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C599B JPP EXAM & X100 EXAM 1.______ is the resistance or friction among and between participants? -Tension 2. Understanding strategic guidance, understand the operational environment, define the problem, and operational approach are four subsets of what process? -Operational design framework 3. The operational environment is the composite of all except which of the following that affect the employment of capabilities and bear on the decisions of commander? -Media 4. The ability to understand the ends, ways, and means and to conceptualize the desired objectives set forth in strategic-level guidance can be reached is the definition of the following concepts? -Strategic Art 5. JPP incorporates _____ through the operationa1l design methodology to produce plans and orders. -Creativity 6. Understanding the OE requires what sort of perspective? -Holistic 7. Which of the following do commanders and planners not expect from their higher commands? -viable course of action for the subordinate organization 8. Understanding the operational environment is which step in maintain multi-domain dominance? -First 9. The ____ statement articulates how the operational variables can be expected to resist or facilitate transformation of current conditions and how inertia in the OE can be leverage to enable the desired condition to achieve the objectives? -Problems 10. Who uses a systems approach, operational design, and JPP to produce campaigns, plans, and orders to employ military capabilities to achieve ends? -JFC 11. Which of the following is NOT a strategic level strength or weakness? -Infrastructure/basing and operational reach 12. The resident and secretary of defense typically will establish a set of national strategic objective whose attainment should result in broadly expressed conditions for the conclusion of a campaign or operation. The conditions are also know as what?

-National strategic end state 13. Once the military end state is understood and termination criteria are established, operational design continues with development of strategic and operational what? -Objectives 14.Descivie points are generally physical in nature classically, such as a hill, a town, a crossroad, or an air base. What other things could they be? -They could include specific key actions or events such as commitment of a reserve force. 15. When commanders and staffs assess the progress of an operation, they use metrics that are derived from mission success criteria which are based on established end states or objectives. Which metric assesses changes in a system’s behavior and progress towards solving the problem or mission accomplishment? - Measures of effectiveness 16. arranging operations falls under which of the operational design elements? -Time 17. Arranging operations and operational pause are both considered what? -Design element of time 18. JP 5-0 now considers operational design elements across which of the following broad categories? -Overarching, space, time, and forces 19. which of the following is NOT true about phasing? -Activities in phasing must not overlap 20. In the defense, what is the point at which the defense or effective counteroffensive action is no longer possible, and the defender is forced to withdraw, disengage, or face defeat? -Defensive culmination point 21. When is operational design work performed? -During planning, preparation, and execution 22. What are standards for determining mission accomplishment called? -Mission success criteria 23. What makes a planning assumption logical and realistic -There is sufficient evidence to suggest that it will become a fact 24. What is an assumption?

- Supposition about a current situation or future course of events that is thought to be true in the absence of facts 25. Which of the following is NOT a major step of joint preparation of the operational environment (JIPOE)? - Identify potential decision points of each course of action (COA) 26. Which of the following would NOT initiate a joint planning process (JPP)? - A staff estimate indicating a capability shortfall 27. All of the following are doctrinal rationales for planning initiation except which? - When a commander determines that the staff needs training on the planning process 28. Planners identify broad capabilities for operational requirements through the analysis of all of the following except which? -Outcomes 29. What facts, assumptions, and limitations should be included in a staff estimate? - Any information that is significant to the commander's decision making 30. What is the document containing force requirements for a plan developed using forces that are assigned, allocated, and apportioned along with when they are required in theater? - Time-Phased Force Deployment List 31. When developing a friendly course of action, the opposing forces course of action must always be considered. Which of the following is a key element of the opposing course of action we need to consider? - Aspects of the desired operational environment opposed by neutral or friendly actors 32. The operational design is more about what to do or options, while a course of action are detailed specifics on __________ to accomplish or execute the "what" or "option". - How 33. A __________ is a potential way (solution, method) to accomplish the assigned mission. - Course of action 34. Which of the following is one of the validity screening criteria used in course of action development? -Complete 35. The __________ identifies planning responsibilities for developing joint force plans. It provides guidance and requirements to the staff and subordinate commands concerning coordinated planning actions for plan development.

