Exam 3 review guide
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School
Texas A&M University *
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Course
677
Subject
Geography
Date
Dec 6, 2023
Type
docx
Pages
14
Uploaded by MagistrateMoon9068
Exam 3 exercises
* indicates the correct answer
__________________________________________________________
1. What does the circulation of the atmosphere and ocean ultimately do?
a. Moves heat from cold locations to warm locations
*
b. Moves heat from warm locations to cold locations
c. It is dependent on the hemisphere
d. None of the above.
2. The meridional component of the westerlies brings what type of heat exchange?
a. North-South
b. Poleward transport of heat
*
c. Both a and b.
d. None of the above.
3. What type of weather is typically associated with a low-pressure system?
a. Fair and sunny
*
b. Stormy
c. It depends on the geographic location
d. It can bring either a or b depending on other variables
4. Which would most be impacted by the Coriolis force?
*
a. Fast moving air at a mid-latitude location
b. Slow moving air at the same mid-latitude location
c. Fast moving air at the equator
d. All of the above are equal influences
5. Which of the following about the geostrophic wind is correct?
a. Un-accelerated horizontal movement
b. Follows a straight path
c. Found above the atmospheric boundary layer
*
d. All of the above.
6. What differentiates the gradient wind from the geostrophic wind?
a. Large-scale
b. Horizontal
c. Frictionless
*
d. Path is curved
e. None of the above.
7. Where are the horse latitudes found?
a. Between 30 and 35 °N
b. Between 30 and 35 °S
c. Under the subtropical highs
*
d. All of the above.
8. What types of winds are likely found in the horse latitudes?
a. Surface winds are light
b. Air is calm
c. Strong southwesterly winds
d. Air is turbulent
*
e. Both a and b.
9. What is a jet stream?
*
a. Relatively narrow corridor of strong wind in the upper atmosphere
b. Relatively narrow corridor of strong wind in the lower atmosphere
c. Relatively wide corridor of strong wind in the upper atmosphere
d. Relatively wide corridor of strong wind in the lower atmosphere
10. Which of the following is true with respect to Northern Hemisphere weather and jet stream?
a. When the polar jet is to your south it is cold
b. When the polar jet is to your north, it is warm
*
c. Both a and b.
d. None of the above.
11. When is the jet stream typically the strongest?
a. Summer
*
b. Winter
c. Spring
d. Fall
12. In which direction does an onshore wind flow?
*
a. From sea to land
b. From land to sea
c. Parallel to the coastline
d. None of the above.
13. What affect does friction have on wind?
*
a. Slows it down
b. Speeds it up
c. Changes its direction
d. Any of the above could be true
14. In which direction does the Coriolis force act?
a. To the right of motion in the Northern Hemisphere
b. To the left of motion in the Southern Hemisphere
*c. Both of the above.
d. None of the above.
15. How does the air pressure in Denver, CO, compare with the air pressure at sea level?
a. Same as sea level
b. Substantially higher than sea level
*
c. Substantially lower than sea level
d. The difference varies by season
16. What is the main difference between heat sources and sinks with regards to the ocean
currents?
a. Heat sinks chill and stabilize overlying air
b. Heat sources destabilize air by adding energy to the overlying air
*
c. Both a and b.
d. None of the above.
17. What are common characteristics of El Niño and La Niña?
a. Significant changes in tropical Pacific SST
b. Significant shifts in planetary scale circulations
*
c. Both a and b.
d. None of the above.
18. The Southern Oscillation considers which of the following variables?
*
a. Air pressure
b. Indian monsoon strength
c. Both a and b.
d. None of the above.
19. How do conditions during the La Niña phase of ENSO compare to El Niño?
a. They are generally the same
*
b. They are generally the opposite
c. SST temperature changes but circulations do not
d. Circulations change but SST do not
20. Which of the following is an impact of El Niño on tropical weather systems?
a. Intensity
b. Frequency
c. Spatial distribution
*
d. All of the above.
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21. Which of the following is common during a La Niña phase?
a. Higher than usual SST in the NH winter
b. More rainfall than average in the eastern Pacific region
*
c. Greater likelihood of tropical cyclone formation in the Atlantic Basin
d. All of the above.
22.
How does monitoring ENSO help humankind?
a. Gives us more data to crunch
b. Leads to a better understanding of the ENSO cycle
c. Helps us better prepare and mitigate the effects of variability
*
d. Both b and c.
23.
What is the precipitation pattern during a monsoon active phase?
*
a. Mostly cloudy with frequent rain
b. Mostly cloudy with little rain
c. Mostly sunny and hot
d. Snowy
24.
What happens when we add more CO
2
to the atmosphere?
a. Additional amounts of carbon are added to the ocean
b. Oceans become more acidic
c. Oceans become less acidic
*
d. Both a and b.
