b. 80 dBA c. 85 dBA d. 90 dBA 10. What is the best hearing-protective equipment for a worker who is only exposed to haz- ardous noise intermittently? a. earmuffs b. canal caps c. a helmet d. earplugs 11. What is a practical way of measuring the noise exposure of workers who perform a variety of tasks in different locations? a. an octave-band analyzer b. a noise dosimeter c. a sound survey meter d. a tape and graphic level recorder Short Answer (7 points) 12. Certain effects produced by sounds seem to be universally undesirable for all people. What are these effects? 13. Define the threshold of hearing. 91 ©2002 National Safety Council

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92 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 92 14. The upper limit of frequency at which airborne sounds can be heard depends primarily on ______ and _____. 15. Why is the A-weighted sound level measurement being used by many agencies to assess overall noise hazard? 16. What is the one serious drawback of earplugs and earmuffs as hearing-protective devices? 17. What are the five components of an effective industrial audiometric program? 18. What is NIOSH’s definition of a standard threshold shift (STS)? Short Essay (6 points) 19. To properly represent the total noise of a noise source when analyzing the source, the total noise generally needs to be broken down into its various frequencies. Why? 20. If an employee is found to have a standard threshold shift (STS), what steps must be taken by the company? ©2002 National Safety Council

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93 9 Industrial Noise Case Study (Scoring Guidelines—Answers should encompass knowledge from text, class discussion, and overheads. Scoring can be adapted to fit individual classroom use.) Over the past several months, the medical personnel at Barsten Products has spoken to a num- ber of employees who have complained about ringing in their ears toward the end of their shifts. Before the complaints started about three months ago, Barsten Products had not had any noise problems at its plant. In reviewing their files with Barsten’s industrial hygienist, the med- ical staff found that first complaint was made shortly after the company purchased a new machine for trimming metal. According to the manufacturer’s recommendations, earmuffs should be worn when operating the machine. The industrial hygienist confirmed that employ- ees working with the machine had been fitted for earmuffs; however, he also noted that some of the employees needed to wear protective eyewear at the same time. When the medical person- nel and the industrial hygienist discussed the issue with Barsten’s management, management was extremely concerned about the complaints leading to determinations of occupational hear- ing loss. The decision was made to reevaluate the risk factors for hearing loss and the com- pany’s testing program. You are a member of the team assigned to reevaluate the noise levels at the plant and the com- pany’s testing program. Before you begin to reassess the testing program, you need to review the following definitions: 1. occupational hearing loss 2. acoustic trauma 3. noise-induced hearing loss 4. Then you need to assess the risk factors for hearing loss and the problems associated with wearing earmuffs and eye protection at the same time. 93 ©2002 National Safety Council

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94 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 94 Overhead 9-1. The Noise Survey An effective noise survey answers the following questions: • How noisy is each work area? • What equipment or process is generating the noise? • Which employees are exposed to the noise? • How long are employees exposed? Three-Step Noise Survey 1. area measurements 2. workstation measurements 3. exposure duration ©2002 National Safety Council

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96 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 96 Overhead 9-3. The Objectives of Industrial Audiometry 1. Obtain a baseline audiogram that indicates an individual’s hearing ability at the time of the preplacement examina- tion. 2. Provide a record of an employee’s hearing acuity. 3. Check the effectiveness of noise-control measures by meas- uring the hearing thresholds of exposed employees. 4. Record significant hearing threshold shifts in exposed employees during the course of their employment. 5. Comply with government regulations. ©2002 National Safety Council

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97 Ionizing Radiation Quiz 1 (25 total points) True/False (7 points) 1. Light is a form of radiation energy. a. true b. false 2. Gamma-radiation is produced in the orbiting electron portion of the atom or from free electrons, whereas x-radiation is produced in the nucleus. a. true b. false 3. If a normal atom were to lose one of its orbiting electrons, the atom would become a posi- tive ion. a. true b. false 4. A neutron particle has a negative charge. a. true b. false 5. The term dose is used to express a measure of radiation that a body or other material absorbs when exposed to a radiation field. a. true b. false 10 ©2002 National Safety Council

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98 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 98 6. Neutrons and protons are the smallest particles known to man. a. true b. false 7. A simple molecule such as water can recombine after ionization. a. true b. false Multiple Choice (8 points) 8. _____ is the number of nuclear disintegrations occurring in a given quantity of material per unit of time. a. Atomic number b. Counter c. Activity d. Quality factor 9. Which unit is used to measure the rate of radioactive decay? a. becquerel b. curie c. electron volt d. roentgen 10. The _____ is the sum of the number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom. a. atomic number b. atomic weight c. molecule d. ICRP 11. Alpha-emitters are chemically similar to _____ in their action within the human body. a. iron b. vitamin C c. water d. calcium 12. What are beta particles? a. small, electrically charged particles emitted from the nucleus of radioactive atoms b. a class of hazardous, highly penetrating electromagnetic photons emitted from the nucleus of radioactive atoms c. an atom or molecule that carries either a positive or negative charge d. the inner core of an atom ©2002 National Safety Council

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99 10 Ionizing Radiation 13. What is the average annual dose from background radiation? a. 100 mR/year b. 200 mR/year c. 300 mR/year d. 400 mR/year 14. Which of the following is not a material used for shielding? a. water b. lead bricks c. concrete d. none of the above 15. Who discovered the x-ray? a. William Roentgen b. Marie Curie c. Antoine-Henri Becquerel d. Albert Einstein Short Answer (8 points) 16. Background radiation is the radiation coming from sources other than the radioactive material to be measured. What is the source of most background radiation? 17. What is a film badge? How does it work? 18. Where might a person experience neutron exposure? How is that exposure detected? 19. What is meant by the term nuclear radiation . 20. What happens when a beta-particle is slowed down or stopped? What type of shielding should be used to minimize this effect? 99 ©2002 National Safety Council

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100 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 100 21. What does a half-value layer describe? 22. Describe the ways that the effects of irradiation on living systems are studied. 23. What are the two types of injurious effects of ionizing radiation? Short Essay (2 points) 24. Describe and draw an illustration of the basic model of an atom. 25. How does an x-ray machine allow you to see various internal structures of the human body? Quiz 2 (25 total points) True/False (7 points) 1. X rays generally are machine-produced. a. true b. false ©2002 National Safety Council

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101 10 Ionizing Radiation 2. Alpha-emitters are considered to be primarily internal radiation hazards. a. true b. false 3. The occupational dose equivalent to people under the age of 18 should be less than 0.1 rem per year. a. true b. false 4. A pocket dosimeter is most often used to detect beta-radiation. a. true b. false 5. Personal electronic alarm dosimeters are used to monitor the presence of gamma-radiation. a. true b. false 6. A Geiger-Mueller counter is accurate only for the type of radiation energy for which it is calibrated. a. true b. false 7. Ionizing radiation can sometimes be detected by taste or smell. a. true b. false Multiple Choice (8 points) 8. Hydrogen-3 is another name for what element? a. tritium b. uranium c. radium d. plutonium 9. Which of the following is the most sensitive to the effects of radiation exposure? a. bone marrow b. bone c. muscle d. nerve 101 ©2002 National Safety Council

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102 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 102 10. Which of the following is a man-made, heavy element that undergoes fission under the impact of neutrons? a. uranium b. plutonium c. radium d. strontium-90 11. For cancer and genetic effects, the limiting value is specified in terms of a derived quantity called the effective dose equivalent. The effective dose equivalent received in any year by an adult worker should not exceed _____. a. 2 rem b. 5 rem c. 7 rem d. 9 rem 12. Which of the following is commonly used to produce roentgenograms of dense portions of objects? a. tracer b. gamma ray c. x ray d. ions 13. If two plates or electrodes with an electrical potential between them are placed in a con- tainer filled with air, a/an _____ is formed. a. x-ray machine b. ionization chamber c. thermoluminescense detector d. scintillation counter 14. If you double the distance from the source of radiation, the exposure would be decreased to _____ percent of the original amount. a. 10 b. 25 c. 50 d. 75 15. What is the most frequent route of entry of radioactive material into the body? a. absorption through intact skin b. absorption through broken skin c. contaminated food sources d. inhalation ©2002 National Safety Council

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103 10 Ionizing Radiation Short Answer (8 points) 16. What is half-life? What is the half-life of U-238? 17. In terms of radiation exposure, what is the latent period? 18. Over the years, the allowable radiation levels for human exposure have been consistently reduced as researchers have obtained more information on the effects of radiation exposure. What sources were used to obtain the pool of health experience data used in this research? 19. What are the three basic safety factors for protection against external radiation hazards? 20. What is meant by “safe distance?” 21. Work with radiation can and should be planned and managed so that radiation exposure to the general public is kept to a minimum. What are the potential avenues of exposure to the public? 22. What is a glove box? 23. What is a radioisotope and what are some of its uses? 103 ©2002 National Safety Council

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104 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 104 Short Essay (2 points) 24. Why should pregnant women be particularly concerned about exposure to ionizing radiation? 25. What is a theromoluminescence detector, how is it used, and what is the advantage of using one? Case Study (Scoring Guidelines—Answers should encompass knowledge from text, class discussion, and overheads. Scoring can be adapted to fit individual classroom use.) Dr. Lila Engelbreit is an engineer for Artemis Labs. Each day on the job, she and her follow sci- entists run the risk of exposure to nuclear radiation. 1. What is nuclear radiation? 2. What are some of the sources of nuclear radiation? ©2002 National Safety Council

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3. What are the most common types of ionizing radiation? Even with the extensive precautions Artemis Labs takes to protect its employees, accidental exposures can occur. 4. What are the biological effects of ionizing radiation on the human body? 5. How was this health data obtained? 105 10 Ionizing Radiation 105 ©2002 National Safety Council

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106 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 106 All employees at Artemis Labs, no matter where they are working within the facility, are required to monitor and measure their exposure to radiation sources. 6. Explain brieﬂy how each of the following monitoring instruments works: film badges, ther- moluminescence detectors, pocket dosimeters, and electronic alarm dosimeters. 7. Which one of these is universally applicable? Artemis Labs will soon expand their programs and will need to develop a new facility to better meet their needs. 8. What operational factors would they need to ascertain before deciding upon the necessary level of radiation protection? ©2002 National Safety Council

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108 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene Overhead 10-2. Relative Penetrating Power of Alpha- Beta-, and Gamma-Radiation (Reprinted with permission from Atomic Radiation , RCA Service Co., Inc., 1957.) ©2002 National Safety Council

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110 Overhead 10-4. Effect of Distance on Radiation Exposure Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene (Reprinted with permission from Safe Handling of Radioisotopes in Industrial Radiography, Picker X-Ray Corp., 1962.) ©2002 National Safety Council

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113 Nonionizing Radiation Quiz 1 (23 points total) True/False (5 points) 1. Stopping electric fields is easy. a. true b. false 2. Licensing is required to use the industrial, scientific, and medical bands of the electromag- netic spectrum. a. true b. false 3. The protons in the nuclei of atoms attract an identical number of electrons, so the atom is neutral. a. rue b. false 4. Lead is necessary for RF/MW shielding. a. true b. false 5. Common glass does not offer complete protection against UV-A, although it is very effective against UV-B and UV-C. a. true b. false 11 ©2002 National Safety Council

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114 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 114 Multiple Choice (5 points) 6. In what direction do magnetic fields exist in relation to the direction of the current ﬂow? a. parallel b. perpendicular c. surrounding d. 45 degree angle 7. To what level did the International Commission for Non-Ionizing Radiation Protection raise the TWA exposure limit for static magnetic fields? a. 50 mT b. 100 mT c. 150 mT d. 200 mT 8. What does 1 watt times 1 second equal? a. 1 nanowatt b. 1 joule of energy c. 2 microwatts d. none of the above 9. What are the target organs of optical radiation (more than one answer)? a. eyes b. testes c. lungs d. skin 10. What is the most common skin effect from infrared (IR) and visible light? a. wrinkles b. skin cancer c. sunburn d. excessive levels of vitamin D Short Answer (10 points) 11. What does the term alternating current refer to? 12. How often do polarity changes in the current occur in the United States? ©2002 National Safety Council

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115 11 Nonionizing Radiation 13. What is the basic law of electrical engineering and how is it expressed mathematically? 14. What is the speed of electromagnetic radiation in air and in a vacuum? 15. What is the 2001 Threshold Limit Value (TLV  ) for DC electric fields from 0 Hz to 100 Hz? 16. What is one medical electronic device that can suffer negative effects from static magnetic fields? 17. How are magnetic fields controlled? 18. What portion of the radiofrequency spectrum is the range for microwaves? 19. How much radiation leakage is allowed under the present emission standard for microwave ovens? 20. What two undesirable effects on the skin are produced by UV-B and UV-C? Short Essay (3 points) 21. How are magnetic fields often measured? 115 ©2002 National Safety Council

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116 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 116 22. How are electric fields at frequencies ranging up to 100 kHz often measured? 23. Define dose rate . Quiz 2 (23 points total) True/False (5 points) 1. People who work in strong magnetic fields should avoid unusual shift work that causes them to lose track of day–night cycles. a. true b. false 2. Lasers can be operated in two major modes: pulsed and continuous wave. a. true b. false 3. The main engineering control for lasers is personal protective equipment. a. true b. false 4. Cadmium exposure is a potential hazard for ﬂuorescent tube breakers. a. true b. false 5. The idea that power line fields can inﬂuence cell membranes has now been rejected. a. true b. false ©2002 National Safety Council

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117 11 Nonionizing Radiation Multiple Choice (4 points) 6. What are two common engineering controls for optical radiation, particularly for welding areas? a. copper tape b. bafﬂes c. sight barriers d. a Faraday cage 7. A recent review of laser accidents showed that 37.2 percent of laser accidents occurred ______ a. during alignment. b. during initial setup. c. because of inadequate engineering controls. d. due to failure of interlocks. 8. What is the “gauss” being replaced with? a. the tesla b. the orc c. a plasma etcher d. a dipole antenna 9. What dimension is necessary for the mesh openings in metal screens used for RF/MW shielding? a. 1 / 4 wavelength b. < 4nm c. 1.5 μ m-3 μ m d. 1 / 2 wavelength Short Answer (11 points) 10. What do optical radiation and laser safety standards use as a measure of angle rather than degrees? 11. In optical radiation and laser safety standards, what angular measure is used to describe portions of the surface of a sphere? 12. What is laser an acronym for? 117 ©2002 National Safety Council

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118 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 118 13. What are the health hazards of lasers, and what are the other hazards of laser use, excluding laser weapons? 14. What are the two basic units of measure for illuminance? 15. At what frequencies is radiation (not just a field) likely to be found? 16. When does an object absorb the most radiation energy? 17. What interval do radiofrequency standards rely on, rather than eight-hour time-weighted averages? 18. What do the Swedish MPR standards apply to? 19. What is a Faraday cage and what is its use? 20. Why are lasers especially hazardous to the eyes? Short Essay (3 points) 21. What standard on radiofrequency/microwave exposure does OSHA enforce? ©2002 National Safety Council

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119 11 Nonionizing Radiation 22. Basically, how do lasers work? 23. What is the form of retinal damage that is unique to visible and IR-A lasers? Case Study (Scoring Guidelines—Answers should encompass knowledge from text, class discussion, and overheads. Scoring can be adapted to fit individual classroom use.) Amy Fong teaches science at Avondale Middle School. Prior to teaching, Amy was employed at a research laboratory, using sophisticated equipment, including lasers. Of course, her students aren’t impressed by lasers. They tell her that laser technology has been around so long and become so common that anybody can buy a laser pointer at an office supply store. Amy now has the perfect opportunity to explain some important points about lasers. She gives a quick history of laser pointers. 1. What type were the first laser pointers and what was the major drawback to them? 119 ©2002 National Safety Council

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120 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 120 2. What replaced the original pointers? 3. Amy now asks if anyone can explain the classifications for lasers and how that relates to pointers. ©2002 National Safety Council

