EOSC 114 Practice Final 2023W1

3 EOSC 114 FINAL EXAMPLE BASED ON 2016 EXAMS REMINDER OF EXAM POLICY: 1. Each student must be prepared to produce, upon request, a UBC card for identification. 2. Students suspected of any of the following, or similar, dishonest practices shall be immediately dismissed from the examination and shall be liable to disciplinary action:  having at the place of writing any books, papers or memoranda, calculators, computers, sound or image players/recorders/transmitters (including telephones), or other memory aid devices, other than those authorized by the examiners;  speaking or communicating with other candidates;  purposely exposing written papers to the view of other candidates or imaging devices. The plea of accident or forgetfulness shall not be received. 3. Students must hand in all midterm materials. For more details and UBC Policy on Student Conduct During Exams – use this link http://www.calendar.ubc.ca/vancouver/index.cfm?tree=3,41,90,0 PLEASE NOTE – Answer keys are not provided, because that makes you less likely to learn from them. The reason is that students who memorize answers to past exams usually earn lower grades than those who study the subject material. We want you to learn the material.

4 1) Which of the following disasters CANNOT be caused by one of the other disasters we studied this term? A) Earthquakes B) Landslides C) Tsunami D) Storms E) Meteorite impacts 2) Which of the following is NOT something that you need in your disaster kit? A) Portable shelter B) Food and water for at least 3 days C) Mobile phone D) First aid kit E) Any medicine you take regularly 3) How much larger is a disaster of magnitude 8 than a disaster of magnitude 4 if they are measured on an order of magnitude scale? A) 3 B) 100 C) 256 D) 1000 E) 10000 4) In general, larger disasters are ________ than smaller disasters. A) more frequent B) less frequent C) less deadly D) more likely E) less expensive 5) Which of the following is NOT a reason humans might have an unreasonable fear of a disaster? A) Personal experience and loss B) Understanding the risk and hazard C) Media exposure D) Phobia E) Many people being killed or injured at once 6) World population growth has been growing linearly in recent years. Why is this important for disasters? A) The events that cause disasters are getting more frequent and more people will be injured by them. B) More people are living in the path of disasters. C) More people will help us develop ways to stop disasters like earthquakes and volcanoes. D) The number of disasters is directly related to world population. E) The more people who know about disasters, the more likely we will be able to have the resources to stop them. 7) Which of the following prefixes represents the largest value? A) kilo B) mega C) pico D) tera E) nano 8) In which of the following disasters is the force of gravity important? A) Landslides B) Earthquakes C) Volcanoes D) Tsunami E) All of the above 9) Disasters follow the law of conservation of energy. Why? A) Disasters neither create nor destroy energy, they concentrate or dilute it. B) Disasters create energy at a constant rate, concentrating it. C) Disasters destroy energy at a constant rate, diluting it. D) The concentration of energy is not important for disasters. E) The dilution of energy is not important for disasters. 10) A material that is very fluid and very compressible at room temperature is called a: A) Solid B) Liquid C) Gas D) Plasma E) Bose Einstein Condensate

6 19) There are more tsunami in the Pacific Ocean because __________. A) it is a semi-enclosed ocean B) the trenches are deepest there C) the fetch is longest, thus waves can travel farthest D) there is more seismic activity around it E) it is a shallow ocean 20) The tremendous killing power of tsunami is due mostly to __________. A) the earthquake that generated the tsunami B) a large mass of water causing destruction as it rushes inland and retreats back to the ocean C) waves with towering wave heights that crash on buildings D) the storm surge approaching shore with destructive force E) the rapid approach of several waves, usually within seconds of each other 21) In the northern hemisphere, in which part of the hurricane is the storm surge the MOST disastrous for the coastline? A) To the west of the eye of the hurricane. B) To the north of the eye of the hurricane. C) Directly under the eye of the hurricane. D) On the left side of the hurricane (if you’re facing in the direction the hurricane is traveling). E) On the right side of the hurricane (if you’re facing in the direction the hurricane is traveling). 22) Which statement is FALSE ? At Kitsilano Beach, __________. A) perfect pipeline (plunging) surf do not happen because the water is cold B) as a wave approaches shore, the motion of water particles is affected by friction with the ocean bottom C) longer waves become shallow water waves farther offshore than shorter waves D) waves form whitecaps when their crests are unstable E) there is a small, gentle spilling breaker, because the seafloor slope is almost flat 23) Longshore drift occurs when ________. A) wave fronts approach the shoreline at an angle B) wave fronts hit the shore parallel to the shoreline C) waves hit rocky cliffs and erode material D) high energy waves carry sand offshore and deposit it in sandbars E) groins trap sand that has been moved by waves 24) Which storm hazard can hurt or kill you? A) lightning B) tornado C) hail D) flooding E) all of the above 25) What feature do almost all cumulonimbus clouds have that makes them easily recognizable as a thunderstorm? A) mesocyclone B) wall cloud C) anvil D) mammatus E) haboob 26) The main source of energy for thunderstorms is ______________. A) geothermal B) solar C) wave D) gravitational E) wind 27) Which type of supercell is known to produce a lot of hail? A) low-precipitation B) classic C) high precipitation D) squall line E) hailiotropic

