AT 202 block 2

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Embry-Riddle Aeronautical University *

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202

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Geography

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Dec 6, 2023

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https://quizlet.com/683742247/at-202-exam-2-flash-cards/ Airports Quiz ELTP Question 1 10 / 10 pts What color are taxiway edge lights? White Red Amber Blue Question 2 10 / 10 pts At airports with an operating control tower, clearance is required to operate in all areas EXCEPT: Runways Non-movement areas Heliport/helipad Taxiways Question 3 10 / 10 pts A _______ is identified by large chevrons pointing in the direction of the threshold. Relocated Threshold Blast Pad Dislocated Threshold Closed Runway Question 4 10 / 10 pts What runway marking extends the full-length runway pavement area? Runway centerlines Dashed centerlines Runway side stripes Dashed side stripes Question 5 10 / 10 pts A runway with a magnetic heading of 003 degrees should be designated Runway _______. 36 3 1 0 Question 6 10 / 10 pts A(n) _______ consists of white arrows which point in the direction of landing, replacing the runway centerline, and beginning at the non-landing portion to the threshold bar. Stabilized area Displaced threshold Abandoned runway Relocated threshold Question 7 10 / 10 pts _______ consist of a pair of synchronized white flashing strobe lights located laterally on each side of the runway. Runway Edge Lights Taxiway Lights

Airport Beacons Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL) Question 8 10 / 10 pts Touchdown Zone Lighting (TDZL) and Runway Centerline Lights System (RCLS) are two types of _______. Taxiway lights In-runway lights Runway End Identifier Lights Runway edge lights Question 9 10 / 10 pts Markings which consist of pairs of three, then two, and then one rectangular bar(s) on each side of the runway centerline, 500 feet apart, identify the _______. Touchdown Aim Point Touchdown Zone Threshold Runway Edge Question 10 10 / 10 pts A taxiway _______ is identified by a continuous yellow line. centerline parking area closed for repair holding line 42231/24221 Unanswered Question 4 0 / 10 pts All of the following represent uses of a non-movement area EXCEPT: Parking Loading Passengers Maintenance Landing Unanswered Question 8 0 / 10 pts _______ are designed to emit light to help pilots identify airports. Runway End Identifier Lights Airport Beacons In-runway Lights Runway Edge Lights 22 How would you number a runway with a magnetic heading of 094º? How would you number a runway with a magnetic heading of 004°? What runway marking consists of 4 to 16 longitudinal white stripes of uniform dimensions arranged symmetrically on either side of the runway centerline? A. Threshold B. Touchdown Zone C. Aiming Point The centerline of a taxiway is marked with a ________ line. A. dashed yellow B. continuous yellow C. continuous white • A runway with a non-precision approach does not have which of the following runway markings: A. Threshold B. Designator C. Touchdown Zone D. Aiming Point

An airport identified by a flashing white and yellow rotating beacon is _________. A. lighted land B. lighted water C. military An unusable portion of the runway which appears usable and is marked with large yellow chevrons identifies a ________. A. blast pad B. closed runway C. displaced threshold 9,36/ 22331 Airspace ELTP Question 1 10 / 10 pts Airspace of defined dimensions, confined activities, and limitations imposed on nonusers is identified as ________ airspace Class E Class G controlled Special Use Question 2 10 / 10 pts The upper vertical limit of Class A airspace is ________. FL450 up to but not including FL600 up to but not including FL450 FL600 Question 3 10 / 10 pts What airspace is generally established from the surface to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation and has an operational control tower? Class C Class E Class B Class D Question 4 10 / 10 pts The upper limit of Class G airspace is ________. the base of Class E airspace 1200 AGL 1200 MSL the base of the overlying airspace Question 5 10 / 10 pts A Prohibited Area is identified by the letter ________, dash, and a number. R P W M Question 6 10 / 10 pts VFR aircraft need to receive a clearance from ATC to enter this airspace Class C Class A Class B Class D Question 7 10 / 10 pts The lower limit of Class B airspace is ________. 1,200 feet AGL 1,500 feet AGL