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- Planning directive 36. Which of the following is one of the validity screening criteria used in course of action development? -acceptance 37. __________ will significantly affect sequencing operations and activities. - Resource availability 38. Courses of action should focus on __________ and decisive points or areas of influence for CCMD- level campaigns. -center of gravity 39. During course of action development planners must refine the objectives developed for the __________ to establish the conditions necessary to help achieve the national strategic objectives. -Operational approach 40. Each course of action expands on the commander's __________ by providing additional details such as, who, what type of action, when, where, why, and how. -operational approach 41. When developing a friendly course of action, the opposing forces course of action must always be considered. Which of the following is a key element of the opposing course of action we need to consider? - Aspects of the desired operational environment opposed by neutral or friendly actors 42. The operational design is more about what to do or options, while a course of action are detailed specifics on __________ to accomplish or execute the "what" or "option". - how 43. A __________ is a potential way (solution, method) to accomplish the assigned mission. - course of action 44. Which of the following is one of the validity screening criteria used in course of action development? - complete 45. The __________ identifies planning responsibilities for developing joint force plans. It provides guidance and requirements to the staff and subordinate commands concerning coordinated planning actions for plan development. - planning directive 46. Which of the following is one of the validity screening criteria used in course of action development? - acceptable

47. __________ will significantly affect sequencing operations and activities. - Resource availability 48. Courses of action should focus on __________ and decisive points or areas of influence for CCMD- level campaigns. - Centers of gravity 49. During course of action development planners must refine the objectives developed for the __________ to establish the conditions necessary to help achieve the national strategic objectives. - Operational approach 50. Each course of action expands on the commander's __________ by providing additional details such as, who, what type of action, when, where, why, and how. - Operational approach 51. Which of the following is something wargaming uses to try and visualize the flow of operations for a given course of action? -Force strengths and dispositions 52. The enemy COAs selected for wargaming must remain the same for each friendly COA wargamed, otherwise a: -Comparison becomes invalid 53. According to JP 5-0, analysis of __________ is vital to the commander's estimate process. -Multiple COAs 54. Wargaming is most effective when it involves which elements? -People making decisions in a fair and competitive environment 55. What is the process of closely examining potential COAs to reveal details that will allow the commander and staff to tentatively identify COAs that are valid and then compare those COAs? -COA Analysis 56. Which of the following types of manual wargaming looks at actions and requirements by phase? -Operational Phasing 57. Which of the following types of manual wargaming considers actions day by day (or in other discrete blocks of time)? -Deliberate Timeline Analysis

58. Each __________ within a proposed COA should be wargamed based upon time available using the action, reaction, and counteraction method of friendly and/or opposing force interaction. -Critical event 59. The critical events are associated with the __________ tasks identified in mission analysis. -Essential 60. Which of the following is a key input into course of action analysis? -Synchronization matrices 61. If time allows each retained COA should, at a minimum, be wargamed against: -Both the most likely and the most dangerous enemy COAs 62. Who normally directs which courses of action will be wargamed and provides guidance and evaluation criteria? -Commander 63. __________ are representations of conflict or competition in a synthetic environment, in which people make decisions and respond to the consequences of those decisions. -Wargames 64. A more comprehensive version of a wargame, the __________ technique, adds operational sketches and notes to the narrative process in order to gain a clearer picture. -“sketch note” 65. Which of the following is one of the primary steps for conducting the wargame? -Evaluate the results 66. The _________ selects COAs for wargaming and provides evaluation criteria. -Commander 67. Evaluation criteria may include __________, but each must include a clear definition to reduce subjectivity and ensure that the interpretation of each remains constant. -anything the commander desires 68. __________ is the end result of the COA comparison process. -COA selection 69. Which of the following is one of the options a commander may select during the COA selection process? -Reject all COAs and start the process over with COA development

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70. The objective of COA comparison is to identify and recommend the COA that has the highest probability of accomplishing the mission. According to JP 5-0, the recommended COA should also: -Be Acceptable 71. If the commander is most worried about the evaluation criteria "Risk to the force" how can the staff add emphasis to that specific criteria? -Adding a higher weight to the criteria 72. Which of the following is a key input for course of action approval? -JFC's personal analysis 73. Which of the following is a key input for course of action comparison? -Wargaming results 74. __________ are analytical tools that staff officers use to prepare recommendations during COA comparison. -Decision matrices 75. Course of action comparison is a subjective process whereby COAs are evaluated/compared against __________ that are established by the staff and commander. -Evaluation criteria 76. Which of the following is a key output for course of action comparison? -Recommended COA 77. The joint logistics planner should only look for exceptions to the first rule of planning joint sustainment when what condition is met? -When those exceptions make sense for the operational context at hand. 78. What process provides the means to integrate, synchronize, and prioritize, joint logistics capabilities toward achieving the support commanders' operational objectives during all phases of plan development? -Joint logistics planning process 79. According to JP 3-33, what does annex D pertain to in the context of concept of operations plans, operations plans, and operations orders, or campaign plans? -Logistics 80. Which joint logistics planning product provides the framework for conceptual planning, which involves understanding the OE and the problem, determining the operation's end state, and visualizing an operational approach? -Theater Logistics Analysis (TLA).