7 28) Downbursts are caused by ___________________. A) tilting of tornadic rotation B) sporadic descent of the thunderstorm cloud base C) fast jet-stream winds aloft that are tilted down by falling hail D) evaporation of precipitation falling through dry air E) updrafts that hit the tropopause and bounce off, in order to conserve air mass 29) Which is the correct order of horizontal size, from largest to smallest? A) Wall cloud, hurricane, tornado, thunderstorm, hailstone. B) Hailstone, tornado, wall cloud, thunderstorm, hurricane. C) Thunderstorm, hurricane, wall cloud, hailstone, tornado. D) Tornado, hailstone, wall cloud, hurricane, thunderstorm. E) Hurricane, thunderstorm, wall cloud, tornado, hailstone. 30) Which statement is TRUE ? A) Wall clouds rotate too slowly to be seen by eye. B) Mesocyclone rotation can be seen by eye. C) Tornado rotation is too slow to be seen by eye. D) Hurricane rotation can be seen in satellite loops. E) Gust fronts extend outward like spokes of a wheel. 31) The hurricane/typhoon/tropical-cyclone eye _________________. A) has the strongest updraft compared to other parts of the hurricane B) has the most precipitation compared to other parts of the hurricane C) has calmer winds and clearer skies compared to other parts of the hurricane D) is a nearly circular band of thunderstorms E) causes the greatest destruction compared to other parts of the hurricane 32) What is a necessary condition for hurricane/typhoon/tropical-cyclone formation and existence? A) Warm sea-surface temperature. B) Cold deep-sea water temperature. C) Latitude at the equator. D) Strong wind shear in the pre-storm environment. E) Location over the Pacific Ocean. 33) A typical lifetime for average hurricanes is roughly________. A) 1 to 2 hours B) 1 to 2 days C) 1 to 2 weeks D) 1 to 2 months E) 1 to 2 years 34) Hurricanes/typhoons/tropical-cyclones create their own fuel by ________________. A) absorbing sunlight at the top of the storm B) the merging of mesocyclones from supercell thunderstorms C) tapping in to the gyres of rotating currents in the ocean D) utilizing the radioactive decay found in natural elements in sea water E) ocean-wave breaking that evaporates sea spray into the air 35) For Western Canada, hurricane/typhoon/tropical-cyclone season usually reaches its peak in: A) late Winter B) late Spring C) late Summer D) late Fall E) never

9 42) Look at the fault shown in the picture above. This fault appeared in a farmer’s field in the USA after an earthquake, what kind of fault is this? A) A normal fault B) A strike slip fault C) A thrust fault D) A reverse fault E) An abnormal fault 43) As you slowly bend a wooden stick until it snaps, you can make a number of observations. Which one of these observations is INCORRECT ? A) Energy is released during brittle failure of the stick. B) Elastic deformation in the stick occurs before brittle failure. C) It is hard to predict exactly when the stick will fail in a brittle manner. D) The stick undergoes ductile deformation before it snaps. E) Brittle deformation is a permanent deformation. 44) MOST earthquakes occur in just the top 20 km of the Earth’s crust because at greater depths ______________. A) rocks do not strain B) rocks behave plastically C) rocks are elastic D) rocks are too strong too break E) seismometers cannot detect earthquakes 45) Which of the following earthquakes would potentially cause the most damage in Vancouver, consider the earthquake alone and not any related hazards. A) A M w 8.0 earthquake with the hypocentre in the Cascadian megathrust zone B) A M w 8.0 earthquake in the down going slab with the hypocentre beneath Vancouver C) A M w 8.0 earthquake in the overriding plate with the hypocentre beneath Vancouver D) A M w 8.0 earthquake in the overriding plate with the hypocentre beneath Victoria E) A M w 8.0 earthquake with the hypocentre in California

