NSG3105 Midterm 2 Practice Questions
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University of Ottawa *
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Course
3105
Subject
Biology
Date
Dec 6, 2023
Type
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47
Uploaded by Ben10__
[Slide 1 Practice Questions]
1. Risk factors for gastritis include ALL EXCEPT:
(a) Diet
(b) H. pylori
(c) Drugs
(d) None of the above
[Answer: the correct answer is D]
2. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) Those with chronic alcohol misuse should get vitamin B6
(b) Gastritis can last a few hours to a few days
(c) Nausea and vomiting are the most common manifestations of GI diseases
(d) Antacids, H2R blockers (ranitidine), and PPIs (prazoles) are used to decrease gastric
secretions
[Answer: the correct answer is A]
3. Which of the following is a serotonin agonist antiemetic:
(a) Prochlorperazine
(b) Metoclopramide
(c) Ondanestron
(d) Diphenhydrate
[Answer: the correct answer is C]
4. The feeling of fullness in acute gastritis is often managed with insertion of an NG tube:
(a) True
(b) False
[Answer: True]
5. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) Collaborative management of chronic gastritis include cessation of alcohol intake, drug
use, and smoking
(b) Clarithromycin and PPI are used in combination to manage chronic gastritis
(c) A patient with chronic gastric should be advised to avoid irritating foods, eat 3 large
meals, and have an antacid after meals
(d) A patient with pernicious anemia due to chronic gastritis should be advices to take
vitamin B12
[Answer: the correct answer is C]
6. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) Upper GI bleeding is accosted with morbidity and mortality
(b) 50% of upper GI bleeds are esophageal in origin
(c) Increased risk for upper GI bleeding due to increased consumption of NSAIDs
(d) Melena indicate slow bleeding from an upper GI source
[Answer: the correct answer is B]
7. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) A patient with appendicitis must be NPO in the event that surgery is needed but pain
should be controlled through the use of heat on local pain
(b) Those with an upper GI bleeds should have an emergency assessment which include
vitals and bowel assessment
(c) 80-85% of GI bleeding resolve spontaneously
(d) Diagnostic tests for acute abdominal pain include a pelvic exam, pregnancy test,
abdominal x-ray, and CTa
[Answer: the correct answer is A]
8. Clinical manifestations of peritonitis include ALL EXCEPT:
(a) Rebound tenderness
(b) Distension
(c) Increased pain at night
(d) Fever
[Answer: the correct answer is C]
9. Gastroenteritis is inflammation of the stomach and large intestine:
(a) True
(b) False
[Answer: False]
10. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding ulcerative colitis
(a) Involves inflammation and ulceration of rectum and small intestine
(b) Occurs at peak ages between 15-25 or 60-80
(c) Starts in the rectum and spreads proximally
(d) In UC the mucosa becomes edematous with multiple abscess developing in submucosa
[Answer: the correct answer is A]
11. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) Surgical therapy for UC include total proctocolectomy with permanent ileostomy
(b) High-residue diet is often a common nursing management of UC
(c) Crohn’s disease can affect any part of the GI tract from the month to the anus
(d) Similar to UC, crohn's disease is more often in jewish upper-middle-class urban
populations
[Answer: the correct answer is B]
12. Clinical manifestations of Crohn’s disease include ALL EXCEPT:
(a) Non-bloody diarrhea
(b) Weight loss
(c) Umbilical pain
(d) Bloody diarrhea
[Answer: the correct answer is D]
13. Which is NOT an indication for surgery in patients with Crohn's Disease:
(a) Fistulas
(b) Refractory diarrhea
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(c) Intestinal obstruction
(d) Inability to decrease corticosteroids
[Answer: the correct answer is B]
14. Which of the following is considered a non mechanical intestinal obstruction:
(a) Neuromuscular disorder
(b) Vascular disorder
(c) Paralytic ileus
(d) All of the above
[Answer: the correct answer is D]
15.when outpouching becomes inflamed is known as ___________ while multiple non-inflamed
diverticula is _____________:
(a) Diverticulitis; diverticulosis
(b) Diverticulosis; diverticulitis
[Answer: the correct answer is A]
16. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) Divertiusosi can be cause by fiber deficiency
(b) Diverticulitis can be cause by retention of stool and bacteria in diverticulum
(c) Clinical manifestations for diverticulosis are mostly asymptomatic, cramping in lower
left quadrant that is relived with flatus, and alternating constipation and diarrhea
(d) None of the above
[Answer: the correct answer is D]
17. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) It is recommend that patient with diverticulosis have a high fiber diet during
non-sympathetic periods
(b) Bulk laxative such as psyllium hydrophilic mucilloid are used for treatment of
diverticulosis
(c) In acute diverticulitis monitor temperature, signs of possible peritonitis, and decrease in
WBC count
(d) In acute diverticulitis the goal is to allow the colon to rest so patients are kept NPO and
the is administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics
[Answer: the correct answer is C]
[Chapter 42 Practice Questions]
18. When should a tube be flushed:
(a) Before each medication
(b) Every 4 hours during continuous feedings
(c) After all medications are given
(d) All if the above
[Answer: the correct answer is D]
19. Which of the following statements are FALSE:
(a) Burn patient who are on PN, EN, and oral food may need less protein requirements
(b) Fat emulsion provide a large number of calories in relative small amount of fluid
(c) Nausea, vomiting, and elevated temperature may occur when lipids are infused quickly
(d) Aging can result in decreases thirst perceptions and increase risk for glucose intolerance
[Answer: the correct answer is A]
20. Protein needs may be lowered in patients with:
(a) End-stage renal disease
(b) Gastritis
(c) Burn patients
(d) All of the above
[Answer: the correct answer os A]
21. Central parenteral nutrition (CPN) uses what kind of solution:
(a) Isotonic
(b) Hypertonic
(c) Hypotonic
(d) None of the above
[Answer: the correct answer is B]
22. Peripheral Parenteral Nutrition (PPN) is less isotonic than Central Parenteral Nutrition (CPN)
and contains higher nutrients:
(a) True
(b) False
[Answer: False]
23. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) Refeeding syndrome is characterized by fluid retention and electrolyte imbalances
(b) PPN is used when nutritional support is needed for a long time and protein and energy
requirements are high
(c) Hypophosphatemia is the hallmark of refeeding syndrome
(d) PPN is administered through a peripherally inserted catheter or vascular access device
[Answer: the correct answer is B]