81. For whom is the J-4 the primary advisor regarding the logistic support that be provided for proposed courses of action and approved concepts of operation? -The joint task force commander and the J-3 82. What is the theater logistics analysis? - The theater logistics analysis is a means of anticipating future requirements. 83. What is one tool Services can use to arrange for mutual support without being directed to do so by a higher-level joint order? -An interservice support agreements. 84. According to JP 3-33, what does annex Q pertain to in the context of concept of operations plans, operations plans, and operations orders, or campaign plans? -Medical services 85. Is the theater logistics overview a process, a protocol, or a product? -The theater logistics overview is a product. 86. What is the Concept of logistic support? -A document which serves as the foundational basis in preparation of annex D for assigned contingency plans and or OPORD development tasks 87. What is the primary means of conducting COA Analysis? -Wargaming 88. What is the board, center, cell, or working group that the JTF Commander could stand up to facilitate tactical level civil-military operations among the military, the local populace, NGO's and IGO's? -Civil-Military Operations Center.(CMOC) 89. The Operational Design Methodology consists of: -Both A and B are correct. 90. For this plan, the EUCOM Commander directed planning initiation to support NATO to deter Bothnian aggression. Who else can direct planning initiation? -Any of those can direct Joint Forces Commanders to begin planning. 91. In the Mission Analysis Brief, the group identified the two parts that comprise the Commander's Critical Information Requirements (CCIR). Those two parts are? -Priority Intelligence Requirements (PIR) and Friendly Force Information Requirements (FFIR)

92. Which of the following categories are included in the Staff Estimates? -Facts, Assumptions, Tasks, Risks. 93. Which of the following is true about defining the problem? -A, B, C are correct. 94. What criteria were used to test the validity of each COA? -Suitable, Feasible, Acceptable, Distinguishable, and Complete 95. How are the most important decisive points determined? -From analysis of critical factors of the COG. 96. In the COA Decision Briefing, during which phase did the group identify potential branches and sequels for the commander? -This group did not identify potential branches and sequels in the COA Decision Brief. 97. The three distinct methods for conducting a Manual Wargame are: -Deliberate Timeline Analysis, Phasing, Critical Events/ Sequence of Essential Tasks 98. What Bothnian military event indicates the initiation of crisis? -OSC-W (II Corps) conducts an initial attack to seize Riga (main effort) and bridgeheads along the Daugava River. 99. Why did the staff group recommend COA 2? -Because of its economy of force which provides the EUCOM Commander greater flexibility to support a response to Bothnian actions in Estonia. 100. Which of the following was not part of the commander’s planning guidance? -Prioritize command and control in each phase. 101. What is the primary Bothnian land force on Gotland? -The BDR IV Corps Airborne Brigade 102. The Intel Joint Function identified the risk of limited ISR due to A2AD on their staff estimate. Why does A2AD present a risk for INTEL? -Both A and B answers are correct. 103. Which of the following is true of staff estimates?

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-The mission statement is included in staff estimates 104. Which joint function staff estimate would consider tasks including providing air, space, and missile defense; providing emergency management and response capabilities; and conducting OPSEC, cyberspace defense, and cybersecurity? -Protection 105. In the COA Decision Brief, the group presented a chart with Evaluation Criteria, titled COA Comparison & Recommendation. At what point in planning are Evaluation Criteria developed? - They are an output of COA Development. 106. Which of the following is an essential task for OP LOST VIKING? -Defeat Bothnian forces in Gotland. 107. Key Inputs to the Course of Action Development step are: -Staff Estimates, Mission Statement, CDR's refined Operational Approach, JFC's Intent, and Planning Guidance, CCIRs. 108. Which of the following is not a defeat mechanism? -Compel 109. The commander is the central figure in operational art because ___________. -All the other answers are correct. 110. Which are the steps of the Joint Planning Process (JPP)? -Planning Initiation, Mission Analysis, Course of Action Development, Course of Action Analysis and Wargaming, Course of Action Comparison, Course of Action Approval, Plan or Order Development 111. The group made the assumption that: "NATO response to Estonia Article 5 request does NOT impact MNTF GOTLAND assigned forces." What should be developed in the event this assumption is wrong? -A branch to the plan to add flexibility to the plan by anticipating situations that could alter the basic plan. 112. Defining the problem is _________________________________________. -understanding and isolating the root cause of the issue that are the essence of a complex, ill-defined problem 113. What two types of Operational Limitations did the group need to consider during Mission Analysis?