10 46) The table above presents the S & P wave arrival times at four seismic stations. From this data, we can tell that_____. A) stations 3 and 4 are extremely close together B) the earthquake occurred between stations 1 and 3 C) station 3 is closer to the epicentre than station 2 D) all stations are on one side of the epicenter E) station 1 is furthest away from the epicenter 47) Which of the following was a cause for the Oso landslide in Washington State? A) Heavy rainfall and water B) Undercutting C) Climate D) Weak materials E) All of the above were causes for this landslide 48) Scaling falls into which of the following types of mitigation? A) Avoidance B) Prevention C) Protection D) Litigation E) None of the above 49) If you are about to purchase a home with a lovely (I mean, really lovely) view, which of the following things should make you the most concerned about landslides? A) Lots of trees on the slope B) Evidence of older landslides C) Rain D) Melting snow E) A slope 50) If a town of 20,000 people are threatened by debris flows, which of the following mitigation methods is likely to be avoided because of the expense? A) Building an appropriately sized debris retention structure. B) Installing rock catchment fences. C) Creating a channel to guide the flow around the town. D) Moving the town. E) They will all cost about the same amount. Station P-wave Arrival S-wave arrival 1 1:03 pm 1:04 pm 2 1:07 pm 1:10 pm 3 1:06 pm 1:08 pm 4 1:06 pm 1:08 pm

12 54) What is the MOST important difference between a translational slide and a rotational slide? A) The shape of the failure surface. B) Translational slides have a curved scarp. C) Rotational slides move faster. D) Rotational slides are more deadly. E) Clay particles are important in translational slides. 55) In the accompanying diagram to the right, of forces acting on an unstable rock block positioned on a hill slope, which arrow refers to the shear stress? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E 56) Quick clay slides are very hazardous because___________________. A) steep slopes lead to very bad quick clay slides B) they occur in places where you wouldn’t expect landslides C) clay is much weaker than volcanic ash D) glaciers add salt to the clay matrix which weakens the clays E) farming causes the clay to weaken causing very bad quick clay slides 57) Which of the following is NOT a reason volcanic rocks are “inherently weak materials”? A) They are formed of young materials that have not aged. B) They have lots of pore spaces (vesicles) in them. C) They usually occur above heat sources that cycle hot acidic waters through the rocks. D) They are layered in an unstable way (point downslope). E) They are formed from stacked layers with varying properties. 58) Which of the following volcanic hazards can occur WITHOUT an accompanying eruption? A) lava flow B) volcanic ash cloud C) pyroclastic flow D) lahar E) volcanic bombs 59) The shape of a shield volcano is the result of many eruptions of ______________ viscosity _______ A) high; mafic lavas B) high; felsic lavas C) low; mafic lavas D) low; felsic lavas E) high; felsic pyroclasts 60) The 1980 eruption of Mt St Helens was a VEI of 5, erupting ~1 km 3 of tephra. The Mt Pinatubo eruption of 1991 was a VEI of 6, approximately how much tephra was erupted during the Mt Pinatubo eruption? A) <1 km 3 B) ~1 km 3 C) ~10 km 3 D) ~100km 3 E) None, Mt Pinatubo erupted only lavas 61) Which of the following does NOT depend on the chemical composition of an extrusive igneous rock/lava? A) Crystal size B) Melting temperature C) Mineralogy D) Viscosity E) Solidification temperature

13 62) Which of the following monitoring methods is used to detect the volume and type of gas being emitted by a volcano? A) A GPS network B) Tiltmeters C) InSAR D) FTIR E) Seismic monitoring 63) If you were put in charge of starting a monitoring program for a newly discovered dormant stratovolcano showing renewed signs of activity, what should be your order of priorities? A) Seismometers, global positioning systems, mapping of previous hazards, tiltmeters B) Global positioning systems, seismometers, mapping of previous hazards, tiltmeters C) Seismometers, global positioning systems, tiltmeters, mapping of previous hazards D) Seismometers, tiltmeters, global positioning systems, mapping of previous hazards E) Mapping of previous hazards, seismometers, global positioning systems, tiltmeters 64) Explosive eruptions disperse tephra as______________. A) lava flows and domes B) lava flows and pyroclastic flows C) fall out and domes D) fall out and lava flows E) fall out and ballistics 65) On the diagram to the right which area on the hazard map represents the region of likely air fall hazard? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E 66) Also considering the diagram in Question 84, this is a hazard map for a stratovolcano or composite cone, which two of the hazards shown would also be most likely to be found on a cinder cone hazard map? A) A & B B) B & C C) C & D D) D & E E) None of them will be found on a cinder cone hazard map