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123 Thermal Stress Quiz 1 (24 total points) True/False (5 points) 1. The health risk zones for heat and cold stress are located just beyond the comfort zone on the thermal stress continuum. a. true b. false 2. Insulation can reduce heat ﬂow by radiation, convection, and conduction. a. true b. false 3. If the clothing worn by a worker is likely to substantially reduce evaporative cooling, then heat strain monitoring is the most feasible approach for evaluating heat stress. a. true b. false 4. According to NIOSH’s Recommended Exposure Limit, as metabolic rate increases, the WBGT threshold increases as well. a. true b. false 5. Reﬂective clothing may increase heat stress exposure because it reduces sweat evaporation. a. true b. false 12 ©2002 National Safety Council

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124 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 124 Multiple Choice (6 points) 6. If according to the thermal balance equation the value of S is zero, which of the following is true? a. the body is gaining heat b. the body is losing heat c. the body is in thermal equilibrium d. none of the above 7. A pale face, a high pulse rate, and dizziness are signs and symptoms of _________ a. heat stroke. b. heat syncope. c. heat exhaustion. d. dehydration. 8. Which of the following factors in the thermal balance equation depends on air temperature and the volume of air inhaled? a. C resp b. R c. E resp d. K 9. If an employee experiences more than a _____ loss of body weight between the beginning and the end of a work shift, then he or she is likely to be excessively dehydrated. a. 0.5-percent b. 1.0-percent c. 1.5-percent d. 2.0-percent 10. A burning sensation, blisters, and tingling are signs and symptoms of _________ a. frostnip. b. trench foot. c. Raynaud’s disorder. d. frostbite. 11. Which of the following is not an engineering control for cold stress? a. redesigning equipment to make it safe to use below 2 C (36 F) b. requiring that mittens be used below –17 C (1 F) c. adjusting ventilation to maintain workers’ core temperatures at 36 C (96.8 F) d. providing hand warming for fine hand work below 16 C (61 F) ©2002 National Safety Council

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125 12 Thermal Stress Short Answer (7 points) 12. What are the three factors that inﬂuence the degree of thermal stress a worker feels? 13. Why does increased metabolism result in increased rates of heat gain? 14. What is the equation for local heat storage? What does each term in the equation represent? 15. If workers are exposed to heat stress on an episodic basis, how is their heat stress assessed? 16. Describe three ways of controlling diffuse sources of radiant heat. 17. What are two physiological responses to cold stress? 18. When workers are at risk for cold stress, what general controls should be implemented? Short Essay (6 points) 19. How does the skin cool the body? What role does sweating play in the process? 125 ©2002 National Safety Council

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126 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 126 20. What causes hypothermia and how does it affect the body? How can first aid be used to treat hypothermia? Quiz 2 (24 total points) True/False (5 points) 1. The major emphasis for evaluation and control of thermal stress is focused on the transition from the discomfort zone to the health risk zone for both heat and cold stress. a. true b. false 2. In heat stress, metabolic rate can add 10 to 100 times more heat to the body than radiation and convection combined. a. true b. false 3. The value of E req is positive because it measures the amount of perspiration being produced by the body as heat ﬂows away from it. a. true b. false 4. Acclimation decreases the ability to work under heat stress and increases the risk of heat disorders. a. true b. false 5. The insulating value of clothing generally comes from layering clothes rather than wearing just one garment. a. true b. false ©2002 National Safety Council

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127 12 Thermal Stress Multiple Choice (6 points) 6. Faintness and blurred vision are signs and symptoms of ___________ a. heat stroke. b. heat syncope. c. heat exhaustion. d. dehydration. 7. If the average heart rate over an eight-hour day is greater than _____, the work and heat stress may be excessive. a. 80 bpm b. 90 bpm c. 100 bpm d. 110 bpm 8. Which of the following can be a precursor to heat exhaustion? a. heat cramps b. heat syncope c. heat rash d. dehydration 9. Which of the following is not true of heat-balance analysis? a. It uses an empirical model to evaluate heat stress. b. The Heat Stress Index is one type of heat-balance analysis. c. It analyzes heat exchange between a hypothetical person and the environment. d. The accuracy of heat-balance analysis is limited because certain variables cannot be eas- ily measured. 10. Vascular disease can be a factor in all of the following except __________ a. frostbite. b. Raynaud’s disorder. c. hypothermia. d. chilblain. 11. A worker’s manual dexterity begins to decrease after 10–20 minutes of uninterrupted work at temperatures below __________ a. 15 C (59 F). b. 16 C (61 F). c. 17 C (63 F). d. 18 C (64 F). 127 ©2002 National Safety Council

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128 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 128 Short Answer (7 points) 12. What is the general equation for thermal balance presented in the text? What does each term in the equation represent? 13. What are the three major characteristics of clothing that affect thermal balance? 14. Name the physiological adaptations to thermal stress that are collectively known as heat strain. 15. There are four environmental factors that are central to evaluating heat stress. What are these four factors? 16. What are the main topics that should be covered during periodic heat-stress training ses- sions? 17. When temperatures fall below _____, steps should be taken to implement workplace moni- toring. 18. Where along the continuum of thermal stress are demands on physiological adaptation modest and productivity greatest? Short Essay (6 points) 19. How can you determine whether workplace conditions should be evaluated for heat stress? ©2002 National Safety Council

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129 12 Thermal Stress 20. Explain the difference between engineering and administrative controls. Give some exam- ples of each in relation to heat stress controls. Case Study (Scoring Guidelines—Answers should encompass knowledge from text, class discussion, and overheads. Scoring can be adapted to fit individual classroom use.) The parts manufacturing division of Allied World Inc. is located near Detroit. Employees come to work in the heat and humidity in the summer and deal with snow, ice, and wind chills in the winter. The facility generally handles the seasonal changes in temperature without a problem, and employees are able to work in comfortable conditions. In fact, the ventilation system serv- ing the main section of the plant was recently upgraded. Representatives visiting the facility from the main office were pleased with the outcome of the improvements. Nevertheless, they remained concerned about the warehouse portion of the plant, where the air temperature felt significantly different. They noted that some of the workers and truck drivers risked being exposed to heat and cold stress during loading and unloading procedures in an area of the facil- ity that had been converted to a loading dock. In some cases, these employees were also respon- sible for retrieving supplies stacked outside the warehouse and moving them back into the plant. In preparation for the summer months, the representatives decided to designate a task force to evaluate thermal stress in the warehouse and around the loading docks. 1. You have been asked to brief members of the task force on the risk factors for heat stress and ways they can recognize heat stress without testing workers for temperature, heart rate, or other physiological responses. 129 ©2002 National Safety Council

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133 Ergonomics Quiz 1 (20 total points) True/False (5 points) 1. Fitts’ Law is used to express motion time. a. true b. false 2. Frequent short rest periods reduce cumulative fatigue better than a few long breaks. a. true b. false 3. Single-percentile constructs are the best method for designing equipment and workstations. a. true b. false 4. The only active action a muscle can take is to contract. a. true b. false 5. Roughly 50 percent of back pain episodes cannot be linked to a specific incident. a. true b. false 13 ©2002 National Safety Council

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134 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 134 Multiple Choice (6 points) 6. The _____ includes the cranial and spinal nerves. a. central nervous system b. peripheral nervous system c. autonomic nervous system d. somatic nervous system 7. Control of voluntary movements, sensory experience, abstract thought, memory, learning, and consciousness is located in the _____ a. basal ganglia. b. cortex. c. cerebrum. d. cerebellum. 8. Under optimal conditions, simple auditory, visual, and tactile reaction times are about _____ seconds. a. 0.2 b. 0.5 c. 0.8 d. 1.2 9. All but one of the following functions is addressed by biomechanics. Which one does not fit in this group? a. range of motion b. body posture c. mental processes d. human muscle strength 10. Of the four groups mentioned below, which has the largest reported incidence ratio for compensation claims for back injuries? a. material handlers b. garbage collectors c. construction workers d. nurses 11. In general, women are about _____ as strong as men. a. 25 percent b. 50 percent c. 66 percent d. 75 percent ©2002 National Safety Council

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135 13 Ergonomics Short Answer (7 points) 12. What is the difference between “underloading” and “overloading”? 13. What is affordance ? Use a specific example in your answer. 14. Define reaction time, motion time, and response time . 15. What limits an individual’s capacity for physical work? 16. What is the simplest technique for heart rate assessment? 17. What is anthropometry? What are the two defined postures used in anthropometry? 18. How are Newton’s Second and Third Laws used to assess human muscle strength? Short Essay (2 points) 19. Define fatigue . What is the primary reason for muscle fatigue? How might fatigue be avoided? 135 ©2002 National Safety Council

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136 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 136 20. If all opportunities to automate or mechanize the movement of material have been exhausted and it becomes necessary for people to handle material directly, certain guide- lines should be established to enable the operator to perform the work safely and efficiently. Summarize those guidelines here. Quiz 2 (20 total points) True/False (5 points) 1. With proper lifting techniques, people can actually increase their muscular strength/endurance and cardiovascular endurance as well as prevent injuries. a. true b. false 2. If people must move material, make sure it is predominantly in the vertical plane. a. true b. false 3. While manipulating a hand tool, the wrist should be pronated. a. true b. false 4. Sitting at a workstation provides more available body strength to the worker than standing. a. true b. false 5. If the 95 th -percentile knee height were used to determine the height of a workstation table, nearly everybody’s legs would fit under the table. a. true b. false ©2002 National Safety Council

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137 13 Ergonomics Multiple Choice (6 points) 6. _____ permits the operator to modify the work environment and equipment so that it con- forms to that individual’s particular set of physical characteristics as well as to subjective preferences. a. Maximal dimension b. Minimal dimension c. Flexibility d. Adjustability 7. The area in which form and color of objects can be seen by both fixated eyes is the worker’s _____ a. visual field. b. peripheral vision. c. ear-eye line. d. none of the above. 8. _____ is the result of compression of the ulnar nerve below the notch of the elbow. a. Carpal tunnel syndrome b. Cubital tunnel syndrome c. DeQuervain’s syndrome d. Epicondylitis 9. _____ is a special case of tendosynovitis where the tendon becomes nearly locked so that its forced movement is not smooth but snaps or jerks. a. Trigger finger b. Ulnar nerve entrapment c. White finger d. Ganglion 10. Early symptoms of cumulative trauma disorder may be reversible through ____ a. work modifications. b. rest breaks. c. exercise. d. all of the above. e. a and b only. 11. A _____ is a small, ﬂat, synovia-filled sac lined with a slippery cushion that prevents rub- bing of a muscle or tendon against bone. a. bursa b. ligament c. sheath d. joint 137 ©2002 National Safety Council

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138 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 138 Short Answer (7 points) 12. Material handling is among the most frequent and the most severe causes of injury all over the world and in U.S. facilities. Kroemer identified seven keys as the major ergonomic tools for safe and efficient material handling. What are these keys? 13. Biomechanical research has shown that the straight-back/bent-knees lift is inappropriate for many tasks. Why? What types of lifts have been suggested as a replacement? 14. Define the terms in the following equation. What does this equation represent? RWL = LC * HM * VM * DM * AM * FM * CM 15. Why would a person decide to wear a belt while lifting heavy objects? Are they effective at preventing injuries? Why or why not? 16. Five general rules govern the design of a workplace. What are they? 17. What are the most frequent health problems voiced by computer operators? What are the principal causes? 18. What are the work factors that can cause CTDs? ©2002 National Safety Council

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139 13 Ergonomics Short Essay (2 points) 19. Light signals are often used on control panels to alert an operator of the system status. What colors are commonly used, and what do each of them mean? 20. Which body components are at risk for CTDs? Describe the type of traumas that can occur. Case Study (Scoring Guidelines—Answers should encompass knowledge from text, class discussion, and overheads. Scoring can be adapted to fit individual classroom use.) Bruant Books is an academic press with a small staff of dedicated editors. Their office has been located in the same building for more than 75 years, and most of their office furniture is nearly as old. Several employees have recently been complaining of “writer’s cramp,” and have requested that management update their office with human-friendly furniture. Management has agreed that it is long overdue. 1. What is the proper name for the condition the employees are experiencing? Describe, in medical terms, what is happening to them. What can be done to avoid this condition? 139 ©2002 National Safety Council

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140 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 140 2. A former manager had told the employees to “sit up straight” in their chairs because it was the preferred method for a healthy posture. Was he correct? Why or why not? The new manager, Mike Bruant, has picked up several catalogs for office furniture and has decided that he would like to purchase chairs with free-ﬂowing motion design. 3. What are the basic tenants of this design? 4. When designing the layout for the work task and workstation of his editors, Mike needs to keep in mind the three links between a person and the task. What are these links? ©2002 National Safety Council

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142 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 142 Overhead 13-2. Interactions among Workstation Design, Work Postures, and Work Activities and Their Effect on the Computer Operator’s Well Being and Performance ©2002 National Safety Council

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145 Biological Hazards Quiz 1 (23 points total) True/False (6 points) 1. Viruses are totally dependent on their hosts for replication. a. true b. false 2. Viruses only infect higher plants and animals. a. true b. false 3. Direct contact of an infected person with another person is common in the laboratory envi- ronment. a. true b. false 4. Because of the stringent requirements associated with BSL-4 containment, only a few facili- ties that meet this standard have been built and are operational. a. true b. false 5. Decorative plants are restricted from use at BSL-3 and higher. a. true b. false 14 ©2002 National Safety Council

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146 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 146 6. Personal habits such as nail biting must be avoided because they offer an excellent means of ingesting pathogens. a. true b. false Multiple Choice (4 points) 7. What are the two categories of microorganisms? a. prokaryotes b. eukaryotes c. gram-negative d. gram-positive 8. What is the most frequently used and effective example of laboratory containment equip- ment? a. biological safety cabinet b. vertical-ﬂow clean benches c. controlled access d. directional one-pass airﬂow 9. What two serious hazards can be presented by centrifugation? a. electrical sparks b. excessive noise c. dispersion of aerosols d. mechanical failure 10. Which of the following terms implies complete elimination or destruction of all forms of microbial life? a. decontamination b. disinfection c. sterilization d. purification Short Answer (10 points) 11. What prompted OSHA to establish the bloodborne pathogens standard in 1991? 12. Define infection . ©2002 National Safety Council

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147 14 Biological Hazards 13. What are four occupations in which workers are exposed to animal-related allergens and to infectious agents or their toxins? 14. What control measures should be used for the zoonotic diseases considered to be a hazard for agricultural workers? 15. What biosafety guidelines are most commonly used in the United States for containment of biohazardous agents in the workplace? 16. What is one of the most critical workplace controls used to minimize exposure to HIV, HBV, and HCV? 17. What is the infection control concept of universal precaution? 18. What are the four components of an epidemiological investigation of any disease outbreak (natural or artificial)? 19. What health effects are consistent with endotoxin exposure? 20. What appears to cause organic dust toxic syndrome? 147 ©2002 National Safety Council

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148 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 148 Short Essay (3 points) 21. What are three ways that infectious airborne particles can be generated? 22. What is primary containment and how is it achieved? 23. What is secondary containment and how is it attained? Quiz 2 (25 points total) True/False (5 points) 1. Work-associated infections are underreported in the scientific literature. a. true b. false 2. OSHA’s bloodborne pathogens standard applies only to the health care community. a. true b. false 3. Hepatitis B virus is transmitted by parenteral inoculation and airborne transmission. a. true b. false ©2002 National Safety Council

