CH 4 & 5 KEY

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California State University, Fullerton *

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Electrical Engineering

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Jun 21, 2024

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1. As part of the five-layer network model used in this textbook, the data link layer sits directly between: a. the physical and the application layers b. the network and the application layers c. the network and transport layers d. the physical and the application layers e. the physical and the network layers 2. Which of the following is true with respect to the data link layer? a. It accepts streams of bits from the application layer. b. It is responsible for encoding the bit-stream as a series of electronic voltages. c. It performs error detection. d. It performs routing functions. e. It organizes data from the physical layer and passes these coherent messages directly to the application layer. 3. ____________ is not a function of a data link protocol. a. Media access control b. Message delineation c. Amplitude shift keying d. Indicating when a message starts and stops e. Error control 4. Media access control: a. is not very important in point-to-point with full duplex configuration. b. is not very important in local area networks. c. is not very important in a point-to-point with a half-duplex configuration. d. is not very important in a multipoint configuration. e. does not control when computers transmit. 5. Which of the following is not a controlled access method of media access control? a. Token passing b. CSMA/CD c. polling d. roll call polling e. hub polling 6. ________ is the process of sending a signal to a client that gives its permission to transmit or asks it to receive. a. Contention b. Polling c. Pooling d. Carrier sense e. CRC 7. Which of the following is true about roll call polling? a. It cannot be modified to increase priority of clients or terminals. b. It does not require a server, host, or special device that performs the polling. c. It is also called token passing. d. It is a type of contention approach to media access control. e. It typically involves some waiting because the server has to wait for a response from the polled client or terminal.
8. With contention: a. computers wait until the circuit is free before they send data b. the server or front end processor works consecutively through a list of clients to determine who should have access to the media c. the front end processor must wait for a response from the polled client or terminal d. one computer starts the poll and passes it to the next computer on the multipoint circuit e. there is never a chance for “collision,” or two computers trying to send data at the same time 9. In general, controlled approaches: a. work better than contention approaches for small networks that have low usage. b. work better than contention approaches for large networks that have high usage. c. work better than contention approaches for all sizes of networks. d. do not require a host, server, or active monitor to assign media access control. e. have many collisions. 10. In a _________, more than one data bit is changed by the error-causing condition. a. burst error b. data rate shift c. Trellis-coded modulation d. uniform distribution e. amplitude key shift 11. Errors on a network can occur: a. only on dial-up type of circuits. b. because of noise on the line. c. only on poorly maintained networks. d. only due to Gaussian noise. e. only due to lightning strikes. 12. The two sublayers of the data link layer consist of the media access control sublayer and the________. a. logical link control sublayer b. network control sublayer c. session sublayer d. physical sublayer e. transport sublayer 13. Which of the following media is least susceptible to noise? a. fiber optic cable b. coaxial cable c. twisted pair d. unshielded twisted pair e. shielded twisted pair 14. Optical media is: a. more likely to suffer from noise than electrical media. b. has about the same likelihood of suffering from noise as electrical media. c. has about the same likelihood of suffering from noise as coaxial cable. d. less likely to suffer from noise than electrical media. e. more prone to noise than twisted pair media.
15. ____________ refers to bits that have been changed, in error, from 1 to 0, or vice versa, in a data transmission. a. Contracted bits b. Polled bits c. Inverse multiplexed bits d. Flipped bits e. Bit delineation 16. Another term for impulse noise is: a. Gaussian noise b. spikes c. attenuation d. cross-talk e. intermodulation noise 17. The familiar background static on radios and telephones is called: a. echoes b. intermodulation noise c. gray noise d. cross-talk e. white noise 18. The primary source of error in data communications is: a. echoes. b. intermodulation noise. c. spikes. d. attenuation. e. cross-talk. 19. __________can obliterate a group of bits, causing a burst error. a. Cross-talk b. Attenuation c. Impulse noise d. Intermodulation noise e. Gray noise 20. Cross-talk: a. occurs when one circuit picks up signals in another. b. is always bothersome because it has a high signal strength. c. decreases with increased proximity of two wires. d. decreases during wet or damp weather. e. increases with lower frequency signals. 21. When a signal is reflected back to the transmitting equipment, it is called a(n) _________. a. white noise b. echo c. crosstalk d. attenuation e. impulse noise