15 74) Which of the following statements about the Principle of Faunal Succession is TRUE ? A) Evolutionary success has been too rapid to allow for accurate correlation of strata. B) Fossils are generally not affected by mass extinction events. C) Fossils succeed one another from oldest to youngest due to evolution. D) Ancient life was most successful after global forest fires. E) Strata cannot be correlated through succession across large continental areas. 75) Which of the following is CORRECT ? A) James Ussher correlated rocks using the radioactive isotopes present in volcanic ash deposits. B) William Smith believed that fossils follow one another through time in a regular order. C) James Hutton believed that the Earth was about 6,000 years old. D) George Cuvier believed that mammoths were fossils of modern day elephants. E) James Ussher used principles of stratigraphy to prove that the Earth must be millions of years old. 76) The figure below shows a hypothetical geological section exposed in a highway road cut. Rock “D” is an igneous intrusion. The diagonal line “E” is a geological fault. “A”, “B” and “C” are rocks layers. Which of the following statements is TRUE ? A) “D” is the oldest feature in this section. B) “A” is the youngest feature in this section. C) Most of “B” is younger than “D”. D) The part of “A” to the left of fault “E” marked with “X” is younger than “D”. E) “D” is younger than “A”. 77) Refer to the figure above. If rock “D” had been dated to 550 million years old, which of the following could be TRUE ? A) You might be able to find dinosaur fossils in “A”. B) “C” would contain evidence of the Ordovician glaciation, but “A” and “B” would not. C) “B” may contain evidence of elevated iridium levels that could be correlated to the impact at Chicxulub. D) Rocks “A”, “B” and “C” would have to be Precambrian in age. E) Movement along the fault “E” must have occurred in the Cambrian.

16 78) The majority of the bases of geological periods during the Phanerozoic are defined by ______. A) the appearance of new species following a mass extinction event B) mass extinction events C) the extinction of many species on land D) iridium clay layers E) abundance of impact craters 79) Which of the following hypothetical "biosphere crises" could be classified as a mass extinction? A) 55% of species in the Atlantic Ocean go extinct over 80,000 years. No extinctions of species on land, lower percentage in the Pacific Ocean. B) 45% of species lost over a 25 million year period C) Complete extinction of one group of reptiles over 5,000 years. No other extinctions recorded. D) 32% of species extinct over a period of 1 million years. 45% of that number on land, 55% in the oceans. E) 10% of species in the desert regions, 30% of species in tropical forests, 65% of species in coral reefs go extinct over a 50,000 year period. 80) Scientists believe that the 6th major mass extinction is on-going. Which of the following is the most likely cause? A) global warming B) increasing continental fragmentation C) sea level rise D) unknown viruses and other diseases E) humans 81) All of the following are direct or indirect effects of the production of flood basalts. Which one would LEAST likely generate a mass extinction event? A) Acid rain B) Sealevel change C) Increase in carbon dioxide in the atmosphere D) Effects of atmospheric cooling E) Lava accumulation on land 82) Which of the following would be the MOST effective way to cause a mass extinction today? A) Exterminate/kill the majority of the biota at the base of the food chain. B) Stop fertilizing farm land. C) Acidify major inland lakes. D) Cut down deciduous forests (those with trees that lose all of their leaves for part of the year). E) Exterminate/kill all top predators in North America. 83) All of the following likely caused the Permo-Triassic extinction EXCEPT ______. A) decrease in continental biodiversity B) loss of coastal and shallow water marine habitats C) massive loss of marine life in anoxic oceans D) greenhouse warming E) global and massive deforestation 84) Which of the following is TRUE about the Cretaceous-Paleogene extinction? A) In general, all creatures heavier than 150 kg survived the extinction event. B) Extinction was most severe on land compared to that in the oceans. C) Species that initially survived the effects of the impact became extinct due to the loss of the base of the food chain over a period of months. D) The Cretaceous biosphere was very healthy up to the time of the K/Pg impact. E) All species of dinosaurs became extinct.