GEOL 1101 - Test 1 (AI Gen) Quiz ANSWERS
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Geology 1101 - The Dynamic Earth - AI Gen Quiz Topic 1 Introduction to Geology
Multiple Choice Questions:
1.
What is the main focus of geology?
A) Study of the atmosphere
B) Study of solid earth materials
C) Study of oceanography
D) Study of celestial bodies
Answer: B) Study of solid earth materials
2.
Which of the following is NOT a discipline within geology?
A) Hydrogeology
B) Oceanography
C) Petrology
D) Structural geology
Answer: B) Oceanography
3.
Which of the following is NOT an example of a discipline within earth sciences?
A) Oceanography
B) Limnology
C) Climatology
D) Petrology
Answer: D) Petrology
4.
Which discipline within geology focuses on the study of groundwater?
A) Petrology
B) Environmental geology
C) Hydrogeology
D) Structural geology
Answer: C) Hydrogeology
5.
What is the main reason why geology matters to society?
A) To predict changes in the stock market
B) To understand the behavior of stars and galaxies
C) To assess geological hazards and predict their occurrence
D) To create new fashion trends
Answer: C) To assess geological hazards and predict their occurrence
6.
What does the biosphere include?
A) Living organisms only
B) Non-living organic matter only
C) Both living organisms and non-living organic matter
D) Inorganic matter only
Answer: C) Both living organisms and non-living organic matter
7.
What are some examples of changes studied in geologic investigations?
A) Changes in stock market trends
B) Changes in planetary orbits
C) Changes in atmospheric composition
D) Changes in mineral and rock formations
Answer: D) Changes in mineral and rock formations
8.
What is the main component of Earth's atmosphere?
A) Oxygen
B) Nitrogen
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Argon
Answer: B) Nitrogen
9.
What is a sphere in the context of Earth sciences?
A) A three-dimensional shape
B) An area of power or influence
C) A celestial body
D) A layer of the Earth system
Answer: D) A layer of the Earth system
10. Which of the following is NOT a type of system?
A) Isolated system
B) Closed system
C) Semi-open system
D) Open system
Answer: C) Semi-open system
11. How is a sphere most frequently defined?
A) As a two-dimensional shape with straight edges
B) As a three-dimensional surface where all points are equidistant from a fixed center point
C) As a solid object with sharp corners
D) As an irregularly shaped figure without any specific definition
Answer: B) As a three-dimensional surface where all points are equidistant from a fixed center point
12. Here's a multiple-choice question based on the information provided:
Which of the following is included in the Earth's hydrosphere?
A) Atmospheric water
B) Juvenile or primordial water
C) Oceans, lakes, streams, underground water, and all snow and ice
D) Water vapor in the atmosphere
Answer: C) Oceans, lakes, streams, underground water, and all snow and ice
13. What are the most common elements that make up Earth’s atmosphere?
A) Nitrogen, oxygen, argon, carbon dioxide and water vapour
B) Helium, neon, xenon, krypton, and methane
C) Hydrogen, sulfur, phosphorus, chlorine, and nitrogen dioxide
D) Carbon monoxide, ozone, ammonia, nitrogen oxide, and sulfur dioxide
Answer: A) Nitrogen, oxygen, argon, carbon dioxide, and water vapor
Fill in the Blank Questions:
1.
The three reasons why geology matters to society, it predict the possibility of ________________________ (ie earthquakes, landslides), _________________________ which help
us to sustain our current way of life, (ie. water, critical minerals like minerals for batteries, precious and base metals, hydrocarbons) and finally _____________________________ which can help us understand a dynamic changing environment and how these changes will impact us on an annual or decade'el or perhaps out even 100 years from now. Answer: Geologic hazards, Locate the natural resources, Global Climate Change
2.
The hydrosphere includes both __________ and __________ water components.
Answer: liquid, solid
3.
The __________ represents the geological Earth, where humans actually live.
Answer: geosphere
4.
The atmosphere is a mixture of __________.
Answer: gases
5.
The biosphere includes Earth’s organisms, as well as any organic matter not __________.
Answer: decomposed
6.
The __________ is any part of the Earth system that has been modified by humans.
Answer: anthroposphere
7.
The geosphere represents the geological Earth
. This is the sphere that humans actually live on.
The upper geosphere consists of two components: ___________
which is any naturally formed, nonliving, firm coherent aggregate mass of solid matter that constitutes part of a planet ____________: The irregular blanket of loose, uncemented rock particles that covers the solid Earth.
True or False Questions:
1.
Geology is the study of solid earth materials and focuses on the processes that produce minerals or rocks. (True)
2.
The Earth's hydrosphere includes atmospheric water and juvenile water that has never been part of the
hydrosphere. (False)
3.
The biosphere includes both living organisms and non-living organic matter. (True)
4.
The anthroposphere refers to natural environments that have not been influenced by human activities. (False)
5.
Open systems allow the transfer of matter across system boundaries. (True)
Short Answer:
1.
What are the three different kinds of systems? Sketch them
out, and explain how they differ from one another.
Answer: Three basic kinds of systems:
(A) Isolated systems – systems that do not interact with
their surroundings
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(B) Closed systems – systems that do not allow transfer of matter in or out
(C) Open systems – systems that do allow transfer of matter across system boundaries
Topic 2 – Formation of the Universe and the Earth
Multiple Choice Questions:
1.
Which term refers to prevalent ideas in society that change over time and differ between cultures, encompassing explanations of various aspects of the natural world and how they fit into it?
A) Religion
B) Natural theology
C) Theoretical geology
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
2.
Who proposed the heliocentric model, with the sun at the center of the universe, which dominated discussions following its publication in 1543?
A) Johannes Kepler
B) Galileo Galilei
C) Nicolaus Copernicus
D) Isaac Newton
Answer: C) Nicolaus Copernicus
3.
What is the name of the disk where planets eventually form, which surrounds a newly forming star within a nebula?
A) Galactic disk
B) Planetary disk
C) Protoplanetary disk
D) Nebular disk
Answer: C) Protoplanetary disk
4.
What term describes the early stage in the formation of planets, where rock fragments in space come together due to gravity and collisions to form larger bodies?
A) Nebular condensation
B) Celestial aggregation
C) Planetary accretion
D) Planetesimal formation
Answer: D) Planetesimal formation
5.
Why do scientists care about meteorites?
A) They provide information about Earth's atmospheric composition.
B) They contain valuable minerals for industrial purposes.
C) They offer insights into the formation and evolution of the solar system.
D) They serve as indicators of climate change on Earth.
Answer: C) They offer insights into the formation and evolution of the solar system.
6.
Which type of meteorite is thought to have a composition similar to that of the early Earth, particularly in
the core?
A) Stony meteorites
B) Iron meteorites
C) Stony iron meteorites
D) Carbonaceous chondrites
Answer: C) Stony iron meteorites
7.
Which group of planets possesses geospheres with distinct layers including a crust, mantle, and core?
A) Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars
B) Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune
C) Venus, Earth, Jupiter, Saturn
D) Mars, Jupiter, Uranus, Neptune
Answer: A) Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars
8.
How did the Earth's interior become differentiated?
A) Less dense materials formed near the core.
B) The Earth's core became less dense over time.
C) Dense materials such as iron became concentrated near the core.
D) The Earth's interior was randomly mixed during its formation.
Answer: C) Dense materials such as iron became concentrated near the core.
9.
The four main zones of the Earth’s interior are?
A)
Crust, Mantle, Outer Core, Inner Core
B)
Lithosphere, Asthenosphere, Mesosphere, Outer Core
C)
Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere
D)
Epilithic, Hypolith, Mesolith, Endolith
Answer: A) Crust, Mantle, Outer Core, Inner Core
10.Which zone of the Earth's interior is characterized by a solid phase and plastic flow due to its Fe-Mg-rich composition?
A) Crust
B) Mantle
C) Outer Core
D) Inner Core
Answer: B) Mantle
Fill in the blank:
1.
The geocentric model of the universe has _________was at the centre of the universe, ________ is surrounded by a layer of air and fire followed by the Moon, Mercury, Venus, the Sun, Mars, Jupiter, and
Saturn. All celestial bodies and related features lie within the globe of the stars.
This model was proposed by _____________ philosophers.
Answers: Earth, earth, Greek.
2.