-Constraints and Restraints 114. The EUCOM CDR Guidance, dated 25 April 2025, states, "I anticipate the North Atlantic Council (NAC) to recommend a declaration of Article 5." What does that mean? -The NAC will ask each NATO member to consider an armed attack against one member state to be an armed attack against them all. 115. What was considered a risk to movement and maneuver? -Air superiority cannot be achieved 116. Which of the following is true regarding systems perspective? -It is based on a node-link analysis of PMESII systems with respect to adversaries and other relevant actors. 117. Which evaluation criteria were most important according to the COA Decision Brief? -Donovian Deterrence 118. Which of the following is not included with Arranging Operations? -Direct and Indirect Approach 119. What information should the group use as primary inputs to the Mission Analysis Brief? -All of the Above 120. Which joint function would you expect to focus on the jus in bello (Law in War) factor of "proportionality" during Course of Action Development? -Fires 121. What are the four decisive points identified in the operational approach? -Establish Naval Blockade, A2/AD Sites ID, Air Superiority over Gotland, and Transition Control to Torrike. 122. The purpose of operational art and operational design is to ________________. -enable understanding. 123. For COA 1, what is the JFMCC task and purpose? -Task: Conduct JFE; Purpose: To open SPOD for follow on forces. 124. During Mission Analysis, the group determined Specified, Implied, and Essential Tasks. How did the commander and staff determine Essential Tasks? -From the list of specified and implied tasks

125. What did the staff group identify as the Bothnian operational Center of Gravity? -SA-17s and SSC-5. 126. What is the product developed once the commander selects the COA? -Commander's Estimate 127. includes the authority to task-organize subordinate forces, assign missions and functions, and geographic responsibilities to forces. -Operational Control (OPCON) 128. What is the primary difference between homeland defense (HD) and defense support of civil authorities (DSCA)? -In HD the Department of Defense ( DoD) is lead authority, in DSCA the DoD supports all other agencies 129. __________ attempts to synchronize, coordinate and integrate military operations with the activities of other governmental and nongovernmental entities to achieve unity of effort. -Unified Action 130. According to the JP 4-0, “Using the _____ as a frame, the joint forces commander’s logistics staff elements develop and codify an overarching approach to theater operations in the ______.” -Theater Logistics Analysis (TLA)… Theater Logistics Overview (TLO) 131. What is one analytical model, using systems perspective, that Joint Publication (JP) 3-0 describes to help commanders and staffs develop an understanding of the operational environment? -Political, Military, Economic, Social, Information, and Infrastructure System Analysis (PMESII) 132. What best describes the relationship between a leader’s level of emotional intelligence and the organization’s resilience? -High levels of emotional intelligence facilitate the leader's ability to build and maintain functional relationships, increasing organizational resilience. 133. Which security operation should only be undertaken by a brigade level or higher formations? -Cover 134. What product developed during the military decision making process (MDMP) describes the primary issues that may make it difficult for commanders to achieve desired end states? -Problem statement 135. According to Kotter’s 8-Stage Change Model, the first stage in creating successful change is: -Establishing a sense of urgency (to overcome complacency)

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136. What is the principle US Government organization that works with other nations on democratic reforms, economic development, and disaster assistance and recovery? -United States Agency for International Development (USAID). 137. In the development of a theater campaign plan, the joint logistics planning process has four key outputs; theater logistics analysis, theater logistics overview, logistics estimate, and the _____________. -Concept of logistics support 138. Which statement below best reflects the "paradoxical" trinity discussed by Clausewitz in Book 1 of "On War"? -Probability, passion, and policy 139. Which of the following was a key part of the Germans' successful innovations and doctrinal development during the interwar period? -A thorough and honest study of their World War One Experiences. 140. One of the enduring legacies of Helmuth von Moltke the Elder is -A professional staff 141. Which echelon above brigade (EAB) Army headquarters has administrative control (ADCON)/Title 10 responsibilities across the area of responsibility (AOR) for a geographic combatant command (GCC)? -Theater army 142. Which of the following staff products supports theater campaign plans (TCPs) by detailing support of strategic lift, infrastructure, distribution enablers, agreements, polices, processes and information systems? -Theater Distribution Plans 143. What is the source of power that provides moral or physical strength, freedom of action, or will to act? -Center of Gravity 144. Which of the following documents is produced by the Secretary of Defense? -National Defense Strategy 145. What is a clear and concise expression of the purpose of the operation and the desired military end state that supports mission command, provides focus to the staff, and helps subordinate and supporting commanders act to achieve the commander's desired results without further orders, even when the operation does not unfold as planned.