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149 14 Biological Hazards 4. Decontamination of persons exposed to agents associated with bioterrorism is less impor- tant than decontamination of persons exposed to chemicals. a. true b. false 5. Humans have long coexisted with legionellae, the bacteria that cause Legionnaires’ disease. a. true b. false Multiple Choice (5 points) 6. In what species do viroids cause diseases? a. fish b. birds c. plants d. humans 7. What are zoonotic diseases? a. diseases common to wild animals in captivity b. diseases limited to animals c. diseases acquired from spores d. diseases that affect both humans and animals 8. What is the most common chronic bloodborne infection in the United States? a. HIV b. hepatitis C virus c. hepatitis B virus d. tuberculosis 9. How much of the world’s population is tuberculosis estimated to affect? a. one-tenth b. one-quarter c. one-third d. half 10. What are the two clinically and epidemiologically distinct manifestations of legionellosis? a. Legionnaires’ disease b. hantavirus c. salmonella d. Pontiac fever 149 ©2002 National Safety Council

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150 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 150 Short Answer (12 points) 11. Name five types of microorganisms. 12. What are exogenous infections? 13. What are three principal modes of transmission for infectious microorganisms and other biological materials? 14. How do vector-borne infections occur? 15. What are the major infectious hazards for women who are pregnant or intend to become pregnant? 16. What conditions must be present before an infection occurs? 17. What are the most frequently used disinfectants in the workplace? 18. How is hepatitis C virus transmitted primarily? 19. To what is much of the current increase in cases of tuberculosis attributed? 20. How is tuberculosis usually transmitted? ©2002 National Safety Council

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151 14 Biological Hazards 21. Why have large water supplies not been considered attractive targets for bioterrorists? 22. What are the typical indoor sources of biological agents that can cause adverse health effects? List at least three. Short Essay (3 points) 23. What modern demographic and ecologic conditions favor the spread of infectious diseases? 24. What components are usually included in a biosafety program? 25. What are the key elements of an effective response plan to a bioterrorism attack? 151 ©2002 National Safety Council

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152 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 152 Case Study (Scoring Guidelines-Answers should encompass knowledge from text, class discussion, and overheads. Scoring can be adapted to fit individual classroom use.) The Clearwater Building is a small, three-story office building in one of the older parts of town. Merrit Services, a four-person desktop publishing company, just moved into some space on the second ﬂoor. After only a few days, though, two of the employees are complaining about hav- ing headaches and noticing a persistent musty smell in the area where they work. Charlene Merrit, the owner of the company, calls the building manager to discuss the problem and find out if there have been any other complaints. The manager admits that several other tenants have had similar complaints, but quickly adds that the problem is being investigated by an industrial hygienist. 1. Is a specialist like that really necessary? Couldn’t the maintenance supervisor just take a careful look around? 2. Are there regulations that apply to this kind of situation? ©2002 National Safety Council

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Overhead 14-1. Seven Basic Rules of Biosafety 1. Do not mouth pipette. 2. Manipulate infectious ﬂuids carefully to avoid spills and the production of aerosols and droplets. 3. Restrict the use of needles and syringes to procedures for which there are no alternatives; use needles, syringes, and other sharps carefully to avoid self-inoculation; and dispose of sharps in leak- and puncture-resistant containers. 4. Use protective laboratory coats and gloves. 5. Wash hands after all laboratory activities, after removing gloves, and immediately following contact with infectious materials. 6. Decontaminate work surfaces before and after use, and immediately after spills. 7. Do not eat, drink, store food, apply cosmetics, or smoke in the laboratory. 153 14 Biological Hazards 153 ©2002 National Safety Council

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154 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 154 Overhead 14-2. Biosafety Containment Level Requirements Biosafety Level 1 (BSL-1) • for work involving defined and well-characterized strains of viable microorganisms • no known or minimal potential hazard to laboratory per- sonnel or the environment • no special competence is required • training in the specific procedures should be provided • should be supervision by a scientist with general training in microbiology or a related science • laboratory is not separated from general building traffic • work is conducted on the open bench Biosafety Level 2 (BSL-2) • for work with many moderate-risk agents present in the community (indigenous) • associated with human disease of varying degrees of severity • agents are usually of moderate potential hazard to person- nel and the environment • should have a level of competency equal to or greater than one would expect in a college department of microbiology • limited access to the laboratory when work is in progress Biosafety Level 3 (BSL-3) • for work with indigenous or exotic agents where the poten- tial for infection by aerosols is real • disease may have serious or lethal consequences • partial containment equipment, such as Class I or Class II biological safety cabinets, is used for all manipulations of infectious material • special engineering design criteria and work practices are associated with BSL-3 containment ©2002 National Safety Council

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155 14 Biological Hazards Biosafety Level 4 (BSL-4) • for work with dangerous and exotic agents • high individual risk of life-threatening disease • agent has a low infectious dose and poses a danger for the community from person-to-person spread • BSL-4 containment is appropriate for all manipulations of potentially infectious diagnostic materials, isolates, and nat- urally or experimentally infected animals • maximum containment equipment, such as a Class III bio- logical safety cabinet, or partial containment equipment in combination with a full-body, air-supplied, positive-pres- sure personnel suit is used for all procedures and activities ©2002 National Safety Council

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157 Evaluation Quiz 1 (24 total points) True/False (5 points) 1. The 6.2 million occupational work-related injuries and illnesses reported by the U.S. Depart- ment of Labor’s Bureau of Statistics in 1997 represents the actual number of injuries that occurred in private industry. a. true b. false 2. If during an initial field survey, an industrial hygienist smells a chemical and experiences some eye irritation, it can be assumed that the workers in the plant are being overexposed to one or more chemicals. a. true b. false 3. It is generally assumed that the effects of chemicals acting on different organs should be considered jointly because they may produce additive or synergistic results. a. true b. false 4. The results of personal monitoring should be used to determine the effectiveness of control measures implemented to prevent overexposure. a. true b. false 15 ©2002 National Safety Council

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158 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 158 5. If windows are kept open during one season and closed during another, regular air sam- pling only needs to be done during the season when the windows are closed. a. true b. false Multiple Choice (6 points) 6. What is the most satisfactory method of cleaning dry, dusty materials without producing excessive amounts of airborne contaminants? a. steam cleaning b. vacuuming c. using compressed air d. wet mopping 7. OSHA recognizes _____ as one method of evaluating the hazards of a process. a. failure mode and effects analysis (FMEA) b. what-if scenarios c. fault tree analysis d. all of the above 8. Which of the following is not true of personal monitoring? a. Personal monitoring can be conducted during employee breaks. b. It is important to interview an individual before, during, and after personal monitoring. c. Personal monitoring measures the ambient air concentration of a substance in a given area. d. Personal monitoring is usually done during a specific time period. 9. A Certified Industrial Hygienist (CIH) has met certain educational requirements and has at least _____ years experience in the field. a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 10. When a contaminant is released into the atmosphere as a dust, mist, or fume, its concentra- tion can be expressed in all of the following ways except ________ a. ppm. b. µg/m 3 . c. oz/1,000 ft 3 . d. gcf. ©2002 National Safety Council

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159 15 Evaluation 11. If after analysis a sampling result is less than the PEL, it ________ a. should be interpreted as a clean bill of health. b. is considered to be in compliance with the law. c. guarantees that the workplace is safe for employees. d. is adequate to protect employees from multiple exposures. Short Answer (7 points) 12. Required by OSHA’s Hazard Communication Standard, 29 CFR 1910.1200, _____ are used to anticipate possible hazards and to ensure these risks are communicated to employers and employees before they are encountered in the workplace. 13. Define process safety management . 14. What are the three categories of biological monitoring? 15. If a worker’s medical evaluation shows that he is overexposed to lead, what does OSHA require of his employer? 16. What is the definition of accuracy ? 17. When calculating UCLs and LCLs, OSHA distinguishes between three types of samples. What are they? 18. When analyzing sampling results, what happens if samples were not collected for a one- hour period and existing documentation does not show that exposure levels were constant? 159 ©2002 National Safety Council

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160 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 160 Short Essay (6 points) 19. Recognizing hazards, whether they are chemical, physical, or biological, follows a basic, systematic procedure. What is this procedure? What questions should be asked during the procedure? 20. What guidelines should be followed in order to ensure accuracy and precision when sampling? Quiz 2 (24 total points) True/False (5 points) 1. Process ﬂow sheets are generally more useful than individual assessments when evaluating the hazards present in workplaces where tasks vary on a daily basis. a. true b. false 2. The initial field survey of a facility follows the ﬂow of materials through the facility and is used to establish a baseline of current conditions in the workplace. a. true b. false 3. Biological monitoring is limited by privacy, invasiveness, and worker acceptance issues. a. true b. false ©2002 National Safety Council

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161 15 Evaluation 4. The OSHA airborne exposure limits, RELs, and TLVs ® were developed under the assump- tion that workers are exposed to chemicals one at a time since this is most often the case. a. true b. false 5. When measuring contaminant concentrations for gases and vapors, it is necessary to know the atmospheric temperature and pressure under which the samples were taken. a. true b. false Multiple Choice (6 points) 6. Which of the following are also known as ceiling levels and are used to evaluate brief expo- sure times or peak releases? a. TWAs b. STELs c. RELs d. TLVs ® 7. Which of the following is true of chemical inventories? a. They classify the degree of risk from exposure to the chemicals listed. b. They specify the quantities of chemicals used in various processes. c. They indicate the point in a process at which employees risk being exposed. d. They identify the chemical hazards that are present in a process. 8. The records to be kept during air sampling include _________ a. the total time sampled. b. the use of personal protective equipment. c. the location of general exhaust ventilation. d. all of the above. 9. Which of the following is true of biological monitoring? a. The results of biological monitoring must be reproducible. b. Biological monitoring is not limited by intraindividual variability. c. Laboratory reliability does not affect the outcome of biological monitoring. d. The significance of results from biological monitoring is never open to interpretation. 10. Which of the following affect precision? a. poorly calibrated equipment b. method error c. intraday concentration ﬂuctuations d. incorrect calculations 161 ©2002 National Safety Council

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162 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 162 11. According to TLV ® guidelines, short-term exposures may exceed _____ the TLV ® for no more than a total of 30 minutes during the workday. a. 1.5 times b. 2 times c. 2.5 times d. 3 times Short Answer (7 points) 12. What is the unequal distribution of risks that industrial hygienists should consider when evaluating workplace hazards? 13. Interviews with workers can provide some of the best information about hazard informa- tion. What are four questions workers should be asked? 14. The increased risk of lung cancer that results from smoking and asbestos exposure is an example of a _____. 15. What are two factors that should be considered when determining which employees work- ing in a room run the highest risk of hazard exposure? 16. The number of samples that needs to be collected depends on three factors. What are these factors? 17. What is the formula for calculating the time-weighted average exposure (TWA) for an eight- hour workday? 18. If published standards or guidelines do not exist for a chemical, how can industrial hygien- ists evaluate sampling results? ©2002 National Safety Council

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163 15 Evaluation Short Essay (6 points) 19. Although area sampling is a good technique for determining the need to develop, imple- ment, and improve control measures, it does have drawbacks. What are some of its draw- backs? 20. In some cases, an industrial hygienist might decide to sample the worst case scenario first, during the time of greatest exposure, at a location known to have posed problems. What are three advantages of this strategy? Case Study (Scoring Guidelines—Answers should encompass knowledge from text, class discussion, and overheads. Scoring can be adapted to fit individual classroom use.) For the last several years, Fingston Labs has been relying primarily on biological monitoring and medical surveillance to evaluate hazard exposures for its employees. It collects samples based on the worst-case scenario method. In other words, samples are collected during the time of greatest exposure at locations known to have caused problems in the past. As a result, the most highly exposed employees have been tested on a regular basis for some time. Results of the sampling show that exposures do not exceed PELs or STELs, and Fingston management is confident the employees are working in safe conditions. However, industrial hygienists at the company do not feel as confident about the safety of working conditions in the facility. They realize that the results may not be reliable because the sampling periods were not chosen ran- domly and are not statistically representative of the entire exposed group. They are also con- cerned because changes have been made to some of the manufacturing processes, but Fingston has been using the same monitoring and sampling process. As an industrial hygienist at Fin- gston, you would like to propose some alternatives to the worst-case scenario method. 163 ©2002 National Safety Council

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164 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 164 1. What do you know about typical-day sampling? 2. Is it a good idea to rely only on biological monitoring and medical surveillance? 3. Which employees should be sampled? 4. How would a process ﬂow sheet help you? ©2002 National Safety Council

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166 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 166 Overhead 15-2. Types of Monitoring Monitoring is a continuous process of observation, measurement, and judgment. Various types of monitoring include: • personal monitoring • environmental, or area, monitoring • biological monitoring • medical screening ©2002 National Safety Council

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167 15 Evaluation Overhead 15-3. Accuracy and Precision A measurement can be precise, but not accurate. A measurement can also be accurate, but not precise. (Reprinted with permission from Powell CH, Hosey AD, eds. The Industrial Environment––Its Evaluation and Control, 2nd ed. U.S. Public Health Services Pub No. 614, 1965.) ©2002 National Safety Council

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169 Air Sampling Quiz 1 (16 total points) True/False (5 points) 1. Since all adsorption is exothermic, adsorption is increased at higher temperatures. a. true b. false 2. The filter is the most common collection device for particulates. a. true b. false 3. Personal air sampling is the preferred method of evaluating worker exposure to airborne chemicals. a. true b. false 4. A vapor is the gaseous phase of a substance that under standard conditions exists as a liq- uid or a solid in equilibrium with its vapor. a. true b. false 5. The impinger is one of the oldest methods of particulate samplings, but it is little used today. a. true b. false 16 ©2002 National Safety Council

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170 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 170 Multiple Choice (5 points) 6. What is the most commonly used solid sorbent? a. porous polymers b. molecular sieves c. silica gel d. activated charcoal 7. What is the most commonly used filter for aerosol samplers? a. membrane filters b. glass and quartz filters c. polycarbonate straight pore filters d. none of the above 8. Which of the following absorption devices is the easiest to use? a. spiral absorbers b. gas wash bottles c. fritted bubblers d. helical absorbers 9. A/an _____ is used to collect particles of respirable size. Repirable particles are those that are retained in the lung and are generally considered to be of an aerodynamic size below 10 μ m. a. electrostatic precipitator b. elutriator c. impinger d. cyclone 10. A/an _____ can be used to determine particle size distribution. a. electrostatic precipitator b. inertial impactor c. suction pump d. elutriator Short Answer (5 points) 11. What is the definition of “breathing zone?” ©2002 National Safety Council

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171 16 Air Sampling 12. Air-sample collection devices are made of five basic components. What are these compo- nents? 13. What is meant by “breakthrough” in adsorption sampling? 14. Explain how a wet-test meter works. 15. Explain how a precision rotameter works. When it is typically used? Short Essay (1 point) 16. Explain how a critical-ﬂow orifice works. Quiz 2 (16 total points) True/False (5 points) 1. Passive monitors are not often used because they are cost-prohibitive. a. true b. false 2. Low-ﬂow suction pumps are used for filter, cyclone, and impinger sampling. a. true b. false 171 ©2002 National Safety Council

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172 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 172 3. OSHA regulations do not specify the use of a particular air-sampling method, but only that the method used has been proven accurate. a. true b. false 4. A soap-bubble meter can be used to calibrate a rotameter. a. true b. false 5. As the concentration of contaminant in air increases, breakthrough capacity (mg adsorbed) of a solid sorbent bed increases, but breakthrough volume (L of air sampled) decreases. a. true b. false Multiple Choice (4 points) 6. The _____ is commonly used for cotton dust sampling. It consists of a large tube through which the direction of airﬂow is opposite to the direction of gravity. a. vertical elutriator b. horizontal elutriator c. inertial impactor d. impinger 7. Which of the following is an example of a primary calibration device? a. rotameter b. wet test meter c. soap bubble meter d. dry test meter 8. OSHA standard 29 CFR 1910.20, Access to Employee Exposure and Medical Records, requires that employee exposure records be kept for _____ year(s). a. 1 b. 12 c. 25 d. 30 9. Background data of air sampling such as lab reports and field notes need to be retained for at least _____ year(s). a. 1 b. 12 c. 25 d. 30 ©2002 National Safety Council