[Chapter 45 Practice Questions]
24. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) Ingestion of infectious organisms is the primary cause of acute diarrhea
(b) Patient receiving antibiotics are susceptible to strains of C.difficile
(c) Probiotics have been shown to increase the chances of antibiotic-induced diarrhea in
some patients
(d) Diarrhea is considered chronic when it persisted for at least 2 weeks
[Answer: the correct answer is C]
25. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) Regardless of the cause of diarrhea, antidiarrheal medication should not be given for a
prolonged period of time
(b) Metronidazole (Flagyl) is the first-line therapy for this infection, followed by vancomycin
for C. difficile
(c) Acute diarrhea is considered infectious until the cause is determined
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(d) Alcohol based hand sanitizers effectively destroy C. difficile spores
[Answer: the correct answer is D]
26. Which of the following statement is FALSE:
(a) Cathartic colon syndrome is when the colon becomes dilated and atonic
(b) Valsalva increases venous return to the heart and the heart slows down
(c) Constipation can contribute to diverticulosis
(d) None of the above
[Answer: the correct answer is B]
27. _________ fiber remains changes by the time it reaches the coon while ___________ fiver
form gel-like substances that add viscosity to the digested contents and soften stool:
(a) Soluble; insoluble
(b) Insoluble; soluble
[Answer: the correct answer is B]
28. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) Thick drainage from NG tube with food particles may be seen after abdominal surgery
(b) Drainage from NG tube may be dark brown to dark red for the first 12 hours but if it
continues or bright red is observed the HCP should be notified
(c) NG tube is removed when intestinal peristalsis returns usually 24-72 hours after surgery
(d) HCP should be informed of abdominal distension and rigidity and worsening abdominal
pain after surgery
[Answer: the correct answer is A]
29. Excessive NG losses is greater than 500-1000 ml/24hrs:
(a) True
(b) False
[Answer: True]
30. Peritoneal lavage is rarely performed and is contraindicated in pregnancy women or patients
with pelvic fractures:
(a) True
(b) False
[Answer: True]
31. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) Physical evidence of abdominal trauma in a patient who is hemodynamically unstable
mandate immediate laparotomy
(b) Appendicitis begins with periumbilical pain that eventually shirts to the left lower
quadrant
(c) The rovsing sign may be present in patients with appendicitis
(d) A universal sign of peritonitis is tenderness over the involved area
[Answer: the correct answer is B]
32. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) A patient may be positioned with knees flexed to increase comfort when having pain due
to peritonitis
(b) Most cases of gastroenteritis are self-limiting and do not require hospitalization
(c) For patients with gastroenteritis the patient should be NPO status until vomiting has
ceased
(d) Ulcerative colitis involves all layers of the colon and rectum with periods of
exacerbations and remissions
[Answer: the correct answer is D]
33. The mainstay medication therapeutic for UC are sulphasazine and:
(a) Corticosteroids
(b) ASA
(c) NSAIDs
(d) Laxatives
[Answer: the correct answer is A]
34. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) Sulphasalazine may cause yellow-orange discoloration of skin and urine
(b) Patients talking sulfasalazine should avoid exposure to sunlight and ultraviolet light until
photosensitivity is determined
(c) During the acute phase of UC the patient may be NPO status
(d) None of the above
[Answer: the correct answer is D]
35. Which of the following is a common ditrary recommendation for patients with UC:
(a) Cold foods
(b) High-residue foods
(c) High-calorie foods
(d) Low-protein foods
[Answer: the correct answer is C]
36. For patient with Crohn’s disease, sulphasalazine is effective when the disease is in the
________ intestine:
(a) Small
(b) Large
[Answer: the correct answer is B]
37. Which of the following statements regarding Crohn’s disease is FALSE:
(a) The degrees of inflammation is greater in older patients than younger ones
(b) Metronidazole is useful in treating Crohn’s disease of the perianal area
(c) Fish oil preparations have been evaluated for their ability to prevent recurrence of
inflammation
(d) For older patients the colon rather than the small intestine tends to be involved
[Answer: the correct answer is A]
38. The most common clinical manifestation of malabsorption is:
(a) Flatuce
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(b) Abdominal distention
(c) Steatorrhea
(d) Bloody diarrhea
[Answer: the correct answer is C]
39. Damage is most severe in the __________ in celiac disease:
(a) Stomach
(b) Colon
(c) Rectum
(d) Dueodenum
[Answer: the correct answer is D]
40. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) Blood samples are drawn before and after the consumptions of lactose and failure of
glucose levels to increase more than 20 mg/dL is suggestive of lactose deficiency
(b) Patients with short bowel syndrome are encourage to eat six to eight meals per day
(c) A characteristic signs of nonmechanical obstruction is pain that comes and goes in waves
(d) A patient with high obstruction is at greater risk for metabolic alkalosis
[Answer: the correct answer is C]
41. An ostomy reversal is known as:
(a) End stoma
(b) Take down
(c) Opening stoma
(d) Returning diversion
[Answer: the correct answer is B]
42. In a double-barrelled stoma the _______ stoma is referred as the mucous fistula:
(a) Distal
(b) Proximal
[Answer: the correct answer is A]
43. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) Regularity cannot be established with an ileostomy
(b) If the terminal ileum has been removed the patient may need cobalamin supplementation
(c) The goal for a patient with an ileostomy is to return to a presurgical diet
(d) Diverticulum are most common in the transverse colon
[Answer: the correct answer is D]
44. Symptoms of patients with diverticulosis include crampy abdominal pain located in the left
lower quadrants that is usually relieved by passing flatus or bowel movement:
(a) True
(b) False
[Answer: True]
45. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) Older patients with diverticulitis are frequently afebrile
(b) Diverticular bleeding s the most common cause of lower GI bleeding
(c) Is a hernia can be placed back into the abdominal cavity it is nonreducible
(d) None of the above
[Answer: the correct answer is C]
[Chapter 44 Practice Questions]
46. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) GERD is not a disease but a syndrome
(b) Foods such as caffeine and chocolate can increase LES pressure
(c) GERD-induced chest pain is similar to angina pain and the two are often confused
