PATH 370 MIDTERM
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PATH 370 MIDTERM
1.
After suffering a heart attack, a middle-aged man is counseled to take a cholesterol-lowering medication. This is an example of
c. tertiary prevention
2.
A patient has been exposed to meningococcal meningitis, but is not yet demonstrating signs of this disease. This stage of illness is called the _____ stage.
a. prodromal
b. latent
c. sequela
d. convalescence
3.
A patient with high blood pressure who is otherwise healthy is counseled to restrict sodium intake. This is an example of
a. primary prevention.
b. secondary prevention.
c. tertiary prevention.
d. disease treatment
4.
What clinical course would you see SIGNS & SYMPTOMS?
Prodromal
5.
A disease that is native to a particular region is called
a. epidemic.
b. endemic.
c. pandemic.
d. ethnographic.
6.
C.Q. was recently exposed to group A hemolytic Streptococcus and subsequently developed a pharyngeal infection. His clinic examination reveals an oral temperature of 102.3°F, skin rash, dysphagia, and reddened throat mucosa with multiple pustules. He complains of sore throat, malaise, and joint stiffness. A throat culture is positive for Streptococcus, and antibiotics have been prescribed. The etiology of C.Q.'s disease is
a. genetic susceptibility.
b. pharyngitis.
c. streptococcal infection.
d. a sore throat.
7.
The stage during which the patient functions normally, although the disease processes are well established, is referred as
a. latent
b. subclinical
c. prodromal
d. convalescence
8.
When the cause is unknown, a condition is said to be idiopathic
a. true
b. false
9.
Primary level of prevention
Prevention before you ever have a disease; immunization
10.
Many of the responses to stress are attributed to activation of the sympathetic nervous system and are mediated by?
a. norepinephrine.
b. cortisol.
c. glucagon.
d. ACTH
11.
Allostasis is best defined as
a. steady-state.
b. a state of equilibrium, of balance within the organism.
c. the process by which the body heals following disease.
d. the overall process of adaptive change necessary to maintain survival and well-being.
12.
Selye's three phases of the stress response include all the following except?
a. allostasis.
b. resistance.
c. alarm.
d. exhaustion.
13.
All the following stress-induced hormones increase blood glucose except?
a. aldosterone.
b. cortisol.
c. norepinephrine.
d. epinephrine
14.
Your patient eats "lots of fat," leads a "stressful" life, and has smoked "about two packs a day for the last 40 years." Her chronic morning cough recently worsened, and she was diagnosed with a lung mass. The most likely contributing factor for development of lung cancer in this patient is
a. stressful lifestyle.
b. high-fat diet
c. cigarette smoking
d. urban pollutants
15.
The nurse is swabbing a patient's throat to test for streptococcal pharyngitis. The nurse must understand that tests such as this differ in the probability that they will be positive for a condition when applied to a person with the condition; this probability is termed sensitivity.
True
False
16.
After surgery to remove a lung tumor, your patient is scheduled for chemotherapy, which will
a. kill rapidly dividing cells.
b. have minimal side effects.
c. selectively kill tumor cells.
d. stimulate immune cells to fight the cancer.
17.
The primary adaptive purpose of the substances produced in the alarm stage is
a. energy and repair.
b. invoke resting state.
c. produce exhaustion.
d. set a new baseline steady-state
18.
Persistence of the alarm stage will ultimately result in
a. stress reduction.
b. permanent damage and death.
c. movement into the resistance stage.
d. exhaustion of the sympathetic nervous system
19.
The effect of stress on the immune system
a. is unknown.
b. has been demonstrated to be non-existent in studies.
c. most often involves enhancement of the immune system.
d. may involve enhancement or impairment the immune system.
20.
Aldosterone may increase during stress, leading to(Select all that apply.)
a. decreased urinary output.
b. increased blood potassium.
c. increased sodium retention.
d. increased blood volume.
e. decreased blood pressure.
21.
Chronic activation of stress hormones can lead to (Select all that apply.)
a. cardiovascular disease.
b. depression.
c. impaired cognitive function.
d. autoimmune disease.
e. overactive immune function.
22.
Events which occur during the alarm stage of the stress response include secretion of (Select all that apply.)
a. catecholamines.
b. ACTH
c. glucocorticoids.
d. immune cytokines.
e. TSH.
23.
An increase in organ size and function caused by increased workload is termed
a. atrophy.
b. hypertrophy.
c. metaplasia
d. inflammation.
24.
The cellular response indicative of injury because of faulty metabolism is
a. hydropic swelling.
b. lactate production.
c. metaplasia.
d. intracellular accumulations
25.
All these cellular responses are potentially reversible except
a. necrosis.
b. metaplasia.
c. atrophy.
d. hyperplasia.
26.
The cellular change that is considered preneoplastic is
a. necrosis.
b. metaplasia.
c. atrophy.
d. dysplasia
27.
Proto-oncogenes
a. are normal cellular genes that promote growth
b. are irregular cellular genes that promote irregular growth
28.
Apoptosis is a process that results in cellular
a. atrophy.
b. death.
c. proliferation.
d. mutation.
29.
The hyper metabolic state leading to cachexia in terminal cancer is thought to be because of
a. tumor necrosis
b. metaplasia
30.
what are side effects of chemotherapy include
a.
anemia
b.
nausea
c.
bleeding
d.
infections
31.