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173 16 Air Sampling Short Answer (6 points) 10. What are field blanks? 11. What are the advantages and disadvantages of grab sampling? 12. What conditions would call for the use of an electrostatic precipitator? 13. What information is required on the OSHA air-sampling worksheet? 14. What is a thermal desorption tube and when is it used? 15. What are media blanks? Short Essay (1 point) 16. The selection of an air-sampling method depends on a number of factors. What are these factors? 173 ©2002 National Safety Council

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174 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 174 Case Study (Scoring Guidelines—Answers should encompass knowledge from text, class discussion, and overheads. Scoring can be adapted to fit individual classroom use.) As an industrial hygienist for Mr. Cabaret Cleaning Supplies, you are responsible for the evalu- ation and control of employee exposure to occupational health hazards, including the risk of exposure to airborne contaminants. For the evaluation and control of inhalation hazards, you compare the measured concentration of an airborne chemical to a recognized exposure limit. You are required to use many different types of air sampling in your work. 1. Brieﬂy define personal air sampling, area sampling, grab samples, and integrated samples. 2. In addition to testing for contaminants, how else might air samples be used? ©2002 National Safety Council

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175 16 Air Sampling 3. You are asked to conduct an air-sampling test at one of Mr. Cabaret Cleaning Supplies’ field offices. Most of your equipment, including your air-sampling train, is already packed in the car. What are the components of this air-sample collection device? 4. You will be checking for both solid and liquid airborne particulates. Provide several exam- ples of each. 5. What is the most common collection device for particulates? 175 ©2002 National Safety Council

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178 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 178 Overhead 16-2. Basic Absorbers (Reprinted from Powell CH, Hosey AD, eds. The Industrial Environment––Its Evaluation and Con- trol, 2nd ed. U.S. PHS Publication No. 614,1965.) ©2002 National Safety Council

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180 Overhead 16-4. A Dry-Gas Meter Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene (Reprinted from The Industrial Environment––Its Evaluation and Control, PHS Pub. no. 614, 1965.) ©2002 National Safety Council

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181 Direct-Reading Instruments for Gases, Vapors, and Particulates Quiz 1 (17 points total) True/False (4 points) 1. The simplest type of combustible gas instrument provides only one sensitivity, usually up to 100 percent of the UEL. a. true b. false 2. Instrument manufacturers often provide calibration curves or tables for a variety of differ- ent combustibles. a. true b. false 3. Interchanging tubes and pumps from various manufacturers will lead to erroneous results. a. true b. false 4. Indicator tubes used with hand pumps have been developed for determination of time- weighted average concentrations. a. true b. false Multiple Choice (3 points) 5. Which of the following is not a type of combustible gas monitor? a. catalytic combustible gas sensor b. thermal conductivity detector c. optical reﬂector detector d. metal oxide semiconductor detector 17 ©2002 National Safety Council

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182 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 182 6. What are polarographic detectors used to measure (more than one answer)? a. methane b. oxygen c. carbon monoxide d. high-ﬂash-point solvents 7. What step is necessary for all instruments used for sampling and analysis of gases, vapors, and particulates? a. check calibration b. clean filter c. charge batteries d. all of the above Short Answer (8 points) 8. What is an explosive (or ﬂammable) range? 9. How does a MOS gas sensor operate? 10. What are the limitations of colorimetric detector tubes? 11. How is the zero adjustment made on detectors? 12. What is one job that portable or transportable electron capture detectors are used for? 13. What is the intended purpose of the open path infrared analyzer? 14. What happens in gas chromatography? ©2002 National Safety Council

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183 17 Direct-Reading Instruments for Gases, Vapors, and Particulates 15. Why is it advantageous to use a mass spectrometric detector with a portable gas chromato- graph? Short Essay (2 points) 16. Direct-reading instruments for combustible gases are based on one of two principles. What are those principles? 17. What is the basis for infrared analyzers? Quiz 2 (16 points total) True/False (4 points) 1. Direct-reading instruments based on biosensors are not yet commercially available. a. true b. false 2. Even oxygen has a specific occupational exposure level. a. true b. false 3. Interfering gases and vapors can seriously affect instrument response. a. true b. false 183 ©2002 National Safety Council

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184 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 184 4. Few instruments can measure formaldehyde concentrations at the current TLV  ceiling level of 0.3 ppm. a. true b. false Multiple Choice (3 points) 5. Assuming that the instrument is functioning properly, what does the absence of an instru- ment response mean (more than one answer)? a. little or no combustible gas in the space being tested b. interference from nonexplosive gases c. overloading of a sensitive scale d. concentration above the UEL but insufficient oxygen for combustion 6. What level of oxygen is considered the minimum to support life? a. 29 percent b. 21 percent c. 19.5 percent d. 16 percent 7. What organization certifies that commercial detector tubes comply with established per- formance specifications? a. NIOSH b. ASSE c. OSHA d. SEI Short Answer (7 points) 8. How is air typically drawn into a detector? 9. Why should a hot-wire combustible gas indicator not be used in areas where silicone vapors are present? 10. What two parameters do polarographic detectors rely on? ©2002 National Safety Council

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185 17 Direct-Reading Instruments for Gases, Vapors, and Particulates 11. What can direct-reading nonspecific detectors be used for? 12. How do ﬂame ionization detectors work? 13. What was the ion mobility spectrometer originally developed for? 14. What is the condensation nuclei counter used for? Short Essay (2 points) 15. How does one ensure that a reading above the UEL is not misinterpreted as a true zero reading? 16. What is the basic principle for surface acoustic wave detectors? 185 ©2002 National Safety Council

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186 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 186 Case Study (Scoring Guidelines—Answers should encompass knowledge from text, class discussion, and overheads. Scoring can be adapted to fit individual classroom use.) David Singh works for Wigochu Cable Company, which provides cable TV services. David has been called in to work with an emergency crew checking cable in an area that has been ﬂooded. The biggest problem appears to be an old tunnel that runs under the downtown section. The cable there has to be checked and repaired, but that kind of confined space requires certain pre- cautions. 1. Should air quality be a concern for the work crew? 2. Will an initial check of the oxygen level be sufficient? 3. Will the work crew need a lot of different air-sampling equipment? ©2002 National Safety Council

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187 17 Direct-Reading Instruments for Gases, Vapors, and Particulates Overhead 17-1. Using Colorimetric Indicator Tubes Performing reliable tests with indicating tubes requires careful use and thorough knowledge of their limitations. Experience has shown that the following measures help to minimize some errors: • Test each batch of tubes with a known concentration of the air contaminant to be measured. • Read the length of stain in a well-lighted area. • Comply with the manufacturer’s expiration date and dis- card outdated tubes. • Store detector tubes in accordance with the manufacturer’s recommendations. • Refer to the manufacturer’s data for a list of interfering materials. 187 ©2002 National Safety Council

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189 Methods of Control Quiz 1 (24 total points) True/False (5 points) 1. The best time to integrate engineering controls is during the design phase of a facility. a. true b. false 2. Episodic exposures are easy to control from an engineering point of view. a. true b. false 3. Nonroutine maintenance, repair, and cleaning performed on automated equipment have can pose the greatest exposure risks to employees. a. true b. false 4. Job rotation can keep employee exposure to toxic chemicals below recommended levels while also exposing more employees to the hazard. a. true b. false 5. The best way to remove dust on overhead ledges before it can become airborne as a result of vibration is to use compressed air. a. true b. false 18 ©2002 National Safety Council

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190 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 190 Multiple Choice (6 points) 6. Wherever feasible, _____ should be used as the first line of defense against workplace haz- ards. a. personal protective equipment b. administrative controls c. engineering controls d. none of the above 7. When a facility is brought on-line, it is recommended that the ventilation system be oper- ated for ____ prior to occupancy to purge construction-related contaminants. a. 12 hours b. 24 hours c. 36 hours d. 48 hours 8. One example of changing a process to reduce environmental hazards is _________ a. replacing white lead in paint pigment with zinc. b. using arc welding to replace riveting. c. removing beryllium phosphors from formulations for ﬂuorescent lamps. d. shotblasting instead of sandblasting. 9. Which of the following is true of general ventilation systems? a. They should be used only when small quantities of air contaminants are being released into the work environment. b. They are more effective and economical in environments where highly toxic dusts and fumes are present. c. They are designed to capture contaminants at their source before they escape into the work environment. d. They should be used when a contaminant cannot be controlled by substitution, chang- ing the process, isolation, or enclosure. 10. The direct ﬂow of a chemical through seams, pinholes, or closures is known as ______ a. degradation. b. permeation. c. penetration. d. infiltration. 11. Which of the following should be considered when selecting proper hearing protection? a. the anatomical characteristics of the wearer b. the noise exposure dose c. environmental conditions d. all of the above ©2002 National Safety Council

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191 18 Methods of Control Short Answer (7 points) 12. What are the three categories of methods used to control health hazards in the workplace? 13. When a facility is being designed, plans must follow permissible standards and laws. What happens when more than one standard or agency is involved? 14. Five questions should be asked when addressing airborne hazards during the design process. What are these questions? 15. When isolating toxic materials, the degree of isolation that is required depends on _____, _____, and _____. 16. What is the major disadvantage of general ventilation? 17. What is the difference between an air-purified respirator and an air-supplied respirator? 18. What method do hazard-oriented medical surveillance programs use to monitor the absorp- tion of chemical agents? Short Essay (6 points) 19. Substituting a nontoxic or less toxic material for a highly toxic one is an effective method of industrial hygiene control. In addition to reducing environmental hazards, what are some other advantages of this method? What are some of its drawbacks? 191 ©2002 National Safety Council

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192 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 192 20. What factors inﬂuence the proper design of exhaust ventilation systems? Why can local exhaust systems be difficult to design? Quiz 2 (24 total points) True/False (5 points) 1. Vapor from chlorinated solvents interacting with ultraviolet radiation is just one example of an accumulated hazard. a. true b. false 2. Design engineers are usually more familiar with safety hazards because the effects of over- looking these hazards are much more obvious than those resulting from health hazards being overlooked. a. true b. false 3. Isolation is particularly useful method of industrial hygiene control for jobs that involve rel- atively few workers. a. true b. false 4. According to OSHA carcinogen regulations, a regulated area must be set aside for produc- ing or handling a particular carcinogen. a. true b. false 5. Respiratory protective devices can be substituted for engineering controls, especially in highly toxic environments. a. true b. false ©2002 National Safety Council

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193 18 Methods of Control Multiple Choice (6 points) 6. Which of the following is an example of a closed system becoming momentarily open? a. noise emissions caused by ill-fitting lagging b. exhaust hoods that are not completely effective c. a periodic filter change operation d. weakened pump seals 7. For infrequent emergencies or nonroutine events, _____ can be an appropriate solution. a. personal protective equipment b. administrative controls c. engineering controls d. none of the above 8. All of the following are industrial hygiene control methods for reducing environmental haz- ards except _________ a. good housekeeping. b. job rotation. c. local exhaust ventilation. d. dry work methods. 9. Which of the following methods can be the easiest way to prevent hazardous physical con- tact? a. providing remote controls for equipment b. isolating equipment such as hot water lines c. automating processes to eliminate worker exposure d. isolating workers by enclosing them in control booths 10. Which of the following is true of local exhaust ventilation systems? a. They can reduce heating and air-conditioning costs because they need less airﬂow than general ventilation systems. b. They are always 100 percent effective in removing contaminants from the work environ- ment. c. Like general ventilation systems, they cannot be used to reclaim reusable materials. d. They can only be used with contaminants of low toxicity. 11. In a typical manufacturing plant, who has the primary responsibility for safe operation and control? a. the team of on-site industrial hygienists b. the line organization of the operations department c. the hazard-oriented medical surveillance personnel d. the employees working in the hazardous environment 193 ©2002 National Safety Council

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194 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 194 Short Answer (7 points) 12. What three basic steps must be followed to determine the extent of exposure to a hazard? 13. Generally employers do not favor administrative controls over engineering controls. Why? 14. Describe a closed system and how it affects employee safety. 15. What are two benefits of locating one or more hazardous operations together in a separate building? 16. Facilities should prohibit their employees from removing particulates from clothing using compressed air. Why? 17. Explain the cradle-to-grave responsibility that companies have to consider when dealing with hazardous waste disposal. 18. What two factors can determine whether disposable or reusable protective clothing should be selected as protective equipment? Short Essay (6 points) 19. General ventilation should be used only in situations meeting a certain set of criteria. What are these criteria and what is the exception to these criteria? ©2002 National Safety Council

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195 18 Methods of Control 20. Workers often feel that wearing a respirators for an extended period of time is uncomfort- able and inconvenient. How can employers help workers to better cope with using respira- tors on the job? Case Study (Scoring Guidelines—Answers should encompass knowledge from text, class discussion, and overheads. Scoring can be adapted to fit individual classroom use.) Mayfield Manufacturing is conducting an annual assessment of its control methods. It has been able to substitute some of the more hazardous chemicals used in its manufacturing processes for less hazardous chemicals. In addition, it has altered processes to make working conditions safer and isolated some of its operations to reduce the number of employees exposed to air- borne contaminants. As part of its assessment, Mayfield management also evaluated the need for respiratory protection in a future addition to the facility. When it reviewed the assessment, the safety and health committee agreed that management had done a good job implementing engineering controls to reduce exposure to contaminants. Nevertheless, the committee was still concerned about controlling dust in the facility. It wondered if wet methods might be more effective. The committee also raised questions about the use of personal protective equipment, such as respirators, in the future addition. You have been asked to address the concerns of the safety and health committee. 1. What are the drawbacks of personal protective equipment? 195 ©2002 National Safety Council

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196 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 196 2. If management does decide to require respiratory protection in its new facility, what factors should be considered in the selection of the equipment? 3. How can wet methods be used to control dust? ©2002 National Safety Council

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Overhead 18-1. Determining the Extent of Exposure To determine the extent of exposure, an industrial hygienist locates the contaminant source, finds its path to the employee, and identifies the employee’s work pattern and use of protective equipment. 197 18 Methods of Control 197 ©2002 National Safety Council

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198 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 198 Overhead 18-2. Principles of Engineering Controls • substitution: changing the material • substitution: changing the process • isolation • ventilation ©2002 National Safety Council

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201 Local Exhaust Ventilation Quiz 1 (20 total points) True/False (5 points) 1. Canopies for unheated processes must be designed as capturing hoods. a. true b. false 2. Airﬂow patterns across a roof tend to circulate so they hit the upwind side of the building or the ground. a. true b. false 3. In LEV systems, centrifugal fans are more widely used that axial fans. a. true b. false 4. Air moves because there is a difference in pressure between two points. a. true b. false 5. An LEV reduces the concentration of contaminants into the workroom by mixing with air ﬂowing through the room. a. true b. false 19 ©2002 National Safety Council

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202 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 202 Multiple Choice (6 points) 6. What is the most important part of an LEV system? a. air cleaner b. hood c. makeup air supply d. fan 7. Which type of hood is widely used since it can be placed alongside the contaminant source? a. capturing b. enclosures c. receiving d. slot 8. A paint spray booth is an example of which type of hood? a. capturing b. enclosures c. receiving d. slot 9. _____ impart a circular motion to the exhaust gas that causes particulates to move to the outer part of the airstream where they impact the walls. a. Wet scrubbers b. Cyclones c. Filters d. Electrostatic precipitators 10. Makeup air should be introduced into the “occupied zone” of the plant. In general, the occupied zone is _____ feet from the ﬂoor. a. 2-3 b. 4-5 c. 5-7 d. 8-10 11. The _____ contains a paddle that moves according to the velocity of the air passing through the instrument. a. thermo-anemometer b. swinging vane velometer c. smoke tube d. pitot tube device ©2002 National Safety Council

