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Wilfrid Laurier University *
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Course
101
Subject
Astronomy
Date
Jan 9, 2024
Type
Pages
677
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AS101 everything together
Astronomy I Our Place in the Cosmos (Wilfrid Laurier University)
StuDocu is not sponsored or endorsed by any college or university
AS101 everything together
Astronomy I Our Place in the Cosmos (Wilfrid Laurier University)
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1. What is the average distance from the Earth to the Sun?
(a) 1 million kilometres
(b) 1 light year
(c) 1 Astronomical Unit (AU)
(d) 1 arc second
2. How long ago did the Big Bang occur (i.e., how old is the Universe)?
(a) 10,000 years
(b) 100 light years
(c) 4.5 billion years
(d) 13.7 billion years
3. What is the ecliptic?
(a) The dividing line between the northern and southern celestial hemispheres.
(b) The projection of Earth's orbit around the Sun onto the celestial sphere.
(c) The apparent path of the Moon around the sky.
(d) The line passing through the sky which cuts through the celestial poles and
zenith.
4. Relative to the stars, the Moon moves eastward in the sky each day as seen from
Earth by how much?
(a) 1 degree
(b) 13 degrees
(c) 27 degrees
(d) 360 degrees
5. Why does the Moon turn coppery red during a lunar eclipse?
(a) The Earth is slightly transparent to red light.
(b) The Moon glows red due to blackbody radiation.
(c) The Earth's atmosphere refracts only red light from the Sun, the same
phenomenon which
causes sunsets and sunrises to be red, towards the Moon.
(d) The Moon is still able to reect the red light coming from Mars.
6. What are the two most abundant elements in the Sun (and the universe)?
(a) Nitrogen and Oxygen
(b) Hydrogen and Helium
(c) Hydrogen and Carbon
(d) Hydrogen and Oxygen
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7. Imagine you are waiting on a train platform while a train passes by at 100 km/h.
If it is blowing its whistle
during this time, what will you observe about the pitch (frequency) of the whistle?
(a) As the train approaches it will be higher than usual and as it leaves it will
be lower.
(b) As the train approaches it will be lower than usual and as it leaves it will be
higher.
(c) The pitch will sound the same the whole time.
(d) The pitch will be higher the whole time.
8. What must be true about a star that we observe to be 8 light years away?
(a) It must be very large relative to the Sun.
(b) We are seeing the star as it was 8 years ago since the light would have
taken that long to
reach us.
(c) The star formed about 8 million years ago.
(d) The light we observe has taken so long to reach us that the star probably no
longer exists.
9. About how long does it take light to cross our galaxy?
(a) 80,000 years
(b) 8 minutes
(c) Light travels in_nitely fast so no time at all.
(d) 4.5 billion years
10. Which sequence correctly orders objects from smallest to largest?
(a) Earth, solar system, Milky Way galaxy, the Universe
(b) Earth, Milky Way galaxy, solar system, the Universe
(c) Earth, solar system, the Universe, Milky Way galaxy
(d) solar system, Earth, Milky Way galaxy, the Universe
11. Which one of the following statements regarding stars and constellations is
true?
(a) Only stars near the ecliptic belong to constellations.
(b) Every star now belongs to a constellation.
(c) Constellations include only stars visible to the naked eye.
(d) There are several constellations containing no stars at all.
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12. Why do astronomers often use scienti_c notation?
(a) It makes conversions between di_erent units easy.
(b) It is a more convenient way of writing big or small numbers
.
(c) It allows for more precise measurements.
(d) It is used for historical reasons only.
13. In Australia (which is in the southern hemisphere), which month sees the most
daylight?
(a) March
(b) June
(c) September
(d) December
14. Why are northern hemisphere summers warmer than northern hemisphere
winters.
(a) The Earth is closer to the Sun during the summer months.
(b) Snowfall cools the northern hemisphere during winter.
(c) The light from the Sun shines more directly onto the northern hemisphere
during summer
because of the tilt of Earth's rotational axis.
(d) The Moon is closer during the summer and thus reects more light to Earth.
15. When does a first quarter moon rise?
(a) Around noon.
(b) Around sunset.
(c) Around sunrise.
(d) It can happen any time of day.
16. If the Earth's axis of rotation were not tilted relative to the ecliptic, what would
happen to the seasons?
(a) They would be practically non-existe
nt.
(b) They would be much more severe.
(c) The seasons would reverse so that it was colder in the summer and vice versa.
(d) There would be no noticeable e_ect on the seasons.
17. What are the largest known structures in the Universe?
(a) stars
(b) galaxies
(c) solar systems
(d) galaxy _laments
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18. How will an observer see the stars appear to move over the course of a few
hours?
(a) Westward across the sky
.
(b) Eastward across the sky.
(c) They would not appear to move over the course of only a few hours.
(d) They would converge towards the north celestial pole.
19. Where does most of the visible light we see coming from the Sun originate?
(a) The chromosphere
(b) The photosphere
(c) The corona
(d) The core
20. What determines the phase of the Moon on a particular night?
(a) The speed of the Moon in its orbit.
(b) The relative positions of the Earth, Sun, and Moon.
(c) How the Earth's shadows hits the surface of the Moon.
(d) The distance from the Earth to the Moon.
Q:1
Which one of the following statements best describes the star
t
(tau) Ce;, a star slightly
smaller but similar to our sun.
*a. generates energy by nuclear fusion
b. the light le@ the star 11.905 years ago
c. orbi;ng a diDerent Solar System
d. located in the centre of the constella;on of Cetus at 11.905 ± 0.007 ly
Q:2 The number of stars in
our Galaxy are es;mated in the range 200-400 billion stars. In
scien;Oc nota;on that is equivalent to:
a. (200-400)×10
6
stars
*b. (2.0-4.0) )×10
11
stars
c. (2.0-4.0) )×10
10
stars
d) (200-400) )×10
13
stars
Q:3 What is the meaning of the following astronomical statement in rela;on to a star’s
distance. You are told that the star Vega or
a
(alpha) Lyrae is at a distance of
d
= 25.05 light
years.
a. The star must be very old
*b. the light le@ the star 25.05 years ago
c. orbi;ng a diDerent Solar System
d. located in the centre of the constella;on of Lyra
Q:4
If we say that the Andromeda galaxy is 2,538, 000 light-years away, how does that aDect
how we see it?
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a. The star must be very old
*b. the light le@ the star 2.538×10
6
years ago
c. orbi;ng a diDerent Solar System
d. located in the centre of the local supercluster
Q:5 If the life of a star is 5, 000,000,000 years and its distance from the Earth is 1,000, 000 ly is
there any chance that the star might be dead by now mean while its light is s;ll traveling
towards the Earth?
a. Yes
*b. No
c. Maybe
Q.6
What is the average distance of the Earth to the
a
(alpha) Centauri star
?
a. 4.37 ly
*b. 5.2 ly
c. 4.0 ly
d 6.8 ly
Q.7 The following circle to represent the star Antares’ or
a
(alpha) Bootes diameter
d
Antares
and
the scale given by the line segment
=
=100
R
SUN
( equal to 100 ;mes the radius of the sun).
How big is
approximately
Antares in rela;on to the sun?
a. 20 ;mes
c. 16 ;mes
*b. 7 ;mes
d. 30 ;mes
Q.8
Which of the following is the smallest?
a. The size of a galaxy
b. The radius of the solar system
*c. The planet Jupiter diameter
d. The diameter of Antares
Q.9
It takes light 1.3 seconds to travel from the Moon to Earth and 8 minutes for light to travel
from the Sun to Earth. Which of the following statements is true?
a. The Sun is 6.2 ;mes farther from Earth than the Moon
b. The Sun is 10 ;mes farther from Earth than the Moon.
*c. The Sun is 370 ;mes farther from Earth than the Moon
d.
The Sun is 1800 ;mes farther from Earth than the Moon
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Q. 10
.
If the apparent visual magnitude of a star is 9.3, what does this tell us about the
brightness of the star?
a
.
It is one of the brighter stars in the sky
b. It is bright enough that it would be visible even during the day.
c. It appears faint because of its great distance from the Earth
*d. It is not visible with the naked eye
Q.11 Which of the following describes the magnitude scale?
a
.
It originated just a@er the telescope was invented
*b. It can be used to indicate the apparent intensity of a celes;al object.
c. It was used to determine the rate of precession
d. It is no longer used today
Q.12 If the apparent visual magnitude of star A is 8.1, and the apparent visual magnitude of star
B is -1.6, how do star A and star B compare in terms of apparent brightness as seen from Earth?
a. The star A is brighter than B
b. The star A is 10 ;mes fainter than B
*c. Star B is brighter than A
d. Star B is 100 ;mer more distant than star A
Q.13 Given the following stars which is one is visible to the naked eye with no digculty?
Star
Magnitude
A
7.20
B
6.31
C
-2.5
a. A
b. B
*c. C
Q.14 Where is the zenith for an observer standing at a point on the Earth’s North Pole?
a. The posi;on depends on the ;me of day
b. Near the horizon and towards the west
*c. Directly above his head
d. Near the horizon and towards the south
Q.15
For an observer in Halifax, at 44.6478° N, 63.5714° W, what is the angle between the
northern horizon and the north celestial pole?
a. 0 degrees
b. 37 degrees
*c. 44.6478 degrees
d. 63.5714 degrees
Q.16 A star is on the north point of the horizon. Where will the star be in 18 hours later.
D
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B
NCP
C
Horizon
A
Horizon
N
STAR
a.
D
b.
C
c.
A
*d. B
Q.17 Why did ancient astronomers believe that the Earth did not move?
a.
Because they believed in circular mo;on
b.