25. How are surface ocean currents driven?
*
a. Wind
b. By the Moon
c. By Sea Surface Temperature
d. None of the above.
26.
What happens to the direction of water movement due to the wind as depth increases to about
100 to 150m?
a. Stays the same
*
b. Changes
c. Is always in a northerly direction in the Northern Hemisphere.
d. Is opposite that of Coriolis force.
27. Water piles up and sinks in which of the following processes?
a. Upwelling
*
b. Downwelling
c. Both a and b.
d. None of the above.
28.
El Niño is the
______
phase of the ENSO cycle?
*
a. warm
b. cool
c. neutral
d. None of the above.
29. La Niña is the
______
phase of the ENSO cycle.
a. warm
*
b. cold
c. neutral
d. None of the above.
30. A linkage between changes in atmospheric circulation in widely separated regions is known
as what?
a. Interconnectedness
b. Interdependence
*
c. Teleconnection
d. None of the above.
31.
When glacial ice flows from land to sea, what happens to sea level?
a. Rises gradually
b. Drops gradually
*
c. Rises immediately
d. Drops immediately
32. Which of the following impacts sea-level change?
a. Plate tectonics
b. Waxing and waning of land-based glaciers.
c. Thermal expansion of seawater.
*
d. All of the above.
33.
Which of the following is a reason that the future of climate is such a concern?
*a. Dramatic changes may disrupt society
b. More money must be spent to monitor the change
c. Both a and b are correct.
d. None of the above is correct.
34. Why must we look at instrument-based and reconstructed climate records with scrutiny?
a. To identify statistically significant trends
b. To find points of data that can be extrapolated into the future
*c. Both a and b are correct.
d. None of the above is correct.
35. Why will it take time for Earth’s climate system to recover from CO
2
already being put into
the atmosphere?
a. There is no way to stop CO
2
emissions
b. CO
2
has a short lifetime
*c. CO
2
has a long lifetime
d. None of the above is correct.
36.
How does climate model skill vary?
a. ECV to ECV
b. Region to region
*c. Both a and b are correct.
d. None of the above is correct.
37.
Why is climate modeling so difficult?
a. There are many interacting sub-systems
b. Feedbacks and systems occur on many different spatial scales
c. There is no one equation that explains climate
*d. All of the above are correct.
38.
Which of the following is true about the Paleocene-Eocene Thermal Maximum (PETM),
making it the best geological analog for future ocean and biological responses?
a. Widespread warming associated with large buildup of CO
2
and methane
b. Oceans acidified
c. Global temps rose several degrees
*d. All of the above are correct.
39. Where did greenhouse gases come from during the PETM?
a. Decomposition of deposits on the seafloor
b. Volcanic activity
c. Oxidation of organic-rich sediments
*d. All of the above are correct.
40.
Why will all locations on the globe not see the increase in temperatures predicted by climate
models?
*a. Climate change is geographically non-uniform in both magnitude and sign
b. The greatest change will always be seen at the equator, regardless of the forcing mechanism
c. Climate change is only uniform along lines of latitude
d. None of the above is correct.
41. Why would we not see an immediate drop in atmospheric CO
2
levels if emissions were to
drop?
a. Removing CO
2
depends on physical, chemical and biological processes
b. These processes take centuries to work
*c. Both a and b are correct.
d. None of the above is correct.
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42.
What does the complex nature of removing CO
2
from the atmosphere mean in terms of
global climate change?
a. There is no hope of reversing the changes already made
b. Making a change will require a serious and prolonged commitment to reducing emissions
c. There will still be warming even after emissions are reduced, possible for decade to centuries
*d. Both b and c are correct.
43.
Which of the following is true with regards to climate model output being like life
expectancy?
a. They do not give precise values at a specific location
b. They help to quantify future change that may occur
*c. Both a and b are correct.
d. None of the above is correct.
44.
What is the general relationship between heavy precipitation events and climate change?
*a. As temperature warms, more frequent heavy precipitation events occur
b. As temperature warms, less frequent heavy precipitation events occur
c. As temperature warms, more frequent small precipitation events occur
d. None of the above is correct.
45.
Why is drought so troubling in relation to climate?
*a. A minimal increase in temperatures would increase the areas that are affected by drought
b. A minimal increase in temperatures would decrease the areas that are affected by drought
c. A minimal increase in temperatures would increase the duration of drought
d. None of the above is correct.
46. The tendency to be adversely affected by a variety of elements including sensitivity or
susceptibility to harm and lack of ability to adapt defines ________.
*a. vulnerability
b. variability
c. harm
d. None of the above is correct.