The ____________ model, with the sun at the center of the universe, which dominated discussions following its publication in 1543?
Answer: Heliocentric 3.
Premise of the_________________ is that the universe expanded outwards
from an initial state of high density and temperature.
________________ event is thought to have occurred ~______ billion
years ago.
Answer: Big Bang,Big Bang,15
4.
Sun is thought to be ~_______________years old. Many scientists have suggested that it is roughly ____________ through its lifespan.
Answer: 4.6, halfway
5.
Meteorites can be grouped into three categories: (1) _________ meteorites; (2) _________ meteorites; and (3) __________________ meteorites.
Answers: Stony, iron, stony iron
6.
The major factors caused the heating and melting in the early Earth’s interior:
i) ________________________________
ii) ________________________________
iii) ________________________________
Answers: Collisions (kinetic energy → heat), Compression, Radioactivity of elements (e.g., uranium, potassium, or thorium)
7.
The Crust of the Earth is composed of both continental and oceanic crust, where the continental crust is
thicker than the oceanic crust. The thickness of the continental crust ranges from ____ to ____ kilometres whereas the oceanic crust thickness ranges from _____ to ______ kilometres.
Answer: 20-80, 5-10
True or False Question:
1.
The differentiation of the Earth's interior occurred due to the concentration of less dense materials near the core. (False)
2.
The Crust of the Earth is composed of both continental and oceanic crust, where the continental crust is
thicker than the oceanic crust. (True)
Short Answer:
1.
Explain how nebular cloud differentiation occurs.
Answer: Heavier material (i.e., dust) is drawn into the centre of the solar system, while lighter material (gas, ice) is blown away to the outer regions.
2.
How did the moon form? Explain using a diagram.
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Topic 3 – Plate Tectonics
Multiple Choice Questions:
1.
Who is Abraham Ortelius, and what was his main contribution to plate tectonics?
A) An English naturalist who proposed the theory of evolution
B) A Dutch cartographer who created the first modern atlas, "Theatrum Orbis Terrarum"
C) An Italian physicist who discovered electromagnetic induction
D) A French geologist who proposed the theory of continental drift
Answer: B) A Dutch cartographer who created the first modern atlas, "Theatrum Orbis Terrarum"
2.
Who is Charles Darwin, and what were his main contributions to plate tectonics?
A) An American physicist who formulated the theory of relativity
B) A French mathematician who developed the principles of calculus
C) An English naturalist who proposed the theory of evolution by natural selection
D) A German geologist who discovered the theory of continental drift
Answer: C) An English naturalist who proposed the theory of evolution by natural selection
3.
Here's a multiple-choice question based on the provided information:
Who is Antonio Snider-Pellegrini, and what was his main contribution to plate tectonics?
A) An American biologist who discovered the structure of DNA
B) A French geographer and geologist who advocated for the theory of continental drift
C) An Italian physicist who formulated the laws of motion
D) A German meteorologist who developed the theory of climate change
Answer: B) A French geographer and geologist who advocated for the theory of continental drift
4.
Who is Roberto Mantovani, and what was his main contribution to plate tectonics?
A) A German physicist who discovered the principles of electromagnetism
B) An Italian geologist and seismologist who proposed a mechanism for continental drift based on mantle convection
C) A British biologist who formulated the theory of evolution by natural selection
D) An American astronomer who discovered the moons of Jupiter
Answer: B) An Italian geologist and seismologist who proposed a mechanism for continental drift based
on mantle convection
5.
Who is Frank Bursley Taylor, and what was his main contribution to plate tectonics?
A) A Canadian physicist who discovered the theory of relativity
B) An American geologist who proposed the theory of continental drift in 1908
C) A French biologist who developed the theory of evolution by natural selection
D) An English geographer who created the first modern atlas
Answer: B) An American geologist who proposed the theory of continental drift in 1908
6.
What evidence did Alfred Wegener use to support his continental drift hypothesis?
A) Evidence of volcanic eruptions and earthquakes
B) Conformable coastlines, similar fossil assemblages, and rock types from continent to continent
C) Observations of ocean currents and temperature variations
D) Studies of atmospheric pressure and wind patterns
Answer: B) Conformable coastlines, similar fossil assemblages, and rock types from continent to continent
7.
How was much of the early seafloor mapping done during the period from 1912 to 1962?
A) Through aerial photography conducted by military aircraft
B) By sending manned submarines to explore the ocean floor
C) Using echo-sounder technologies, specifically sound navigation and ranging (SONAR)
D) By deploying underwater drones equipped with cameras and sensors
Answer: C) Using echo-sounder technologies, specifically sound navigation and ranging (SONAR)
8.
What was the final piece of evidence that scientists needed to prove that seafloor spreading was a plausible explanation for the formation of continents and oceans?
A) Analysis of seismic activity along oceanic ridges
B) Discovery of ancient fossils on the ocean floor
C) Collection and analysis of magnetic data from the oceans
D) Examination of chemical composition of oceanic crust
Answer: C) Collection and analysis of magnetic data from the oceans
9.
Which of the following are the characteristics of divergent boundaries?
A) Enriched rock in Fe and Mg but depleted in Si and Al (from the mantle) - plates move apart
B) New seafloor is created at the ridge
C) Older seafloor becomes cooler and denser
D) Marine sediments are deposited on the ridge flanks E) All of the above
Answer: E) All of the above
10. Which of the following are characteristics of convergent boundaries that involve a continental plate and an oceanic plate?
A)
Deep trench forms at boundary
B)
Older, colder, denser plate subducts beneath younger, warmer, less dense plate
C)
Side - to - side movement (no crust created or destroyed)
D)
Two oceanic plates collide
Answer: A) Deep trench forms at boundary
11. Which of the following are characteristics of convergent boundaries that involve two oceanic plates?
A)
Deep trench forms at boundary
B)
Sediment on oceanic plate is scraped off, producing an accretionary prism
C)
Leading edge of continental crust get compressed/deformed, forming mountains
D)
Two oceanic plates collide
Answer: D) Two oceanic plates collide
12. Which of the following are the characteristics of convergent boundaries that involve two continental plates?
A)
Arc’ of volcanoes occurs on land above subducting plate
B)
Older, colder, denser plate subducts beneath younger, warmer, less dense plate
C)
Produces very large mountain ranges!
D)
Increased sediment thickness with increased distance from ridge)
Answer - C) Produces very large mountain ranges! Two continental plates collide!
13. Which of the following are the characteristics of transform boundaries?
A)
As the two plates continue to move apart, new seafloor is created at the ridge
B)
Leading edge of continental crust get compressed/deformed, forming mountains
C)
Commonly associated with spreading centres
D)
Older, colder, denser plate subducts beneath younger, warmer, less dense plate
Answer - C) Commonly associated with spreading centres
Fill in the blank
1.
Wegener’s continental drift hypothesis was widely criticised by other scientists. List three reasons why.
i) _____________________________________________________________________________
ii) _____________________________________________________________________________
iii) _____________________________________________________________________________
Answer: WEGENER COULD NOT PROVIDE A MECHANISM TO EXPLAIN HOW THE CONTINENTS MOVED!
i) Shorelines constantly change over time (how good of a fit could we expect?)
ii) Plant seeds could have travelled by other means (winds, ocean currents)
iii) Ancient animals could have found other ways to reach other continents
2.
In a paper published in September 1963, Fred Vine and his PhD supervisor Drummond Matthews proposed that the patterns associated with ridges were related to the magnetic reversals, and that oceanic crust created from cooling basalt during a normal event would have polarity aligned with the present magnetic field, and thus would produce a __________ anomaly (a black stripe on the sea-floor magnetic map), whereas oceanic crust created during a reversed event would have polarity opposite to the present field and thus would produce a __________ magnetic anomaly (a white stripe).
Answer: positive, negative
3.
John Tuzo Wilson was a professor of geophysics at the University of Toronto. Throughout his life, he suggested that the Atlantic Ocean had opened and closed multiple times, giving rise to the ___________________________ model.
Wilson also deduced the origin of hotspot volcanism, and also explained how ________________ form.
Answers: Wilson Cycle, transform faults 4.