(d) GERD can cause Barrett's esophagus where normal squamous epithelium is replaced with
columnar epithelium in the esophagus
[Answer: the correct answer is B]
47. Which of the following is NOT a food that can decrease LES pressure:
(a) High fat
(b) High protein
(c) Peppermint
(d) Chocolate
[Answer: the correct answer is B]
48. Long-term use of ___________ can increase risk for infections with Clostridium difficile in
hospitalized patients:
(a) Antacids
(b) H2R blockers
(c) PPIs
(d) Alginic acid
[Answer: the correct answer is C]
49. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) Surgical interventions for GERB are called antireflux procedures
(b) Antacids with calcium and aluminum tend to cause constipation which magnesium
causes diarrhea
(c) If surgical thoracic approach is used to treat GERD a chest tube is inserted
(d) In paraesophageal (rolling) hiatal hernia the LES protrudes above the diaphragm
[Answer: the correct answer is D]
50. Achalasia is the absence of peristalsis in the small intestine:
(a) True
(b) False
[Answer: False]
51. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) Autoimmune atrophic gastritis is a form of chronic gastritis that affects both the fundus
and the body of the stomach
(b) Gastritis can be autoimmune, diffuse antral, or multifocal
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(c) Intrinsic factor is lost due to gastritis can is needed for the absorption of vitamin B6
(d) Hypochlorhydria (decrease acid secretions) and achlorhydria (lack of acid secretions) can
occur due to gastritis
[Answer: the correct answer is C]
[Slide 2 Practice Questions]
52. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole are used to treat UTIs
(b) Pyelonephritis is an inflammation of the renal pelvis and kidney
(c) The most common cause of acute pyelonephritis is fungi but can be caused by bacteria,
protozoa, or viruses
(d) Acute pyelonephritis starts in the renal medulla and spreads to the adjacent cortex
[Answer: the correct answer is C]
53. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) Imaging studies requiring intravenous injection of contrast material are used in the early
stages of pyelonephritis
(b) Patients with mild symptoms of acute pyelonephritis can be treated on an outpatient basis
with antibiotics for 14-21 days
(c) Urine cultures must be obtained when pyelonephritis is suspected
(d) Intrinsic obstructive uropathies include anomalies, diverticula, tumors, or benign growth
within the urinary tract
[Answer: the correct answer is A}
54. Stone disorders are more common in:
(a) Women
(b) Men
[Answer: the correct answer is B]
55. There is a seasonal variation, with stone formation occurs more often in:
(a) Winter
(b) Spring
(c) Fall
(d) Summer
[Answer: the correct answer is D]
56. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) Opioids are typically required for relief of colic pain due to urinary tract calculi
(b) May urinary stones pass spontaneously
(c) Stones larger than 1 mm are unlikely to pass through the ureter
(d) Foods high in protein or calcium can increase likelihood of stone formation
[Answer: the correct answer is C]
57. For patients with urinary incontinence checking the post residual void includes asking the
patient followed by catheterization or bladder scan:
(a) True
(b) False
[Answer: True]
58. Which of the following statement is FALSE:
(a) Acute urinary retention is a medical emergency and must insert catheter right away
(b) BPH predisposes a patient to prostate cancer
(c) Digital rectal exam can be used to diagnose BPH where the prostate is symmetrically
enlarged and firm
(d) PSA test is usually to screen for prostate cancer but it commonly gives a false postive
[Answer: the correct answer is B]
59. Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) is a surgical procedure involving the removal
of prostate tissue using a resectoscope inserted through the:
(a) Urethra
(b) Abdomen
(c) Umbilicus
(d) None of the above
[Answer: the correct answer is A]
60. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) TURP is done under spinal or general anesthetic
(b) A three-way in-dwelling catheter with a 30-mL balloon is inserted into the bladders to
provides hemostasis and facilitate drainage after a TURP procedure
(c) The entire prostate gland, the seminal vesicles, and part of the bladder neck are surgically
removed in radical prostatectomy
(d) ASA and warfarin or other anticoagulants are encouraged several days before TURP
surgery
[Answer: the correct answer is D]
61. With the _______ approach of radical prostatectomy, a low midline abdominal incision is
made to access the prostate gland, and the pelvic lymph nodes then can be dissected:
(a) Perineal
(b) Retropubic
(c) Suprapubic
(d) None of the above
[Answer: the correct answer is B]
62. The lymph nodes ______ removed in the perianal approach:
(a) Are
(b) Are not
[Answer: the correct answer is B]
63. _______ approach has a high risk of postoperative infection:
(a) Suprapubic
(b) Retropubic
(c) Perianal
(d) None of the above
[Answer: the correct answer is C]
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64. The two most common adverse outcomes following a radical prostatectomy are erectile
dysfunction and:
(a) Urinary incontinence
(b) Urinary retention
(c) Fever
(d) Chills
[Answer: the correct answer is A]
65. The most common cause of chronic kidney disease is:
(a) Infection
(b) Acute tubular necrosis
(c) Diabetic nephropathy
(d) Tumour
[Answer: the correct answer is C]
66. Chronic kidney disease is progressive and reversible:
(a) True
(b) False
[Answer: False]
67. AKI causes ALL EXCEPT:
(a) Calcium deficit and phosphate excess
(b) Neurological disorder
(c) Hematological disorders
(d) Metabolic alkalosis
[Answer: the correct answer is D]
68. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) The initial phase of AKI is characterized by increased serum creatinine and BUN and a
decrease in urine output
(b) Patients who are nonoliguric during the maintenance phase of AKI have a diluted urine
but uremic toxins are not removed
(c) The longer the oliguric phase lasts the better the prognosis for recovery of some renal
function
(d) Oliguria in AKI is characterized by urine output that is less than 400ml/24 hours
[Answer: the correct answer is C]
69. If AKI is caused by nephritis medication the onset it:
(a) Sudden
(b) Delayed
[Answer: the correct answer is B]
70. Activated vitamin ___ must be present for calcium absorption from the GI tract:
(a) D
(b) B12
(c) B9
(d) C
[Answer: the correct answer is A]
71. Chronic kidney disease (CKD) involves a GFR of less than 60 ml for 3 months or longer:
(a) True
(b) False
[Answer: True]
72. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) CKD is classed as one of five stages depending on the level of necrosis
(b) Not all patients with CKD will progress to stage 5 where RRT will be required
(c) Uremia is a constellation of signs and symptoms resulting from the buildup of waste
products and excess fluid associated with kidney failure.
