CHEM 3212 SELF QUIZZES

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UNIT 1 Which of the following is considered a phenotype? All of the above Viruses are important parts of our ecosystem that encourage human evolution. Which of the following is true regarding the nature of science? It is highly social. When environment changes rapidly resulting in a large reduction of a population size, the propagated traits occur via the bottleneck effect. If an organism’s environment changes so that a particular phenotype is no longer useful, that particular trait may be eliminated through the process of directed selection. Many disease symptoms are phenotypes of evolved defense mechanisms that have become excessive and inappropriate for “fitness”. True Major determinants of current human evolution include all except: Robust geological changes. Organisms can sense the density of other organisms in their immediate environment through quorum sensing. Polymorphisms are genetic variations within a specific species. True The second aspect of the Cell Theory is: Cells arise from pre-existing cells UNIT 2 Deacetylation of histones correlates with CpG methylation and the active state of chromatin False Distinguishable characteristics between individual histones include all except: Varying isoforms that create distinct tetramers DNA and RNA differ in nucleic acid constituents how? ACGT, ACGU respectively DNA cytosine methylation is considered an epigenetic mark. True DNA methyltransferases act as epigenetic modulators by: adding methyl groups to cytosines in CpG regions Embryonic cell type differentiation is determined by: nucleosome structure and epigenetic regulation of genes for a particular cell type FAIRE is a method used to enrich active regulatory regions of the DNA. H3K4me3 is an abbreviation for: trimethylated histone 3 lysine 4. Histone replacement in a certain nucleosome results in: erasure or change in histone marks at a particular gene region. Histones are highly positively charged due to ________ that counteract the negative charge of _________ on DNA. lysine or arginine, phosphate groups The nucleosome consists of: 147 base pairs of DNA wrapped around 8 histones. What does ORF stand for in the context of the Central Dogma? Open reading frame

UNIT 3 CDK7 is a component of ____ and _______RNPII in the CTD to initiate its transition away from the promoter. TFIIH, phosphorylates IncRNAs are transcribed by _______and inhibit _______ of its CTD. RNPII, phosphorylation RNA polymerase II (RNPII) requires basal transcription factors, such as______, to recognize core promoters. TFIID SAGA interacts with a promoter and activates transcription by: acetylation of histones . The core promoter is generally defined as: the DNA regulatory element that directs accurate initiation of transcription by RNA polymerase II. The mediator participates in: All of above The rRNA genes are located in the ________ and transcribed by the _____. nucleolus, RNPI Transcriptional regulation is achieved by diversity of: All of the above Which of the following represents a focused core promoter DNA sequence motif? TATA Which protein aids to determine whether TATA- or DPE-dependent transcription will occur? TBP UNIT 4 RNA secondary structure is driven by hydrophobic base interactions. Nonsense-mediated decay minimizes synthesis of truncated proteins. Larger RNA molecules have separate domains created by the polyribonucleotide chain that folds back on itself to allow base pairing between nearby lengths of RNA with complementary base sequences to produce what type of structure? : Hairpin loop miRs bind to the 3’ UTR to inhibit translation. Transfer RNA (tRNA) structure includes All of the above Micro RNAs (microRNAs or miRs) are processed by Dicer, which is a(an) ribonuclease. Following deadenylation of the poly A tail, mRNA degradation occurs in both a 5’ to 3’ and 3’ to 5’ direction. A ribozyme is an RNA that demonstrates catalytic activity. True During translation initiation, the ribosome migrates along the ____, removing inhibitory stem loops, until it finds a start codon (___). 5’ UTR, AUG Trans-acting factors are RNA-binding proteins that regulate transcription of many mRNAs. False UNIT 5 The conformation adopted by the polypeptide backbone is referred to as secondary structure. An example of a signal sequence that facilitates a protein translocation to the nucleus is ______. PPKKKRKV What type of bond aids to stabilize a folded protein? Disulfide

The folding of conformation of a 3-D conformation is determined by a protein’s amino acid sequence c. post translational modification Peptide bonds link ______ and consist of ______. amino acids, CO-NH The sharing of electrons in a peptide bond is referred to as resonance. Prenylation involves the attachment of a _____ to a ______ and are common in ________ proteins lipids, sulfur group on cysteine, membrane bound Benefits to a multidomain protein architecture include: All of the above Which model of protein transport developed form the observation that vesicles formed in the Golgi moved cargo proteins between cisternae from the cis face to the trans face? The Vesicular Transport Model Proteins that facilitate the folding of other proteins are chaperones. UNIT 6 The equilibrium constant is the quotient of forward reaction kf (reactants to products)/ by the rate of the reverse reaction kr (products to reactants). Chemical reaction coupling involves work that drives thermodynamically favorable reactions? False Polarity is characterized as All of the above. GABA receptors act as GABA-gated anion channels selective to Cl-ions and have an inhibitory effect on neurotransmitter response. An isomerase serves what function? Rotates a bond such as changing a molecule from a cis to trans conformation. Every reaction is characterized by its equilibrium constant, Keq, which is a function of the All of the above The binding of TBP to the minor groove of DNA appears to present a paradox because, as a sequence-specific binding protein, TBP needs to be able to detect the bases that are ‘shielded’ within the minor groove of B-DNA. True Catalysis by bond strain infers that the transition state is achieved by structural rearrangements that alter bond stability. The bond between carbon atoms in CH4 is a covalent bond. What is a zinc finger? A DNA-binding protein domain with either a pair of cysteines and histidines or two pairs of cysteines that act together to coordinate zinc ion. UNIT 7 In the respiratory chain, electrons are transferred from NADH to O2 through All of the above. Aconitase is a _______ protein. iron-sulfur Cytochrome c oxidase participates in the ____ stage of the electron transport chain by converting _____________. final, O2 to water The rate of conversion of glucose into pyruvate is determined by the cellular needs for ATP

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In gluconeogenesis, which conversion occurs? Pyruvate to glucose A molecule produced by the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA is NADH. Beriberi is a disorder caused by thiamine deficiency, which alters the function of transketolase. True How many molecules of ATP are produced from the conversion of glucose to pyruvate? 2 Superoxide dismutase scavenges molecules such as O2-. Which is of the following is the most prominent enzyme in glycolysis? Phosphofructokinase UNIT 8 Mevalonate is activated by phosphorylation. Glutamine serves as a precursor for the synthesis of proline. Low density lipoprotein is a major carry of _____ in the blood. cholesterol Cholesterol biosynthesis requires acetyl-CoA True The absorption of amino acids requires an active transport process that is dependent upon either __ or ___. Na+, H+ To our current knowledge, ribonucleotide reducatase is 1 of 4 enzymes used in the generation of all deoxyribonucleotides. False Sphingolipids can be classified as All of the above Which of the following is an end product of fatty acid synthesis for animal fat? Palmitic acid Which of the following is an essential amino acid? Methionine S-adenosylmethionine is a _____ donor. methyl

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