Because all observable planets follow retrograde mo;on
c.
Because parallax is only detectable during the day
*d. B
ecause they could not detect parallax
Q. 18 An observer in the northern hemisphere takes a time exposure photograph of the night sky.
If the illustration depicts the photograph taken by the observer, which direction was the camera
pointing?
a. Due south
b. Due zenith
c. Due west
*d. Due north
Q. 19 An object has been located orbi;ng the Sun at a distance of 125 AU. What is the
approximate orbital period of this object?
a. 2000 y
b. 365 y
*c. 1397.54 y
d. 120 y
Q. 20 An object has been orbi;ng the Sun with a period of 750 years. What is the approximate
semimajor axis of its orbit?
*a. 82.55 AU
b. 365 AU
c. 134 AU
d. 120 AU
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Q.21 At which posi;on (A, B, C) is the gravita;onal force of the Earth on the spaceship going to
the Moon is the greatest?
MOON
EARTH
A
B
C
a. A
b. B
c. *C
Q. 22 Two metal spheres each have mass of 3.0 x 10
8
kg.
If the gravita;onal force of amrac;on
between them is 37.5 N, what is the distance between their centers of mass?
*a. 400.1 m
b. 150 m
c. 399.5 m
d. 500 m
Q.23 X-rays easily penetrate the Earth’s atmosphere and reach the ground from space
a. True
*b. False
Q. 24 .What is the ratio of the light-gathering power of a future 40-metre telescope to that
of a 1-metre telescope
a. 40 to 1
b. 1 to 40
*c. 1600 to 1
d. 1 to 1600
Q. 25 What happens to a telescope’s light-gathering power and resolving power when you
increase its diameter?
a. Its light-gathering power increases and its resolving power decreases
b. Its light-gathering power decreases and its resolving power decreases
*c. Its light-gathering power and resolving power both increase
Q. 26 Which object is located at one foci of the ellip;cal orbit of Mars?
*a. The sun
b. Earth
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c. Jupiter
d. Phobos
Q. 27 The diagram below illustrates three stages of a current theory of the forma;on of the
univerese. A major piece of scien;Oc evidence suppor;ng this theory is the fact that
wavelengths of light from galaxies moving away from Earth in stage 3 are observed to be:
a. Shorter than normal (a red shi@)
b. Shorter than normal (a blue shi@)
*c. Longer than normal (a red shi@)
d. . Longer than normal (a blue shi@)
BONUS QUESTION:
Base your answers to this ques;on on the diagram below, which shows the ;lt of Earth on its
axis in rela;on to the Sun on one par;cular day. Points
A
through
E
are loca;ons on Earth’s
surface. Point
D
is located in New York State. The dashed line represents Earth’s axis. Which
diagram best represents the angle of the Sun’s rays received at loca;on
C
at noon on this day?
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a. First
b. Second
*c. Third
Chapter 1: From Solar System to Galaxy to Universe
Q:1
Which one of the following statements best describes the Sun?
*
a.
generates energy by nuclear fusion
b.
located 10 AU from Earth
c.
orbiting the Solar System
d.
located in the centre of the Milky
Way
Q:2 In the organiza;on diagram below in which area the term: Polaris would appropriate Ot?
a)
Yellow area= Solar
system,
*b) Red area=Milky Way,
c) Light Blue= Universe
.
A
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Q:3 Which of the following sequences objects is in the correct order of increasing distance
?
a)
Venus, Saturn, Moon, Andromeda galaxy, Polaris
b)
*Moon, Venus, Saturn, Polaris, Andromeda galaxy
*b)
c)
Polaris, Andromeda galaxy, Moon, Saturn, Venus
d)
Andromeda galaxy, Saturn, Venus, Polaris, Moon.
OR
a)
Alpha Centauri, Uranus, Mercury, Small Magellanic Cloud, Coma Supercluster
b)
Mercury, Uranus Alpha Centauri ,Small Magellanic Cloud, Coma Supercluster ,
*b)
c)
Cloud, Coma Supercluster, Mercury, Small Magellanic Cloud, Uranus
d)
Small Magellanic Cloud, Coma Supercluster, Alpha Centauri, Uranus, Mercury
Q:4 The nearest star to our solar system is alpha Centauri at 4.0
10
16
m (4.3 ly away). The diameter of
the sun is 1.4
10
9
m. How many suns would it take to line up adjacent to each other in order to reach
alpha Centauri?
a) 5.6
10
6
,
b) 5.6
10
6
,
c) 2.8
10
25
*d) 2.8
10
7
Q:5 There approximately 100 billion stars in our galaxy. If there 100 billion observable galaxies in our
universe, what is a reasonable es;mate for the total number ion the universe?
*a) 1.0
10
22
b) 2.0
10
20
c) 1.5
10
15
d) 1.0
10
24
Q:6 The distance to a super cluster galaxy might be:
*a) 100 Mpc
b) 10 Kpc
c) 120 Ly
d) 10 AU
Q:7 Approximately 100 Earths would Ot inside Jupiter. This Jupiter’s radius
must be …………….;mes
larger that Earth’s radius.
a) 100
b) 12
*c)10
d) 1000
Q:8) A spherical par;cle in the ring of Saturn has radius of about 1m. The surface area of the par;cle in
the area of radia;on row is:
a) 125 m
2
b) 3.14 m
2
*c) 12.6 m
2
d) 14 m
2
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Q:9) A spherical par;cle in the ring of Saturn has radius of about 1m. The cross sec;onal area of the
par;cle in the area of radia;on row is:
a) 125 m
2
*b) 3.14 m
2
c) 12.6 m
2
d) 14 m
2
Q:10) If the landing lights in Denver airport were switched on, then in one second these photons travel
to:
a) New York (1580 km)
b) Alpha Centauri (40,000,000,000 000 km),
c) The Sun(150,000,000 km)
*d) Moon (384,000 km)
Q:11) Sirius the brightest star in the sky is about 9 ly away. If the speed of light became half of its
present value, how far would Sirius be?
a) 9 ly
*b) 18 ly
c) 4.5 ly
d) 32 ly
Q:12) The Andromeda galaxy is about 2,000,000 ly away. Therefore light started its travel:
a) 1,000,000 y
*b) 2,000,000 y
c) Just a second ago,
d) Can’t be determined
ago.
Q:13) In the diagram, what is the diameter of Mercury?
a.
about 240 km
*b.
about 2400 km
c.
about 24,000 km
d.
about 240,000 km
Q:15) . What is 5.7×10
7
the same as?
a.
5.7 million
b.
57 thousand
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c.
570 thousand
*d.
57 million
Q:16 If the distance from the Sun to the Earth is represented by roughly 15 metres, then what would the
distance from the Earth to the Moon on the same scale be?
a.
about 30 metres
b.
about 10 metres
c.
about 1 metre
*d.
smaller than the width of your hand
Q 17. Approximately how many times larger than the diameter of a typical planet (the Earth) is the
diameter of a typical star (the Sun)?
a.
10 times
*b.
100 times
c.
1000 times
d.
10,000 times
.
Q: 18 What does the Solar System contain?
*a.
the Sun, its planets, and some smaller bodies
b.
the Sun, galaxies, planets, and stars
c.
the Sun, planets, moons, and stars
d.
the Sun, planets, asteroids, and galaxies
. Q: 19 What does the Solar System contain?
*a.
the Sun, its planets, and some smaller bodies
b.
the Sun, galaxies, planets, and stars
c.
the Sun, planets, moons, and stars
d.
the Sun, planets, asteroids, and galaxies
Q 20. What is the approximate diameter of the Earth?
a.
1 AU
b.
13,000 light-years
*c.
13,000 kilometres
d.
1,000,000 kilometres
Q 21. Which of the following is no longer considered a major planet?
a.
Mercury
b.
Uranus
*c.
Pluto
d.
Saturn
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Q: 1 Which of the following definitions best describes a constellation?
*a.
a region of the sky containing a certain star pattern
b.
a group of very bright stars
c.
a group of very faint stars
d.
the dividing line between the north and south celestial
hemispheres
Q:2 Which of the following best describes the Big Dipper?
*a.
an asterism
b.
a faint star near Polaris
c.
the North Star
d.
a constellation
Q:3 . What do stars in the same constellation have in common?
a.
They probably formed at the same time.
b.
They must be part of the same cluster of stars in space.
c.
They must have been discovered at about the same time.
*d.
They are in the same part of the sky as seen from the Earth.
Q: 4 What languages do the standard constellation names come from?
*a.
Greek and Latin
b.
Latin and Arabic
c.
Greek and Arabic
d.
Arabic and Sanskrit
Q:5 Table 2-1
Star
Name
Apparent Visual
Magnitude
δ Dra
3.07
α Cet
2.53
Nim
8.07
α CMa
−1.46
Refer to Table 2-1. Which star in the table would appear brightest to an observer on Earth?
a.
δ Dra
b.
α Cet
c.
Nim
*d.
α CMa
Q:6 What causes the precession of the Earth’s rotation axis?
*a.
the force of gravity from the Sun and Moon on the Earth's equatorial
bulge
b.
the force of gravity from the Sun and Jupiter on the Earth–Moon system
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c.
the magnetic field of the Earth
d.
the impacts of asteroids
Q:6 A star is on the north point of the horizon. Where will the star be in 6 and 12 hours later.
D
B
NCP
C
Horizon
A
Horizon
N
STAR
a) D
*b) C
c) A
d) B
Q:7 The Earth revolves in a counter clockwise direc;on around the sun at about 1 deg/day (360 deg and
365 days).
Then this mo;on makes the sun to appear moving:
*a) 1 deg per day eastward
b) 1 deg per day westward
c) 15 deg per day eastward
d) 15 deg per day westward
e) not at all-the sun does not appear to move.