47. The process of adjustments to actual or expected climate and its effect is ________.
*a. adaptation
b. mitigation
c. variance
d. None of the above is correct.
48. By the end of the century, how much of Louisiana could be submerged if current sea-level
rise and sediment compaction occurs?
a. 1%
*b. 10%
c. 20%
d. 50%
49. In 2012, the Greenland Ice Sheet saw unprecedented melting.
How much of the ice sheet
showed some degree of surface melt at that time?
a. 7%
b. 37%
c. 57%
*d. 97%
50. Which of the following are the largest contributors of global sea-level rise?
a. Thermal expansion
b. Glacier mass loss
c. Increased precipitation
*d. Both a and b are correct.
51. Which of the following is also an impact of sea-level rise?
a. Coastal erosion
b. Disruption of ecosystems
c. Intrusion of groundwater
*d. All of the above are correct.
52. How much of the global ice cover is found in Antarctica?
a. 9%
b. 39%
c. 59%
*d. 90%
53. Which of the following about ice mass is true?
*a. Ice mass lost at lower elevations is outpacing the buildup at higher elevations
b. Ice mass lost at higher elevations is outpacing the buildup at lower elevations
c. There is no trend in ice mass loss
d. None of the above is correct.
54. Complete melting of the Greenland Ice Sheet would cause what level of sea rise?
*a. 7.3 m
b. 14.1 m
c. 24.3 m
d. There would be no significant change
55. Which of the following is an impact of sea ice melt that is likely to affect the native people of
the artic areas across the globe?
a. Migration of animals further north reduces food supply
b. Altered fishing conditions
c. Melting of permafrost has left country roads impassable
*d. All of the above are correct.
56. Which of these accounted for the population boom of the last century?
a. Access to medical care
b. Eradication of some diseases
c. Increased agricultural production
*d. All of the above are correct.
57. Which of the following is an area in which stress can increase the risk of social uprising?
a. Infrastructure
b. Economy
c. Social
*d. All of the above are correct.
58. What percentage of primary energy usage by humans requires the burning of fossil fuels?
a. 8%
b. 18%
*c. 80%
d. 90%
59. Why does the use of electric cars not fully eliminate emissions of CO
2
?
*a. Coal is used to generate electricity
b. The car still requires a fossil fuel to function at 100%
c. Both a and b are correct.
d. None of the above is correct.
60. In order to limit the temperature rise to no more than 2 degrees above pre-industrial averages,
what must the concentration of CO
2
be limited to?
a. 300 ppm
b. 350 ppm
*c. 450 ppm (the current CO2 concentration is about 420ppm)
d. 500 ppm
61. Which fossil fuel is responsible for 40% of worldwide CO
2
emissions?
*a. Coal
b. Oil
c. Natural gas
d. None of the above is correct.
62. Why has coal usage dropped in the United States?
a. Increased amounts of available natural gas make it a cheap alternative to coal
b. The EPA has released a plan to limit emissions from power plants
c. Coal supplies are running low
*d. Both a and b are correct.
63. Which of the following is an example of a renewable energy source?
a. Solar power
b. Wind power
c. Biofuels
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d. Geothermal
*e. All of the above are correct.
64. Where is geothermal energy primarily drawn from the Earth?
a. Along plate boundaries
b. At hotspots
*c. Both a and b are correct.
d. None of the above is correct.
65. Which of the following could be used to sequester CO
2
?
*a. Submarine basalts
b. Sandstones
c. Limestones
d. None of the above is correct.
66. What is the impact of sulfate aerosols on temperatures at Earth’s surface?
a. Temperatures increase with increased sulfate aerosols present
*b. Temperatures decrease with increased sulfate aerosols present
c. Temperatures remain the same regardless
d. None of the above is correct.
67. Which of the following must be considered when developing policy related to climate
change?
a. Principles of how the climate system operates
b. How humans interact with climate
c. Value judgments people place on the interactions with climate
*d. All of the above are correct.
68. Which of the following is an example of a secondary consequence in relation to climate
change?
a. Policies to promote biofuel production could lead to inefficient uses of land, water and crops
b. Use of biofuels could add to air pollution or contribute to water quality degradation
*c. Both a and b are correct.
d. None of the above is correct.
69. Why has international cooperation for climate change been unsuccessful in the past few
decades?
a. Political differences
b. Economic differences
c. Election results
*d. Both a and b are correct.
e. Both b and c are correct.
70. How can geoengineering lead to more risk?
*a. Engineering the Earth on a large scale leads to unintended, adverse consequences
b. Geoengineering is too expensive
c. Geoengineering can only be successful in high population density areas
d. None of the above is correct.
71. Which pre-existing law has been used to regulate greenhouse gas emissions in the United
States after the Supreme Court ruled that greenhouse gases would fall under it?
a. Reagan Amendment
b. Montreal Protocol
*c. Clean Air Act
d. None of the above is correct.