What are the names of the twelve major lithospheric plates?
i) _________________________________
ii)_________________________________
iii) _________________________________
iv) _________________________________
v) _________________________________
vi) _________________________________
vii) _________________________________
viii) _________________________________
ix) _________________________________
x) _________________________________
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xi) _________________________________
xii) _________________________________
Answer: Pacific, African, S. American, N. American, Eurasian, Antarctic, Indian - Australian, Cocos, Nazca, Caribbean, Philippine, and Arabian
True or False:
1.
The Vine-Matthews-Morley (VMM) hypothesis was confirmed within a few years when magnetic data were compiled from spreading ridges around the world, showing the same general magnetic patterns present straddling each ridge.
Answer: True
2.
Tectonic plates have always move around in the same way that they do today. Answer: False - They always move on top of the magma however the way they shift and move has changed over time. Matching 1.
Divergent boundaries
A. Himalayan Mountains, India/Nepal/China
2.
Convergent boundaries (continental plates & oceanic plate)
B. Japan
3.
Convergent boundaries (two oceanic plates)
C. San Andreas Fault, CA
4.
Convergent boundaries (two continental plates)
D. Mid-Atlantic Ridge, Iceland
5.
Transform boundaries E. Western margin of South America
Short Answers:
1.
Explain, using a diagram, how changes in the Earth’s magnetic field are recorded in rocks.
Answer: 2.
Harry Hess proposed seafloor spreading as another mechanism to explain how continents and oceans formed. Using a diagram, explain how seafloor spreading works.
Answer:
Topic 4 – Minerals
Multiple Choice Questions:
1.
What is an ion? How does it differ from an atom?
A) An ion is an electrically charged particle formed when an atom gains or loses electrons, whereas an atom is the basic unit of matter composed of protons, neutrons, and electrons.
B) An ion is a stable particle found in the nucleus of an atom, whereas an atom is an electrically charged particle formed when an element gains or loses protons.
C) An ion is a subatomic particle with a positive charge, whereas an atom is a subatomic particle with a negative charge.
D) An ion is an element with a fixed number of electrons, whereas an atom is an element with a variable number of protons.
Answer: A) An ion is an electrically charged particle formed when an atom gains or loses electrons, whereas an atom is the basic unit of matter composed of protons, neutrons, and electrons.
2.
What are isotopes?
A) Different forms of the same element that have different numbers of protons but equal numbers of neutrons.
B) Different forms of the same element that have equal numbers of protons but different numbers of neutrons.
C) Different forms of the same element that have both different numbers of protons and neutrons.
D) Different elements that have equal numbers of protons but different numbers of neutrons.
Answer: B) Different forms of the same element that have equal numbers of protons but different numbers of neutrons.
3.
What is a mineral?
A) A mineral is any substance that forms naturally and organically, is solid at the earth’s surface, possesses an internal crystal structure, and has a mostly undefined chemical structure.
B) A mineral is any substance that forms naturally and inorganically, is solid at the earth’s surface, possesses an external crystal structure, and has a mostly undefined chemical structure.
C) A mineral is any substance that forms artificially and inorganically, is solid at the earth’s surface, possesses an internal crystal structure, and has a mostly defined chemical structure.
D) A mineral is any substance that forms naturally and inorganically, is solid at the earth’s surface, possesses an internal crystal structure, and possesses a mostly defined chemical structure.
Answer: D) A mineral is any substance that forms naturally and inorganically, is solid at the earth’s surface, possesses an internal crystal structure, and possesses a mostly defined chemical structure.
4.
What are the main ways that minerals form?
A) Precipitation from a solid state, metamorphism, evaporation of a solution
B) Precipitation from a solution, precipitation from gaseous emanations, weathering
C) Sublimation, fusion, metamorphism
D) Weathering, sublimation, metamorphism
Answer: B) Precipitation from a solution, precipitation from gaseous emanations, weathering
5.
What are the key mineral groups covered in this course?
A) Alkaloids, nitrates, chlorides, borates, silicates, silicides, native minerals
B) Oxides, sulphides, sulphates, halides, carbonates, phosphates, native minerals, silicates
C) Hydroxides, sulfites, arsenates, borates, vanadates, carbonates, silicates, native minerals
D) Sulfites, phosphites, iodates, bromates, peroxides, carbonates, silicates, native minerals
Answer: B) Oxides, sulphides, sulphates, halides, carbonates, phosphates, native minerals, silicates
6.
What is a polymorph, and why are polymorphs important?
A) A polymorph is a type of mineral that exhibits a wide range of colours and crystal shapes. Polymorphs are important for their aesthetic value and are often used in jewellery.
B) A polymorph is a rock formation characterised by multiple layers of sedimentary rock. Polymorphs are important for understanding geological history and past environmental conditions.
C) A polymorph is a mineral that shares the same chemical composition as another mineral but has a different crystal structure. Polymorphs are important for studying phase transitions and geological processes.
D) A polymorph is a type of fossilised plant material found in coal deposits. Polymorphs are important for reconstructing ancient ecosystems and studying evolutionary patterns.
Answer: C) A polymorph is a mineral that shares the same chemical composition as another mineral but has a different crystal structure. Polymorphs are important for studying phase transitions and geological processes.
7.
What is mineral streak, and how does it differ from colour?
A) Mineral streak is the external appearance or hue of a mineral when viewed with the naked eye, while
colour refers to the colour of a mineral's powdered form.
B) Mineral streak refers to the colour of a mineral's powdered form, while colour refers to the external appearance or hue of a mineral when viewed with the naked eye.
C) Mineral streak is the resistance of a mineral to scratching, while colour refers to the internal atomic structure of a mineral.
D) Mineral streak is the visible arrangement of crystals within a mineral, while color refers to the concentration of impurities in the mineral's composition.
Answer: B) Mineral streak refers to the color of a mineral's powdered form, while color refers to the external appearance or hue of a mineral when viewed with the naked eye.
8.
What is lustre, and what are the two primary types?
A) Lustre is the colour of a mineral in powdered form, and the two primary types are metallic and non-
metallic.
B) Lustre is the way that light reflects off the surface of a mineral, and the two primary types are vitreous and earthy.
C) Lustre is the visible arrangement of crystals within a mineral, and the two primary types are cleavage
and fracture.
D) Lustre is the way that light reflects off the surface of a mineral, and the two primary types are metallic and non-metallic.
Answer: D) Lustre is the way that light reflects off the surface of a mineral, and the two primary types are metallic and non-metallic.
9.
What is mineral hardness, and how was it originally determined?
A) Mineral hardness refers to the resistance of a mineral to breaking, and it was originally determined by measuring the force required to fracture it.
B) Mineral hardness refers to the ability of a mineral to reflect light, and it was originally determined by observing its appearance under a microscope.
C) Mineral hardness refers to the resistance of a mineral to scratching, and it was originally determined by trying to scratch it with objects of known hardness.
D) Mineral hardness refers to the weight of a mineral relative to its volume, and it was originally determined by measuring its density.
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Answer: C) Mineral hardness refers to the resistance of a mineral to scratching, and it was originally determined by trying to scratch it with objects of known hardness.
10. Multiple Choice Question:
Which minerals on the hardness scale are harder than a streak plate?