Q:8 Which of the following diagrams represent the area of the sky where an ancient Greek astronomer
could observe the planets? (Ancient Greeks knew the 5 planets, in fact the word planet comes from the
Greek word “planetes” = wanderer.)
*a)
b)
c)
Q:9) A person in Nashville , TN observes Venus in the western part of the horizon. Six hours later Venus
will be:
a) low in the south,
b) high in the south,
*c) not visible
d) nearly overhead.
Q:10) A person in Denver Colorado observes Jupiter in the eastern horizon right a@er the sunset. Where
would the planet be a@er six hours?
*a) low in the south,
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b) high in the south,
c) not visible
d) nearly overhead
e) low in the west
Q:11) An observer in Lincoln Nebraska (la;tude= 41 deg N)
sees three stars rising in the eastern horizon.
Which of these stars might later on pass through zenith point?
Eastern Horizon
A
B
C
a)
*A
b)
B
b)
C
Q: 12 How many moons can be stacked from the horizon to the zenith?
a) 90
b) 360
*c) 180
d) 45
Zenith
Moon
………………………………..Horizon……………………………………
Q:13 Where is an observer's nadir?
a.
the east point on the observer's horizon
b.
the north point on the observer's horizon
*c.
the point directly opposite the observer's zenith
d.
the point directly opposite the north celestial pole
Q: 14 If the apparent visual magnitude of a star is 7.3, what does this tell us about the brightness of the
star?
a.
It is one of the brighter stars in the sky.
b.
It is bright enough that it would be visible even during the
day.
*c.
It is not visible with the unaided eye.
d.
It appears faint because of its great distance from the Earth.
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Q:15 The star Vega has an apparent visual magnitude of 0.03 and the star HR 4374 has an apparent visual
magnitude of 4.87. It has been determined that both stars are at the same distance from the Earth. What
does this information tell us about the two stars?
a.
Together the two stars would have a magnitude of 4.9.
b.
Vega must produce less energy per second than HR 4374.
*c.
Vega must produce more energy per second than HR 4374.
d.
Vega will appear fainter to us than HR 4374.
Q:16 . What is the apparent visual magnitude of a star a measure of?
a.
the star’s size as perceived by human eyes on Earth
b.
the star’s temperature as perceived by human eyes on
Earth
c.
the star’s colour as seen by human eyes on Earth
*d.
the star’s brightness as seen by human eyes on Earth
Q: 17 Which of the following is equivalent to one-3,600
th
of a degree?
a.
precession
*b.
second of arc
c.
minute of arc
d.
angular diameter
Q: 18 What is the term for the point on the celestial sphere directly above an observer, no matter where on
the Earth the observer is located?
a.
north celestial pole
b.
south celestial pole
*c.
zenith
d.
nadir
Q: 19 Where is the zenith for an observer standing at a point on the Earth’s equator?
*a.
directly overhead
b.
near the horizon and towards the south
c.
near the horizon and towards the west
d.
the position depends on the time of day
Q: 20 If the Earth had an orbital ;lt of 0 degrees ( obliquity) then:
a. The direct rays of the sun would shine on the equator
b.
Day and night would be 12 long every day everywhere on the Earth
c.
An observer at the equator would see the sun pass at zenith every day
d.
There would not be no seasons
*e.
All of the above
Q: 21 The orbit of the Earth had an eccentricity 0.017. If the eccentricity increased to 0.65 what would
happened to the Earth’s sesons?
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e=
0.017
e
= 0.65
*a) More intense seasons
b)
Less intense seasons
c)
No appreciable change
Q: 22 On an imaginary planet that has an orbital ;lt of 32 degrees, its corresponding Tropic of Cancer
can be found at the la;tude of:
a) 23.5
N
*b) 32
o
N
c) 58
o
N
d) 66.5
o
N
Q:23 Which of the following loca;ons are closer to the South Celes;al Pole ?
a)
(RA= 14h Declina;on=+88
o
)
*b) (RA= 14h Declina;on=-88
o
)
c)
(RA= 23h Declina;on=2
o
)
d)
(RA= 18h Declina;on=-66
o
)
Q: 24 Based on your computer clock lets say that today is August 31, 2015 the sun is:
a)
North on the Celes;al equator moving North
b)
South on the Celes;al equator moving South
*c) North on the Celes;al Equator moving South
e)
South on the Celes;al equator moving North
Q: 25 How o@en is the sun at zenith for an observer at the equator?
a)
Never
*b) Twice per year
c)12 ;mes per year
d) Every day
Q: 26 An observer in the northern hemisphere watches the sky for several hours. Due to the motion of the
Earth, this observer notices that the stars near the north celestial pole appear to move. What pattern does
this apparent movement follow?
a.
clockwise around the celestial pole
*b.
counter-clockwise around the celestial pole
c.
from left to right
d.
from right to left
Q. 27
If an observer travels north, toward higher latitudes, how does the number of circumpolar stars that
he or she sees in the sky change?
a.
remains constant
b.
decreases
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*c.
increases
d.
also depends on the longitude of the observer
Q. 28 If you were standing at the Earth's North Pole, which of the following would be located at the
zenith?
a.
the nadir
b.
the star Vega
c.
the celestial equator
*d.
the north celestial
pole
Q
. 29 How much of the night sky lies north of the celestial equator?
a.
Less than half, because of the tilt of the equator to the ecliptic
plane.
b.
More than half, because of the precession of the poles.
*c.
Exactly half.
d.
All of the night sky.
Q. 30 Seen from Winnipeg (latitude 50 degrees North), where is the star Polaris in the sky?
a.
directly overhead
b.
40 degrees above the horizon
*c.
50 degrees above the horizon
d.
the position depends on the time of day
Q. 31 For an observer in Pond Inlet, Nunavut, at a latitude of 73° North, what is the angle between the
northern horizon and the north celestial pole?
a.
17°
b.
23.5°
c.
27°
*d.
73°
Q.
32 For an observer in Oberon Bay, Australia, at a latitude of 39° South, what is the angle between the
southern horizon and the south celestial pole?
a.
23.5°
*b.
39°
c.
45°
d.
51°
Q. 33 If the north celestial pole appears on your horizon, what is your latitude?
*a.
0°
b.
45° N
c.
90° N
d.
90° S
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Q. 34 If the north celestial pole appears on your horizon, what is your latitude?
*a.
50° N
b.
50° S
c.
90° N
d.
90° S
Q. 35 An observer in the northern hemisphere takes a time exposure photograph of the night sky. If the
illustration depicts the photograph taken by the observer, which direction was the camera pointing?
*a.
due north
b.
due south
c.
due west
d.
straight up, directly overhead
Q.36 An observer in the northern hemisphere takes a time exposure photograph of the night sky. If the
illustration depicts the photograph taken by the observer, which direction was the camera pointing?
a.
due north
*b.
due south
c.
due east
d.
straight up, directly overhead
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Q.37
An observer in the southern hemisphere takes a time exposure photograph of the night sky.
If the illustration depicts the photograph taken by the observer, which direction was the camera
pointing?
a.
due north
b.
due south
*c.
due east
d.
due west
Q: 38 Where in the sky would an observer at the Earth's equator see the celestial equator?
a.
The celestial equator would be at 45 degrees above the northern horizon.
b.
The celestial equator would be at 45 degrees above the southern horizon.
c.
The celestial equator would coincide with the horizon.
*d.
The celestial equator would be directly overhead.
Q:39 Which of the following best defines the ecliptic?
a.
the plane that is perpendicular to the Earth's axis of rotation
b.
the projection of the Earth's equator onto the sky
c.
the path traced out by the Moon in our sky in one month against the background stars
*d.
the path traced out by the Sun in our sky over one year against the background stars
Q: 40 Which of the following best defines the ecliptic?
a.
the plane that is perpendicular to the Earth's axis of rotation
b.
the projection of the Earth's equator onto the sky
c.
the path traced out by the Moon in our sky in one month against the background stars
*d.
the path traced out by the Sun in our sky over one year against the background stars
Q:41 Which of the following describes a concept very similar to latitude?
a.
right ascension
*b.
declination
c.
magnitude
d.
meridian
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1.
In 1054 CE, the Chinese recorded a very interesting and powerful cosmic event. What was this
event?
a.
a star merger
*
b.
a supernova
c.
a galactic collapse
d.
simultaneous solar and lunar eclipses
2.
What was a common feature of astronomy as practiced worldwide prior to the Greeks?
*
a.
recognizing patterns
b.
making hypotheses
c.
defining the 24-hour clock
d.
observing supernovae
3.
What did Eratosthenes measure very accurately?
*
a.
the size of the Earth
b.
the length of the year
c.
the distance to the Moon
d.
the length of the month
4.
Who were the two great authorities of Greek astronomy?
*
a.
Aristotle and Ptolemy
b.
Julius Caesar and Aristotle
c.
Columbus and Ptolemy
d.
Alexander the Great and Julius Caesar
5.
Whose writings became so famous that he was known throughout the Middle East simply as
“The Philosopher”?
a.
Ptolemy
b.
Eratosthenes
*
c.
Aristotle
d.
Hipparchus
6.
Which of the following statements reflects beliefs that were almost universally held in pre-
Copernican astronomy?
a.
The planets travelled in elliptical orbits around the Earth.
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b.
The planets travelled in elliptical orbits around the Sun.
c.
The Sun was at the centre of the universe.
*
d.
The Earth was at the centre of the universe.
7.
In what circumstances is retrograde motion observable?
a.
It is observable for planets located between the Earth and the Sun.
*
b.
It is observable for planets more distant from the Sun than the Earth
c.