72. When surveyed, what percentage of the U.S. population believes that Earth’s climate system
has been getting warmer?
a. 25%
b. 50%
*c. 67%
d. 75%
73. Cuts in greenhouse gas emissions will have which of the following effects on the general
population?
a. Less diversity in crops
*b. Higher energy prices
c. Drought
d. None of the above is correct.
74. What must happen for an issue to be addressed in public policy?
a. Recognized as a public problem
b. Be put on a policymaker’s agenda
*c. Both a and b are correct.
d. None of the above is correct.
75. Reducing greenhouse gas emissions is an example of which of the following?
*a. Mitigation
b. Adaptation
c. Geoengineering
d. Knowledge base expansion
76. Why are large transformational decisions often avoided?
a. Too costly
b. Can affect major change
c. Take too many votes to pass
*d. Cause major disruptions to the national governing structure
77. Which of the following is a benefit to mitigation by reducing greenhouse gas emissions?
a. Health benefits from reduced air pollution
b. Reduce petroleum product consumption
c. Reduce dependence on foreign oil
*d. All of the above are correct.
78. Which of the following is a problem associated with mitigation and adaptive measures that
address climate change?
a. They are slow to come about
b. They are met with intense criticism
*c. Both a and b are correct.
d. None of the above is correct.
79. What social science disciplines help to explain the societal reactions to climate change
information?
*a. Communications and psychology
b. Anthropology
c. Geography
d. None of the above is correct.
80. According to climatologist Michael E. Mann, why is it so important for climate scientists to
refute those who actively discredit their work?
a. Reputation is important
*b. Impacts of a changing climate are too important
c. Both a and b are correct.
d. None of the above is correct.
81. What motivates denial of climate change?
a. Fear and anxiety
b. Desire to have a routine in surroundings
c. Belief structure
*d. All of the above are correct.
82. Limitation of knowledge or understanding, which can be quantified, defines _____.
a. Denialism
b. Skepticism
*c. Uncertainty
d. None of the above is correct.
83. What does uncertainty cause in the public?
*a. Increased anxiety
b. Decreased anxiety
c. Desire to invest in more research
d. None of the above is correct.
84. What group of people is used to promote areas of uncertainty in research and inflate potential
impact?
*a. Dissenting scientists
b. Politicians
c. College students
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d. Scientists that believe in the consensus
85. Which of the following is true about dissenting scientists?
a. They have degrees in the exact area they study
*b. Their earned degrees typically are not specific to the area of research they are trying to
stymie
c. They often work for think tanks
d. None of the above is correct.
86. Where does funding for dissenting scientists typically come from?
*a. Industry favoring the status quo
b. Industry seeking change
c. Politicians seeking change
d. The public
87. Which of the following best describes how the challenge of negating a false balance is
psychological?
a. People accept information which matches their current point of view
b. People seek information to support their existing viewpoint
c. It is easy to find information that supports a particular side of the argument
*d. All of the above are correct.
88. What are climate deniers primarily trying to accomplish?
*a. Keep the debate alive
b. Refute the science fully
c. Both a and b are correct.
d. None of the above is correct.
89. Where do the denialist attitudes arise from?
a. Don’t see climate change as a threat to them
b. Desire to reap the benefits of the consequences (lower heating bills, etc)
*c. Both a and b are correct.
d. None of the above is correct.
90. Which of the following terms regarding climate change generates a more negative reaction?
a. Climate change
*b. Global warming
c. Both are equal
d. None of the above is correct.
91. Why should scientists engage the media?
a. To set the record straight
b. To become better communicators
*c. Both a and b are correct.
d. None of the above is correct.
92. Where does the problem regarding misinformation in the media begin?
*a. In the original press releases and newswires
b. Conference calls with scientists
c. Both a and b are correct.
d. None of the above is correct.
93. With so much disinformation present, what must scientists focus on?
*a. Communication and education
b. Returning to their research
c. Continuing to be published
d. None of the above is correct.
94. Where do some of the most organized campaigns of disinformation come from?
*a. Think tanks
b. Dissenting scientists
c. Well-funded scientists
d. None of the above is correct.
95. Which of the following groups is the most involved in the public discourse on matters of the
atmosphere?
*a. Broadcast meteorologists
b. National Weather Service
c. IPCC Press Secretary
d. None of the above is correct.
96. On which of the following would a station scientist likely be called to report?
*a. Anything related to science
b. Weather only
c. Climate only
d. Traffic and weather together
97. Which of the following is most likely to fall victim to personal tactics, given their
employment by a state government?
*a. State climatologist
b. Station scientist
c. University professor
d. None of the above is correct.