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203 19 Local Exhaust Ventilation Short Answer (7 points) 12. Name and describe the two major types of industrial ventilation. 13. How can a health and safety professional make a significant contribution to good hood selection? 14. What is the major limitation of the use of receiving hoods? 15. If corrosion is a concern, what material should you select for your ducts? 16. Spinning or nonuniform ﬂow patterns reduce the fan’s air volume and static pressure out- put. What are some of the major reasons for poor ﬂow patterns? 17. When using an air-cleaning device, what are the three major removal techniques for vapors and gases? 18. What does it mean when a room or plant is “air bound.” Short Essay (2 points) 19. What are the two major categories of filters? Describe some of the materials that filters can be made from, as well as the variety of configurations that are available. What is the advan- tage of using a filter for particulate removal? 203 ©2002 National Safety Council

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204 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 204 20. A fan generates pressure that causes the air to move through the system. In LEV systems, this fan pressure is called fan static pressure. It is calculated from an equation used by fan manufacturers as part of a standard test of fan performance. Write out this equation, and define each of the input terms. Quiz 2 (20 total points) True/False (5 points) 1. Airfoil fans are a modification of the backward-curved blade fan. a. true b. false 2. Adsorption is the process in which a gas or vapor adheres to the surface of a porous solid material a. true b. false 3. For any given fan, doubling the fan speed will quadruple the volume output. a. true b. false 4. The ideal location to measure hood static pressure is actually three duct diameter from the throat of the hood with a tapered transition into the duct. a. true b. false 5. A pitot tube is a special probe-like device that accurately measures static and total pressures inside a duct. a. true b. false ©2002 National Safety Council

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205 19 Local Exhaust Ventilation Multiple Choice (5 points) 6. Which removal device can be used when the air contaminants are combustible? a. adsorption b. oxidation c. absorption d. None of the above are safe to use. 7. The supply rate of makeup air should exceed the exhaust rate by about _____ percent. a. 2 b. 5 c. 10 d. 20 8. The _____ works on the principle that the resistance of a heated wire changes with tempera- ture variations. a. smoke tube b. thermo-anemometer c. electrostatic precipitator d. cyclone 9. The network of piping that connects the hoods and other system components is known as _____ a. stacks. b. conveyors. c. ducts. d. hoppers. 10. Which of the following equations is used to determine break horsepower? a. Q = V x A b. Q = V x (10 X 2 + A ) c. H e = ( F d )( VP d ) d. none of the above Short Answer (8 points) 11. Why is wind direction important to keep in mind when selecting a stack location? 12. What can occur if there is an insufficient quantity of makeup air in relation to an LEV system? 205 ©2002 National Safety Council

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206 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 206 13. The “equation of continuity” is expressed as Q = V x A . What concept does the equation of continuity represent, and what does each symbol stand for? 14. In ventilation work, pressure is expressed in units of “inches of water gauge.” What tool is used to measure that pressure? 15. What factors affect air density? 16. What is a smoke tube, and how is it useful? 17. How do you measure static pressure in a duct? 18. Air ﬂowing through the ductwork meets two forms of resistance. What are these forms, and how do straight ducts and elbows contribute to this resistance? Short Essay (2 points) 19. Name and describe the elements of a typical local exhaust system. ©2002 National Safety Council

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207 19 Local Exhaust Ventilation 20. What fan problems might be identified through the use of a static pressure test? What are the typical locations to measure static pressure in the system? Case Study (Scoring Guidelines—Answers should encompass knowledge from text, class discussion, and overheads. Scoring can be adapted to fit individual classroom use.) Cantor Corp. is the country’s third largest manufacturer of garden furniture and accessories. They are planning to sell a new oak and cast iron bench that will be available in a choice of three colors. Part of the manufacturing process requires the iron handrails to be spray-painted. As this is a new process for the company, they will have to create workstations adequate to the task. Their first step is to design a local exhaust ventilation system. 1. What are the major elements of such a system? 2. Which hood type should they use for their local exhaust ventilation system and why? 207 ©2002 National Safety Council

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208 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 208 3. What special room conditions are critical for this type of hood? 4. In general, what are the other types of hoods utilized in a local ventilation system? An important step in the system design is to determine whether an air cleaner is needed to reduce the amount of contaminants discharged to the environment. 5. What factors determine the type of cleaner needed? ©2002 National Safety Council

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6. What type would you select for the spray painting job? Management is concerned about their ability to supply adequate makeup air so that they don’t become air bound. 7. What are the important features to keep in mind when designing a makeup air system? 209 19 Local Exhaust Ventilation 209 ©2002 National Safety Council

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211 19 Local Exhaust Ventilation Overhead 19-2. Air Flow (Q) Equations (Source: From American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists (ACGIH ® ). Indus- trial Ventilation: A Manual of Recommended Practice, 23rd ed. Copyright 1998, Cincinnati. Reprinted with permission.) ©2002 National Safety Council

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213 Dilution Ventilation of Industrial Workplaces Quiz 1 (11 points total) True/False (2 points) 1. With dilution ventilation, the contaminants are dispersed from the workroom air and are removed immediately. a. true b. false 2. Velometers are used to determine the velocity through openings. a. true b. false Multiple Choice (2 points) 3. How should the air inlet and exhaust fans be arranged? a. air movement is from dirtier to cleaner areas b. air movement is from cleaner to dirtier areas c. air movement is from lower to higher levels d. air movement is from higher to lower levels 4. Which of the following is not a factor that affects air density? a. temperature b. altitude c. humidity d. oxygen level 20 ©2002 National Safety Council

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214 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 214 Short Answer (6 points) 5. What is dilution ventilation? 6. What determines the amount of dilution airﬂow required? 7. What are the two main categories of fans? 8. What are smoke tubes useful for? 9. Describe tubeaxial fans. 10. What is “sensible” heat? Short Essay (1 point) 11. What is the major disadvantage of dilution ventilation? Quiz 2 (10 points total) True/False (2 points) 1. Simple propeller fans provide a reliable ﬂow of air without requiring complex systems. a. true b. false 2. Dilution ventilation is used to reduce concentrations of ﬂammable or explosive gases to safe levels. a. true b. false ©2002 National Safety Council

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215 20 Dilution Ventilation of Industrial Workplaces Multiple Choice (2 points) 3. Which of the axial fan designs is usually the noisiest? a. propeller b. centrifugal c. vaneaxial d. tubeaxial 4. What is the term for heat released to a room from condensing steam or water vapor? a. latent b. convective c. purged d. sensitive Short Answer (5 points) 5. Why can air movement due to temperature differences be useful? 6. What are the three different types of axial fans? 7. What special hazards are presented in confined or enclosed spaces? 8. Why might axial ﬂow fans used for dilution ventilation in enclosed spaces exhibit a severe drop in airﬂow with added resistance to airﬂow? 9. Why is dilution used to ventilate workspaces such as tanks and utility vaults that are usu- ally unoccupied? 215 ©2002 National Safety Council

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216 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 216 Short Essay (1 point) 10. When both employee exposure and fire/explosion prevention are considered for the same operation, which ﬂow rate equation governs and why? Case Study (Scoring Guidelines—Answers should encompass knowledge from text, class discussion, and overheads. Scoring can be adapted to fit individual classroom use.) Joe Derezinski is a maintenance supervisor at KP Chemical Company. One of his duties is to oversee the periodic cleaning of chemical storage tanks. This is very specialized, potentially hazardous work that is closely regulated. 1. What are some of the factors that should be in a safety plan for work in this kind of location? 2. What can be done to avoid “short circuiting” the air distribution inside these spaces? ©2002 National Safety Council

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218 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 218 Overhead 20-2. Criteria for Using Dilution Ventilation Dilution ventilation is used in situations meeting the following criteria: • small quantities of contaminants released into the work- room at fairly uniform rates • sufficient distance from the source to the worker (or source of ignition for fire/explosion hazards) to the contaminant source to allow for dilution to safe levels • contaminants of relatively low toxicity or fire hazard so that no major problems will result from unanticipated minor employee exposure or concentration exceedances • no air-cleaning device needed to collect contaminants before the exhaust air is discharged into the community environ- ment • no corrosion or other problems from the diluted contami- nants in the workroom air ©2002 National Safety Council

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219 General Ventilation of Nonindustrial Occupancies Quiz 1 (24 total points) True/False (5 points) 1. Outdoor air does not always need to come from outside a building. It can come from a hall- way inside the building. a. true b. false 2. Single-zone constant-volume systems are energy efficient, but may cause problems stem- ming from insufficient outside air. a. true b. false 3. Delivery of air to a space does not guarantee that proper mixing will occur. a. true b. false 4. ASHRAE 55-1992 addresses the environmental factors, such as air quality and contaminant levels, that affect an occupied zone. a. true b. false 5. Outside air reduces indoor contaminants to concentrations that are acceptable to a majority of the occupants in a space. a. true b. false 21 ©2002 National Safety Council

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220 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 220 Multiple Choice (6 points) 6. Acceptable indoor air quality is air in which there are no known contaminants at harmful levels as determined by appropriate authorities, and air with which _____ or more of the people do not express dissatisfaction based on several acceptability criteria. a. 70 percent b. 80 percent c. 85 percent d. 95 percent 7. Air has been perfectly mixed if K m is equal to _______ a. 0.8. b. 1.0. c. 1.2. d. 1.5. 8. Based on its studies of indoor air quality, NIOSH has concluded that _____ of problems are related to some indoor air contaminant, such as solvent vapors or dusts. a. 10 percent b. 20 percent c. 30 percent d. 50 percent 9. Which of the following is not covered by ASHRAE 62-1999 on Ventilation for Acceptable Air Quality? a. Inlets and outlets should be located to avoid contamination of intake air. b. AHU shall be easily accessible for inspection and preventive maintenance. c. Where practical, exhaust systems shall remove contaminants at the source. d. Relative humidities should be maintained between 20 and 50 percent. 10. Which of the following is the easiest and most useful tracer gas method for measuring air- exchange rates over short periods of time? a. the concentration-decay method b. the constant-concentration method c. the constant-emission method d. all of the above 11. If an occupant complains about draftiness in his working space, which of the following can be used to assess air movement in that area? a. a thermometer b. indicator tubes c. a smoke tube and a velometer d. a visual inspection ©2002 National Safety Council

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221 21 General Ventilation of Nonindustrial Occupancies Short Answer (7 points) 12. The recommended quantity of fresh air is commonly written as cfm OA/person. What measurement does cfm OA/person represent? 13. Why is it important that supply air reach terminal velocity before it reaches building occu- pants? 14. Define mixing factor. 15. What determines the distribution of supply air in the occupied zone? 16. What four simple measurements can indicate CO 2 levels in a room? 17. What is the relationship that forms the basis for estimating airﬂow using tracer gas methods? 18. How can microbiological growth be kept to a minimum in ductwork? Short Essay (6 points) 19. What are three ways of achieving a good air mixing in an occupied zone? What is a com- mon cause of poor mixing? 221 ©2002 National Safety Council

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222 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 222 20. What guidelines must be followed when the space above the ceiling is used for returning air? Quiz 2 (24 total points) True/False (5 points) 1. The costs of heating, cooling, and ventilating a zone decrease as the size of the zone decreases. a. true b. false 2. Conditioned air in a single-zone constant-volume system travels through ductwork at 1,000–2,000 fpm and slows to 500–1,000 fpm upon entering a room. a. true b. false 3. According to NIOSH, many of the IAQ problems caused by HVAC systems commonly occur in energy-efficient buildings. a. true b. false 4. The ASHRAE Arrestance test uses fine dust as the test medium. a. true b. false 5. Testing and balancing involve periodically assessing the HVAC system for adequate air dis- tribution to the occupied zone. a. true b. false ©2002 National Safety Council

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223 21 General Ventilation of Nonindustrial Occupancies Multiple Choice (6 points) 6. The occupied zone is generally defined as the region with an occupied space between the ﬂoor and 72 inches above the ﬂoor and more than _____ from the walls. a. 1 foot b. 2 feet c. 3 feet d. 4 feet 7. Variable air volume systems are primarily used for ________ a. controlling air temperature. b. humidifying outside air. c. increasing air movement. d. energy conservation. 8. Inadequate fan capacity, worn fan blades, and an increased number of occupants could all be potential reasons for _______ a. insufficient total air delivery to an occupied zone. b. insufficient outdoor air being delivered to an occupied zone. c. improper air distribution within an occupied zone. d. improper mixing of outdoor air and return air. 9. According to IAQ rules proposed by OSHA in May 2000, carbon dioxide levels in places of employment must be kept below _______ a. 600 ppm. b. 700 ppm. c. 800 ppm. d. 900 ppm. 10. Most non-HVAC personnel should be able to ________ a. become familiar with the characteristics of the HVAC system. b. perform cursory ventilation checks with smoke tubes and velometers. c. determine the intended or desired operating parameters. d. all of the above. 11. Which of the following is not true about ductwork? a. Ducts should be replaced if slime is found growing inside them. b. If ducts have small amounts of dust on their surfaces, they should be cleaned. c. Ducts should be cleaned if dust is seen coming from supply registers. d. If debris is restricting the airﬂow from a duct, it may need to be replaced. 223 ©2002 National Safety Council

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224 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 224 Short Answer (7 points) 12. What is ASHRAE? 13. Why is a single constant value system that supplies air to multiple zones less energy effi- cient than other systems? 14. What is the formula for calculating mixing efficiency? 15. What are the three most important consensus standards for indoor air quality? 16. What are the three phases usually involved in troubleshooting a problematic HVAC system? 17. Three tracer gas methods are commonly used to measure airﬂow. What are these methods? 18. If the air in a workspace smells musty, what might be the reason? Short Essay (6 points) 19. How can variable air volume systems be energy efficient and lower costs? ©2002 National Safety Council

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225 21 General Ventilation of Nonindustrial Occupancies 20. What is commissioning? Case Study (Scoring Guidelines—Answers should encompass knowledge from text, class discussion, and overheads. Scoring can be adapted to fit individual classroom use.) The employees at Ledicot Systems have complained periodically about ﬂuctuating tempera- tures in their offices since last winter. Last winter employees working on the south side of the building told their supervisors they were too hot, while employees working on the north side said they were too cold. Over the summer, employees felt the offices were stuffy and there was little air movement. The company is located in a building equipped with a variable air volume system that was installed about nine years ago. Energy conservation and lower operating costs were two reasons why Ledicot management chose the system. Management is still happy with the system, but it is concerned about the productivity of employees working in conditions with which they are not satisfied. It would like to know if the company is meeting the standard for thermal quality before making expensive repairs or major changes to the system. Management has asked you to troubleshoot the HVAC system at Ledicot. Before you begin, you would like to review the standard for thermal quality. 1. How can Ledicot comply with the standard? 225 ©2002 National Safety Council

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226 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 226 2. The problems at Ledicot are fairly common. What might be some reasons they are occurring? 3. What tools can you use to test for each problem? ©2002 National Safety Council

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Overhead 21-1. A Typical Single-Zone Constant-Volume HVAC System 227 21 General Ventilation of Nonindustrial Occupancies 227 (Source: Burton, IAQ and HVAC Workbook, 1995.) ©2002 National Safety Council

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231 Respiratory Protection Quiz 1 (20 total points) True/False (5 points) 1. Respirators are the best means of exposure control against airborne contaminants. a. true b. false 2. Respirators with loose-fitting respiratory inlet coverings should still be fit tested. a. true b. false 3. A loose-fitting helmet is acceptable for workers with beards. a. true b. false 4. An aerosol-removing respirator provides effective protection against gases. a. true b. false 5. In general, large heavy particles are removed by impaction and interception. a. true b. false 22 ©2002 National Safety Council