It is only observable for the Moon.
d.
It is observable for all planets.
8.
You are observing the night sky from Mars. In what circumstances is retrograde motion
observable?
*
a.
It is observable for planets more distant from the Sun than Mars.
b.
It is observable for planets located between Mars and the Sun.
c.
It is only observable for Earth and Venus.
d.
It is observable for all planets.
9.
What is the term for the apparent westward motion of a planet in the sky compared to the
background stars (as viewed from the Earth) when observed on successive nights?
a.
epicycle
*
b.
retrograde motion
c.
prograde motion
d.
heliocentric motion
10.
What is parallax?
*
a.
the apparent motion of an object due to the motion of the observer
b.
the distance between two straight lines
c.
the small circle that the planets slid along in Ptolemy’s geocentric universe
d.
the distance between two foci of an ellipse
11.
What was the reason for using epicycles and deferents to explain the motion of the planets in
the night sky?
a.
prograde motion
b.
Mercury and Venus’s limited angular distance from the Sun
*
c.
retrograde motion
d.
non-uniform speed of the planets in their orbits
12.
Why did ancient astronomers believe that the Earth did not move?
*
a.
because they could not detect parallax
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b.
because they believed in circular motion
c.
because all observable planets follow retrograde motion
d.
because parallax is only detectable during the day
13.
In Ptolemy’s view of the universe, what is at the centre of a planet’s epicycle?
a.
the Sun
b.
the Earth
*
c.
the deferent
d.
the equant
14.
What is the term for a small circle that has its centre located on the circumference of another
larger circle?
a.
equant
b.
deferent
c.
retrograde loop
*
d.
epicycle
15.
What feature of Ptolemy’s model of the universe made it possible to explain retrograde
motion?
a.
heliocentrism
b.
elliptical orbits
*
c.
epicycles
d.
geocentrism
16.
Which of the following astronomers described the universe in a way that matches the
diagram?
a.
Kepler
*
b.
Ptolemy
c.
Copernicus
d.
Galileo
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17.
The Copernican system was no more accurate than the Ptolemaic system in predicting the
positions of the planets because of a key factor that was unchanged from the Ptolemaic system.
What was that factor?
a.
The Copernican system assumed the Earth was at rest at the centre.
b.
The Copernican system used elliptical planetary orbits.
*
c.
The Copernican system used uniform circular motion.
d.
The Copernican system assumed all planets orbited the Sun.
18.
What is the book
“De Revolutionibus Orbium Coelestium”
about?
a.
It describes how Galileo’s observations and Kepler’s calculations proved the
Copernican theory.
b.
It describes the construction of Galileo’s telescope and his observations.
c.
It is a dialogue written to convince the general public of the merits of the Copernican
theory.
*
d.
It lays out the Copernican theory for the first time.
19.
What was the greatest inaccuracy in Copernicus’s model of the solar system?
*
a.
that the planets travelled in circular orbits with uniform motion
b.
that the planets travelled on epicycles, the centres of which followed orbits around the
Sun
c.
that the planets travelled in elliptical orbits
d.
that the planets were allowed to travel backwards in their orbits
20.
Which of the following objects cannot transit (i.e. pass in front of) the Sun, as seen from
Jupiter?
*
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1. Why do astronomers build radio telescopes?
*a.
Radio waves give a different view of the universe.
b.
Radio waves from space reach the Earth’s surface.
c.
Radio telescopes can detect signals from aliens.
d.
Radio telescopes can be much larger than optical
telescopes.
2. What type of telescope is most likely to suffer from chromatic aberration and have a low light-
a.
a small diameter reflecting telescope
b.
a large diameter reflecting telescope
*c.
a small diameter refracting telescope
d.
a large diameter refracting telescope
3. When does chromatic aberration occur in a telescope?
a.
when different colours of light do not focus at the same point in a reflecting telescope
*b.
when different colours of light do not focus at the same point in a refracting telescope
c.
when light of different wavelengths gets absorbed by the mirror in a reflecting telescope
d.
when light of different wavelengths gets absorbed by the lens in a refracting telescope
4. What type of telescope is a radio telescope?
*a.
reflecting
b.
refracting
c.
deflecting
d.
retracting
5. What type of telescope has a lens as its objective and contains no mirrors?
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a.
deflecting
b.
reflecting
*c.
refracting
d.
compound
6. How is the objective of most radio telescopes similar to the objective of a reflecting optical tel
*a.
They are both bowl-shaped (concave).
b.
They are both hill-shaped (convex).
c.
They are typically the same size.
d.
They are both made of metal.
7. What type of primary is found in a reflecting telescope?
a.
prism
*b.
mirror
c.
lens
d.
diffraction grating
8. You point your backyard reflecting telescope at the star Vega. Where does Vega’s light go?
*a.
from the primary mirror, to the secondary mirror, to the eyepiece
b.
from the primary mirror to the eyepiece
c.
through the primary lens, to the secondary mirror, to the eyepiece
d.
through the primary lens, through the secondary lens, to the eyepiece
9. Which of the following best explains the concept of atmospheric windows?
a.
Holes in the Earth’s atmosphere allow ultraviolet radiation to reach the North and South p
b.
X-ray radiation from space can see through the atmosphere to observe activities on the gro
*c.
Only certain wavelengths of electromagnetic radiation from space reach the Earth’s surfac
d.
The Earth’s atmosphere can be “closed” or “open” to electromagnetic radiation, dependin
weather.
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10. What is the main reason for building large optical telescopes?
a.
It’s the best way to see through clouds and other light-absorbers in the atmosphere.
*b.
It’s the best way to collect as much light as possible from faint objects.
c.
It’s the best way to nullify the blurring effects of the Earth’s atmosphere and thus produce
d.
It’s the best way to magnify objects and make them brighter.
11. An astronomer takes two pictures of the same object using the Hubble Space Telescope. One
*a.
Blue light will show finer details.
b.
Red light will show finer details.
c.
Both should be the same.
d.
The amount of detail depends on the distance to the object.
12. Which property of a telescope determines its light-gathering power?
a.
the focal length of the objective
b.
the focal length of the eyepiece
*c.
the diameter of the objective
d.
the length of the telescope tube
13. What is the light-gathering power of a telescope directly proportional to?
*a.
the diameter of the primary mirror or lens
b.
the focal length of the primary mirror or lens
c.
the length of the telescope tube
d.
the diameter of the eyepiece
14. Why can’t a telescope image be magnified to show any level of detail?
*a.
Diffraction limits the amount of detail that is visible.
b.
Telescopes only view a small region of the sky.
c.
Magnification depends on focal length.
d.
Resolving power depends on wavelength.
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15. Which of the following has the most light-gathering power?
a.
a telescope of 5 centimetres diameter and focal length of 50 centimetres
*b.
a telescope of 6 centimetres diameter and focal length of 100 centimetres
c.
a telescope of 2 centimetres diameter and focal length of 100 centimetres
d.
a telescope of 3 centimetres diameter and focal length of 75 centimetres
16. How is the resolving power of a telescope defined?
*a.
It is a measure of the minimum angular separation that can be seen with the
telescope.
b.
It is a measure of the amount of light that the telescope can gather in one second.
c.
It is the separation between the objective and the image.
d.
It is a measure of how blurry objects appear in the telescope.
17. What happens to a telescope’s light-gathering power and resolving power when you increase
*a.
Its light-gathering power and resolving power both increase.
b.
Its light-gathering power increases and its resolving power
decreases.
c.
Its light-gathering power decreases and its resolving power
increases.
d.
Its light-gathering power and resolving power both decrease.
18. What can be done to improve the resolving power of ground-based optical telescopes?
a.
Use them at longer wavelengths.
*b.
Equip them with an adaptive optics
system.
c.
Change them from reflectors to refractors.
d.
Increase their focal length.
19. The pupil of the human eye is approximately 0.8 centimetres in diameter when adapted to the
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a.
2 : 1
b.
20 : 1
c.
400 : 1
*d.
40,000 : 1
20. What is the ratio of the light-gathering power of a 10-metre telescope to that
of a 1-metre telescope?
a.
10 to 1
b.
1 to 10
*c.
100 to
1
d.
1 to
100
21. The diagram below illustrates the layout and light path of a reflecting telescope
of the ____________________ design.
ANSWER:
Cassegrain
22. A(n) ____________________ is used to measure the brightness and colour of stars.
*ANSWER:
photometer
23. 300 nanometre light has a lower frequency than 500 nanometre light.
a. True
*b. False
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24. X-rays easily penetrate the Earth’s atmosphere and reach the ground from space.
a. True
*b. False
25. What is the purpose of interferometry?
*a.
It is used to improve the resolving power of telescopes.
b.
It is used to decrease the chromatic aberration of a telescope.
c.
It is used to make large X-ray and ultraviolet telescopes.
d.
It allows radio telescopes to be within a few hundred feet of each other.
1.
Which of the following statements best describes the wavelength of a wave?
a.
the measure of how strong the wave is
*b.
the distance between two adjacent peaks of the wave
c.
the measure of how fast the wave is
d.
the distance between a peak of the wave and the next trough
2.
Which form of electromagnetic radiation travels fastest?
a.
gamma rays
b.
radio waves
*c.
all electromagnetic radiation travels at the same speed
d.
the speed of radiation depends on the brightness of the source
3.
What does the word “radiation” mean when used by scientists?
a.
invisible forms of light such as X-rays and radio waves
b.
the light emitted by black holes and protostars
c.
high-energy particles from nuclear reactors
*d.
anything that spreads out from a central source
4.
What does a nanometre measure?
a.
frequency
b.
energy
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c.
mass
*d.
length
5.