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1,200 feet MSL The Surface Question 8 10 / 10 pts VFR aircraft are separated only from IFR aircraft Class C Class A Class D Class B Question 9 10 / 10 pts What is generally the vertical limit of Class D airspace? FL450 2,500 feet above airport elevation 18,000 MSL 3,500 AGL Question 10 10 / 10 pts A Warning Area is established beyond ________ NM from the coast of the United States. 1 3 12 5 44142/34122 A Military Operations Area consists of airspace of defined dimensions established for the purpose of ________. separating certain military training activities from IFR traffic protecting military airports providing airspace in the event of national emergencies restricting VFR flights Which class of airspace does not require an ATC clearance? A. A B. B C. C The airspace that generally extends from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL and surrounds a busy airport is designated as Class _______ airspace. A. A B. B C. C The authority and responsibility for flying in Class G airspace belong to the _______. A. pilot B. military C. air traffic controller The Special Use Airspace that overlies an aerial gunnery range located over land is called a _______ Area. A. Prohibited B. Restricted C. Warning What type of Special Use Airspace is found over international waters? A. Prohibited Area B. Controlled Firing Area C. Warning Area 132123 Feder airway  Class E Basic navigation eltp (long -time no see) Question 1 5 / 5 pts The Prime Meridian is the ________. great circle running east and west around the earth great circle passing through the north and south poles line located at 0° latitude line located at zero degrees (0°) longitude Question 2 5 / 5 pts Lines connecting points of equal difference between true and magnetic north are called ________ lines. isochronous

isogonic isobaric agonic Question 3 5 / 5 pts The method of navigation that requires the use of ground-based transmitters is called ________. pilotage ground computation radio navigation dead reckoning Question 4 5 / 5 pts An aircraft flies for 4 hours at 220 knots. How many nautical miles has the aircraft covered? 880 miles 820 miles 980 miles 900 miles Question 5 5 / 5 pts Time zones are established for every ________. 7 1/2° of longitude 20° of latitude 15° of longitude 15° of latitude Question 6 5 / 5 pts The only line of latitude that is a great circle is the______________. Equator Prime Meridian Rhumb Line International Dateline Question 7 5 / 5 pts How long would it take an aircraft with a ground speed of 130 knots to fly 650 NM? 6 hours 5 hours 5 hours, 30 minutes 4 hours, 30 minutes Question 8 5 / 5 pts Positions on the earth’s surface are described in terms of ________. longitude and meridians degrees and arcs latitude and longitude latitude and parallels Question 9 5 / 5 pts Circles parallel to the equator are called ________. parallels of longitude parallels of latitude

great circles meridians Question 10 5 / 5 pts True or False: Minutes of latitude are measured along the meridians of longitude, and minutes of longitude are measured along the parallels of latitude. True False Question 11 5 / 5 pts The navigational method based solely on computing air speed, course, wind, ground speed, and elapsed time is ________. pilotage radio navigation dead reckoning VFR Navigation Question 12 5 / 5 pts Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) is also referred to as ________ time. Alpha Charlie X-ray Zulu Question 13 5 / 5 pts How do you convert local Daylight Savings Time to UTC? Subtract the conversion factor, then add 1 hour Add the conversion factor, then subtract 1 hour Subtract the conversion factor Add the conversion factor, then add 1 hour Question 14 5 / 5 pts An aircraft travels at 450 knots for 2 hours, 30 minutes. How many nautical miles has the aircraft traveled? 1,100 miles 1,050 miles 1,075 miles 1,125 miles Question 15 5 / 5 pts A nautical mile equals ________ statute miles (SM). 1.76 1.15 1.5 1.05 Question 16 5 / 5 pts What condition will cause an aircraft’s indicated airspeed to decrease? A decrease in altitude or an increase in temperature An increase in altitude or temperature An increase in altitude or a decrease in temperature A decrease in altitude or temperature