A) Minerals with a Mohs hardness of 2.5 or higher
B) Minerals with a Mohs hardness of 3.5 or higher
C) Minerals with a Mohs hardness of 5.5 or higher
D) Minerals with a Mohs hardness of 7 or higher
Answer: D) Minerals with a Mohs hardness of 7 or higher
11. Which minerals on the hardness scale are harder than a typical fingernail (2.5)?
A) Minerals with a Mohs hardness of 3 or higher
B) Minerals with a Mohs hardness of 2 or higher
C) Minerals with a Mohs hardness of 2.5 or higher
D) Minerals with a Mohs hardness of 1.5 or higher
Answer: C) Minerals with a Mohs hardness of 2.5 or higher
12. Which minerals on the hardness scale are harder than a piece of copper wire (3.5)?
A) Minerals with a Mohs hardness of 4 or higher
B) Minerals with a Mohs hardness of 3 or higher
C) Minerals with a Mohs hardness of 3.5 or higher
D) Minerals with a Mohs hardness of 2.5 or higher
Answer: A) Minerals with a Mohs hardness of 4 or higher
13. Which minerals on the hardness scale are harder than a knife blade or a piece of window glass (5.5)?
A) Minerals with a Mohs hardness of 6 or higher
B) Minerals with a Mohs hardness of 5 or higher
C) Minerals with a Mohs hardness of 5.5 or higher
D) Minerals with a Mohs hardness of 4 or higher
Answer: A) Minerals with a Mohs hardness of 6 or higher
14. Which minerals on the hardness scale are harder than a hardened steel file (6.5)?
A) Minerals with a Mohs hardness of 7 or higher
B) Minerals with a Mohs hardness of 6 or higher
C) Minerals with a Mohs hardness of 6.5 or higher
D) Minerals with a Mohs hardness of 5.5 or higher
Answer: A) Minerals with a Mohs hardness of 7 or higher
15. Which of the following best describes crystal habit?
A) The color of a mineral when viewed with the naked eye
B) The internal atomic arrangement of a mineral
C) The way light reflects off the surface of a mineral
D) The characteristic shape that a mineral takes when it crystallizes
Answer: D) The characteristic shape that a mineral takes when it crystallizes
16. Which of the following lists correctly identifies the seven different crystal systems?
A) Cubic, dodecahedral, rhombohedral, prismatic, orthorhombic, hexagonal, triclinic
B) Isometric, tetrahedral, octahedral, hexagonal, monoclinic, rhombohedral, triclinic
C) Cubic, tetragonal, orthorhombic, hexagonal, triclinic, monoclinic, rhombohedral
D) Isometric, tetragonal, orthorhombic, pentagonal, monoclinic, rhombohedral, triclinic
Answer: C) Cubic, tetragonal, orthorhombic, hexagonal, triclinic, monoclinic, rhombohedral
17. What is the primary difference between cleavage and fracture in minerals?
A) Cleavage occurs along irregular surfaces, while fracture occurs along flat planes.
B) Cleavage results in the splitting of a mineral into pieces with smooth, flat surfaces, while fracture results in irregular, jagged surfaces.
C) Cleavage is a characteristic of metallic minerals, while fracture is common in non-metallic minerals.
D) Cleavage is caused by external forces acting on a mineral, while fracture is an inherent property of the mineral's crystal lattice.
Answer: B) Cleavage results in the splitting of a mineral into pieces with smooth, flat surfaces, while fracture results in irregular, jagged surfaces.
18. What is specific gravity, and how is it utilized in mineral identification?
A) Specific gravity refers to the weight of a mineral specimen relative to the weight of water, and it is used to determine the volume of the mineral.
B) Specific gravity is the measure of the weight of a mineral compared to the weight of a standard sample of quartz, aiding in the identification of metallic minerals.
C) Specific gravity is the ratio of the weight of a mineral to the weight of an equal volume of water, helping to distinguish minerals with similar appearances but different densities.
D) Specific gravity is the measure of the volume of a mineral specimen relative to the volume of water displaced by an equal weight of the mineral, assisting in identifying minerals based on their color.
Answer: C) Specific gravity is the ratio of the weight of a mineral to the weight of an equal volume of water, helping to distinguish minerals with similar appearances but different densities.
19. Which of the following are additional properties used in mineral identification?
A) Density and volume
B) Elasticity and viscosity
C) Temperature and pressure
D) Acid reaction, magnetism, taste, streak smell, feel, and fluorescence
Answer: D) Acid reaction, magnetism, taste, streak smell, feel, and fluorescence
20. Which of the following statements regarding mineral safety is true?
A) All minerals are completely safe in any state.
B) Pyrite and vermiculite are examples of safe minerals commonly found in homes.
C) Silicate minerals can only be harmful in large quantities.
D) Some minerals, such as arsenopyrite and asbestos-containing vermiculite, can pose health risks.
Answer: D) Some minerals, such as arsenopyrite and asbestos-containing vermiculite, can pose health risks.
21. Which of the following sets contains three key oxide minerals along with distinguishing characteristics?
A) Hematite (non-magnetic, brownish-red streak), Quartz (white streak, hardness of 7), Calcite (fizzes with acid)
B) Magnetite (strongly magnetic, black color), Pyrite (metallic luster, gold color), Bauxite (aluminum ore)
C) Hematite (terra cotta streak, non-magnetic), Magnetite (cubic crystals), Corundum (hardness of 9)
D) Malachite (green color, effervesces with acid), Gypsum (hardness of 2, perfect cleavage), Galena (metallic luster, gray color)
Answer: C) Hematite (terra cotta streak, non-magnetic), Magnetite (cubic crystals), Corundum (hardness of 9)
22. Which of the following statements correctly matches the sulphide mineral with its corresponding characteristics?
A) Pyrite - lead-grey color, heavy, cubic crystals
B) Galena - metallic yellow color, resinous luster, perfect cleavage
C) Sphalerite - tarnished brass yellow color, hardness of 3.5-4, tetragonal crystals
D) Chalcopyrite - metallic yellow color, subconchoidal fracture, hardness of 2.5
Answer: D) Chalcopyrite - tarnished brass yellow color, softer than pyrite (hardness: 3.5-4), tetragonal crystals
23. Which gypsum characteristics correctly matchesl?
A) Gypsum - hardness of 5, hexagonal crystals; Apatite - 1 perfect cleavage, greasy feel
B) Gypsum - perfect cubic cleavage, tastes salty; Apatite - hardness of 4, fluoresces under UV light
C) Gypsum - 1 perfect cleavage, hardness of 2, tabular crystals; Apatite - hardness of 5, hexagonal crystals
D) Gypsum - hardness of 4, perfect cubic cleavage; Apatite - perfect cubic cleavage, greasy feel
Answer: C) Gypsum - 1 perfect cleavage, hardness of 2, tabular crystals; Apatite - hardness of 5, hexagonal crystals
24. Which carbonate mineral exhibits a green color and fizzes when tested with hydrochloric acid (HCl)?
A) Calcite
B) Dolomite
C) Siderite
D) Malachite
E) Azurite
Answer: D) Malachite
25. Which native element exhibits a rotten egg smell and is yellow in color?
A) Graphite
B) Diamond
C) Copper
D) Sulphur
Answer: D) Sulphur
26. What is the primary structural unit found in all silicate minerals?
A) Carbonate ion
B) Sulfate ion
C) Silica tetrahedron
D) Halide ion
Answer: C) Silica tetrahedron
27. Which of the following characteristics is the most reliable method for distinguishing between pyroxene and amphibole minerals?
A) Colour variation
B) Crystal shape
C) Cleavage orientation
D) Lustre properties
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Correct Answer: C) Cleavage orientation, These two rock-forming minerals are so alike.
There’s really only one sure way to tell them apart. The secret to the identity of both is cleavage.
With amphiboles, the cleavage is parallel.
Plus, they’re less dense than similar pyroxenes.
28. What is Bowen’s Reaction Series, and why is it significant in mineralogy?
A) It describes the process of metamorphism and its role in rock formation.
B) It outlines the stages of erosion and sedimentation in the formation of sedimentary rocks.
C) It explains the sequence in which minerals crystallize or melt at different temperatures.
D) It details the chemical composition of igneous rocks and their classification.
Correct Answer: C) It explains the sequence in which minerals crystallize or melt at different temperatures.
Fill in the blank:
1.
Atoms
consist of a nucleus that contains _________________ and _______________
. __________________ orbit the nucleus in orbitals.
Answer: protons (P+), neutrons (N), Electrons (e-)
2.
If electrons are ___________ or _____________, atoms become _____________.
Answer: lost/gained, ions
3.
Minerals are used in many ways in our everyday life. Please list three applications:
a.
___________________________
b.
___________________________
c.
___________________________
Answer: Aluminum – (1) packaging, transport, building, (2) Beryllium – gemstones, fluorescent lights, (3)
Copper – electric cables, wires, switches, (4) Iron – buildings, cars, magnets, (5) Lithium – Li- ion batteries! Specific minerals: (1) Feldspar – glass, ceramics, (2) Calcite – toothpaste!, (3) Gypsum – drywall, (4) Halite – table salt!
4.
What are the eight key mineral groups that we are covering in this course? (Hint: “Only Smart Students Have Cool Parties, Never Skipping Classes, Practicing Studiously." OR “OSCAR'S SNAPPY COW PHOTOS NEAR SILLY SANDCASTLES"
.)
i) ___________________________
ii) ___________________________
iii)___________________________
iv) ____________________________
v) ____________________________
vi) ____________________________
vii) ____________________________
viii) ____________________________
Answer: oxides, sulphides, sulphates, halides, carbonates, phosphates, native minerals, silicates.