(d) Nutritional therapy of CKD includes restriction of protein, sodium, potassium,
phosphate, and fluid
[Answer: the correct answer is A]
73. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) Automated peritoneal dialysis is done while the patient is awake
(b) Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis consists of a minimum of four exchanges of
dialysis fluid per day
(c) Hemodialysis usually requires a person to come to the hospital for 4-8 hours to receive
this blood transfusion and check the lab values
(d) Disequilibrium syndrome is a rare complication of hemodialysis that results due to the
rapid removal which creates a high osmotic gradients in the brain leading to cerebral
edema
[Answer: the correct answer is A]
[Chapter 45 Practice Questions]
74. Renal replacement therapy includes:
(a) Peritoneal dialysis
(b) Hemodialysis
(c) Renal transplantation
(d) All of the above
[Answer: the correct answer is D]
75. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) Stage 5 CKD is known as end-stage renal disease
(b) The leading cause of CKD is necrosis
(c) A patient can lose almost 90% if the nephrons and survive without RRT
(d) Uremia will often occurs when GFR is 10ml or lower
[Answer: the correct answer is B]
76. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) Serum creatinine is the most common biochemical parameter to estimate GFR
(b) CKD-MBD is a common complication of CKD resulting in both skeletal (renal
osteodystrophy) and extraskeletal complication (vascular and soft tissue complications)
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(c) Hypermagnesemia is generally not a concern with CKD unless the patient is ingesting
calcium
(d) Decreased production of the hormone erythropoietin by the kidney causes anemia in
CKD
[Answer: the correct answer is C]
77. Proteinuria is the most important risk factor for the progression of CKD:
(a) True
(b) False
[Answer: True]
78. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) Common ECG changes associated with hyperkalemia include peaked T wave and
widened QRS complexes
(b) The progression of CKD can be delayed by controlling hypertension
(c) For patients with non diabetic CKD and proteinuria ACE inhibitors or ARBS are
recommended as initial therapy
(d) None of the above
[Answer: the correct answer is D]
[Slide 2 Practice Questions]
79. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) ADH is released when there is a increase in blood volume to reabsorb water in the renal
tubules/collecting ducts
(b) Renin results in vasoconstriction and aldosterone
(c) ACTH stimulates the release of aldosterone
(d) Aldosterone is responsible for sodium reabsorption
[Answer: the correct answer is A]
80. Osmoreceptors active thirst while baroreceptors activate diuresis:
(a) True
(b) False
[Answer: False]
81. The most common electrolyte imbalance is:
(a) Hypokalemia
(b) Hypophosphatemia
(c) Hyponatremia
(d) None of the above
[Answer: the correct answer is C]
82. Fluid can be lost through:
(a) Lungs
(b) Swear
(c) Kidneys
(d) All of the above
[Answer: the correct answer is D]
83. Which of the following statements regarding sodium is FALSE:
(a) The normal range for sodium is 136-145 mEq/L
(b) There is a large amount of sodium in ICF (90%)
(c) Sodium helps muscles contract and sends nerve impulses throughout the body
(d) Hyponatremia can be treated with hypertonic IVF
[Answer: the correct answer is B]
84. Which of the following statements regarding potassium is FALSE:
(a) The normal range for potassium is 3.5-5.1 mmol/L
(b) Potassium in muscle cells is about 140 mmol/L
(c) Potassium allows for the maintenance of cardiac rhythms, regulates protein synthesis, and
glucose use and storage
(d) High potassium is shown as a flat T wave in cardiac rhythm
[Answer: the correct answer is D]
85. ACE inhibitors can result in:
(a) Hyperkalemia
(b) Hypokalemia
[Answer: the correct answer is A]
86. The most common cause of hyperkalemia is renal failure:
(a) True
(b) False
[Answer: True]
87. Insulin and sodium bicarbonate result in:
(a) The excretion of K+
(b) Increases K+ in the ECF
(c) Forces K+ into the ICF
(d) None of the above
[Answer: the correct answer is C]
88. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) Calcium gluconate reverses the membrane effects of elevated ECF potassium
(b) Hypokalemia can occur when treating diabetic ketoacidosis
(c) A patient with very low potassium a rate of 20-60 mEq/hr should be given to prevent
cardiac arrest
(d) Only 30% of calcium from foods is absorbed from the GI tract
[Answer: the correct answer is C]
89. Calcium functions to:
(a) Help with blood clotting
(b) Nerve function
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(c) Muscle contraction
(d) All of the above
[Answer: the correct answer is D]
90. Which of the following statements regarding hypercalcemia is FALSE:
(a) A patient with calcium higher than 2.10 is considered to have hypercalcemia
(b) If a patient comes in with hypercalcemia the first thought is that they have cancer
(c) Vitamin D overdose can cause hypercalcemia
(d) Hypercalcemia can cause behavioral changes including personality changes and
decreased memory
[Answer: the correct answer is A]
91. Calcitonin causes a __________ in calcium in the blood:
(a) Increase
(b) Decrease
[Answer: the correct answer is B]
92. Two-thirds of cases of hypocalcemia is caused by:
(a) Prolonged immobilization
(b) Hyperparathyroidsm
(c) Vitamin D overdose
(d) Excessive supplements (TUMS)
[Answer: the correct answer is B]
93. The best medication for renal colic pain is toradol (ketorolac):
(a) True
(b) False
[Answer: True]
94. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
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(a) Acute pancreatitis, multiple blood transfusions, and alkalosis can cause hypokalemia
(b) Trousseau sign involves using a blood pressure cuff and checking to see ig the hand