In which way is a photon of blue light identical to a photon of red light?
a.
energy
*b.
speed
c.
wavelength
d.
frequency
6.
Which of the following types of light has wavelengths that are longer than the wavelengths of visible light?
a.
gamma rays
b.
ultraviolet
*c.
infrared
d.
X-rays
7.
What is the longest wavelength of light that can be seen with the human eye?
a.
400 nanometres
*b.
700 nanometres
c.
7000 nanometres
d.
3×10
8
m
8.
How does long-wavelength visible light appear to the average human eye?
a.
invisible
b.
green
c.
blue
*d.
red
9.
What is the relationship between colour and wavelength for light?
*a.
Wavelength increases from blue light to red light.
b.
Wavelength decreases from blue light to red light.
c.
All colours of light have the same wavelength.
d.
Wavelength depends on intensity, not colour.
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10.
Which of the following sequences of electromagnetic radiation shows the order of increasing energy correctly
a.
gamma rays, X-rays, infrared, radio
*b.
visible, ultraviolet, X-rays, gamma rays
c.
visible, microwave, radio, infrared
d.
infrared, visible, radio, X-rays
11.
Which of the following types of light has wavelengths that are shorter than the wavelengths of visible light?
*a.
gamma rays
b.
radio waves
c.
infrared radiation
d.
microwaves
12.
Which of the following types of electromagnetic radiation has the smallest frequency?
a.
X-rays
*b.
radio waves
c.
visible light
d.
infrared radiation
13.
Which of the following types of electromagnetic radiation has the greatest energy per photon?
a.
X-rays
b.
radio waves
*c.
gamma rays
d.
infrared radiation
14.
Which of the following types of electromagnetic radiation has the lowest energy per photon?
a.
X-rays
b.
ultraviolet light
c.
gamma rays
*d.
infrared radiation
15.
Which of the following statements about the Earth’s atmosphere is true?
*a.
The atmosphere is transparent to most radio waves.
b.
The atmosphere is opaque to most radio waves.
c.
The atmosphere is transparent to X-rays.
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d.
The atmosphere is opaque to most visible wavelengths.
16.
How does the energy of a photon relate to the other properties of light?
a.
Energy is directly proportional to the wavelength of the light.
*b.
Energy is inversely proportional to the wavelength of the light.
c.
Energy depends only on the speed of the light.
d.
Energy is inversely proportional to the frequency of the light.
17.
How do photons of blue light differ from photons of red light?
*a.
Blue light photons have more energy than photons of red light.
b.
Blue light photons have a lower frequency than photons of red light.
c.
Blue light photons have a longer wavelength than photons of red light.
d.
Blue light photons travel faster than photons of red light.
18.
What statement below best describes the refraction of light?
a.
the absorption of light as it travels though a dense, transparent material
b.
the spreading out of white light according to wavelength
*c.
the change in direction of a light ray as it passes to a medium of different optical density
d.
the change in direction of a ray of light as it reflects off a surface
19.
What is a photon?
a.
a type of electromagnetic radiation
b.
a particle within the atmospheric window
c.
a particle produced when light interacts with vacuum
*d.
a particle of light
20.
Which of the following types of electromagnetic radiation is absorbed by water lower in the Earth’s atmosphe
*a.
infrared radiation
b.
ultraviolet radiation
c.
radio wave radiation
d.
X-ray radiation
21.
Which of the following types of electromagnetic radiation is absorbed by ozone in the Earth’s atmosphere?
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a.
infrared radiation
*b.
ultraviolet radiation
c.
X-ray radiation
d.
visible light
22.
What is a similarity between radio and optical telescopes?
*a.
Both can observe from the Earth’s surface.
b.
Both are usually located on mountaintops.
c.
Both are usually made as refracting telescopes.
d.
Both can detect radiation with charge-coupled devices.
1.
How can the density of the Sun be measured?
a.
by using the density of hydrogen as measured on Earth
b.
by analyzing samples of the solar wind
c.
by using the amount of area covered by Venus during a transit
d.
*by using Newton’s laws and the Sun’s diameter
2. What is the deOni;on of Absolute Zero?
a. zero degrees Celsius
*b. the temperature at which no thermal energy can be extracted from atoms
c. the temperature at which water freezes
d. the temperature at which molecules split into atoms
3.
The temperature of an object is 273K. What is the temperature in degrees
a. 273
b.-273
*c. 0
d. 373
4. The temperature of an object is 373K. What is the temperature in
degrees Celsius?
a. -273
*
b.-173
c. 173
d. 273
5. What is the temperature of an object from which no heat energy can
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be extracted?
*a.
0 Kelvin
b. 100 Kelvin
c. 100 Celsius
d.
Celsius
6. The surface temperature of the Sun is about 5800K. Based on this
temperature, what is the expe
a.
orange
* b. green
c. yellow
d.
red
7.
Which of the following measures the average speed of the par;cles (atoms
or molecules) in a gas?
a.
Heat
b. Composi;on
*c. Temperature
d.
Binding energy
8
.
A plot of the con;nuous spectra of four diDerent stars is shown in the Ogure.
Based on these spectra
*a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
.
9.
A plot of the con;nuous spectra of four diDerent stars is shown in the Ogure. Based on these spectra, which o
a.
A
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b.
B
c.
C
*d.
D
10.
The Sun emits its maximum intensity of light at about 520 nm. According to Wien’s Law, at what wavelength
*a.
260 nm
b.
1040 nm
c. 5800 nm
d.
11600 nm
11
.
What is the sequence of star colours in order of increasing temperature?
*a.
red, yellow, blue
b.
red, blue, yellow
c. yellow, blue, red
d.
blue, yellow, red
12.
Is it possible for a red star to emit more energy than a blue star?
a.
No, because the red star has a lower temperature.
* b.
Yes, if the red star has a larger area.
c. Yes, if the red star has a larger wavelength of maximum intensity.
d.
No, because red stars are less massive than blue stars.
13.
The Stefan-Boltzmann law says that hot objects emit energy propor;onal to the fourth power of their temp
more energy per second will the homer star radiate from each square meter of its surface? (Please see appendix
a.
5 ;mes
b.
25 ;mes
*c.
625 ;mes
d.
10
15
;mes
14.
What is the explana;on for the pamern of granula;on seen on the visible surface of the Sun?
a.
The granules form the base of a circula;on pamern that extends from the photosphere
to the outer corona.
b.
The granules are regions of nuclear energy genera;on
in the photosphere of the sun
c.
Each granule contains a strong magne;c Oeld, which compresses and heats the
gas underneath it.
*
d.
The granules are the tops of hot gases that have risen from the Sun's convec;ve
Zone
15.
What is found in the centers of granules?
*a.
hot material rising to the photosphere from below
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b.
cool material falling from the photosphere to the regions below
c.
material that is fainter and homer than its surroundings
d. material that is brighter and cooler than its surroundings
16.
What is responsible for binding the electrons to the nucleus?
a.
KirchhoD's law
b.
Wien’s law
*c.
Coulombs Law
d.
Balmer series
17.
Which of the following is a set of rules that describes how atoms and subatomic par;cles behave?
a.
KirchhoD's law
b.
Wien’s law
*c.
Quantum Mechanics
d.
General Rela;vity
18.
What is the lowest energy level in an atom called?
*a.
Ground State
b.
The absolute zero temperature
c.
The ioniza;on level
d.
The energy level from which the Paschen series of hydrogen originates
19.
The energy of the Orst level in an atom is 2.2
×
10
-18
J, and the energy of the second energy level is 1.6
a.
3.5
×
10
-36
J
*
b.
6.0
×
10
-19
J
c.
3.5
×
10
-18
J
d.
6.0
×
10
-18
J
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20.
The diagram illustrates a light source, a gas cloud, and three diDerent lines of sight (the observer is loca
a.
1
b.
2
*c.
3
21.
Which of the following can be determined from the spectrum of a star, without addi;onal informa;on?
*a. radial velocity
b core temperature
c.
distance
d.
velocity across the sky
22.
Which of the following is a property of the Sun’s chromosphere?
a. produces a coronal Oltergram
b. is below the visible surface of the Sun
c.
is above the corona
*
d.
homer than the photosphere
23
. BONUS quesBon
: A boy has mass equal to 35 kg on the surface of the Earth? What is his weight on the surfa
*a. 9579.5 N
b. 343.35 N
c. 957.95 N
d. 3.43 N
2.
How can the density of the Sun be measured?
a.
by using the density of hydrogen as measured on Earth
b.
by analysing samples of the solar wind
c.
by using the amount of area covered by Venus during a transit
d.
*by using Newton’s laws and the Sun’s diameter
3.
Which two quan;;es are needed to calculate density of any object?
a.
*mass and volume
b.
temperature and diameter
c.
mass and temperature
d.
volume and temperature
3. What is the deOni;on of Absolute Zero?
a. zero degrees Celsius
*b. the temperature at which no thermal energy can be extracted from atoms
c. the temperature at which water freezes
d. the temperature at which molecules split into atoms
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4.
The temperature of an object is 273K. What is the temperature in degrees Celsius?
a. 273
b.-273
*c. 0
d. 373
5. The temperature of an object is 373K. What is the temperature in degrees Celsius?
a. -273
*
b.-173
c. 173
d. 273
6. What makes up the neutral hydrogen atom?
a. one proton one neutron
b. one proton
c. one proton one neutron one electron
*d. one proton one electron
7. What is the temperature of an object from which no heat energy can be extracted?
*a.
0 Kelvin
b. 100 Kelvin
c. 100 Celsius
d.
Celsius
8.