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22. The loss of power a signal suffers as it travels from the transmitting computer to a receiving computer is _____. a. white noise b. spiking c. attenuation d. intermodulation noise e. echo 23. If a signal with a frequency of 500 MHz combines with another signal of 1500 MHz and they form a new signal of 2000 MHz, this is an example of: a. intermodulation noise b. attenuation c. echo d. white noise e. cross-talk 24. _____________ is an effective way to prevent impulse noise, cross talk, and intermodulation noise. a. Shielding wires b. Adding fluorescent lights c. Adding repeaters to a circuit d. Adding amplifiers to a circuit e. Shorting a circuit 25. _____________ is an effective way to prevent attenuation. a. Shielding wires b. Adding fluorescent lights c. Adding repeaters or amplifiers to a circuit d. Changing multiplexing techniques e. Shorting a circuit 26. Which of the following is way to reduce or eliminate crosstalk on a circuit? a. Physically separating the cables from other communication cables b. Adding repeaters or amplifiers to a circuit c. Reducing the length of the cable d. Adding fluorescent lights e. Shorting a circuit 27. On digital circuits, we use _________ to reshape the incoming signal and prevent attenuation. a. amplifiers b. repeaters c. multiplexers d. digitizers e. modems 28. Which of the following is not an error detection method used in the data link layer? a. Parity checking b. Cyclic redundancy checking c. CRC-32 d. Pulse code checking e. Odd parity
29. With odd parity (assume that the parity bit (in bold) has been placed at the end of each of the following) and a 7-bit ASCII code, which of the following is incorrect? a. 01101011 b. 00011011 c. 00100101 d. 10110110 e. 11111110 30. The probability of detecting an error, given that one has occurred, using parity checking is about: a. 0% b. 50% c. 75% d. 98% e. 100% 31. Using parity, the probability for detecting an error, given that one has occurred, is: a. about 50% for either even or odd parity. b. about 70% for even parity and 30% for odd parity. c. about 30% for even parity and 70% for odd parity. d. about 0% for either even or odd parity. e. about 100% for either even or odd parity. 32. The probability of detecting an error, provided that one has occurred, using cyclic redundancy checking is about: a. 0% b. 75% c. 50% d. > 99% e. exactly 100% 33. ARQ means that: a. a receiver that detects an error in a message simply asks the sender to retransmit the message until it is received without error b. the common carrier Automatically Returns Queries to the subscriber upon receipt of such queries c. a sender is using a data link protocol called Asynchronous Repeating reQuest d. a fiber optic cable meets the American Registered Quality, a certification standard for use in high-quality data communication transmission lines e. a sender is using a parity scheme called Array Resource Quality 34. In ARQ, a NAK: a. is sent by the recipient if the message was received without error b. is sent by the sender at the same time as it sends a data packet c. is sent by the recipient if the message contains an error d. refers to non-asynchronous Kermit technique e. means that the sender should continue with sending the next message 35. ________ has essentially replaced SDLIt offers a larger sliding window. a. Ethernet b. PPP c. Asynchronous transmission d. HDLC e. Full complex
36. With __________ ARQ, the sender pauses for a response from the receiver to alter each message or packet of data. a. open window b. halt and be recognized (HBR) c. sliding window d. stop and wait e. continuous 37. With __________ ARQ, the sender immediately sends the next message or packet of data. a. continuous b. immediate c. open window d. stop-and-wait e. halt and be recognized (HBR) 38. ______________ controls errors by detecting and correcting them at the receiving end without retransmission of the original message. a. Hamming code b. Huffman encoding c. Front end processing d. Wave division multiplexing e. Hub polling 39. Asynchronous transmission: a. is used to transmit each character simultaneously with all other characters b. has a pre-determined, fixed time between sending characters c. is typically used on multipoint half duplex circuits d. uses a continuous series of start bits as an idle signal e. each character is transmitted independently of all other characters 40. Which of the following is not a type of synchronous protocol? a. SDLC b. VT100 c. HDLC d. Ethernet e. PPP 41. Synchronous transmission: a. cannot be used on multipoint circuits. b. is used to send one character at a time. c. uses start bits before each character to be sent. d. uses stop bits after each character to be sent. e. is used to transmit a “frame” or “packet” of data at a time. 42. Which of the following is true about the data link protocol, SDLC: a. It is a client-server protocol developed by Compaq in 1996. b. It transmits each character independently of one another and includes start and stop bits for each character sent. c. It uses a special bit pattern called a flag at the beginning and end of every frame (or packet). d. It uses a contention media access control protocol and is used in most LANs today. e. It does not have any error detection capabilities.