5.
What are the most common rock - forming minerals? List them. (HInt: Quickly Find My Big Cat, Playing On A Perfect Ocean.)
i) ___________________________
ii) ___________________________
iii)___________________________
iv) ____________________________
v) ____________________________
vi) ____________________________
vii) ____________________________
viii) ____________________________
ix) ____________________________
x) ____________________________
Answer: Quartz , Feldspar (group), Muscovite (white mica, Biotite (black mica), Calcite, Pyroxene, Olivine, Amphibole (group), Iron oxides (e.g., magnetite and hematite), Pyrite
6.
A non-metallic mineral has a shiny, reflective surface, then it is called “___________” Calcite (CaCO
3
) If it is dull and nonreflective, it is “_____________” Kaolinite (Al
2
(OH)
4
Si
2
O
5
) Other types of non-metallic lustres are “___________” Gypsum (CaSO
4
·2H
2
O)
“______________” Muscovite (KAl
2
(AlSi
3
O
10
)(F,OH)
2
) and “resinous.” “______________” - Variscite (AlPO
·2(H O)) ₄
₂
“______________” - Opal (SiO
2
·2(H O))
₂
Answer: GLASSY, EARTHY, SILKY, PEARLY, WAXY, GREASY
7.
Cleavage is very ___________ to see if you are just becoming acquainted with the geosciences. Answer: difficult
8.
_________________
is how a mineral breaks when there are no definite _______________________________..
Answer: Fracture, planes of weakness.
9.
Label the following diagram. Click on text box to label. 10. All bonds in a silica tetrahedron are ____________________ (very strong lattice structure).
Answer: Covalent.
True or False:
1.
Over 4,000 different minerals
are known at present (new minerals are being discovered all the time!).
However, interestingly enough, most rocks are made up of less than a dozen
minerals
Answer: True
2.
The following minerals are different and geologist can tell this due to the colour.
Answer: False - These two images show different varieties of hematite
(Fe
2
O
3
). Since many minerals can come in many different colours, colour should be used as a last resort.
3.
Non-metallic
minerals may look as if light will not pass through them, but if you take a closer look at a thin edge of the mineral you can see that it does. Answer: True
4.
Lustre is NOT a good diagnostic property.
Answer: False lustre is a good diagnostic property since most minerals will always appear either metallic or non-metallic.
Matching:
1.
Please match the mineral to the common example.
Mineral
Common Examples
1.
Oxides
A)
Quartz (SiO
2
), feldspar (sodium-aluminum silicate, NaAlSi
3
O
8
), olivine (iron or magnesium silicate, (Mg,Fe)
2
SiO
4
)
2.
Sulphides
B) Apatite (Ca
5
(PO
4
)
3
(OH)), turquoise (CuAl
6
(PO
4
)
4
(OH)
8
·5H
2
O)
3.
Sulphates
C) Hematite (iron oxide; Fe
2
O
3
), corundum (aluminum oxide, Al
2
O
3
)
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4.
Halides
D) Halite (sodium chloride; NaCl), fluorite (calcium fluoride, CaF
2
)
5.
Carbonates
E) Galena (lead sulphide, PbS), pyrite (“fool’s gold”, iron sulphide, FeS
2
)
6.
Phosphates
F) Gold (Au), graphite (C), diamond (C), sulphur (S), copper (Cu)
7.
Native Minerals
G) Calcite (calcium carbonate, CaCO
3
), dolomite (calcium-magnesium carbonate, CaMg(CO
3
)
2
)
8.
Silicates
H) Gypsum (calcium sulphate, CaSO
4
·H
2
O), barite (barium sulphate, BaSO
4
)
Answers: 1=C, 2=E, 3=H, 4=D, 5=G, 6=B, 7=F, 8=A
2. Match the seven primitive crystal systems.
1.
Isometric (or cubic) A)
All three axes are of equal length, and none of the axes is perpendicular to another, but the crystal dances all have the same size and shape.
2.
Tetragonal B) All three axes are equal in length, and all are perpendicular to one another.
3.
Orthorhombic
C) All three axes are unequal in length, and none is perpendicular to another.
4.
Hexagonal
D) All three axes are equal in length, and all are perpendicular to one another.
5.
Triclinic
E) Of four axes, three are of equal length, are separated by equal angles,
and lie in the same plane. The fourth axis is perpendicular to the plane of
the other three axes. Hexagonal cells have lattice points in each of the two six-sided faces
6.
Monoclinic
F) all three axes are unequal in length and all are perpendicular to one another.
7.
Rhombohedral (or trigonal)
G) Two of the three axes are equal in length, and all three axes are perpendicular to one another. Answers:
1.
Isometric (or cubic) (D) All three axes are equal in length, and all are perpendicular to one another.
2.
Tetragonal (G) Two of the three axes are equal in length, and all three axes are perpendicular to one another. 3.
Orthorhombic - (F) all three axes are unequal in length and all are perpendicular to one another.
4.
Hexagonal - (E) Of four axes, three are of equal length, are separated by equal angles, and lie in the same plane. The fourth axis is perpendicular to the plane of the other three axes. Hexagonal cells have lattice points in each of the two six-sided faces. 5.
Triclinic - C) All three axes are unequal in length, and none is perpendicular to another.
6.
Monoclinic - (B) All three axes are unequal in length, and two axes are perpendicular to each other. 7.
Rhombohedral (or trigonal) - (A) All three axes are of equal length, and none of the axes is perpendicular to another, but the crystal dances all have the same size and shape.
3. Match the different fractures.
1.
Conchoidal fracture:
A)
Surface is rough and irregular
2.
Uneven fracture
B) Surface is reminiscent of freshly broken soil
3.
Earthy fracture
C) Surface shows fibres and/or splinters (uncommon)
4.
Hackly fracture
D) Surface is smooth and bowl-shaped (breaks like glass)
5.
Fibrous fracture
E) Surface is rough and irregular (uncommon)
1= D, 2 = A, 3 = B, 4 = E, C
4. Match other properties used in mineral identification
1.
Acid reaction A)
Certain minerals will become fluorescent under a UV light (i.e., fluorite)
2.
Magnetism
B) Halite is rock salt, and will have taste salty as a result.
3.
Taste
C) Sphalerite will have a pale yellow streak that will give off a rotten-
egg-like smell
4.
Streak Smell
D) Magnetite is strongly magnetic. 5.
Feel E) Calcite fizzes vigorously with dilute acid and with give off bubbles of carbon dioxide 6.
Fluorescence
F) Talc will feel soapy, whereas graphite will feel greasy Acid reaction
- Calcite fizzes vigorously with dilute acid and with give off bubbles of carbon dioxide Magnetism
- Magnetite is strongly magnetic. Taste
- Halite is rock salt, and will have taste salty as a result. Streak Smell
- Sphalerite will have a pale yellow streak that will give off a rotten-egg-like smell Feel
- Talc will feel soapy, whereas graphite will feel greasy Fluorescence
- Certain minerals will become fluorescent under a UV light (i.e., fluorite)
1= E, 2 = D, 3 = B, 4 = C, 5 = F, 6 = A
5. Oxides can sometimes be challenging to pick apart from one another, Match the oxide to the tips!
1.
Hematite
A)
Very hard (hardness of 9), white streak, hexagonal crystals
2.
Magnetite
B) ALWAYS has a terra cotta (brownish-red) streak, non-magnetic
3.
Corundum
C) strongly magnetic, black colour, cubic crystals
●
Hematite:
ALWAYS has a terra cotta (brownish-red) streak, non-magnetic
●
Magnetite:
strongly
magnetic, black colour, cubic crystals
●
Corundum:
Very hard (hardness of 9), white streak, hexagonal crystals
1 = B, 2 = C, 3 = A
6. You should know how to identify gypsum (a sulphate) and apatite (a phosphate). Match the following minerals to their identifying characteristics.
1.
Gypsum
A) Hardness of 5, hexagonal crystals, often green or yellow
2.
Apatite
B) Perfect cubic cleavage, tastes salty (don’t lick it in the lab!), greasy feel
3.
Halite
C) Hardness of 4, perfect cubic cleavage, fluoresces under UV light 4.