Summer temperatures on Mars can reach 310 K. How would humans deal with such a temperature o
a. This temperature is so low that a human would freeze to death
b. This is a Canadian winter temperature; humans could survive with a winter jacket and boots
* c. This is a Canadian summer temperature; humans could be comfortable in shorts and a T-shirt
d. This temperature is so high that a human would die of heatstroke
9.
Which of the following contains two or more atoms that are bound together by exchanging or sharing
a.
nucleus
b. ion
c.
proton
*d.
molecule
10. The surface temperature of the Sun is about 5800K. Based on this temperature, what is the expected
a.
orange
* b. green
c. yellow
d.
red
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11. What does a non-ionized atom always contain?
a.
the same number of protons and neutrons
* b. the same number of protons and electrons
c. twice as many protons as neutrons
d.
twice as many neutrons as protons
12.
Which of the following measures the average speed of the par;cles (atoms or molecules) in a gas?
a.
Heat
b. Composi;on
*c. Temperature
d.
Binding energy
13
.
A plot of the con;nuous spectra of four diDerent stars is shown in the Ogure. Based on these
*a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
.
14.
A plot of the con;nuous spectra of four diDerent stars is shown in the Ogure. Based on these spectra, which
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
*d.
D
15.
The Sun emits its maximum intensity of light at about 520 nm. According to Wien’s Law, at what wavelength
*a.
260 nm
b.
1040 nm
c. 5800 nm
d.
11600 nm
16.
The Sun emits its maximum intensity of light at about 520 nm. According to Wien’s Law, what would the tem
*a.
1040 K
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b.
2900 K
c. 5800 K
d.
10400 K
17
.
What is the sequence of star colours in order of increasing temperature?
*a.
red, yellow, blue
b.
red, blue, yellow
c. yellow, blue, red
d.
blue, yellow, red
18.
Is it possible for a red star to emit more energy than a blue star?
a.
No, because the red star has a lower temperature.
* b.
Yes, if the red star has a larger area.
c. Yes, if the red star has a larger wavelength of maximum intensity.
d.
No, because red stars are less massive than blue stars.
19.
Where does most of the visible light we see coming from the Sun originate?
a.
Chromosphere
* b. Photosphere
c. Corona
d.
Sunspots
20.
What is the phase of mamer in the Sun?
a.
Solid
* b. Plasma
c. Gas
d.
Liquid
1.
What is the spectral sequence in order of increasing temperature?
a.
MKFAGBO
b.
BAFGKMO
*c.
MKGFABO
d.
ABFMKGO
2.
Which of the following can we use to determine the surface temperature of a star?
a.
determining if the star has a companion star
*b.
studying its line absorption spectrum
c.
measuring the star’s distance
d.
measuring the star’s parallax
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Table 1
Star Name
Spectral Type
α For
F8
ο Cet
M7
γ Tri
A0
ξ Per
O7
3.
The table lists the spectral types for each of four stars. Which star in this table would have the lowest surface te
a.
α For
*b.
ο Cet
c.
γ Tri
d.
ξ Per
4.
The table lists the spectral types for each of four stars. Which star in this table would have the highest surface t
a.
α For
b.
ο Cet
c.
γ Tri
d.
ξ Per
ANSWER:
d
5.
What properties of a star determine its luminosity?
a.
distance and diameter
b.
temperature and distance
c.
temperature and diameter
*d.
apparent magnitude and temperature
6.
How do we know that giant stars are larger in diameter than the Sun?
*a.
They are more luminous but have about the same temperature.
b.
They are less luminous but have about the same temperature.
c.
They are hotter but have about the same luminosity.
d.
They are cooler but have about the same luminosity.
7.
Sirius A and B are two stars at the same distance from the Earth. In this binary system, Sirius A is much bright
*a.
Sirius B must be much smaller than Sirius A.
b.
Sirius B must be much larger than Sirius A.
c.
Sirius B must be much more massive than Sirius A.
d.
Sirius B must be much less massive than Sirius A.
8.
In a Hertzsprung-Russell diagram, where are the stars with the smallest radius found?
a.
in the upper left corner
b.
in the upper right corner
*c.
in the lower left corner
d.
in the lower right corner
9.
In a Hertzsprung-Russell diagram, where are 90 percent of all the stars found?
a.
in the giant region
b.
in the supergiant region
c.
on the dwarf sequence
*d.
on the main sequence
11.
The star named Sheat is of spectral type M2 and luminosity class II. Based on this information, how does She
*a.
Sheat is cooler and larger than the Sun.
b.
Sheat is cooler and smaller than the Sun.
c.
Sheat is hotter and more luminous than the Sun.
d.
Sheat is hotter and larger than the Sun.
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12.
The star named Circini has the spectral type and luminosity class of O 8.5 V. Based on this information, how
a.
Circini is cooler and larger than the Sun.
b.
Circini is cooler and smaller than the Sun.
*c.
Circini is hotter and more luminous than the Sun.
d.
Circini is hotter and less luminous than the Sun.
13.
Where are red giant stars found in the Hertzsprung-Russell diagram?
*a.
above the main sequence
b.
below the main sequence
c.
on the lower main sequence
d.
on the upper main sequence
Table 2
Star
Parallax
(sec of arc)
Spectral
Type
δ Cen
0.026
B2 IV
HR 4758
0.05
G0 V
HD 39801
0.005
M2 I
9 CMa
0.4
A1 V
14.
Which star in the table is the closest to Earth?
a.
δ Cen
b.
HR 4758
c.
HD 39801
*d.
9 CMa
15.
Which star in the table has the highest surface temperature?
a.
δ Cen
b.
HR 4758
c.
HD 39801
*d.
9 CMa
16.
Which star in the table has the largest diameter?
a.
δ Cen
b.
HR 4758
*c.
HD 39801
d.
9 CMa
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1.
The parsec is defined so that a star at a distance of 1 parsec has a parallax of one arcsecond. If a star has a para
distance?
a. 2 parsecs
b. 5 parsecs
c. 20 parsecs
*d. 50 parsecs
2.
The parsec is defined so that a star at a distance of 1 parsec has a parallax of one arcsecond. If a star has a para
a. 2 parsecs
b. 5 parsecs
*c. 20 parsecs
d. 50 parsecs
3.
The parsec is defined so that a star at a distance of 1 parsec has a parallax of one arcsecond. If a star is located
*a. 0.1 arcseconds
b. 0.01 arcseconds
c. 1 arcsecond
d. 10 arcseconds
4.
The parsec is defined so that a star at a distance of 1 parsec has a parallax of one arcsecond. If a star is located
a. 0.25 arcseconds
*b. 0.025 arcseconds
c. 0.04 arcseconds
d. 0.05 arcseconds
5.
How do humans use their eyes to measure relative distance by parallax?
a. By continuously focusing our eyes on distant objects, we can determine distance.
*. b. Since our eyes are separated, the brain interprets the relative look angles of the two eyes in terms of dist
c. Our eyes can measure the time it takes light to travel from an object, and from this we get distance.
d. As we move our heads from side to side, our brain compares angles from each of these positions to work o
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7.
What would make parallax easier to measure?
*a. the Earth's orbit being larger
b. the stars being farther away
c.
the Earth moving faster along its orbit
d. stars moving faster in their orbits
8.
If two stars are emitting the same amount of light, how will the star that is farther away appear?
a. brighter
*b. dimmer
c. redder
d. bluer
9.
What is absolute visual magnitude?
a.
the luminosity of a star observed from Earth
b.
the luminosity of a star observed from a distance of 1000 parsecs
*c. the apparent magnitude of a star observed from a distance of 10 parsecs
d.
the apparent magnitude of a star observed from Earth
10.
Absolute magnitude is defined as the apparent magnitude that a star would have if observed at a distance of 3
*a. It would be less than +5.
b. It would be exactly +5.
c.
It would be greater than +5.
d.
More information on the star’s luminosity would be required to answer this question.
11.
What aspect of a star is a measure of the total energy radiated by the star in one second?
a. apparent visual magnitude
b. luminosity class
c. spectral type
*d. luminosity
12.
Which stars have a large positive absolute magnitude?
a.
stars of high luminosity
*b. stars of low luminosity
c. nearby stars
d. distant stars
13.
If you compare two stars, which one will always have the greater luminosity?
a.
The one with the larger radius will always have the greater luminosity.
b.
The one with the higher surface temperature will always have the greater luminosity.
*c. The one with the smaller absolute magnitude will always have the greater luminosity.
d.
The one with the largest distance will always have the greater luminosity.
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14.
The nearest star, Proxima Centauri, is about four light-years away and has a luminosity about 0.001 times tha
*a. twice as bright
b. four times as bright
c. 16 times as bright
d. 4000 times as bright
15.
How does a star’s surface temperature determine the appearance of its spectrum?
a.
Surface temperature affects which elements are solid, liquid, or gaseous.
b.
Surface temperature determines the luminosity of the star.
c.
Surface temperature affects which elements can escape from the surface of the star.
*d. Surface temperature determines the velocity of collision rates of atoms and ions.
16.
What is the most accurate way to determine the surface temperature of a star?
*a. Study the pattern of absorption lines from various atoms.
b.
Study the relative intensities of light measured through different photometric filters.
c.
Study the peak wavelength of the star's continuum blackbody spectrum.
d.
Study the pattern of emission lines on the star's spectrum.
17.
Which of the following can the strength of spectral lines tell you about a star?
a. the radius
b. the distance
*c. the temperature
d. the visual magnitude
18.
You observe medium hydrogen Balmer lines, as well as neutral helium spectral features, in a star. What is the
a. G
b. M
c. F
*d. B
19.
You observe medium hydrogen Balmer lines, as well as neutral helium spectral features, in a star. What is the
a. 3000 K
b. 10 000 K
*c. 20 000 K
d. 5500 K
20.