Malignant neoplasms of epithelial origin are known as
a. osteosarcoma
b. carcinoma
32.
After bronchoscopy and histologic exam of a suspected tumor, your pt is diagnosed with primary bronchial carcinoma. This type of tumor?
a. malignant
b. beningn
33.
Cancer grading is based on
a. local invasion.
b. tumor size.
c. metastasis.
d. cell differentiation.
34.
Your patient is scheduled for a staging procedure. She wants to know what that means. The correct response is which of the following?
a. It is based on exploratory surgery.
b. It is biochemical testing of tumor cells to determine the genetic basis of the tumor.
c. It is a histologic examination of tissues to determine the degree of tumor differentiation.
d. It is a procedure for determining the extent of tumor spread.
35.
produce by normal cells, help determine cancer organ help identify progression of cancer and include prostatic specific antigen
a. tumor necrosis factor.
b. pain medications.
c. angiogenesis.
d. loss of ATP production.
36.
The hypermetabolic state leading to cachexia in terminal cancer is thought to be because of
a. tumor necrosis factor.
b. pain medications.
c. angiogenesis.
d. loss of ATP production
37.
Pernicious anemia is caused by a lack of
Intrinsic factor
38.
The most common primary immune deficiency that affects only B cells is
Selective IgA
39.
The effects of histamine release include
a. increased vascular permeability
b. decrease vascular permeability
c. stays the same
40.
Risk factors for atherosclerosis include
Hyperlipidemia
41.
Patients with immunodeficiency disorders are usually first identified because they
a. run high fevers
b. have usually high WBC counts
c. develop brain infections
d. develop recurrent infections.
42.
Activation of the extrinsic pathway of coagulation is initiated by
Tissue thromboplastin
43.
A commonly ingested substance associated with prolongation of the bleeding time is
a. acetaminophen.
b. tobacco
c. caffeine.
d. aspirin
44.
Most carbon dioxide is transported in the bloodstream as
Bicarbonate ion
45.
Excessive red cell lysis can be detected by measuring the serum
Bilirubin
46.
A serious complication of deep vein thrombosis is
a. stroke.
b. hypertensive crisis.
c. extremity necrosis.
d. pulmonary embolus.
47.
Atherosclerosis puts a patient at risk for (Select all that apply)
a. ischemic stroke.
b. hemorrhagic stroke
c. retinal injury
d. renal impairment
e. liver disease
48.
Seasonal allergic rhinitis is most involved in type II hypersensitivity reactions.
True or False
49.
Transfusion reactions involve RBC destruction caused by
a. donor antigens
b. recipient antibodies
c. donor T-cells
d. recipient T cells
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a.
b. Commonly known as the flu
C.
Leads to fever, nausea, body aches
d.
Kills
in the U.S. per year
e.
Every few years, a new flu virus emerges
3. Chicken Pox
a. Itchy
on the body
b. Typically seen in children, cases in adults are more severe
C. Rarely
d. Vaccine became available in
4. Polio
a. Virus attacking the
system
b. Spread orally or by contact
C.
No
d. Usually results in paralysis;
can result from paralysis of major organs
Virus Prevention and Treatment
1.
wash hands frequently and avoid contaminated food and wastes
2.
stimulate body's natural defense with a
exist for illnesses such as polio and chicken pox
3.
(not antibiotics)
inhibit development and relieve symptoms (not very common)
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27-28.
A. Metacentric
B. Submetacentric
C. Acrocentric
D. Telocentric
Anti - A
Anti-B
Known A
Known B
Patient 1
4+
3+
Patient 2
4+
3+
Patient 3
2+
4+
Patient 4
3+
29-30. What is the blood type of patient number 1?
А. Туре А
В. Туре В
31-32.What is the blood type of patient number 2?
А. Туре А
В. Туре В
33-34. What is the blood type of patient number 3?
А. Туре А
В. Туре В
35-36. What is the blood type of patient number 4?
А. Туре А
В. Туре В
С. Туре АВ
D. Type O
E. With discrepancy
С. Туре АВ
D. Type O
E. With discrepancy
С. Туре АВ
D. Type O
E. With discrepancy
С. Туре АВ
D. Туpe O
E. With discrepancy
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c. Cesarean delivery is recommended based on the increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage associated with a trial of labor
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B.
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C. Orienting the parents to the pediatric unit
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36-In children aged 2 months to 3 years, the most common form of meningitis is caused by?
A. Neisseria meningitidis
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C. Morbillivirus
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d. If yes, how
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many
Expiration Date/Control No.
Indianapolis, IN, U.S.A.
a Subsidiary of Eli Lilly and Company
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a Division of Eli Lilly Industries, Inc.
DISTA PRODUCTS CO.
Manufactured by
WV 3473 DPX
59° to 86°F (15° to 30°C)
Store at Controlled Room Temperature
Keep Tightly Closed
hibits dispensing without prescription.
CAUTION-Federal (U.S.A.) law pro-
R
NDC 0777-0869-02
100 PULVULES® No. 402
KEFLEX®
CEPHALEXIN
CAPSULES, USP
250 mg
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DISTA
Usual Adult Dose-One PULVULE every 6
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E. Silicosis
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B. Low blood oxygen
C. Decreased production and secretion of pulmonary surfactant
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