Fluorite
D) 1 perfect cleavage (2 good), hardness of 2, tabular crystals
ANSWER: Gypsum
: 1 perfect cleavage (2 good), hardness of 2, tabular crystals
●
Apatite
: Hardness of 5, hexagonal crystals, often green or yellow
Halides are some of the easiest minerals to identify: ●
Halite
: Perfect cubic cleavage, tastes salty (don’t lick it in the lab!), greasy feel
●
Fluorite
: Hardness of 4, perfect cubic cleavage, fluoresces under UV light 1 = D, 2 = A, 3 = B, 4 = C
7. Match the properties of carbonate to the diagnostic properties..
1.
Calcite
A) Porcelainous lustre, does not fizz
2.
Dolomite
B) High specific gravity, brownish colour, fizzes under warm
HCl
3.
Siderite
C) Characteristic green colour, massive, banded crystals, fizzes
4.
Magnesite D) Characteristic blue colour, massive and earthy, fizzes 5.
Malachite
E) Slightly harder than calcite, fizzes when powdered
6.
Azurite
F) Hardness of 3, strongly fizzes under HCl, 3 perfect cleavages
Answers: Calcite
: Hardness of 3, strongly fizzes under HCl, 3 perfect cleavages
●
Dolomite
: Slightly harder than calcite, fizzes when powdered
●
Siderite:
High specific gravity, brownish colour, fizzes under warm
HCl
●
Magnesite
(can be found on campus!):
Porcelainous lustre, does not fizz
●
Malachite:
Characteristic green colour, massive, banded crystals, fizzes
●
Azurite
: Characteristic blue colour, massive and earthy, fizzes 1 = F , 2 = E, 3 = B , 4 =A , 5 = C, 6 = D
8. Match the native elements minerals to the diagnostic properties.
1.
Graphite
A) Extremely hard (hardness: 10) adamantine lustre (no sample available!)
2.
Diamond
B) Rusty colour, hackly fracture, metallic lustre, copper-red streak
3.
Copper
C) Yellow in colour, very soft (hardness: 1.5-2.5), rotten egg smell
4.
Sulphur
D) Dark grey in colour, very soft (hardness: 1-2), black streak
Answers: Graphite
: Dark grey in colour, very soft (hardness: 1-2), black streak
●
Diamond
: Extremely hard (hardness: 10) adamantine lustre (no sample available!)
●
Copper
: Rusty colour, hackly fracture, metallic lustre, copper-red streak
●
Sulphur
: Yellow in colour, very soft (hardness: 1.5-2.5), rotten egg smell
1 = D, 2 = A, 3 = B, 4 = C
9. Match the seven different groups of silicate minerals to their mineral shapes and examples and scientific name.
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1. Isolated silica tetrahedron
A) (Phyllosilicates)
i)
a) Example minerals: Feldspar, quartz 2. Paired silica tetrahedra
B) (Cyclosilicates)
ii)
b) Example mineral: Tourmaline
3. Rings of silica tetrahedron
C) (Sorosilicates)
iii)
c) Example minerals: Micas (muscovite), clay minerals (kaolinite) 4. Silica tetrahedron
(connected in single chain)
D) (Inosiliciates)
iv)
d) Example mineral: Epidote
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5. Silica tetrahedron
(connected double chain)
E) (Tectosilicates)
v)
e) Example mineral family: amphibole 6. Silica tetrahedron
(connected in sheets)
F) (Nesosiliocates)
vi)
f) Example mineral family: pyroxene
7. Silica tetrahedron
(connected in 3D frameworks)
G) (Inosiliciates)
vii)
g) Example mineral:
Olivine
Answers: 1 = F = vi = g
2 = C = ii = d
3 = B = iv = a
4 = D or G = i = f
5 = G or D = vii = e
6 = A = v = c
7 = E = iii = a
Short Answer:
1.
Draw an example of a polymorph. (Hint: Graphite, Diamond)
2.
Which minerals on the hardness scale are harder than a copper penny?
Answer: Fluorite, Apatite, Feldspar, Quartz, Topaz, Corundum
Topic 5 – Crystals and Gems
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Multiple Choice:
1.
What distinguishes a gem from a mineral and a rock?
A) Gems are only found in sedimentary rocks, while minerals and rocks occur in all types of rocks.
B) Gems are always formed through metamorphic processes, while minerals and rocks can form through various processes.
C) Gems are valuable ornamental forms of minerals or rocks, while minerals are natural crystalline solids with a well-defined composition and rocks consist of one or more minerals.
D) Gems are composed of a single mineral, while minerals and rocks can be composed of multiple minerals.
Answer: C) Gems are valuable ornamental forms of minerals or rocks, while minerals are natural crystalline solids with a well-defined composition and rocks consist of one or more minerals
2.
What is the relationship between gems, minerals, and rocks?
A) Gems are rocks with ornamental value, while minerals are valuable crystalline solids.
B) Minerals are ornamental forms of rocks, and gems consist of one or more minerals.
C) Rocks are composed of gems, which are natural crystalline solids.
D) A rock can be made up of one or more minerals, and gems are valuable ornamental forms of minerals.
Correct Answer: D) A rock can be made up of one or more minerals, and gems are valuable
ornamental forms of minerals.
3.
What distinguishes ferromagnesian minerals from non-ferromagnesian minerals in terms of their formation?
A) Ferromagnesian minerals crystallize from cooler melts compared to non-ferromagnesian minerals.
B) Ferromagnesian minerals tend to be richer in silica, Na, Al, and K compared to non-ferromagnesian minerals.
C) Non-ferromagnesian minerals contain Fe or Mg in their structure, while ferromagnesian minerals do not.
D) Ferromagnesian minerals crystallize from hotter melts compared to non-ferromagnesian minerals.
Correct Answer: D) Ferromagnesian minerals crystallize from hotter melts compared to non-
ferromagnesian minerals.
4. What factors contribute to the value of gems?
A) Their abundance in nature
B) Their low hardness according to the Mohs scale
C) Their dull appearance and lack of lustre
D) Their vibrant colour, lustre, hardness, and rarity
Correct Answer: D) Their vibrant colour, lustre, hardness, and rarity
4.
Which of the following are examples of imperfections in gemstones?
A) Perfect clarity and flawless composition
B) Internal fractures, impurities, or inclusions
C) Uniform colour and consistent texture
D) Symmetrical shape and precise faceting
Correct Answer: B) Internal fractures, impurities, or inclusions
5.
Which of the following gemstones are not true minerals?
A) Diamond
B) Ruby
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C) Emerald
D) Opal
E) Garnet
Correct Answer: D) Opal
6.
Which of the following processes is NOT a way in which minerals can form?
A) Precipitation from aqueous solution
B) Precipitation from gaseous emanations
C) Hydrothermal alteration
D) Weathering
E) Organic formation
Correct Answer: C) Hydrothermal alteration
7.
Which of the following best describes the concept of additive color?
A) Mixing colors of paint to produce different hues
B) Combining colors of light to create new colors
C) Mixing pigments to absorb specific wavelengths of light
D) Blending colored filters to block certain wavelengths of light
Correct Answer: B) Combining colors of light to create new colors
8.
Which process contributes to mineral or gemstone coloration through the incorporation of metal ions?
A) Hydrothermal alteration
B) Mechanical abrasion
C) Metal ion absorption
D) Metal ion incorporation
Correct Answer: D) Metal ion incorporation
9.
Give two examples where incorporation of metal ions influences colour (Garnet and azurite)
A) Fe2+→ red colour in garnet & Fe3+→ blue to green colour in azurite/malachite
B) Al3+→ green colour in garnet & Co2+→ blue to green colour in azurite/malachite
C) Mn3+→ red colour in garnet & Fe3+→ blue to green colour in azurite/malachite
D) V3+→ green colour in garnet & Cu2+→ blue to green colour in azurite/malachite
Correct Answer: D) V3+→ green colour in garnet & Cu2+→ blue to green colour in azurite/malachite
10. How does intervalence charge transfer contribute to mineral/gem colour?
A)
Electrons are transferred between adjacent metals in the mineral (Same metal of different valence, Different metals)
B)
Electrons are transferred between adjacent metals in the mineral, altering the absorption spectrum and resulting in a unique coloration (Same metal of different valence).