The Commander’s intent 146. Simultaneity, depth, phasing, and tempo are all considered during? -Arranging operations 147. Which organization within the U.S. Army is responsible for concept and capability development and what forum is used to validate identified requirements? -Army Futures Command and Army Requirement Oversight 148. Which maritime zone extends up to 12 nautical miles from a country's baseline? -Territorial Sea 149. What method does the US Government use to integrate intergovernmental organizations (IGOs), nongovernmental organizations (NGOs), as well as private sector entities and multinational partners to achieve collaboration and synchronization of efforts during stability operations? -Comprehensive approach 150. What source of power is based on the acknowledged expertise of the leader or reverence for the leader? -Personal Power 151. Which answer describes a decision making tool and a method of recording results of wargaming? -Synchronization Matrix 152. A Military Revolution is -Uncontrollable, Unpredictable, and Unforeseeable. 153. The senior leaders of the Department of the Army (SLDA) determine the best mix of forces for the service through _______. -Total Army Analysis (TAA) Process 154. What is the purpose of operational art and operational design? -Provides a bridge between strategy formulation and tactical art, linking national strategic aims to tactical combat and noncombat operations. 155. What was the single most significant reason for Napoleon's failure in Russia in 1812? -The Russians generally refused to confront directly Napoleon, instead trading space for time. 156. Strategies link ends, ways, and means to achieve the desired end state. In this construct, the term "ways" is defined as: -A sequence of actions that is likely to achieve stated objectives

157. The M1A1 Abrams Tank is an example of a successful materiel acquisition for the Army. For materiel acquisitions, which phase of the Defense Acquisition System (DAS) is often the longest and most costly? -Operations and Support phase 158. How can an organizational leader set the conditions for a positive command climate? -All of these 159. As a unit transitions from an offensive to defensive focus, what, doctrinally, should its commander do? -Maintain contact and surveillance of enemy forces 160. What portion of the commander's area of operations is not assigned to subordinate units but is frequently tied to other events distant in time and space? -Deep Area 161. Which instrument of national power is the principal instrument for engaging with other states and foreign groups in order to advance U.S. values, interests, or to solicit foreign support for U.S. military operations? -Diplomatic Instrument of Power 162. What do Army planners develop to place critical enemy functions at risk and to deny enemy forces the ability to synchronize or generate combat power? -multiple dilemmas 163. What statement best describes organizational-level leaders? -Organizational-level leaders must develop and improve organizations while accomplishing the mission. 164. Which answer describes a critical factor which is deficient or susceptible to direct or indirect attack that will create decisive or significant effects? -Critical Vulnerabilities 165. The security area, battle handover line (BHL), main battle area (MBA), forward edge of the battle area (FEBA), and battle positions (BP) are control measures common to what type of operation? -Defense 166. Materiel development and acquisition are integral within the Joint Capabilities and Development System (JCIDS), the Army Force Management Model, and Doctrine, Organization, Training, Material, Leadership, Personnel, Facilities, and Policy (DOTMLPF-P) since they ___________. -Satisfy identified and validated capability gaps with rapid or deliberate materiel acquisition solutions. 167. What is the primary method of conducting course of action (COA) analysis? -Wargaming

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168. What is an analytical tool available to the combatant commander (CCDR) that provides the commander's perspective of the operating environment before developing theater campaign plans, subordinate campaign plans, or operation plans (OPLANs)? -Strategic Estimate 169. What are the primary abilities essential to the accomplishment of the objective? -Critical Capabilities 170. A ____________________ is the point at which a force no longer has the capability to continue its form of operations, whether offense or defense. -Culminating point 171. Which line of authority is used to accomplish the Title 10 requirements for the Secretary of the Army? -administrative control (ADCON) 172. identify the correct characteristics regarding cyberspace as a domain. -Cyberspace is man-made and part of every unit's operating environment 173. What type of operations are conducted in hostile, denied, or politically sensitive environments to achieve military, diplomatic, informational, and/or economic objectives employing military capabilities for which there is no broad conventional force requirement? -Special Operations 174. The document that establishes the President’s guidance to combatant commanders on broad missions and responsibilities, physical boundaries, and specific combatant commander responsibilities. -The Unified Command Plan 175. What are the criteria used to test the validity of each COA? -Suitable, Feasible, Acceptable, Distinguishable, and Complete 176. Positioning, navigation, and timing; missile warning; satellite communications; environmental monitoring; nuclear detonation detection; and intelligence, surveillance and reconnaissance (ISR) are all examples of: -Space operations and associated capabilities 177.Strategies link ends, ways, and means to achieve the desired end state. In this construct, the term “ways” is defined as: -A sequence of actions that is likely to achieve stated objectives.