contracts
(c) A negative Trousseuas or Chvostek sign indicate hypocalcemia
(d) Avoid IM calcium as it can cause local reactions
[Answer: the correct answer is C]
95. Which of the following statements regarding magnesium is FALSE:
(a) The normal range is 0.65-1.05 mmol/L
(b) Magenium is important for normal cardiac function and metabolism of protein and
carbohydrates
(c) The kidneys conserve magnesium in times of need and excrete excess
(d) It is related to calcium and sodium balance
[Answer: the correct answer is D]
96. High magnesium (hypermagnesemia) can result in:
(a) Seizures
(b) Numbness and tingling
(c) Bradycardia
(d) Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes
[Answer: the correct answer is C]
97. Emergency treatment for hypermagnesemia includes IV CaCl or calcium gluconate:
(a) True
(b) False
[Answer: True]
98. Chronic alcoholism and malnutrition (prolonged fasting or starvation) can result in:
(a) Hypermagnesemia
(b) Hypomegenima
(c) Hyperkalemia
(d) Hypokalemia
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[Answer: the correct answer is B]
99. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) Phosphorus maintains potassium homeostasis
(b) Phosphorus has a normal serum range of 1.0-1.5 mmol/L
(c) Phosphorus activates vitamins and enzyme
(d) Hyperphosphatemia causes the same manifestations as hypocalcemia
[Answer: the correct answer is A]
100. Which of the following can cause hypophosphatemia:
(a) Alcohol withdrawal
(b) Glucose withdrawal
(c) Obesity
(d) All of the above
[Answer: the correct answer is A]
101. Ascites and pleural effusion are examples of:
(a) First spacing
(b) Second spacing
(c) Third spacing
(d) Fourth spacing
[Answer: the correct answer is C]
102. Common serum electrolytes collected for labs include ALL EXCEPT:
(a) Na
(b) K
(c) Cl
(d) Ca
[Answer: the correct answer is D]
103. ________ is the best indicator for renal function:
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(a) Urea
(b) Creatinine
(c) Serum osmolality
(d) GFR
[Answer: the correct answer is B]
104. Which of the following is an example of isotonic fluids:
(a) D10
(b) 3% Saline
(c) 0.45NS
(d) Lactated Ringers
[Answer: the correct answer is D]
105. Isotonic fluids have a osmolarity between 400 and 600 mOsm/L:
(a) True
(b) False
[Answer: False]
106. Fluid volume _______ results in an increase in BUN and normal creatinine, Hgb, Hct. and
urine specific gravity:
(a) Deficit
(b) Excess
[Answer: the correct answer is A]
107. Which of the following statements regarding hypoglycemia is FALSE:
(a) Can occur when too much insulin is present in proportion to glucose in the blood
(b) Can lead to loss of consciousness, seizures, coma, and death if left untreated
(c) If monitoring equipment is not available in the case of hypoglycemia treatment should
not be initiated
(d) Hypoglycemia unawareness is related to autonomic neuropathy
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[Answer: the correct answer is C]
108. During acute hypoglycemia a patient should avoid foods with:
(a) Sugar
(b) Fat
(c) Protein
(d) Simple carbohydrates
[Answer: the correct answer is B]
109. Which of the following statement is FALSE:
(a) In acute care setting when treating a patient who has hypoglycemia and is not altert
enough to swallow 20-50 mL of 50% dextrose IV push should be given
(b) Administration of 1 mg of glucagon IV or subQ can be given to patient who are
unconscious with hypoglycemia
(c) Administration of glucagon can cause rebound hypoglycemia
(d) The lower the A1C value the higher the amount of glucose circulating in the blood
[Answer: the correct answer is D]
110. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) An A1C of 6-6.4% is indicative of prediabetes
(b) A 2-hour oral glucose toleralce test is used to assess for prediabtes and a value of 7.1 to
11 mmol/L is indicative of prediabetes
(c) Fasting glucose level of 6.1 to 6.9 mmol/L is indicative of diabetes
(d) Type one diebetes may be cause by excessive or untragulted glucose production by the
liver
[Answer: the correct answer is D]
111. Dibetes is diagnosed when:
(a) Fasting glucose is over 6 mmol/L
(b) A1C is over 6.5%
(c) Oral glucose tolerance test is over 7 mmol/L
(d) All of the above
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[Answer: the correct answer is B]
112. During an episode of type 1 diabetes the arterial pH is:
(a) Low
(b) High
[Answer: the correct answer is A]
113. Serum bicarbonate tend to be _______ during an episode of type 1 diabetes:
(a) Low
(b) High
[Answer: the correct answer is A]
114. Risk factors for type 2 diabates include ALL EXCEPT:
(a) PCOS
(b) Hypertension
(c) Having abnormally low lipid levels
(d) Signs of insulin resistance (acanthosis nigricans)
[Answer: the correct answer is C]
115. Patient with type 2 diabtes are more likely to expereice ALL EXCEPT:
(a) HHNKS
(b) Ketoacidosis
(c) Absent ketone bodies
(d) None of the above
[Answer: the correct answer is B]
116. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) Patients with type 2 space meals is recommended with a heart-healthy diet
(b) Patient with type 1 diabetes should integrate insulin with eating and excerise
(c) Refrigerate insulin once opened
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(d) During sick days patients should contune to take their insulin and check sugar more
frequency
[Answer: the correct answer is C]
117. ________ increases insulin production from the pancreas:
(a) Sulfonylureas
(b) Biguanides
[Answer: the correct answer is A]
118. Long acting insulin:
(a) Should be shaken before use
(b) Cannot be mixed with other types of insulin
(c) Is a dark color
(d) All of the above
[Answer: the correct answer is B]
119. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) Insulin should be used with caution when patients are on steroids, beta-blockers, and
certain antibiotics