C)
The mineral's crystal lattice accommodates ions of different valences, creating vacancies that interact with incident light, producing distinctive hues (Same metal of different valence).
D)
The transfer of electrons between different metal ions within the mineral's structure generates charge imbalances, leading to the absorption of specific wavelengths of light and the manifestation of varied colors (Different metals).
Answer: A) Electrons are transferred between adjacent metals in the mineral (Same metal of different valence, Different metals)
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11.Which of the following statements best describes how metal ion incorporation contributes to mineral/gem color?
A) Metal ions absorb specific wavelengths of light, resulting in their excitation to higher energy levels, thus imparting color to the mineral/gem.
B) Metal ions form covalent bonds with neighboring atoms, altering the crystal lattice and generating a characteristic color.
C) Metal ions undergo intervalence charge transfer, leading to the emission of unique colors in the mineral/gem.
D) Metal ions catalyze chemical reactions within the mineral/gem, producing pigments responsible for coloration.
E) Metal ions influence mineral/gem color by interacting with ambient light, causing diffraction and scattering effects.
Answer: A) Metal ions absorb specific wavelengths of light, resulting in their excitation to higher energy levels, thus imparting color to the mineral/gem.
12. What is the effect of ionizing radiation on mineral and gem coloration?
a) It causes the minerals to become translucent.
b) It induces fluorescence in the minerals.
c) It results in the alteration of atomic structure, leading to color changes.
d) It increases the density of the minerals.
Answer: c) It results in the alteration of atomic structure, leading to color changes.
13. What are some physical effects that can affect mineral colour?
a) Heating and cooling processes
b) Chemical reactions with the surrounding environment
c) Scattering, interference, and iridescence
d) Magnetic interactions with other minerals
Answer: c) Scattering, interference, and iridescence
14. Which of the following best describes band gaps in minerals?
a) They are regions of darkness found between mineral crystals.
b) They are areas of enhanced fluorescence within a mineral.
c) They are energy ranges where no electron states can exist, creating a gap in the material's electronic structure.
d) They are regions of increased hardness found in mineral fractures.
Answer: c) They are energy ranges where no electron states can exist, creating a gap in the material's electronic structure.
15. Which of the following statements best describes color banding in minerals and its difference from band gaps?
a) Color banding is caused by the absorption of specific wavelengths of light due to the presence of impurities, while band gaps refer to energy ranges where no electron states can exist.
b) Color banding results from the alternating deposition of different mineral layers, while band gaps are regions in a material's electronic structure where no electron states can exist.
c) Color banding occurs due to the presence of metallic ions in the mineral structure, while band gaps are visual patterns formed by alternating color regions in a mineral.
d) Color banding is the result of ionizing radiation exposure, while band gaps are formed due to physical processes altering light as it passes through a mineral.
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Answer: b) Color banding results from the alternating deposition of different mineral layers, while band gaps are regions in a material's electronic structure where no electron states can exist.
Topic 6 – Intrusive Bodies and Volcanism
1.
Which of the following best describes the difference between a dike (or dyke) and a sill?
a) Dikes form parallel to layering in the host rock, while sills form at a 90° angle to layering.
b) Dikes form when magma intrudes horizontally between sedimentary layers, while sills form vertically through the layers.
c) Dikes form when magma intrudes vertically between sedimentary layers, while sills form horizontally parallel to the layers.
d) Dikes and sills are terms used interchangeably to describe any tabular intrusive body formed within a
rock layer.
Answer: c) Dikes form when magma intrudes vertically between sedimentary layers, while sills form horizontally parallel to the layers.
2.
Which of the following statements best describes the difference between a laccolith and dikes (or dykes) and sills?
a) Laccoliths form when magma intrudes horizontally between sedimentary layers, while dikes form vertically through the layers and sills form parallel to layering.
b) Laccoliths are tabular intrusive bodies that form parallel to layering in the host rock, while dikes form at a 90° angle to layering.
c) Laccoliths involve a significant amount of magma and cause layers above to bend into a dome shape, while dikes and sills are characterized by their more uniform, tabular shapes.
d) Laccoliths and sills both form horizontally parallel to the layers, but laccoliths are larger and deeper intrusive bodies compared to sills.
Answer: c) Laccoliths involve a significant amount of magma and cause layers above to bend into a dome shape, while dikes and sills are characterized by their more uniform, tabular shapes.
3.
Which of the following best distinguishes a pluton from dikes (or dykes), sills, and laccoliths?
a) Plutons are tabular intrusive bodies that form parallel to layering, while dikes form vertically through the layers and sills form horizontally between layers.
b) Plutons are large, irregular-shaped intrusive bodies that can range in size from 10s of meters to 100s
of kilometers, while dikes are thin, vertical intrusions and sills are tabular bodies parallel to the layering.
c) Plutons form when magma intrudes horizontally between sedimentary layers, while laccoliths involve a significant amount of magma and cause layers above to bend into a dome shape.
d) Plutons and sills both form horizontally between layers, but plutons are smaller and shallower intrusions compared to sills.
Answer: b) Plutons are large, irregular-shaped intrusive bodies that can range in size from 10s of meters to 100s of kilometers, while dikes are thin, vertical intrusions and sills are tabular bodies parallel
to the layering.
4.
Which of the following statements best describes the formation of sills?
a) Sills form through the solidification of magma injected into fractures or weaknesses in the Earth's crust, typically resulting in coarse-grained textures due to slow cooling.
b) Sills are dome-shaped intrusive igneous bodies that form when magma is injected into shallow levels
of the Earth's crust beneath sedimentary rock layers, creating an uplifted area in the overlying rocks.
c) Sills are tabular intrusive igneous bodies that cut across surrounding rock layers vertically or diagonally, resulting from magma intruding between pre-existing rock layers parallel to their bedding planes.
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d) Sills form through the solidification of magma at great depths within the Earth's crust, cooling and crystallizing slowly over long periods, and can vary in size from several kilometers to hundreds of kilometers across.
Answer: c) Sills are tabular intrusive igneous bodies that cut across surrounding rock layers vertically or
diagonally, resulting from magma intruding between pre-existing rock layers parallel to their bedding planes.
5.
Which of the following best distinguishes between batholiths and stocks?
a) Batholiths are typically larger than stocks, with batholiths exceeding 100 square kilometers in size and stocks being smaller than 100 square kilometers.
b) Batholiths are typically formed through the rapid cooling of magma near the Earth's surface, while stocks form through slow cooling at greater depths.
c) Batholiths are dome-shaped intrusive bodies, whereas stocks are irregular blob-shaped intrusions.
d) Batholiths are composed of fine-grained igneous rocks, while stocks consist of coarse-grained textures due to slow cooling.
Answer: a) Batholiths are typically larger than stocks, with batholiths exceeding 100 square kilometers in size and stocks being smaller than 100 square kilometers.
6.
Which of the following statements best describes the variability of volcanoes and factors contributing to explosive eruptions?
a) All volcanoes erupt explosively due to the accumulation of magma pressure beneath the Earth's surface.
b) Explosive eruptions occur only in regions with high levels of tectonic activity, such as subduction zones.
c) Volcanoes can erupt both explosively and non-explosively, with factors such as magma viscosity, silica content, and the presence of water contributing to explosive eruptions.
d) Explosive eruptions are solely determined by the size of the volcano, with larger volcanoes being more prone to explosive activity.
Answer: c) Volcanoes can erupt both explosively and non-explosively, with factors such as magma viscosity, silica content, and the presence of water contributing to explosive eruptions.
7.
Which of the following best describes the location and significant eruption of Mount St. Helens?
a) Located in Northern California, USA, Mount St. Helens experienced its most significant eruption in 1991.
b) Situated in Southern Washington State, USA, Mount St. Helens had its most notable eruption on May 18th, 1980.
c) Found in Alaska, Mount St. Helens had a major eruption in 2008, causing widespread damage.
d) Situated in the Rocky Mountains, Mount St. Helens experienced a devastating eruption in 1986.
Answer: b) Situated in Southern Washington State, USA, Mount St. Helens had its most notable eruption on May 18th, 1980.
8.
Which of the following accurately describes the location and significant eruption of Mount Vesuvius?
a) Situated in Greece, Mount Vesuvius erupted in 1944, causing widespread destruction.
b) Located in Japan, Mount Vesuvius had its most significant eruption in 2011, leading to evacuations.
c) Found in Italy near Naples, Mount Vesuvius experienced its notable eruption in AD 79.
d) Positioned in South America, Mount Vesuvius erupted in 2005, resulting in lava flows.