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43. Which of the following is true about the data link protocol, Ethernet (IEEE 802.3)? a. It is not very popular. b. It is a bit-oriented protocol. c. it uses block check characters for error detection. d. Newer version permits jumbo frames. e. It uses parity bits for error detection. 44. Which of the following is true about the data link protocol, PPP? a. It is commonly used in WANs. b. It is a bit-oriented protocol. c. It uses block check characters for error detection. d. It was developed in the 1960s. e. It uses parity bits for error detection. 45. In communication protocols, _________ are used to convey the user’s meaning. a. information bits b. overhead bits c. stop bits d. start bits e. flag bits 46. _________________ is defined as the total number of information bits divided by the total number of bits in the transmission. a. Asynchronous rate b. Protocol percentage c. Throughput d. Transmission Rate of Information Bits e. Transmission efficiency 47. Calculating the actual throughput of a data communication network is: a. not normally required for synchronous networks because they are so fast b. complex because many factors affect throughput c. simple because packet size is the primary factor affecting throughput d. not needed for satellite-based networks e. far less complicated if the system operates on a contention basis 48. The data link layer uses the ________ to recognize the source and destination addresses. a. MAC address b. IP address c. URL d. Email address e. Local router 49. __________ is a software-enabled technique that can change the hardcoded MAC address to any MAC address and thus overcome MAC address filtering. a. MAC address spoofing b. MAC address engaging c. Ethernet address regeneration d. Address regeneration e. MAC address cheesing
50. The ____________ layer links the application layer with the network layer is responsible for end-to-end delivery of messages. a. physical b. transport c. session d. presentation e. data link 51. __________ is not an important function of the transport layer. a. End-to-end delivery of the message b. Taking messages from the application layer c. Routing d. Breaking long messages into smaller segments e. Interfacing with the network layer 52. _______ is the dominant network protocol today and is in use in virtually every LAN and WAN in the world. a. SDLC b. SNA c. IPX/SPX d. TCP/IP e. X.25 53. Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol was developed for ________ in 1974. a. ARPANET b. IBM c. Hewlett-Packard d. Kennesaw State University e. Xerox 54. TCP/IP: a. is the least commonly used network protocol for LANs because it cannot be combined with Ethernet b. performs packetizing, as well as routing and addressing functions c. is not very efficient and is prone to errors d. is compatible with only one type of data link protocol, SDLC e. refers to Telephone Control Procedures/Inter-exchange Procedures 55. A typical TCP segment has a _______ header of control information. a. 32-bit b. 64-bit c. 120-byte d. 192-bit e. 32-byte 56. The source port identifier of the received TCP segment tells the destination station _____________. a. which computer sent the TCP packet. b. which application layer program that the packet should be sent c. which application layer process the packet is from. d. the IP address of the source computer. e. the IP address of the destination computer. 57. TCP uses _____________ so that the destination station can reassemble the packets into the correct order. a. IP addresses b. sequence numbers c. port numbers d. packet numbers e. reassembly value
58. The older version of IP has a ________ header of control information. a. 128-bit b. 192-bit c. 1024-bit d. 120-bit e. 320-bit 59. IP: a. performs segmentation of the data b. does not have a header c. is currently in use with only one packet form or structure d. is utilized during routing functions e. performs error control functions 60. The newer form of IP, version 6 (IPv6): a. Is running out of address space to support the growth of the Internet b. has a 20 byte header c. has an increased address size from 32 bits to 128 bits d. does not include version number in its header e. does not include hop limit in its header 61. Assume that more than one application program is using the same communications line on a particular computer. To be able to decide to which application program a message should be delivered on this computer, TCP/IP relies on the: a. data link layer address b. port address c. application layer address d. network address e. IP address 62. The transport layer must break messages from the application layer into several _____ that can be sent to the network layer. a. bits b. bytes c. frames d. segments e. strings 63. The negotiation by the transport layer at the sender with the transport layer at the receiver to determine what size packets should be set up is done via establishing a(n) ___________ between the sender and receiver. a. network layer address resolution b. one way handshake c. SNA message d. TCP connection e. DNS server request 64. A TCP three-way handshake is used to establish a/an ___________ messaging method. a. asynchronous b. connection-oriented c. frequency division d. application net e. Connectionless