(b) DKA occurs when the supply of insulin is insufficient
(c) Illness, infection, and undiagnosed type 2 diabetes cause cause DKA
(d) Electrolytes become depleted during DKA
[Answer: the correct answer is C]
120. During DKA when blood glucose elvesl approach 14 mmol/L 5% dextrose is added to the
regiment:
(a) True
(b) False
[Answer; True]
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121. Which of the following statements regarding Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic Syndrome
(HHS) is FALSE:
(a) Neurological manifestations occurs because of an increase in serum osmolity
(b) Blood glucose is over 34 mmol/L
(c) Absent or minimal ketone bodies
(d) HHS requires less fluid replacement than DKA
[Answer: the correct answer is D]
122. Which of the following statements regarding hyperthyroidism is FALSE:
(a) Can result in bruit over thyroid
(b) A diet high in protein, high calories, high caffeine, and low fiber is recommended
(c) Propylthiouracil is used to block synthesis of T3 and T4
(d) After thyroidectomy the nurse much neck behind the nack for drainage, position in
high-fowlers, and have calcium gluconate at bedside
[Answer: the correct answer is B]
123. A low T_ is less than 70ng/dlL while a low T_ is less than 5ng/dL:
(a) 4; 3
(b) 3; 4
[Answer: the correct answer is B]
124. Levothyroxine should be aware of ALL EXCEPT:
(a) It must be held once HR is over 140 beats/min
(b) Avoid foods containing iodine
(c) Be monitored during pregnancy
(d) Monitor for constipation
[Answer: the correct answer is A]
125. Addison's disease causes hyponatremia and hyperkalemia:
(a) True
(b) False
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[Answer: True]
126. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) Nursing management for addison's disease includes daily weights and frequent vital signs
(b) Patients with addison's disease should wear a medical alert bracelet
(c) Patient should carry emergency kit with 100 mg of subQ corticosteroid
(d) Patients with cushing syndrome tend to be immunosuppressed
[Answer: the correct answer is C]
127. Which of the following is NOT an expected lab result from a patient with cushing
syndrome:
(a) Hyperglycemia
(b) Hypokalemia
(c) High cortisol levels
(d) Hyponatremia
[Answer: the correct answer is D]
[Chapter 65 Practice Questions]
128. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) Knee injuries account for over 50% of all sport injuries
(b) The least common injured knee ligament is the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
(c) A positive lever sign test indicate a tear in the ACL
(d) Improper body mechanics, repetitive kneeling, jogging in worn-out shoes, and prolonged
sitting with crossed legs are common precipitating activities to bursitis
[Answer: the correct answer is B]
129. ______is often the treatment used for buritis:
(a) Surgery
(b) Drainage/aspiration
(c) Rest
(d) None of the above
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[Answer: the correct answer is C]
130. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) Traumatic injuries account for the majority of fractures
(b) An open fracture involved broken skin that exposes the bone which causes soft tissue
injury
(c) A closed fracture involves skin that has not be ruptured and remains intact
(d) Nondisplaced fractures are usually only transverse in nature
[Answer: the correct answer is D]
131. The reparative process of bone self healing is termed:
(a) Curing
(b) Fusion
(c) Union
(d) None of the above
[Answer: the correct answer is C]
132. At which stage of bone healing is their radiological union:
(a) Consolidation
(b) Remodeling
(c) Ossification
(d) Callus formation
[Answer: the correct answer is A]
133. Healing time for fractures increases with age:
(a) True
(b) False
[Answer: True]
134. Anatomical realignment of bone fracture is termed:
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(a) Joinment
(b) Reduction
(c) Mobilization
(d) Lining
[Answer: the correct answer is B]
135. Closed reduction is a __________ realignment of bone fragments:
(a) Surgical
(b) Nonsurgical
[Answer: the correct answer is B]
136. The use of too much weight during skeletal traction (over 2 to 20 kg) can result in delayed
union or nonunion:
(a) True
(b) False
[Answer: True]
137. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) Plaster of paris is immersed in warm water before application and sets for 15 minutes
(b) The patient should never cover a fresh plaster cast
(c) The cast is not strong enough for weight bearing until about 1-3 weeks
(d) Short arm cast provided wrist immobilization and permits unrestricted elbow motion
[Answer: the correct answer is C]
138. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) Superior mesenteric artery syndromes or cast syndrome causes abdominal pain and
pressure, nausea, and vomiting
(b) Treatment of cast syndrome include gastric decompression with a NG tube and suction
(c) Chlorhexidine is often use to care for pins on the external fixator device
(d) After application of a lower extremity cast or depression the extremity should be kept
below the heart level
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[Answer: the correct answer is D]
139. The mechanism of action for electrical bone growth stimulation includes ALL EXCEPT:
(a) Increasing the amount of cartilage adjacent to the bone
(b) Increasing the calcium uptake of bone
(c) Activating intracellular calcium stores
(d) Increasing the production of bone growth factors
[Answer: the correct answer is A]
140. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) Noninvasive stimulators are placed over the skin or casts and are usually used while the
patient is sleeping
(b) Central and peripheral muscle relaxants are used to relief pain associated with muscle
spasms
(c) Low serum protein levels and vitamin A deficiencies interfere with tissue healing