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232 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 232 Multiple Choice (6 points) 6. In _____ the particles do not deviate from their original streamline of air. a. diffusion b. sedimentation capture c. interception capture d. electrostatic capture 7. An _____ filter is restricted to use in atmospheres free of oil aerosols. They may be used for any solid or liquid airborne particulate hazard that does not contain oil. a. N-Series filters b. P-Series filters c. R-Series filters d. X-Series filters 8. In gas/vapor removing respirators, _____ are used to interact with the gas or vapor mole- cule to clean the air. a. oils b. acids c. solvents d. sorbents 9. Airborne concentration of asbestos that is greater than 100f/cc (1,000 x PEL) requires the use of _____ a. a half-mask air-purifying respirator other than a disposable respirator, equipped with high efficiency filters. b. a full facepiece supplied air respirator operated in pressure demand mode, equipped with an auxiliary positive pressure self-contained breathing apparatus. c. any powered air-purifying respirator equipped with high efficiency filters or any sup- plied air respirator operated in continuous ﬂow mode. d. a full facepiece air-purifying respirator equipped with high efficiency filters. 10. If an organic vapor’s boiling point is greater than 70 C, and its concentration is less than 200 ppm, the organic vapor cartridge should last _____ hours assuming normal breathing rate. a. 3 b. 5 c. 6 d. 8 ©2002 National Safety Council

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233 22 Respiratory Protection 11. Fit testing should be conducted on all tight-fitting respirator wearers at least once every _____ months. a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 12 Short Answer (7 points) 12. Selection of the proper respirator is a very important task. A chosen respirator must be approved for use by which organization? 13. What are the physiological stresses that result from the use of respirators? Who must deter- mine whether or not an employee should be precluded from the use of a respirator? 14. What is a user seal check and who conducts it? 15. Once a respirator has been approved for use, what factors or situations might void that approval? 16. Activated carbon is commonly used for removal of organic vapors. What are the most com- mon starting carbon materials for respirator cartridges? 17. What factors determine the service life of gas/vapor removing respirator cartridges? 18. In the past, warning properties such as odor, eye irritation, and respiratory irritation have been relied on almost completely for indicating when chemical cartridge breakthrough was starting. What are the inherent problems for such a system? What is a better practice? 233 ©2002 National Safety Council

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234 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 234 Short Essay (2 points) 19. A written respiratory protection program must be established when respiratory protection is needed. What are the minimum worksite-specific elements to such a program? 20. For the use of any respirator it is essential that the user be properly instructed in its use. What skills/knowledge should an employee be able to demonstrate regarding the proper use of a respirator? Quiz 2 (20 total points) True/False (5 points) 1. In general, the higher the filter efficiency of a respirator the greater the breathing resistance. a. true b. false 2. Organic vapors can be removed by the process of adsorption. a. true b. false 3. Gas masks provide longer service life than chemical cartridge respirators for many com- monly encountered vapors and gases. a. true b. false ©2002 National Safety Council

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235 22 Respiratory Protection 4. In some cases, chemical absorption through the skin can be more significant than absorption through the respiratory system. a. true b. false 5. The selection of one high-quality make and model of respirator type is suitable for use by the entire work force. a. true b. false Multiple Choice (6 points) 6. If the TSI Portacount ® Respirator Fit Tester is used, a worker should not be allowed to smoke within _____ of the fit test. a. 5 minutes b. 30 minutes c. 3 hours d. 24 hours 7. An oxygen deficient atmosphere is one where the oxygen content is below _____ by volume. a. 66 percent b. 28.5 percent c. 19.5 percent d. 13 percent 8. A test subject may not eat, drink, smoke, or chew gum for _____ before a saccharin solution aerosol fit test procedure. a. 15 minutes b. 30 minutes c. 1 hour d. 3 hours 9. A _____ means a pass/fail fit test to assess the adequacy of respirator fit that relies on the individual’s response to the test agent. a. qualitative fit test b. quantitative fit test c. user seal check d. oxygen efficiency 235 ©2002 National Safety Council

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236 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 236 10. A high efficiency particulate air filter (HEPA) needs to be at least _____ percent efficient in removing monodisperse particles of 0.3 micrometers in diameter. a. 89 b. 98.60 c. 99.97 d. 100 11. A _____ means an atmosphere-supplying respirator that admits breathing air to the face- piece only when a negative pressure is created inside the facepiece by inhalation. a. filtering purifying element b. escape-only respirator c. air-purifying respirator d. demand respirator Short Answer (7 points) 12. The term oil has never been defined by a regulatory agency. For purposes of selecting a filter, how would you define oil? 13. OSHA defines IDLH as an atmosphere that poses an immediate threat to life, would cause irreversible adverse health effects, or would impair an individual’s ability to escape from a dangerous atmosphere. In such an environment, there are only two devices that can provide escape provisions for the wearer. Name one. 14. One of the more recent worksites seeing increased respirator usage is health care settings. Why are they used, and what makes the selection of a proper respirator difficult? 15. The qualitative fit-test protocols consist of three steps. What are these steps? 16. What is the proper procedure for cleaning respirators? ©2002 National Safety Council

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237 22 Respiratory Protection 17. How do you conduct a facepiece positive pressure check? 18. Name at least one CNP test exercise. Short Essay (2 points) 19. Name and provide a brief description of the three groups of air-supplying respirators. 20. Respirator selection involves determining the hazard and following a selection logic to choose the correct type or class of respirator that offers adequate protection. What are the steps for hazard determination as outlined in the text? Case Study (Scoring Guidelines—Answers should encompass knowledge from text, class discussion, and overheads. Scoring can be adapted to fit individual classroom use.) You have just been transferred to the Mica-Bradshaw Manufacturing Plant outside of Raleigh- Durham. After a recent inspection and a hefty fine, it has become necessary for Mica-Bradshaw to chuck their old plan and develop an entirely new respiratory protection program. Because of your years of experience as an independent tester, the job of designing this program has fallen on your shoulders. 237 ©2002 National Safety Council

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238 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 238 1. What should your written respiratory protection program include? Much to your dismay, you realize that Mica-Bradshaw has never established an employee train- ing program for the proper use of respirators. 2. At a minimum, what should the employees know about respirator usage? 3. How often should they be retrained? ©2002 National Safety Council

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During your first training session, you ask the employees about the proper steps toward respi- rator maintenance to get a feel for how much knowledge they might already possess. They were completely clueless about proper cleaning methods, and only one person knew how to store respirators properly. 4. What is the proper storage method? You notice that one of the plant managers is sitting in the back of the room nodding in agree- ment to everything you say, but not taking any notes. “You should be our new program admin- istrator,” you say to her. 5. What are the duties of a program administrator? 239 22 Respiratory Protection 239 ©2002 National Safety Council

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241 22 Respiratory Protection Overhead 22-2. Schematic Representation of Commercially Available Quantitative Fit Tests (Adapted from Han DH et al, AIHA Journal 58; 219-228, 1997.) ©2002 National Safety Council

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243 The Industrial Hygienist Quiz 1 (14 points total) True/False (3 points) 1. Many companies have combined the duties of safety and industrial hygiene manager and even added responsibility for other functions. a. true b. false 2. Few certified safety professionals are also certified industrial hygienists. a. true b. false 3. The IHIT certification refers to Industrial Hygiene Information Technician. a. true b. false Multiple Choice (2 points) 4. Which organization offers the designation of Certified Industrial Hygienist (CIH)? a. American Industrial Hygiene Association b. American Board of Industrial Hygiene c. American Council of Governmental Industrial Hygienists d. American Academy of Industrial Hygiene 5. Approximately how many active CIHs are there currently? a. 1,200 b. 2,400 c. 4,000 d. 6,400 23 ©2002 National Safety Council

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244 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 244 Short Answer (7 points) 6. In which scientific fields must industrial hygienists be competent? 7. List three examples of the types of health and safety activities that might be performed by Occupational Health and Safety Technologists. 8. What are the functions of an industrial hygiene manager? 9. List three examples of what a certified industrial hygienist can do to earn certification main- tenance points. 10. What is the newest industrial hygiene certification being offered? 11. What is the purpose for the Education and Research Centers? 12. What organization accredits baccalaureate and master’s level programs in industrial hygiene? Short Essay (2 points) 13. How does the American Industrial Hygiene Association define industrial hygiene? ©2002 National Safety Council

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245 23 The Industrial Hygienist 14. What is required of candidates to earn the Occupational Health and Safety Technologist (OHST) certification? Quiz 2 (12 points total) True/False (2 points) 1. Government industrial hygienists may find that a diplomatic demeanor is among their most important assets. a. true b. false 2. All ERCs are located in universities. a. true b. false Multiple Choice (3 points) 3. Which two organizations offer the Occupational Health and Safety Technologist certification program? a. Board of Certified Safety Professionals b. American Council of Governmental Industrial Hygienists c. American Board of Industrial Hygiene d. National Safety Council 4. Which of the following is not one of the components of OSHA’s Office of Training and Edu- cation? a. Division of Training and Educational Programs b. Division of Training and Educational Development c. Division of Job Placement d. Division of Administration and Training Information 5. What are ERCs? a. Education and Research Centers b. Employment Resource Councilors c. Evaluation and Remediation Contracts d. Environmental Risk Consultants 245 ©2002 National Safety Council

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246 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 246 Short Answer (5 points) 6. In the civil service sector, how does a senior industrial hygienist differ from the industrial hygienist? 7. What is the purpose of the training program for OSHA compliance safety and health offi- cers that was instituted in 1992? 8. What are the three self-study programs that an OSHA compliance safety and health officer (CSHO) must complete before attending the initial compliance course at the OSHA Training Institute? 9. What kind of continuing maintenance of skills and knowledge is required of CSHOs? 10. Which industrial hygiene organization sets Threshold Limit Values  ? Short Essay (2 points) 11. What is the mission of the OSHA Office of Training and Education? 12. What are two primary responsibilities of the OSHA Training Institute? ©2002 National Safety Council

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247 23 The Industrial Hygienist Case Study (Scoring Guidelines—Answers should encompass knowledge from text, class discussion, and overheads. Scoring can be adapted to fit individual classroom use.) Renata Stone has just been hired to work for the Occupational Safety and Health Administra- tion. She has some experience in occupational safety and health, having worked as an industrial hygiene technician for three years while she completed her college degree in industrial hygiene. Renata is looking forward to her job as a compliance officer, but she knows she still has a lot of training ahead of her. 1. What is the general approach for industrial hygiene trainees? 2. Will Renata’s training be focused only on industrial hygiene? 247 ©2002 National Safety Council

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248 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 248 Overhead 23-1. Functions of Industrial Hygienists The industrial hygienist typically performs the following functions: • carries out detailed studies of incidents • prepares recommendations and other reports • reviews new processes, machinery, and layouts from a health (or safety) viewpoint • promotes occupational heath and safety education • advises management about health hazards, industrial hygiene practices, procedures, and equipment needs ©2002 National Safety Council

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249 23 The Industrial Hygienist Overhead 23-2. Certified Associate Industrial Hygienist (CAIH) The basic qualifications for certification include: • a bachelor’s degree with at least 30 semester hours of sci- ence and math • industrial hygiene college or professional development courses covering fundamentals, measurements, controls, and toxicology • four years of post-bachelor, professional-level industrial hygiene experience (at least 25 percent industrial hygiene activities) • successful completion of a written exam 249 ©2002 National Safety Council

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251 The Safety Professional Quiz 1 (24 total points) True/False (5 points) 1. A well-defined safety program furthers the objective of producing high-quality products at the lowest cost. a. true b. false 2. Matters of employee health and fitness to work are the responsibility of medical personnel, not the safety and health professional. a. true b. false 3. The most efficient time to engineer safety and health hazards out of a process is while it is being redesigned. a. true b. false 4. Safety and health inspections should be limited to identifying unsafe physical conditions because such conditions pose more risk than unsafe work practices. a. true b. false 5. A good record-keeping system can promote interest in safety and health among supervisors by providing them with information about the accidents experienced in their departments. a. true b. false 24 ©2002 National Safety Council

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252 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 252 Multiple Choice (6 points) 6. According to the Board of Certified Safety Professionals of the Americas, a safety profes- sional _____ a. is engaged in the prevention of accidents, incidents, and events that harm people, prop- erty, or the environment. b. makes recommendations to managers, designers, and government agencies about con- trols. c. evaluates hazards to identify what might occur, the likelihood that it may occur, the severity of results, risk, and cost. d. does all of the above. 7. Which of the following is true about equipment safety? a. When purchasing equipment such as lifting devices, adequate labeling that identifies potential safety and health hazards should be provided. b. A general statement such as “must meet OSHA standards” is all that needs to be pro- vided to a machine manufacturer designing a new piece of equipment. c. A safety and health professional can reasonably expect a purchasing department to maintain information on accident experience with equipment. d. The health and safety hazards for ordinary items such as cleaning rags and paint are insignificant as compared to other hazards and, therefore, do not need to be monitored. 8. Which of the following is an accurate statement about accident investigations? a. Accident investigations should focus on faultfinding because it is important for workers to know when they have been negligent. b. When they conduct an accident investigation, safety professionals should be primarily interested in protecting upper-level management from any liability. c. The consequences of some accidents can be so devastating that any hint of conditions that may lead to such an accident should be investigated. d. Although an investigation may lead to countermeasures that reduce the number of acci- dents, it can never lead to measures that decrease the severity of accidents. 9. Which of the following is a good recommendation for employee training sessions? a. Train employees in large groups because it is more time efficient and cost-effective. b. Keep records of employee attendance, if possible with their signatures. c. Explain equipment use to employees, but keep practice with equipment to a minimum during sessions. d. Use upper-level managers as trainers. Employees often perceive upper-level managers as having a higher level of credibility. ©2002 National Safety Council

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253 24 The Safety Professional 10. Which of the following methods of systems analysis examines the failure of a component and traces the effects of the failure through the system? a. failure mode and effect b. THERP c. cost-effectiveness d. fault tree 11. In addition to the academic requirement for becoming a certified safety professional, candi- dates must have _____ of professional safety experience. a. 2 years b. 3 years c. 4 years d. 5 years Short Answer (7 points) 12. Who can receive the Associate Safety Professional (ASP) designation? 13. Which industries are the largest employers of safety professionals? 14. The decision about who should assume full staff responsibility for safety activities is inﬂu- enced by two important factors. What are these factors? 15. The “four Ms” and the “three Es” of safety are examples of _____. 16. Why is job safety analysis such an important part of employee training? 17. Identify the steps in a five-step risk management program. 253 ©2002 National Safety Council

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254 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 254 18. Why do supervisors play a key role in any safety and health program? Short Essay (6 points) 19. What are three important trends that have emerged in the development of safety profes- sionals? 20. What are the advantages of having a third party conduct a safety inspection? Quiz 2 (24 total points) True/False (5 points) 1. In general, a supervisor needs to be trained at a level that is equal to or exceeds the training given to the workers in his or her department. a. true b. false 2. One of the primary responsibilities of the safety professional is to collect and analyze data on illness and accidents in order to determine accident trends. a. true b. false 3. Safety professionals should never be given the authority to order an immediate shutdown, even for potentially hazardous chemical processes. The decision to shut down a process should be made only by a line official. a. true b. false ©2002 National Safety Council

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255 24 The Safety Professional 4. The main purpose behind safety and health inspections is to find out how many things are wrong at a facility. a. true b. false 5. Employees who have been with an organization for many years need to be involved in training sessions so they have the same information about products, policies, and equip- ment as new employees. a. true b. false Multiple Choice (6 points) 6. What is the most effective and the preferred method for addressing accident prevention? a. prescribe personal protective equipment to shield personnel from the hazard b. train operating personnel to be aware of the hazard c. eliminate the hazard from the machine or process d. contain the hazard by enclosing it at its source 7. Full staff responsibility for safety activities should be assigned to _____ since it is a key posi- tion in any safety program. a. one person b. a team of two people c. a team of three people d. a team of four people 8. A safety professional should be familiar with _____ a. standards approved by the American National Standards Institute (ANSI). b. lists of approved devices published by Underwriters Laboratories, Inc. c. safety practice recommendations made by the American Industrial Hygiene Association (AIHA). d. all of the above. 9. The process of collecting information about an injury or illness generally begins with the _____ a. supervisor’s accident report. b. first-aid report. c. employee’s injury or illness record. d. safety professional’s assessment of working conditions. 255 ©2002 National Safety Council