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65. With _____________ messaging, each UDP segment makes its own way through the network without the use of sequence numbers or acknowledgements. a. frequency division b. connection-oriented c. PCMCIA d. connectionless e. application net 66. Which of the following is not a protocol used at the application layer. a. HTTP b. SMTP c. FTP d. Telnet e. UDP 67. ______________ communication is most commonly used when the application data or message can fit into one single packet. a. Frame-oriented b. Connection-oriented c. Connectionless d. Physical-oriented e. Byte-oriented 68. UDP is not commonly used for: a. network management control messages b. RIP messages c. DHCP addressing messages d. HTTP requests e. DNS requests 69. With QoS routing different __________ are defined, each with different priorities. a. classes of service b. domain names c. application layer addresses d. data link layer addresses e. classes of Internet addresses 70. An application layer address using TCP/IPv4 looks like: a. 128.192.78.5 b. www.cba.uga.edu c. user@cba.uga.edu d. 00-0F-00-81-14-00 e. Building 4, Room 2, User 3 71. A client computer is typically assigned a data link layer address by a: a. hardware manufacturer b. software manufacturer c. middleware manufacturer d. network manager who configure a file in a computer’s network layer software package e. ISO
72. ICANN: a. developed the IPX/SPX network layer protocol b. assigns data link layer addresses c. approves which network layer addresses (usually, approved or assigned in groups or classes) can be used by an organization for its computers that will connect to the Internet d. developed X.25 network layer protocol e. refers to Interchange Computer Addressing Networks and Nodes 73. IPv6 is based upon _________ -byte addresses. a. 32 b. 24 c. 4 d. 16 e. 8 74. IPv4 uses ________ bytes per Internet address. a. 4 b. 32 c. 8 d. 24 e. 16 75. A(n) ________ refers to a group of computers that are logically grouped together by IP number. a. IPv6 group b. subnet c. data link group d. TCP group e. application net 76. A subnet mask of ___________ means that all computers with only the same first two bytes in their IPv4 addresses are on the same subnet. a. 11111111.0.0.0 b. 255.255.255.0 c. 255.0.0.0 d. 255.255.0.0 e. 255.255.255.255 77. Dynamic addressing: a. assigns a permanent network layer address to a client computer in a network b. makes network management more complicated in dial-up networks c. has only one standard, bootp d. is always performed for servers only e. can solve many updating headaches for network managers who have large, growing, changing networks 78. ___________ is the translation of application layer addresses into IP addresses. a. Network interface card reversal b. IPv6 c. Server name resolution d. Subnet masking e. Name service coding
79. Server name resolution is done using the: a. Address Resolution Protocol b. Border Gateway Protocol c. Internet Control Message Protocol d. Routing Information Protocol e. Domain Name Service 80. When TCP/IP translates an application layer address into an IP address, it sends a special __________ to the nearest DNS server. a. broadcast message b. DNS request packet c. SNA packet d. IPX message e. X.25 packet 81. When TCP/IP translates a network layer address into a data link layer address, it sends a special ____________ to all computers in the subnet. a. physical layer packet b. multicast message c. X.25 message d. broadcast message e. application layer packet 82. A(n) _________ is a specially formatted request used to perform IP address to data link address resolution. a. Address Resolution Protocol request b. Domain Service Request c. HTTP request d. Link state request e. Autonomous System Request 83. ___________ is the process of determining the path that a message will travel from sending computer to receiving computer. a. Routing b. Addressing c. Interfacing d. Broadcasting e. Packetizing 84. The _____________ is used by a computer to determine how messages will travel through the network. a. routing table b. configuration listing c. linking loader d. bus header assignment list e. file allocation table 85. In its simplest form, the __________ has two columns: the first column lists every destination network, while the second column lists the interface on which that computer should send messages, if they are destined for the network in the first column. a. linking loader b. routing table c. configuration listing d. bus header assignment list e. file allocation table
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86. The three fundamental approaches to routing are: a. circuitous, flat, and direct routing. b. connectionless, static, and connection-oriented. c. subordinate, master, and insubordinate routing. d. host, client, and client-server routing. e. centralized, static routing, and dynamic routing. 87. An advantage of centralized routing is: a. routing does reflect changing network conditions, such as computers that are overloaded by many messages b. if anything happens to the computer developing the routing table, the routing tables cannot be changed until that computer is fixed or until a new computer is selected to perform the function c. routing decisions are simple d. the routing tables are stored at all computers in the network e. it requires more processing by each computer or router in the network than dynamic routing 88. With ________ routing, computers or routers count the number of hops along a route and periodically exchange information on the hop count with their neighbors. a. circuitous b. decentralized c. distance vector d. indirect e. link state 89. ____________ refers to the type of routing in which the routing table is developed by the network manager and modifications are made only when computers are added to or removed from the network. a. Adaptive routing b. Dynamic routing c. Static routing d. Distance vector routing e. Link state routing 90. _______________ is a type of dynamic routing. a. Static routing b. Circuitous routing c. Centralized routing d. Link state e. X.25 routing