(d) If a patient is immobilized in bed with skeletal traction or in a body jacket brace should
be given six small meals
[Answer: the correct answer is C]
141. A warm and cyanotic extremity indicates:
(a) Poor arterial flow
(b) Poor venous return
[Answer: the correct answer is B]
142. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) Adults older than 45 years may have either the dorsalis pedis or posterior tibial pulse
difficult to located
(b) Sensory innervation is evaluated for the peroneal nerve on the dorsal part of the foot
between the web spaces of the great and the second toes
(c) Tibial nerve assessment is performed by stroking the plantar surface of the foot
(d) Fluid intake is often restricted to avoid the formation of renal calcui as bone
demineralizes
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[Answer: the correct answer is D]
143. Canes are often held in the hand on the same of the involved extremity:
(a) True
(b) False
[Answer: False]
144. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) Fractures of the distal humerus and proximal tibia are the most common fracture
associated with compartment syndrome
(b) Pain unrelieved by medications and pain on passive muscle stretch are the the msot
effective clinical observations of impending compartment syndrome
(c) Myoglobin released from damage muscle cell precipitates a solid-like structure that can
obstruct renal tubules
(d) Extremity should not be elevated above heart level
[Answer: the correct answer is C]
[Slide 4 Practice Questions]
145. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) Majority of fractures are caused by secondary to a disease process
(b) Ice a fracture no more than 20 minutes once an hours
(c) An open fracture is more urgent than a closed fracture and often require surgery
(d) Open breaks through the skin requires the patient to get a tetanus shot because they are a
risk for infection
[Answer: the correct answer is A]
146. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) Propofol and ketamine are given when reducing a fracture
(b) Nystagmus is an adverse effect of propofol
(c) Spiral fracture are often a result of jumping
(d) Femur fracture is the most serious fracture as can cause death due to blood loss
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[Answer: the correct answer is B]
147. Check neurovascular status distal to injury:
(a) Before splinting
(b) After splitting
(c) After given antispasmodic medications
(d) Before and after splinting
[Answer: the correct answer is D]
148. After a fracture administer tetanus and diphtheria only if patient has a closed fracture:
(a) True
(b) False
[Answer: False]
149. The CSM stands for colour, sensation, and:
(a) Migration
(b) Motion
(c) Movement
(d) None of the above
[Answer: the correct answer is C]
150. Compartment syndromes often is associated with trauma and fracure of the long bone and is
characterised by pain, pallor, paresthesia, paralysis, and:
(a) Pedal pulse
(b) Pulselessness
(c) Pica
(d) None of the above
[Answer: the correct answer is B]
151. Ischemia can occur _______ hours are onset of compartment syndrome:
(a) 4-8
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(b) 1-2
(c) 9-12
(d) 24-48
[Answer: the correct answer is A]
152. Compartment syndrome may be delayed for several days:
(a) True
(b) False
[Answer: True]
153. Pain is often __________ by medications for patients suffering from compartment
syndrome:
(a) Relieved
(b) Unrelieved
[Answer: the correct answer is B]
154. The extremity should be kept ____________when experiencing compartment syndrome:
(a) Below heart level
(b) Above heart level
[Answer: the correct answer is A]
155. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate intervention for a patient with compartment
syndrome:
(a) Remove or loosen bandage or split cast
(b) Reduction in traction weight
(c) Apply cold compress
(d) Surgical decompression
[Answer: the correct answer is C]
156. Which of the following is an important assessment of the patients history:
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(a) Calcium supplementation
(b) Use of corticosteroids
(c) Long-term repetitive forces
(d) All of above
[Answer: the correct answer is D]
157. Healing time of fractures increase with age:
(a) True
(b) False
[Answer: True]
158. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) Remodelling can take up to a year after an injury
(b) Fracture usually take 6-8 weeks to heal
(c) Significant increase in size of drainage age should be reported
(d) Closed reduction involves correction of bone alignment through surgical intervention
[Answer: the correct answer is D]
159. The purpose of traction includes ALL EXCEPT:
(a) Prevent and reduce muscle spasm
(b) Shrink a joint
(c) Reduce a fracture or dislocation
(d) Promote exercise
[Answer: the correct answer is B]
160. A trochanter roll is used to:
(a) Prevent external rotation
(b) Promote external rotation
(c) Prevent internal rotation
(d) Promote internal rotation
[Answer: the correct answer is A]
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161. Casts:
(a) Allow patients to perform many ADLs
(b) Provide circumferential immobilisation
(c) Restricts tendon and ligament movement
(d) All of the above
[Answer: the correct answer is D]
162. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) Elevate extremity onto pillows above heart for the first 24 hours
(b) After 24 hours cast extremities should not be placed in dependent position
(c) Baclofen is used to prevent infection
(d) Involuntary reflexes result from edema and nerve injury following a muscle injury
[Answer: the correct answer is C]
164. For the first 24 hours the cast may be warm:
(a) True
(b) False
[Answer: True]
165. Oxybutynin is a(n):
(a) Muscle relaxant
(b) Opioid
(c) NSAID
(d) None of the above
[Answer: the correct answer is A]
166. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) Cetazolin can be given right away if the patient has cellulitis