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Question 17 5 / 5 pts The angular difference between true and magnetic north at a given location is called ________. correction deviation compensation variation Question 18 5 / 5 pts The basic form of navigation which uses visual reference to landmarks is ________. radio navigation dead reckoning rate, time, and distance pilotage Question 19 5 / 5 pts The purpose of parallels of latitude is for measuring degrees of latitude ________. north and south of the Prime Meridian north and south of the equator east and west of the Prime Meridian east and west of the equator Question 20 5 / 5 pts True heading is the ________. true course corrected for the effects of the wind intended path of an aircraft over the ground true course corrected for magnetic variation actual path of an aircraft over the ground 42313/12321/34242/24421 The reference line for measuring north- south distances is the _______. A. great circle B. prime meridian C. equator How many minutes are there in 1 degree of latitude? The unit of measurement which equals 1 nautical mile is ________ statute miles. 0.87 1.15 1.5 A time zone is established for every ________. 15 degrees of longitude 7 1/2 degrees of latitude 15 degrees of latitude An aircraft departs Oklahoma City at 9 P.M. (CST) and travels for 3 hours to arrive in Seattle, WA. (PST) What was the aircrafts land time_______ UTC? 11pm UTC If it is 1300Z in Philadelphia (EST), what time local would it be in San Francisco (PST)? 1600 PST At 1 P.M. DST in New York City, the time is _____ UTC. (Conversion factor is +5 EST). 1600 1700 1800 • An aircraft has a ground speed of 170 kts and a headwind of 30 kts. What is the aircrafts ground speed? – ANSWER: 170 kts • An aircraft has a true airspeed of 320 knots and a tailwind of 40 knots. How far will the aircraft travel in 1 hour, 15 minutes? – ANSWER: 450 nautical miles The angular difference between true north and magnetic north at any given place is called ________. variation deviation isogonic line A line of equal magnetic variation is called a(n) ________ line. agonic

magnetic isogonic Navigation by reference to visible landmarks is called ________. dead reckoning pilotage radio navigation • What method of navigation requires flying a predetermined course, taking into account the effects of wind? dead reckoning. 3,60,2,1,11pm/ 16PST,2,170KTS,450nm,1/ 3,2 dead reckoning Satellite Navigation How are all NDBs, except compass locators, identified? Three-letter identifier in Morse code Two-letter identifier in Morse code Aural tone A VOR antenna transmission pattern is ________. omni-directional Nondirectional fan-shaped A VOR station projects ________. 360 usable true radials 360 usable magnetic radials An infinite number of bearings The different classes of VORs are ________. High, Low, Terminal High, Medium, Low High, Low, Compass Locator A TACAN station projects ________. 360 usable true radials 360 usable magnetic radials an infinite number of bearings TACAN frequencies are in the ________ band. L/MF VHF UHF DME distance is displayed ________. as slant range distance as horizontal distance in time to station What DME equipment on the ground is required to respond to the aircraft interrogator? Transmitter Transponder VOR What is the maximum non-radar lateral protected airspace of a victor airway? 8miles What is the upper limit of a low altitude VOR airway? Up to and including 18,000 feet MSL Up to, but NOT including 18,000 feet MSL Up to, but NOT including FL180 The upper limit of the jet route structure is ________. up to and including FL600 up to but not including FL600 up to and including FL450 21212/31282/3 Question 1 10 / 10 pts DME equipment measures the ________. horizontal distance in nautical miles slant range in statute miles slant range in nautical miles

horizontal distance in statute miles Question 2 10 / 10 pts Which of the following navigational aids is least accurate? NDB VORTAC VOR GPS Question 3 10 / 10 pts The GPS receiver needs at least ________ satellites to yield three-dimensional information, including position, velocity, time, and altitude. 3 6 4 5 Incorrect Question 4 0 / 10 pts The component of the ILS which gives lateral course guidance to the runway is the ________. DME glide slope localizer marker beacon Question 5 10 / 10 pts A VHF Omni-Directional Range (VOR) has how many usable magnetic radials? 360 180 350 90 Question 6 10 / 10 pts The different classes of VORs are ________. High, Medium, Terminal High, Low, Compass Locator High, Medium, Low High, Low, Terminal Question 7 10 / 10 pts The vertical dimensions of the jet route system are from ________to________. 18,000 feet MSL, up to and including FL450 18,000 feet MSL, up to but NOT including FL600 18,000 feet MSL, up to and including FL600 18,000 feet AGL, up to and including FL450 Question 8 10 / 10 pts An Non Directional Beacon (NDB) used in conjunction with the Instrument Landing System (ILS) is called a(n) ________. Outer Marker (OM) marker beacon Automatic Direction Finder (ADF) compass location