What is the spectral sequence in order of decreasing temperature?
*a. OBAFGKM
b. OBAGFKM
c. BAGFKMO
d. ABFGKMO
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1.
Stars with masses below a certain threshold produce most of their energy via the proton-proton chain. What is
a.
0.01 solar masses
b.
0.1 solar masses
*c.
1.1 solar masses
d.
11 solar masses
2.
Which of the following is considered to be the best explanation for the missing solar neutrinos?
a.
The Sun is fusing helium but not hydrogen.
b.
Nuclear reactions do not produce neutrinos as fast as theory predicts.
c.
The Sun may contain matter we haven't yet identified.
*d.
Neutrinos may oscillate between three different flavours.
3.
How did observations at the Sudbury Neutrino Observatory solve the solar neutrino problem?
*a.
They showed that the “missing neutrinos” had changed into a different type.
b.
They showed that other experiments had miscounted the number of solar neutrinos.
c.
They showed that models for the number of neutrinos produced by the Sun were wrong.
d.
They showed that neutrinos were not escaping from the core of the Sun.
4.
Why does the main sequence have a limit at the lower end?
a.
Low mass stars form from the interstellar medium very rarely.
b.
Low mass objects are composed primarily of solids, not gases.
c.
The lower limit represents a star with zero radius.
*d.
A minimum temperature is required for hydrogen nuclear fusion to take place.
5.
Why is there a main sequence mass-luminosity relation?
a.
because helium fusion produces carbon
*b.
because more massive stars support their larger weight by making more energy
c.
because the helium flash occurs in degenerate matter
d.
because all stars on the main sequence have about the same radius
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6.
What is the approximate mass of the lowest mass object that can initiate the thermonuclear fusion of hydrogen
*a.
0.08 solar mass
b.
1 solar mass
c.
8 solar masses
d.
80 solar masses
7.
Which of the following is most similar in size to a brown dwarf?
*a.
the planet Jupiter
b.
a red dwarf
c.
a white dwarf
d.
a Bok globule
8.
Which of the following are star-like objects that contain less than 0.08 solar masses and will never raise their c
*a.
brown dwarfs
b.
Herbig-Haro objects
c.
Bok globules
d.
T Tauri stars
9.
What would happen if the nuclear reactions in a star began to produce too much energy?
a.
The star would shrink.
*b.
The star would expand.
c.
The star would collapse.
d.
Nothing would happen.
10.
How much of its lifetime does the average star spend on the main sequence?
a.
1%
b.
10%
c.
20%
*d.
90%
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11.
The lower edge of the main-sequence band represents the location in the H-R diagram at which stars begin th
*a.
the zero-age main sequence
b.
the birth line
c.
the Coulomb barrier
d.
the evolutionary track
Main
12.
On the H-R diagram, the line indicates the location of the main sequence. Which of the four labeled locations
a.
1
b.
2
*c.
3
d.
4
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13.
Refer to the H-R diagram. Which point represents a star in which the proton-proton chain is occurring?
a.
1
b.
2
*c.
3
d.
4
14.
The Sun has an expected main-sequence lifetime of about 10
10
years. What is the lifetime on the main sequen
a.
1.8×10
6
years
*b.
1.8×10
9
years
c.
1.8×10
10
years
d.
1.8×10
11
years
16. What type of star is our Sun?
a. intermediate-mass star
b. yellow giant
*c.low-mass star
d. high-mass star
17. What is the lifetime of a 10 solar mass star on the main sequence?
*a.
3.2×10
7
years
b.
1×10
9
years
c.
1×10
11
years
d.
3.2×10
12
years
18. What characteristic of a star primarily determines its location on the main sequence?
a. age
b. distance from the galactic centre
*c. mass
d. radius
19. In which option below are the stellar types sorted from shortest to longest main-sequence lifetime?
*a.
O, A, K, M
b.
A, B, F, G
c.
K, F, B, O
d.
B, A, M, G
20. Consider two stars of the same mass: star 1 has just moved on to the main sequence, and star 2 is about to lea
a.
Star 2 has more helium in its core and a hotter surface.
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19. In which option below are the stellar types sorted from shortest to longest main-sequence lifetime?
*a.
O, A, K, M
b.
A, B, F, G
c.
K, F, B, O
d.
B, A, M, G
20. Consider two stars of the same mass: star 1 has just moved on to the main sequence, and star 2 is about to lea
a.
Star 2 has more helium in its core and a hotter surface.
*b.
Star 2 has more helium in its core and a cooler surface.
c.
Star 1 is more luminous and has a hotter surface.
d.
Star 1 is more luminous and has a cooler surface.
1.
Which of the following relationships is the key to nuclear reactions in a star’s core remaining
under control?
a.
Luminosity depends on mass.
*b.
Pressure depends on temperature.
c.
Density depends on mass.
d.
Weight depends on temperature.
2.
What is opacity?
a.
the balance between the pressure and force of gravity inside a star
b.
the force that binds protons and neutrons together to form a nucleus
c.
the temperature and density at which a gas will undergo thermonuclear fusion
*d.
a measure of the resistance to the flow of radiation (photons) through a gas
3.
What causes the outward gas pressure that balances the inward pull of gravity in a main-sequence star?
a.
the rapid outward flow of gas
b.
the rapid inward flow of gas
*c.
the high temperature and density of the gas
d.
the low mass of helium nuclei
4.
Why is convection important in stars?
a.
because it mixes the star’s gases and increases the temperature of the star
*b.
because it mixes the star’s gases and transports energy outwards
c.
because it carries energy toward the core of the star
d.
because it carries the neutrinos to the surface of the star where they can escape
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5.
How does the temperature inside a star determine how energy flows inside it?
a.
The radiation rate depends on temperature.
*b.
The dependence of opacity on temperature makes convection happen.
c.
The dependence of opacity on temperature makes conduction happen.
d.
The temperature determines how much energy is produced at each layer.
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6.
Which of the following is the best example of energy transport by conduction?
a.
Your feet are warmed when you hold them in front of a fire.
b.
Your feet are warmed when you wear socks.
*c.
Your feet get cold when you stand on a cold floor.
d.
Your feet get cold when you hold them over a cool air vent.
ANSWER:
7.
What does solving equations on a computer have to do with making a stellar model?
*a.
The equations apply the laws of stellar structure at locations within the star.
b.
Equations can describe the H-R diagram and a star’s location on it.
c.
The mass-luminosity equation tells you how to find a star’s luminosity given its mass.
d.
Equations are used to model the nuclear reactions inside a star.
8.
What does the strong force do?
a.
It binds electrons to the nucleus in an atom.
b.
It holds the Moon in orbit around the Earth.
c.
It creates the magnetic field associated with sunspots.
*d.
It binds protons and neutrons together to form a nucleus.
9.
What concept explains why both fusion and fission release energy?
a.
proton-proton chain energy
b.
Coulomb barrier energy
c.
strong force energy
*d.
nuclear binding energy
10.
What is the name of the process by which the Sun turns mass into energy?
a.
nuclear fission
*b.
nuclear fusion
c.
convection
d.
radiation
11.
While on the main sequence, what is a star’s primary energy source?
*a.
nuclear fusion
b.
nuclear fission
c.
gravitational potential energy
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13.
Why do nuclear fusion reactions only take place in the interior of a star (rather than at the surface)?
a.
The magnetic fields are strongest there.
*b.
The temperature and density are highest in the centre.
c.
The core is the only place where hydrogen is found.
d.
The strong nuclear force is only active in the centers of stars.
14.
What is produced in the proton-proton chain?
a.
two hydrogen nuclei, a single helium nucleus, and energy in the form of visible light
b.
four hydrogen nuclei and energy in the form of gamma rays
*c.
a helium nucleus and energy in the form of gamma rays
d.
two hydrogen nuclei and energy in the form of visible light
15.
What happens in the proton-proton chain?
a.
Two protons are fused to make a helium nucleus.
b.
Three protons are fused to make a lithium nucleus.
c.
A helium nucleus is split into four protons.
*d.
Four protons are fused to make a helium nucleus.
16.
What is the term for the process that fuses hydrogen into helium in the cores of massive main-sequence stars?
*a.
the CNO cycle
b.
the proton-proton chain
c.
hydrostatic equilibrium
d.
the neutrino process
17.
What happens in the carbon-nitrogen-oxygen (CNO) cycle?
a.
Carbon nuclei are split 3 ways to make helium nuclei.
b.
Carbon and oxygen combine to form nitrogen, which produces energy.
c.
Carbon and nitrogen combine to form oxygen and energy.
*d.
Four hydrogen nuclei combine to form one helium nucleus and energy.
18.
Stars with masses below a certain threshold produce most of their energy via the proton-proton chain. What is
a.
0.01 solar masses
b.
0.1 solar masses
*c.
1.1 solar masses
d.
11 solar masses
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19.
Which of the following is considered to be the best explanation for the missing solar neutrinos?
a.
The Sun is fusing helium but not hydrogen.
b.
Nuclear reactions do not produce neutrinos as fast as theory predicts.
c.
The Sun may contain matter we haven't yet identified.
*d.
Neutrinos may oscillate between three different flavours.
20.
How did observations at the Sudbury Neutrino Observatory solve the solar neutrino problem?
*a.
They showed that the “missing neutrinos” had changed into a different type.
b.
They showed that other experiments had miscounted the number of solar neutrinos.
c.
They showed that models for the number of neutrinos produced by the Sun were wrong.
d.
They showed that neutrinos were not escaping from the core of the Sun
1.
As a star exhausts the hydrogen in its core, what happens?
a.
It becomes hotter and more luminous.
b.
It becomes hotter and less luminous.
c.
It becomes cooler and less luminous.