(b) Vitamin B, C, and D are important nutritional therapy after extremity injuries
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(c) Usually mobility training (after extremity injury) starts when patients able to sit in bed
and dangle feet over side of bed
(d) Arthritis affects men more often than women
[Answer: the correct answer is D]
167. Risk factors for osteoarthritis include ALL EXCEPT:
(a) Obesity
(b) Female
(c) Genetic, metallic, and local factors
(d) Excess estrogen
[Answer: the correct answer is D]
168. Arthritis that can affect juvenile:
(a) Osteoarthritis
(b) Rheumatoid arthritis
[Answer: the correct answer is B]
169. Which of the following statements is FALSE:
(a) Fatigue, fever, and organ involvement not characteristic of osteoarthritis
(b) Deformity in osteoarthritis is specific to the joint involved
(c) Foundation of osteoarthritis management is pharmacological interventions
(d) Rheumatoid arthritis can cause rheumatoid nodules, sjogren syndrome, and felty
syndrome
[Answer: the correct answer is C]
170. Associated with a decrease in moisture in eyes, mouth, and other parts of the body:
(a) Sjogren syndrome
(b) Felty syndrome
(c) Rheumatoid syndrome
(d) None of the above
[Answer: the correct answer is A]
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171. Rheumatoid arthritis can cause:
(a) Joint destruction in the first year of disease
(b) Nodular myositis and muscle fibre degeneration
(c) Cataracts and loss of vision
(d) All of the above
[Answer: the correct answer is D]
172. Which of the following is NOT a finding from a patient with rheumatoid arthritis
(a) Raynaud's phenomenon
(b) Shiny, taut skin over-involved joints
(c) Weak nail beds
(d) Lymphadenopathy
[Answer: the correct answer is C]
173. Rheumatoid arthritis can cause chronic bronchitis and tuberculosis due to rheumatoid
nodules:
(a) True
(b) False
[Answer: True]
174. Positive RF occurs in ___% of patients
(a) 80
(b) 100
(c) 30
(d) 60
[Answer: the correct answer is A]
175. Which of the following disease-modifying antirheumatic medication can affect the liver and
cause a patient to become neutropenic:
(a) Methotrexate
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(b) Sulfasalazine
(c) Hydroxychloroquine
(d) Adalimumab
[Answer: the correct answer is A]
176. Foods that lower inflammation and boost immune function include ALL EXCEPT:
(a) Fish
(b) Berries
(c) Leafy green vegetables
(d) Apples
[Answer: the correct answer is D]
177. Which of the following would NOT be found during the assessment of a patient with
osteoporosis:
(a) Dowagers hump
(b) Kyphosis of the dorsal spine
(c) Increase in height
(d) Pathological fractures
[Answer: the correct answer is C]
178. Which is NOT a risk factor osteoporosis:
(a) Low testosterone level in men
(b) Smoking, alcohol, and caffeine
(c) High estrogen in women
(d) Diabetes
[Answer: the correct answer is C]
179. Routine DEXA screening begins at 90:
(a) True
(b) False
[Answer: False]
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180. Patients with lupus should be aware to:
(a) Use steroids to decrease joint inflammation
(b) avoid/reduce stress
(c) Avoid exposure to UV rays
(d) All of the above
[Answer: the correct answer is D]
[Slide 3 Practice Questions]
181. The release of ACTH causes:
(a) Renin release
(b) Aldosterone release
(c) ADH release
(d) Water reabsorption
[Answer: the correct answer is B]
182. Which of the following statements regarding sodium is FALSE:
(a) 90% of sodium is in the ECF
(b) It is the main factor determining ECF volume
(c) Helps muscles contract
(d) Potassium magnet
[Answer: the correct answer is D]
183. Hypernatremia causes ALL EXCEPT:
(a) Dehydration
(b) Low urine output
(c) High urine output
(d) Hyperreflexia / muscle twitching
[Answer: the correct answer is C]
184. Treatment for hypernatremia include ALL EXCEPT:
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(a) Hypertonic IVF
(b) Dieutics
(c) Monitor neuro deterioration
(d) Daily weights
[Answer: the correct answer is A]
185. Which of the following would NOT cause hypernatremia:
(a) Cushing syndrome
(b) Renal failure
(c) Diabetes insipidus
(d) None of the above
[Answer: the correct answer is D]
186. Which statement regarding hyponatremia is FALSE:
(a) Can be caused by inappropriate use of hypotonic fluid
(b) May require fluid restriction
(c) Causes decrease muscle tone
(d) Can be treated using hypotonic IVF
[Answer: the correct answer is D]
187. 140 mmol of potassium is in the:
(a) Kidneys
(b) Liver
(c) Muscle cells
(d) Adrenal gland
[Answer: the correct answer is C]
188. Potassium regulates protein synthesis and glucose use and storage:
(a) True
(b) False
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[Answer: True]
189. Which statement regarding hyperkalemia is FALSE:
(a) Can be caused by magnesium deficiency
(b) Can be caused by ACE inhibitors
(c) Most common cause is renal failure
(d) Tumors, severe infections, and burns can cause hyperkalemia
[Answer: the correct answer is A]
190. Cramping leg pain, abdominal cramping, bradycardia, addison's disease, and oliguria are
manifestations of:
(a) Hypernatremia
(b) Hyperkalemia
(c) Hyponatremia
(d) Hypokalemia
[Answer: the correct answer is B]
191. To reverse membrane effect of elevate ECF potassium ____________can be administered
IV:
(a) Sodium bicarbonate
(b) Kayexalate
(c) Calcium gluconate
(d) Insulin
[Answer: the correct answer is C]
192. Impaired regulation of arteriolar blood flow:
(a) Hyperkalemia
(b) Hypernatremia
(c) Hyponatremia
(d) Hypokalemia
[Answer: the correct answer is D]
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193. Manifestations of hypercalcemia include ALL EXCEPT:
(a) Muscle weakness / decreased reflexes
(b) Decreased memory
(c) Behavioral changes
(d) None of the above
[Answer: the correct answer is D]
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