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Question 9 10 / 10 pts The component of the ILS which provides the descent angle is the ________. localizer glide slope back course marker marker beacon Question 10 10 / 10 pts The difference between DME slant-range and actual horizontal distance is greatest ________. at high altitude close to the NAVAID at low altitude close close to the NAVAID at low altitude far from the NAVAID at high altitude far from the NAVAID 31331/ 41421 Question 2 10 pts The Global Positioning System (GPS) constellation of satellites is designed so that a minimum of ________ are always observable by a user anywhere on Earth. Group of answer choices 5 8 3 4 The non-radar lateral protected airspace of a victor airway within 51NM of the NAVAID is ________. Group of answer choices 20 NM either side of centerline 8 NM either side of centerline 10 NM either side of centerline 4 NM either side of centerline Generally, the vertical dimensions of a low altitude VOR airway are from ________. Group of answer choices the surface up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL 12,000 feet AGL up to, but not including 18,000 feet MSL 1,200 feet AGL up to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL the surface up to but not including 18,000 feet AGL 143 Wake ELTP Question 1 10 / 10 pts Every airplane and helicopter generates wake turbulence in flight regardless of its size. True False Question 2 10 / 10 pts Tru or False for the entire statement below: The greatest impact wake turbulence has on ATC is increased separation for: 1. Terminal operations, both ground and airborne 2. Radar operations for both approach and en route environments In addition Traffic management delays may occur as a result of Increased separation, meaning a lower airport acceptance rate. True False Question 3 10 / 10 pts Vortices are generated at the moment an aircraft begins to ________. slow on approach touchdown on the runway Taxi leave the ground Question 4 10 / 10 pts

The ability of an aircraft to counteract the effects of induced roll is based on the ________ and ________ of the aircraft. wingspan; weight speed; counter control capabilities wingspan; counter control capabilities weight: counter control capabilities Question 5 10 / 10 pts Which three aircraft characteristics represent the greatest generated wake turbulence? Small, clean, fast Heavy, dirty, slow Large, dirty, slow Heavy, clean, slow Question 6 10 / 10 pts The definition of “wake turbulence” includes a number of phenomenon affecting flight safety. Which of the four choices are not included in the definition? Jet blast Rotorwash Mach buffet Propeller wash Question 7 10 / 10 pts Vortices from large aircraft will sink at a rate of approximately ________ to ________ feet per minute. 1000 - 2000 300 - 500 100 - 300 500 - 1000 Question 8 10 / 10 pts Which factor has the greatest impact on wake turbulence? Speed Wing configuration Pilot capabilities Weight Question 9 10 / 10 pts With zero wind, vortices near the ground will travel laterally at a speed of ________ knots. 5 to 10 0 10 to 20 2 to 3 Question 10 10 / 10 pts A helicopter generates wingtip vortices when ________. in vertical ascent in stationary hover in forward flight lift is first generated 11434/ 32443 If you have an aircraft on approach to an airport and a similar aircraft cruising during en route flight, which would create a greater wake turbulence effect?

Approach What is the name for the turbulent phenomenon created by aircraft passing through the atmosphere? Wake turbulence The circular patterns created by wake turbulence are often known as what? Wake vortex For fixed-wing aircraft, vortices begin at what stage of flight? Rotation When do fixed-wing aircraft stop generating vortices? Touch down When observing an aircraft from behind, the circulation of vortices off the right wingtip is _______ and _______ off the left wingtip. Counter clock and clock Vortices from large aircraft will sink approximately 300 feet to 500 feet per minute and level off approximately ______ feet below the flight path. A. 100 to 300 B. 500 to 1000 C. 1000 to 2000 B With no wind, vortices within 100 feet to 200 feet of the ground will move ________ to ________ knots laterally across the ground. 2,3 For landing aircraft, crosswinds of 1 to 5 knots tend to ________ the lateral movement of one vortex while ________ the movement of the other. Stall increase Hazardous conditions occur when the induced roll exceeds the level of ______. Roll control of the aircraft Counter control is most effective and roll is minimal when the wingspan and the ailerons extend beyond the ______ of the vortex. Outer edges A hovering helicopter creates a downwash from its main rotors that can travel up to how far? 3times the diameter What must a helicopter be doing in order to generate wingtip vortices? Forward flight Why is the controller not responsible for anticipating the existence or effects of wake turbulence? Because it is unpredictable Wake turbulence has the greatest impact on ATC in the areas of ______ . A. damage and money B. resources and delays C. increased separation and traffic management delays C

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