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256 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 256 10. Estimating the amount an organization could lose under the most adverse conditions falls under which step in a risk management program? a. maximum possible loss b. hazard identification c. loss retention d. hazard protection 11. To meet the personal safety experience criteria established by the Board of Certified Safety Professionals, the prior professional safety function of a CSP candidate must have accounted for at least _____ of the position’s duties. a. 50 percent b. 60 percent c. 75 percent d. 80 percent Short Answer (7 points) 12. What are the responsibilities of the Board of Certified Safety Professionals (BCSP) with respect to certifying safety professionals? 13. How is a loss control representative involved in the safety industry? 14. Safety policies generally begin with a purpose statement. What information often follows the purpose statement? 15. The number of safety professionals and inspectors needed for adequate safety inspection activities primarily depends on three factors. What are these factors? 16. What are the five main benefits of conducting a job safety analysis? ©2002 National Safety Council

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257 24 The Safety Professional 17. Spot-checking, reporting by repair control centers, and auditing are the three basic elements of _____. 18. How can an individual qualify for the title of Certified Safety Professional? Short Essay (6 points) 19. What are two reasons for the increased number of full-time safety professionals? 20. How can management use safety inspections to show employees that it is concerned about their safety and health in the workplace? Case Study (Scoring Guidelines—Answers should encompass knowledge from text, class discussion, and overheads. Scoring can be adapted to fit individual classroom use.) The older machines at Jackson Metals have been experiencing problems since the beginning of the company’s latest production cycle. In the past, worn or broken parts on the machines were replaced or repaired, returning the production schedule at the facility to normal. Recent inci- dents, however, have nearly resulted in injuries to employees. Investigations into the incidents have revealed failures in the company’s record-keeping practices and raised questions about whether the incidents could have been prevented. As the situation has become more urgent, the management at Jackson Metals has realized it needs to take action. It would like to start by doing a cost-effectiveness analysis of the systems at the facility, and then address the issue of replacing or repairing the failing equipment. The purchasing department has concerns about 257 ©2002 National Safety Council

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258 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 258 reordering parts for machines that are getting older, in addition to concerns over the best way to replace the machines. Along with the other safety professionals at Jackson Metals, you would like to see the company resolve its problems as soon as possible. 1. What are the characteristics of a good record-keeping system? 2. If the decision is made to purchase new equipment, how can the safety team work with the purchasing department? 3. Explain the cost-effectiveness method of analyzing a system. ©2002 National Safety Council

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Overhead 24-1. A Five-Step Risk Management Program 1. hazard identification 2. hazard elimination 3. hazard protection 4. maximum possible loss 5. loss retention 259 24 The Safety Professional 259 ©2002 National Safety Council

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260 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 260 Overhead 24-2. Analyzing a System A system analysis can show how people, tools, and the environ- ment can combine to produce an accident. ©2002 National Safety Council

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261 24 The Safety Professional Overhead 24-3. General Qualifications for Becoming a Certified Safety Professional • apply to the Board of Certified Safety Professionals (BCSP) • meet an academic requirement • meet a professional safety experience requirement • pass the Safety Fundamentals Examination • pass the Comprehensive Practice Examination ©2002 National Safety Council

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263 The Occupational Medicine Physician Quiz 1 (12 total points) True/False (3 points) 1. Before 1900, many doctors had no formal training. a. true b. false 2. Physicians who graduated before 1984 are not eligible for the Occupational Medicine Board examination. a. true b. false 3. An occupational medicine physician working in a multi-specialty group practice or hospi- tal-based program has a relatively light patient load of 8-10 patients a day. a. true b. false Multiple Choice (4 points) 4. The post- _____ industrial boom brought thousands of new chemicals into existence for which neither human beings nor our Earth’s ecology had developed any evolutionary defenses. a. WWI b. WWII c. Korean War d. Vietnam War 25 ©2002 National Safety Council

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264 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 264 5. As of this printing, approximately _____ physicians graduate each year from occupational medicine residency programs. a. 75 b. 175 c. 750 d. 1,750 6. Who is Bernardino Ramazzini? a. 18 th century physician and author of Diseases of Workers b. founder of the American Academy of Occupational Medicine c. scientist who first described the use of anesthesia d. inventor of the x-ray machine 7. Unions have developed relationships with occupational medicine physicians, industrial hygienists, and epidemiologists since the _____ a. 1920s. b. 1940s. c. 1970s. d. 1990s. Short Answer (4 points) 8. List three of the breakthroughs in the late 1800s that contributed to the “scientific practice of medicine.” 9. Where might an occupational medicine physician find a job? 10. What are the prerequisites to become eligible for the Occupational Medicine Board Exami- nation? 11. Name at least one professional association for occupational medicine physicians. ©2002 National Safety Council

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265 25 The Occupational Medicine Physician Short Essay (1 point) 12. Describe the type of practice an occupational medicine physician would most likely encounter at a freestanding occupational health clinic. Quiz 2 (12 total points) True/False (3 points) 1. Staff physicians for policy development and regulatory agencies are rarely involved in clini- cal work with patients. a. true b. false 2. International occupational health consulting is a rapidly declining sector for occupational medicine physicians. a. true b. false 3. Asbestos is a naturally occurring compound. a. true b. false Multiple Choice (4 points) 4. In four years of medical school, there is an average of _____ spent on occupational exposure. a. 4 hours b. 8 hours c. 12 hours d. 16 hours 5. Which of the following jobs might require a complete preplacement examination with histo- ries and physicals including cardiac, pulmonary, and strength/endurance testing? a. firefighting b. hazardous waste work c. registered nurse d. both a and b e. all of the above 265 ©2002 National Safety Council

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266 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 266 6. Which of the following is responsible for making hiring decisions after a preplacement exam? a. patient b. examining clinician c. human resources department d. occupational medicine physician 7. Railroads and mining companies began employing physicians _____ a. in the 1860s. b. around WWII. c. after the OSHAct passed. d. in the 1990s. Short Answer (4 points) 8. What sort of training does an occupational medicine resident undergo? 9. Many academically trained, board-certified occupational medicine physicians choose to join or set up their own consulting firms. What would their practice be like? 10. What are some of the important questions found on an occupational history form? 11. The preplacement examination is considered an important part of ensuring a safe and healthy workforce. Why? What might such an evaluation cover? Short Essay (1 point) 12. Why is the corporate medical department a shrinking area of occupational medical prac- tice? In general, what are the duties of today’s corporate medical director? ©2002 National Safety Council

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267 25 The Occupational Medicine Physician Case Study (Scoring Guidelines—Answers should encompass knowledge from text, class discussion, and overheads. Scoring can be adapted to fit individual classroom use.) After many hard years of medical school, you are about to graduate and have narrowed your field of interest to occupational medicine. It is a field that has seen some dramatic changes in the last 30 years or so since the passage of the OSHAct, and there are many opportunities for an occupational medicine physician. When asked by your friends and family what exactly those opportunities are, you give them several examples. 1. Brieﬂy describe at least four of the potential practice settings you might pursue as an occu- pational medicine physician, and the type of work you would encounter on the job. 2. What are the current eligibility requirements for the Occupational Medicine Board Exami- nation? 267 ©2002 National Safety Council

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268 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 268 3. What specific training is required of a candidate? 4. Who offers the test and how many candidates take it each year? 5. Regardless of the employment path you choose, you will no doubt encounter “occupational health history” forms that are typically filled in by an employee. Based on the sample form found in your text, what kind of questions will the patient/employee be asked? Be as com- plete as possible in your answer. ©2002 National Safety Council

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269 The Occupational Health Nurse Quiz 1 (13 points total) True/False (3 points) 1. Occupational health services manage only work-related injury and illness. a. true b. false 2. Manufacturing industries should have one full-time OHN for every 300 employees. a. true b. false 3. Tertiary prevention is the prevention of disability through rehabilitative efforts. a. true b. false Multiple Choice (2 points) 4. What is the major professional specialty nursing organization that serves occupational health nurses? a. Occupational Health Nursing Association b. American Association of Occupational Health Nurses c. Association of Specialty Nursing Practice d. Society for Occupational and Environmental Health Nursing 5. What size employers predominantly employ OHNs? a. more than 2,000 employees b. more than 1,000 employees c. more than 500 employees d. more than 200 employees 26 ©2002 National Safety Council

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270 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 270 Short Answers (6 points) 6. What is the goal of occupational health nursing? 7. What certifications are offered by the American Board of Occupational Health Nurses? 8. What is required for certification by the American Board of Occupational Health Nurses? 9. Where can an OHN find additional academic preparation as a manager, nurse practitioner, or clinical nurse specialist in occupational health nursing? 10. In addition to the occupational health nurse, who else might be part of the occupational health services team? Name at least three. 11. What is secondary prevention in the occupational health setting? Short Essay (2 points) 12. At what level of practice are occupational health nurses licensed? ©2002 National Safety Council

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271 26 The Occupational Health Nurse 13. What industry variables determine the scope of occupational health services? Name at least four. Quiz 2 (14 points total) True/False (3 points) 1. Supervisors create a job analysis for each job class, which the OHN uses in preplacement evaluations. a. true b. false 2. Modified duty programs need support from a panel of health care providers who philo- sophically support transitional work as a therapeutic intervention. a. true b. false 3. OHNs often maintain OSHA 200 logs, reporting all injuries, even those requiring only first aid. a. true b. false Multiple Choice (3 points) 4. According to AAOHN recommendations, service industries should have one full-time OHN for how many employees? a. every 500 employees b. every 750 employees c. every 1,000 employees d. every 1,500 employees 5. In what percentage of companies is the occupational health nurse the sole health care provider at the worksite? a. 15 percent b. 30 percent c. 50 percent d. 60 percent 271 ©2002 National Safety Council

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272 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 272 6. Which of the following are examples of primary prevention (more than one answer)? a. immunizations b. blood lead testing c. modified work duty d. employee assistance programs Short Answer (6 points) 7. What are the three primary vaccine-preventable diseases affecting adults, and how many adults in the United States die from them each year? 8. Give two examples of employee training activities that occupational health nurses are often involved in. 9. Approximately how many private, nonagricultural worksites with more than 50 employees reported having an EAP resource for employees? 10. What are practice guidelines? 11. What is the purpose of occupational health surveillance? 12. Define case management . Short Essay (2 points) 13. What are some of the current health issues facing employers and occupational health serv- ices? List three issues. ©2002 National Safety Council

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273 26 The Occupational Health Nurse 14. What were the four most frequent occupational health nursing activities noted in a 1988 sur- vey of Fortune 500 companies? Case Study (Scoring Guidelines—Answers should encompass knowledge from test, class discussion, and overheads. Scoring can be adapted to fit individual classroom use.) Peoples Insurance Corporation has about 900 employees at its Midwestern headquarters. Most are office workers. Colleen O’Brady is the occupational health nurse on-site. Although an office environment doesn’t present as many obvious bodily hazards as a manufacturing facility, for example, there are still areas that require expert attention. Colleen has noticed an increase in the number of musculoskeletal complaints. She starts thinking about an ergonomics program. 1. What particular knowledge, skills, and abilities will Colleen need to establish an ergo- nomics program for the company? 2. What are the basic elements that go into establishing an ergonomics program? 273 ©2002 National Safety Council

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274 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 274 Overhead 26-1. Occupational Health Nursing Services Occupational health nursing services include the following: • clinical and primary care, including assessment, diagnosis, management, and documentation of occupational and nonoccupational illness and injury • case management for occupational and nonoccupational ill- ness and injury • health hazard assessment and surveillance of employee populations, workplaces, and community groups • investigation, monitoring, and analysis of illness and injury episodes and trends, as well as methods to promote and protect employee health and safety • compliance with laws, regulations, and standards govern- ing health and safety for employees and the environment • management and administration of occupational and envi- ronmental health services • health promotion and disease prevention strategies using primary, secondary, and tertiary principles • counseling, health education, and training programs using adult learning approaches • research related to occupational and environmental health ©2002 National Safety Council

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275 26 The Occupational Health Nurse Overhead 26-2. Occupational Health Nursing Competencies The OHN role requires knowledge, skills, and abilities in the fol- lowing competencies: • clinical and primary care • case management • work force, workplace, and environmental issues • regulatory/legislative issues • management • health promotion and disease prevention • occupational and environmental health and safety educa- tion/training • research • professionalism 275 ©2002 National Safety Council

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276 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 276 Overhead 26-3. Programs Commonly Managed by OHNs • workers’ compensation • Americans with Disabilities Act • record keeping • bloodborne pathogens • ergonomics • evaluating outcomes of OHN activities ©2002 National Safety Council

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277 The Industrial Hygiene Program Quiz 1 (22 total points) True/False (5 points) 1. One of the benefits of a well-established industrial hygiene program is the increased pro- ductivity that results from improved working conditions. a. true b. false 2. An industrial hygiene program that has been detailed in writing can serve as a measurable performance guideline for worker protection. a. true b. false 3. A workplace characterization groups and describes employees with similar work duties. a. true b. false 4. Consulting with employees will probably not make training sessions more effective because employees do not have in-depth knowledge of industry standards for safety hazards. a. true b. false 5. The value of an audit diminishes if regular follow-up audits or other periodic evaluations are not scheduled. a. true b. false 27 ©2002 National Safety Council

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278 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 278 Multiple Choice (4 points) 6. Which of the following is not true of a goal? a. A goal should be measurable if at all possible. b. A goal should be realistic. c. A goal is a desired outcome. d. A goal should be static to ensure continuity. 7. The first step in an exposure assessment program is to complete _____ a. a workplace characterization. b. an agent characterization. c. the work force characterization. d. all of the above. 8. OSHA 29 CFR 1910.20 requires that exposure records must be maintained for at least _____ a. 15 years. b. 25 years. c. 30 years. d. 35 years. 9. Who has the ultimate responsibility for an industrial hygiene program and the safety of the employees at a facility? a. the general manager b. the supervisor c. the safety and health committee d. the industrial hygienist Short Answer (7 points) 10. What are the four stages of the Demming cycle? 11. The requirements and procedures outlined in a written industrial hygiene program serve four purposes. What are they? 12. Why are employees organized into SEGs, or similar exposure groups? ©2002 National Safety Council

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279 27 The Industrial Hygiene Program 13. Explain why it is important to determine whether training can solve a safety problem. 14. Why must the documentation collected from an industrial hygiene program be maintained? 15. A health professional needs to have a good understanding of _____, _____, _____, and _____ to run an effective medical program. 16. How does an organization’s purchasing department contribute to workplace safety? Short Essay (6 points) 17. What are the five steps in the audit process? 18. Explain what a safety and health committee is and describe its role in a safety and health program. 279 ©2002 National Safety Council

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280 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 280 Quiz 2 (22 total points) True/False (5 points) 1. It costs much less to anticipate and eliminate a hazard in the planning stage than it does to manage it afterward. a. true b. false 2. It is not necessary to reevaluate exposure assessments unless a new process or potentially hazardous agent is brought into the workplace. a. true b. false 3. Well-established industrial hygiene programs have been shown to reduce compensable injuries and illnesses and lower insurance premiums. a. true b. false 4. Process, facility, and equipment design reviews usually result in better protection and gen- erally are the most cost-effective method for controlling potential hazards. a. true b. false 5. Recognition and control are the two phases of any industrial hygiene program. a. true b. false Multiple Choice (4 points) 6. New industrial hygiene programs typically focus on _____ a. the planning phase of the Demming cycle. b. determining voluntary commitments from those involved. c. reactive activities, such as new legal requirements. d. ways to implement continual improvements. 7. Which of the following is the least acceptable method of controlling a potential hazard? a. substitution b. personal protective equipment c. engineering controls d. administrative controls ©2002 National Safety Council