Answer: c) Found in Italy near Naples, Mount Vesuvius experienced its notable eruption in AD 79.
9.
Which of the following accurately describes the location and recent eruption history of Kilauea?
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a) Situated in Japan, Kilauea erupted in 2011, causing widespread destruction.
b) Located in Iceland, Kilauea had its most recent eruption in 2010, leading to evacuations.
c) Found on the big island of Hawaii, Kilauea is associated with an active hot spot and last erupted from
1983 to 2018.
d) Positioned in Italy, Kilauea erupted in AD 79, resulting in significant volcanic activity.
Answer: c) Found on the big island of Hawaii, Kilauea is associated with an active hot spot and last erupted from 1983 to 2018.
10. Which of the following accurately describes the location and significant eruption of Mount Tambora?
a) Located in the United States, Mount Tambora experienced its most significant eruption in 1906, causing widespread devastation.
b) Situated in Japan, Mount Tambora erupted in 1923, resulting in the destruction of nearby towns.
c) Found in Indonesia, Mount Tambora is a stratovolcano and had its most significant eruptions in 1815, leading to the "year without a summer."
d) Positioned in Italy, Mount Tambora erupted in AD 79, causing significant volcanic activity in the region.
Answer: c) Found in Indonesia, Mount Tambora is a stratovolcano and had its most significant eruptions in 1815, leading to the "year without a summer."
11. What is Eyjafjallajökull?
a) A mountain range in the Alps known for its winter sports activities.
b) A glacier located in Antarctica, renowned for its unique ice formations.
c) An ice cap covering the caldera of a stratovolcano in Iceland.
d) A volcanic island in the Pacific Ocean, famous for its lush tropical rainforests.
Answer: c) An ice cap covering the caldera of a stratovolcano in Iceland.
12. What destructive effects were associated with the 1995-1999 eruptions in the Soufrière Hills?
a) Extensive ashfall causing disruptions in air travel across the Caribbean.
b) Lava flows that engulfed nearby villages and towns, resulting in loss of life and property.
c) Pyroclastic flows that led to the abandonment of the capital city on the island.
d) Tsunami waves triggered by the volcanic eruptions, affecting coastal areas.
Answer: c) Pyroclastic flows that led to the abandonment of the capital city on the island.
13. What is the most hazardous threat to volcanologists?
a) Exposure to toxic gases emitted by the volcano, such as sulfur dioxide and carbon dioxide.
b) Being struck by volcanic bombs ejected during explosive eruptions.
c) Asphyxiation due to heavy ashfall and airborne volcanic particles.
d) Lava flows flowing down the slopes of the volcano.
Answer: All of the above.
14. What are some examples of pyroclastic flows? Sketch them out, and describe how they form.
a) Lahars and debris avalanches, formed from a mixture of volcanic debris, water, and gravity.
b) Pumice falls and surges, characterized by the deposition of lightweight, porous volcanic rocks.
c) Nuées ardentes and glowing avalanches, consisting of hot gas, ash, and other volcanic materials.
d) Volcanic bombs and blocks, solid fragments ejected from the volcano during explosive eruptions.
Answer: c) Nuées ardentes and glowing avalanches, consisting of hot gas, ash, and other volcanic materials.
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15. What is a characteristic feature of lahars?
a) They are composed primarily of molten lava.
b) They typically form in dry climates with minimal precipitation.
c) They are fast-moving flows that contain muddy volcanic debris and water.
d) They commonly occur in regions with no volcanic activity.
Answer: c) They are fast-moving flows that contain muddy volcanic debris and water.
16. What is the primary difference between tuff and tephra?
a) Tuff is exclusively composed of fine ash particles, while tephra includes larger volcanic bombs and blocks.
b) Tuff is a broad term for all volcanic materials ejected during an eruption, while tephra specifically refers to consolidated volcanic ash.
c) Tuff is a broader term encompassing all types of fragmented material ejected during an eruption, while tephra specifically refers to deposits of volcanic ash.
d) Tuff is a term used for volcanic material deposited near the source of an eruption, while tephra refers
to material found far away from the volcano.
Answer: c) Tuff is a broader term encompassing all types of fragmented material ejected during an eruption, while tephra specifically refers to deposits of volcanic ash.
17. What does the volcanic explosivity index (VEI) primarily measure?
a) The frequency of volcanic eruptions in a given region.
b) The intensity of seismic activity associated with volcanic eruptions.
c) The volume of magma erupted during a volcanic event.
d) The explosiveness of a volcanic eruption based on factors like debris volume, eruption cloud height, and qualitative observations.
Answer: d) The explosiveness of a volcanic eruption based on factors like debris volume, eruption cloud height, and qualitative observations.
18. On the volcanic explosivity index (VEI), where do common Hawaiian eruptions typically plot?
a) 2-3
b) 4-5
c) 6-7
d) 0-1
Answer: d) 0-1
17. Where do stratovolcano eruptions in the Cascade Mountains commonly plot on the volcanic explosivity index (VEI)?
a) 0-1
b) 2-3
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c) 4-5
d) 6-7
Answer: (ChatGPT) b) 2-3
18. What is the largest volcanic eruption known? In other words, which volcanic eruption has produced the largest plume with the greatest amount of ejecta?
a) Mount Vesuvius eruption in AD 79
b) Mount St. Helens eruption in 1980
c) Krakatoa eruption in 1883
d) Toba eruption approximately 74,000 years ago
Answer: (ChatGPT) d) Toba eruption approximately 74,000 years ago
19. Which of the following statements best describes the characteristics of cinder cone volcanoes?
a) They are characterized by low, gently sloping sides and frequent, non-explosive eruptions.
b) They typically have circular or asymmetric shapes and form from lava flows with occasional explosive eruptions.
c) They are the simplest volcanoes with high-angle cones formed from ash erupting from a single vent.
d) They consist of alternating layers of lava and ash, resulting in a pyramid shape, and are considered the most dangerous type of volcano.
Answer: c) They are the simplest volcanoes with high-angle cones formed from ash erupting from a single vent.
20. What is the primary concern regarding geyser activity in Yellowstone National Park?
a) Geyser activity can cause significant damage to infrastructure and disrupt tourism in the park.
b) Geyser eruptions often result in the release of toxic gases, posing a threat to visitors and wildlife.
c) Yellowstone is home to a supervolcano, and increased geyser activity could be a precursor to a catastrophic supervolcanic eruption.
d) Geyser eruptions contribute to global warming by releasing large amounts of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere.
Answer: c) Yellowstone is home to a supervolcano, and increased geyser activity could be a precursor to a catastrophic supervolcanic eruption.
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21. What are some phenomena that typically indicate that a volcanic eruption may occur very soon?
a) Decreased seismic activity and a stabilization of the landscape surrounding the volcano.
b) Reduced volcanic gas emissions and a cooling of surface temperatures in the vicinity of the volcano.
c) Increased seismic activity, changes in slope, elevated volcanic gas emissions, and rising surface temperatures near the volcano.
d) Intensified rainfall and a decrease in surface temperatures near the volcano.
Answer: c) Increased seismic activity, changes in slope, elevated volcanic gas emissions, and rising surface temperatures near the volcano.
22. What are some common tools used for predicting and monitoring volcanic eruptions?
a) Microscopes and sedimentation tests.
b) Barometers and windsocks.
c) Seismometers, gas sensors, GPS devices, and satellite imagery.
d) Thermometers and anemometers.
Answer: c) Seismometers, gas sensors, GPS devices, and satellite imagery.
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What are the observations that are used for short- and long-term predictions of volcanic eruptions?
a) Short-term predictions rely on historical records and long-term predictions on direct observations.
b) Short-term predictions rely on monitoring gas emissions and earthquake activity, while long-term predictions
rely on satellite imagery.
c) Short-term predictions rely on monitoring cloud cover and wind patterns, while long-term predictions rely on seismic activity.
d) Short-term predictions rely on studying volcanic rocks, while long-term predictions rely on measuring air pressure changes.
Answer: b) Short-term predictions rely on monitoring gas emissions and earthquake activity, while long-term predictions rely on the historical/geological record.
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