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281 27 The Industrial Hygiene Program 8. Medical staff should know what is produced in the workplace, how it is produced, potential hazards, and the physical requirements of a job. This information helps the staff _____ a. conduct preplacement medical exams. b. detect conditions that might be work related. c. organize health education programs. d. do all of the above. 9. Which of the following is not true of safety programs? a. Safety programs tend to be less well established than industrial hygiene programs. b. Effective safety programs build support for all health- and safety-related work at a facility. c. If industrial hygiene resources are limited, safety professionals may implement indus- trial hygiene activities. d. The goals of an industrial hygiene program and a safety program are the same: maintain a safe and healthful workplace. Short Answer (7 points) 10. What is the difference between a goal and an objective? 11. How can an industrial hygienist determine which workers should be included in an SEG, or similar exposure group? 12. Why is it important to have a written procedure for sampling methods? 13. What aspect of industrial hygiene programs is addressed by organizing health and safety committees and employee suggestion programs? 14. How do auditors usually prepare to audit an industrial hygiene program? 15. What is an agent characterization? 281 ©2002 National Safety Council

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282 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 282 16. An industrial hygiene program usually begins with a policy statement. What are the remaining six components that the program should address? Short Essay (6 points) 17. Explain the two-step process that should be followed when evaluating the hazards listed for a homogenous group. 18. A supervisor plays a key role in implementing and maintaining safety and health require- ments on a daily basis. What are a supervisor’s responsibilities? Case Study (Scoring Guidelines—Answers should encompass knowledge from text, class discussion, and overheads. Scoring can be adapted to fit individual classroom use.) Last week Prism Parts completed an evaluation of its industrial hygiene program. For the first time in many years, an independent team of health and safety consultants conducted the audit. The team was very thorough and spent several weeks examining every aspect of Prism’s pro- gram. In its report to Prism management, the consultants concluded that portions of the com- pany’s industrial hygiene program needed to be updated, particularly the policy statement and employee training and education. The hazard recognition, control, and evaluation components of the program, however, were satisfactory. While it was pleased to learn several aspects of its program were successful, management was concerned about the problems with the policy statement since it was designed to communicate Prism’s commitment to safety and health. The unsatisfactory assessment of the training program was also worrisome. Management decided to call a meeting with the safety and health committee, general managers, supervisors, and the industrial hygiene team in hopes of addressing these issues as quickly as possible. ©2002 National Safety Council

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283 27 The Industrial Hygiene Program 1. As a member of the industrial hygiene team, you have experience with drafting policy state- ments and establishing training programs. What can you tell the group about the purpose of a policy statement? 2. What makes training such an effective control measure? 3. What role does an industrial hygienist play in determining training methods? 283 ©2002 National Safety Council

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Overhead 27-1. Basic Components of an Industrial Hygiene Program • written program and policy statement • hazard recognition • hazard evaluation and exposure assessment • hazard control • employee training and involvement • program evaluation • documentation 285 27 The Industrial Hygiene Program 285 ©2002 National Safety Council

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286 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 286 Overhead 27-2. A Strategy for Assessing and Managing Occupational Exposures (Reprinted with permission from Mulhausen J, Damiano J, eds. A Strategy for Assessing and Managing Occupational Exposures. Fairfax, VA: AIHA, 1998.) ©2002 National Safety Council

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287 27 The Industrial Hygiene Program Overhead 27-3. The Industrial Hygiene Process (Adapted with permission from Bridge DP. Developing and implementing an industrial hygiene and safety program in industry. AIHA Journal 40:255–263, 1979.) ©2002 National Safety Council

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289 Government Regulations Quiz 1 (20 total points) True/False (5 points) 1. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) was created by the Depart- ment of Labor. a. true b. false 2. The solicitor of labor is responsible for providing legal advice and assistance to the secretary and all officers of the Department of Labor in the administration of statutes and executing orders relating to occupational safety and health. a. true b. false 3. The filing of a complaint against a state program’s administration (CASPA) is a common occurrence. a. true b. false 4. Most of the safety and health standards for general industry now in force today under OSHAct were promulgated in the first year after the law went into effect. a. true b. false 5. OSHA compliance officers who find conditions of imminent danger can demand an imme- diate shutdown of an operation. a. true b. false 28 ©2002 National Safety Council

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290 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 290 Multiple Choice (6 points) 6. Which of the following groups is covered by the Hazard Communication Standard? a. pesticides b. hazardous wastes c. distilled spirits d. none of the above 7. OSHA schedules inspections on a priority system. Which of the following events has the lowest priority? a. random inspections of high hazard industries b. in response to fatalities c. in response to multiple hospitalization incidents d. in response to employee complaints 8. Which manual, adopted in 1994, contains general instructions and policies on field compli- ance operations? a. Field Operations Manual b. Field Inspection Reference Manual c. The OSHA Technical Manual d. Everything You Always Wanted to Know About Field Inspections But Were Afraid to Ask, Volume II 9. During an inspection, the TWA concentration must be determined for _____ hour exposures. a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 10. If an employer representative is aware of the requirements of the OSHAct standard or the existence of an applicable standard or regulation and is also aware of a condition or practice in violation of those requirements, he is guilty of a/an _____ violation. a. imminent danger b. serious c. willful d. none of the above ©2002 National Safety Council

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291 28 Government Regulations 11. If an employer willfully violates any standard, rule, or order that results in the death of an employee, that employer will, on conviction, be punished by a fine or by imprisonment for not more than _____, or both. a. 3 months b. 6 months c. 3 years d. 6 years Short Answer (7 points) 12. OSHAct sets out two duties for employers and one for employees. What are these duties? 13. What is the significance of the General Duty Provision (section 5{a}) of OSHAct? 14. How can a state agency assert jurisdiction under state law over safety and health issues? 15. What are the four categories of OSHA standards? 16. What is the action level concept? What happens when the action level is exceeded? 17. What are the essential elements of an industrial hygiene inspection? 18. What is a “failure to abate” situation? 291 ©2002 National Safety Council

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292 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 292 Short Essay (2 points) 19. The intent of the Hazard Communication Standard (29 CFR 1910.1200) is to provide employees with information about the potential health hazards from exposure to workplace chemicals. What specific employee training measures does the standard require? 20. What responsibilities does OSHAct grant the secretary of labor? Quiz 2 (20 total points) True/False (5 points) 1. During an OSHA industrial hygiene inspection, if the employees are represented by a labor union, they must be notified of OSHA’s presence but are not allowed to take part in the inspection. a. true b. false 2. A walk-through inspection is required for all health inspections unless the facility was recently inspected. a. true b. false 3. During an OSHA industrial hygiene inspection, a second closing conference needs to be made in person. a. true b. false ©2002 National Safety Council

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293 28 Government Regulations 4. Measurements for air pollutants should be taken from the employee’s breathing zone. a. true b. false 5. It is not necessary that a compliance violation be committed with a bad purpose or an evil intent to be deemed willful. a. true b. false Multiple Choice (6 points) 6. The _____ is the principal administering officer of the OSHAct. a. state governor b. solicitor of labor c. secretary of labor d. secretary of health 7. Of the following, which is the most significant violation that an industrial hygienist might write a citation on? a. imminent danger b. willful violation c. serious violation d. intentional violation 8. Congress has told OSHA that, exclusive of serious violations, it must find more than _____ other violations before any penalty can be imposed against a company. a. 1 b. 5 c. 10 d. 15 9. The _____ is the principal federal agency engaged in research to eliminate on-the-job haz- ards to the health and safety of American workers. a. Center for Disease Control b. Department of Health, Education, and Welfare c. Occupational Safety and Health Administration d. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health 10. Which U.S. government agency has jurisdiction of the Federal Mine Safety and Health Amendments Act of 1977? a. Department of the Interior b. Department of Labor c. Department of Health and Human Services d. Mining Enforcement and Safety Administration 293 ©2002 National Safety Council

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294 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 294 11. Which act, enacted in 1976, provides the EPA with the authority to require testing of chemi- cal substances entering the environment and to regulate them when necessary? a. Chemical Safety Act b. Coal Mine Health and Safety Act c. Toxic Substances Control Act d. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act Short Answer (7 points) 12. It has been determined that three key duties should be triggered when an action level is reached. What are these duties? 13. What does GRIP stand for? Describe some of the goals and focuses of GRIP. 14. During an inspection, detailed information regarding an employer’s Occupational Health Program is gathered for evaluation. What aspects of the program are of interest to an indus- trial hygiene inspector? Name four programs. 15. Some compliance standards require the establishment of regulated areas, where concentra- tions exceed the PELs. What minimum standards should a regulated area meet? 16. Cases under consideration for treatment as egregious must be classified as willful and meet at least one other criteria. There are six criteria an industrial hygienist may use in this case; name one. 17. Define an “other than serious violation” and give an example. 18. Which act established the Superfund Program to handle emergencies at uncontrolled waste sites, to clean up the sites, and to deal with related problems? ©2002 National Safety Council

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295 28 Government Regulations Short Essay (2 points) 19. Brieﬂy describe what an industrial hygienist does during a walk-through inspection. 20. What are the key provisions of the Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHAct)? Be as complete as possible in your description. Case Study (Scoring Guidelines—Answers should encompass knowledge from text, class discussion, and overheads. Scoring can be adapted to fit individual classroom use.) Andrews and McNiel Industries is about to undergo their very first Industrial Hygiene Inspec- tion. Management is, understandably, very nervous and unsure about what to expect. Over the last year they have expanded their facility and hired many new employees. Some critics say they have grown too fast in too short a time and have not been able to keep up with all of the prescribed safety standards. Camilla Greenley is the industrial hygiene inspector assigned to the task of evaluating Andrews and McNiel, and she has just called their senior manager to organize the inspection. 1. What will be the essential elements of her visit? 295 ©2002 National Safety Council

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296 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 296 2. Ms. Greenley has asked to review Andrews and McNiel’s occupational health programs. What, in particular, is she looking for? 3. It is necessary for Ms. Greenley to conduct a walk-through inspection. What is the main purpose of such an inspection, and what generally takes place? 4. The inspector was not satisfied with the regulated areas of Andrews and McNiel, where con- centrations of chemicals exceed the PELs. What are the standards used for regulated areas? ©2002 National Safety Council

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5. It is not uncommon for violations to be found during the course of an initial inspection. List the types of violations for which a citation might be issued. 297 28 Government Regulations 297 ©2002 National Safety Council

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299 History of the Federal Occupational Safety and Health Administration Quiz 1 (17 points total) True/False (5 points) 1. President Lyndon Johnson signed the OSHAct into law. a. true b. false 2. The OSHA law as passed has generally been viewed as a stringent regulatory statute. a. true b. false 3. The OSHAct applies to all private employers as well as all federal employees. a. true b. false 4. All OSHA standards are subject to court of appeals review. a. true b. false 5. OSHA’s Compliance Manual has been a primary means for the agency to advise interested parties of its policies. a. true b. false 29 ©2002 National Safety Council

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300 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 300 Multiple Choice (3 points) 6. Which of the following are means of enforcement of the OSHAct? a. citations b. assessment of civil penalties c. imprisonment d. all of the above 7. Under what circumstances does an employer have the right to refuse a workplace inspection? a. without prior notice b. unless preceded by a warrant c. less than 15 employees d. less than 60 days since last inspection 8. What amount of federal funding do state OSHA programs receive? a. none b. 25 percent c. 50 percent d. 90 percent Short Answer (6 points) 9. When was the OSHAct signed into law? 10. What was the major disagreement between the Democrats and Republicans concerning the proposed creation of the OSHA legislation? 11. What two elements in the statutory structure are designed to constitute an incentive to employers to abate hazards? 12. What agency was assigned responsibility to develop an effective program of collection, compilation, and analysis of occupational safety and health statistics? ©2002 National Safety Council

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301 29 History of the Federal Occupational Safety and Health Administration 13. Who was the first head of OSHA? 14. What form of administrative structure was established for OSHA? Short Essay (3 points) 15. What factors contributed to the consensus in 1969 that federal occupational legislation was needed? 16. If a hazard is not covered by a standard, is there any other regulatory control over employers? 17. What are OSHA’s four broad categories of inspections? 301 ©2002 National Safety Council

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302 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 302 Quiz 2 (14 points total) True/False (4 points) 1. Courts have not generally insisted on OSHA’s rigorous adherence to procedural require- ments on rulemaking. a. true b. false 2. At present, there is no legal requirement on walkaround pay. a. true b. false 3. Many amendments have been proposed throughout the history of OSHA, almost all curtail- ing the agency’s authority, but none has passed. a. true b. false 4. OSHA has no involvement with federal agency workplaces or their safety and health pro- grams. a. true b. false Multiple Choice (2 points) 5. What does Part 1903 (29 CFR 1903) deal with? a. agency inspection procedures b. compliance manual c. promulgation of standards d. assessment of penalties 6. Who was the first health professional to head OSHA? a. George C. Guenther b. Gerard Scannell c. Joseph Dear d. Morton Corn Short Answer (6 points) 7. Where did many of OSHA’s start-up standards come from? ©2002 National Safety Council

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303 29 History of the Federal Occupational Safety and Health Administration 8. What employee rights are foremost in the OSHA program? 9. What is Congress’s real source of inﬂuence over OSHA? 10. Which OSHA standard contained the novel provision requiring employers to transfer at- risk employees to lower-exposure jobs? 11. Does the OSHAct allow criminal penalties to be imposed? Short Essay (2 points) 12. What two overriding issues have been argued and resolved in standards proceedings? 13. Brieﬂy explain what the Kepone Incident refers to and what impact it had on OSHA. 14. What is the “egregious” penalty policy? 303 ©2002 National Safety Council

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304 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 304 Case Study (Scoring Guidelines—Answers should encompass knowledge from text, class discussion, and overheads. Scoring can be adapted to fit individual classroom use.) Not so many years ago, Josie Cantrell would have been called a typesetter. Of course, now almost everything is done electronically. But human hands are still involved in turning those words into bits/bytes/or whatever is needed. Josie has been working for FullPage Printing Company for several years and has been satisfied with her job. She has friends doing similar work with other companies, however, who have serious problems. In fact, one of them is con- sidering surgery for carpal tunnel syndrome. That motivated Josie to visit her human resources department to get some facts about ergonomics and what was being done to help employees. Peter Demeter, the HR manager, tried to provide some information. 1. What caused OSHA to recognize that a problem existed? 2. What steps did OSHA take initially? ©2002 National Safety Council

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305 29 History of the Federal Occupational Safety and Health Administration 3. But Josie wants to know what has OSHA done lately to convince employers that ergono- mics matters to employees. Has OSHA created a standard? 305 ©2002 National Safety Council

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306 Study Guide: Fundamentals of Industrial Hygiene 306 Overhead 29-1. OSHA Regional Offices • Region I: Connecticut, Massachusetts, Maine, New Hamp- shire, Rhode Island, and Vermont • Region II: New Jersey, New York, Puerto Rico, and the Vir- gin Islands • Region III: Washington DC, Delaware, Maryland, Pennsyl- vania, Virginia, and West Virginia • Region IV: Alabama, Florida, Georgia, Kentucky, Missis- sippi, North Carolina, South Carolina, and Tennessee • Region V: Illinois, Indiana, Michigan, Minnesota, Ohio, and Wisconsin • Region VI: Arkansas, Louisiana, New Mexico, Oklahoma, and Texas • Region VII: Iowa, Kansas, Missouri, and Nebraska • Region VIII: Colorado, Montana, North Dakota, South Dakota, Utah, and Wyoming • Region IX: American Samoa, Arizona, California, Guam, Hawaii, Nevada, and the Trust Territories of the Pacific • Region X: Alaska, Idaho, Oregon, and Washington ©2002 National Safety Council

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Overhead 29-2. States with Approved Plans Alaska New York Arizona North Carolina California Oregon Connecticut Puerto Rico Hawaii South Carolina Indiana Tennessee Iowa Utah Kentucky Vermont Maryland Virgin Islands Michigan Virginia Minnesota Washington Nevada Wyoming New Mexico 307 29 History of the Federal Occupational Safety and Health Administration 307 ©2002 National Safety Council

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