*d. It becomes cooler and more luminous.
2.
When does a star experience helium fusion?
a.
just before it enters the main sequence
b.
after it has become a red giant star
*c. when it is on the horizontal branch
d. before it leaves the main sequence
3.
Why are giant and supergiant stars rare?
*a. The giant and supergiant stages are very short.
b.
The star blows up before the giant or supergiant stage is reached.
c.
They do not form as often as main sequence stars.
d.
The giant or supergiant stage is very long.
4.
Which of the following statements best describes why stars eventually die?
a.
Their lifespan is limited.
*b. They exhaust all their fuel.
c.
Their cores become hotter.
d. They become less luminous.
5.
Which of the following occurs during the giant stage?
*a. helium fusion in the core and hydrogen fusion in the surrounding shell
b.
hydrogen fusion in the core and helium fusion in the surrounding shell
c.
hydrogen and helium fusion in the core
d. hydrogen flash
6.
In what way are giants and supergiants similar?
a.
They are the main sequence stars.
b.
They undergo a helium flash stage as they enter the main sequence.
*c. They are very luminous.
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1. What is the term for a collection of 105 to 106 old stars in a region 30 to 100 light-years in
diameter?
a.
Herbig-Haro object
*b.
globular cluster
c.
open cluster
d.
giant cluster
2. What is the defining characteristic of stars within a cluster that are at the turnoff point?
*a.
They are just leaving the main sequence.
b.
They are just becoming white dwarfs.
c.
They are just entering the main sequence.
d.
They are about to explode in supernovae.
Cluster
3. What is the approximate age of the star cluster in the H-R diagram? (Hint: Main sequence
stars of spectral types O and B have a core supply of hydrogen that is sufficient to last about 250
million years; types A and F, about 2 billion years; type G about 10 billion years; types K and M
about 30 billion years. The apparent magnitude scale means that larger numbers are toward the
bottom of the vertical axis.)
a.
200 million years
b.
2 billion years
*c.
10 billion years
d.
30 billion years
4. Refer to the H-R diagram. How would the H-R diagram of a more distant star cluster look
different?
*a.
The points would shift down, because all of the stars would have larger apparent
magnitudes.
b.
The points would shift to the right, because all of the stars would appear to be cooler.
c.
The points would shift up, because all of the stars would have smaller apparent
magnitudes.
d.
The points would shift to the left, because all of the stars would appear to be hotter.
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5. Which nuclear fuels does a one solar mass star use over the course of its entire lifespan?
a.
hydrogen
*b.
hydrogen and helium
c.
hydrogen, helium, and carbon
d.
hydrogen, helium, carbon, and oxygen
6. What is the ultimate fate of our Sun?
a.
It will become a neutron star.
b.
It will explode in a supernova.
*c.
It will become a white dwarf.
d.
It will explode in a nova.
7. Which of the following is the most important factor that determines a life cycle of a star (for
example, why some stars have a short life span)?
*a.
mass
b.
temperature
c.
luminosity
d.
radius
8. What principle explains why matter flowing from one star in a binary system to its companion
forms an accretion disk?
a.
conservation of tidal forces
b.
conservation of temperature
*c.
conservation of angular momentum
d.
conservation of energy
9. Suppose you discover a binary star system with a 0.7 solar mass giant star and a 2 solar mass
main sequence star. Why is this surprising?
a.
0.7 solar mass stars are not expected to become giants.
b.
All 2 solar mass stars should have left the main sequence.
c.
Giant stars are expected to destroy their companions, so the 2 solar mass star shouldn’t
exist.
*d.
The 2 solar mass star should have become a giant before the 0.7 solar mass star.
10. When material expanding away from a star in a binary system reaches the edge of its Roche
lobe, what happens?
a.
The material will start to fall back toward the star.
b.
All of the material will accrete on to the companion.
*c.
The material will no longer be gravitationally bound to the star.
d.
The material will increase in temperature and eventually undergo thermonuclear fusion.
11. When mass is transferred toward a white dwarf in a binary system, the material forms a
rapidly growing whirlpool of material. What is that whirlpool called?
*a.
an accretion disk
b.
an Algol paradox
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c.
a planetary nebula
d.
a supernova remnant
12. Under what conditions are Type Ia supernovae believed to occur?
a.
when the core of a massive star collapses
*b.
when a white dwarf exceeds the Chandrasekhar-Landau limit
c.
when hydrogen detonation occurs
d.
when neutrinos in a massive star form a shock wave that explodes the star
13. Which of the following is almost always associated with a nova?
a.
a very massive star
b.
a star undergoing helium burning
c.
a white dwarf in a close binary system
*d.
a solar-like star that has exhausted its hydrogen and helium
14. Why can’t massive stars generate energy through iron fusion?
a.
because iron fusion requires very high density
b.
because no star can get hot enough for iron fusion
*c.
because both fusion and fission of iron nuclei absorb energy
d.
because massive stars go supernova before they create an iron core
15. If the hypothesis that novae occur in close binary systems is correct, then which of the
following should novae do?
a.
They should produce synchrotron radiation.
b.
They should occur in regions of star formation.
c.
They should all be visual binaries.
*d.
They should repeat after some interval.
16. Why is the material that accretes onto a neutron star or black hole expected to emit X-rays?
a.
The material contains magnetic fields that will produce synchrotron radiation.
b.
Hydrogen nuclei begin to fuse and emit high energy photons.
*c.
The material will become hot enough that it will radiate most strongly at X-ray
wavelengths.
d.
As the material slows down it converts thermal energy to gravitational potential energy.
17. What is the term for the form of electromagnetic radiation produced by rapidly moving
electrons spiralling through magnetic fields?
a.
Lagrangian radiation
b.
ultraviolet radiation
*c.
synchrotron radiation
d.
infrared radiation
18. What type of object is the Crab nebula?
a.
a planetary nebula
b.
an open cluster
c.
an absorption nebula
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*d.
a supernova remnant
19. In the year 1054 CE, Chinese astronomers observed the appearance of a new star. What
occupies that location now?
a.
a molecular cloud
b.
a planetary nebula with a white dwarf in the centre
*c.
a supernova remnant with a pulsar in the centre
d.
nothing
20. What produces synchrotron radiation?
a.
objects with temperatures below 10,000 K
*b.
high-velocity electrons moving through a magnetic field
c.
cold hydrogen atoms in space
d.
helium burning in a massive star
21. Where is synchrotron radiation produced?
a.
in planetary nebulae
b.
in the outer layers of red dwarfs
c.
in the collapsing iron cores of massive stars
*d.
in supernova remnants
22. What does the explosion of a type II supernova typically leave behind?
a.
It leaves behind a planetary nebula.
b.
It leaves behind a shell of hot, expanding gas with a white dwarf at the centre.
*c.
It leaves behind a shell of hot, expanding gas with a pulsar at the centre.
d.
Nothing is ever left behind.
23. Which of the following offered support for the theory that the collapse of a massive star’s
iron core produces neutrinos?
*a.
the detection of neutrinos from the supernova of 1987
b.
the brightening of supernovae a few days after they are first visible
c.
underground counts of solar neutrinos
d.
laboratory measurements of the mass of the neutrino
24. If you were to land on a neutron star, how would your mass change compared to your mass
on the Earth?
a.
It would increase a lot.
b.
It would decrease a lot.
c.
It would increase a little.
*d.
It would remain the same.
1. What is the term for a collection of 105 to 106 old stars in a region 30 to 100 light-years in
diameter?
a.
Herbig-Haro object
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*b.
globular cluster
c.
open cluster
d.
giant cluster
2. What is the defining characteristic of stars within a cluster that are at the turnoff point?
*a.
They are just leaving the main sequence.
b.
They are just becoming white dwarfs.
c.
They are just entering the main sequence.
d.
They are about to explode in supernovae.
Cluster
3. What is the approximate age of the star cluster in the H-R diagram? (Hint: Main sequence
stars of spectral types O and B have a core supply of hydrogen that is sufficient to last about 250
million years; types A and F, about 2 billion years; type G about 10 billion years; types K and M
about 30 billion years. The apparent magnitude scale means that larger numbers are toward the
bottom of the vertical axis.)
a.
200 million years
b.
2 billion years
*c.
10 billion years
d.
30 billion years
4. Refer to the H-R diagram. What type of star do the two data points above spectral type “A”
represent?
a.
massive main sequence stars
b.
massive supergiant stars
*c.
white dwarfs with mass less than the sun’s mass
d.
white dwarfs with mass greater than twice the sun’s mass
5. Refer to the H-R diagram. What type of star do the data points above spectral type “M”
represent?
a.
massive main sequence stars
*b.
main sequence stars with mass less than the sun’s mass
c.
main sequence stars with luminosities higher than the sun’s luminosity
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d.
pre-main sequence stars
6. Refer to the H-R diagram. How would the H-R diagram of an older star cluster look different?
a.
The points would shift to the right, because all of the stars would have lower
temperatures.
*b.
The lower main sequence would look the same, but the turnoff would be at spectral type
K or M.
c.
The points would shift down, because all of the stars would have lower luminosities.
d.
The lower main sequence would look the same, but the turnoff would be at spectral type
F or A.
7. Refer to the H-R diagram. How would the H-R diagram of a more distant star cluster look
different?
*a.
The points would shift down, because all of the stars would have larger apparent
magnitudes.
b.
The points would shift to the right, because all of the stars would appear to be cooler.
c.
The points would shift up, because all of the stars would have smaller apparent
magnitudes.
d.
The points would shift to the left, because all of the stars would appear to be hotter.
8. Which nuclear fuels does a one solar mass star use over the course of its entire lifespan?
a.
hydrogen
*b.
hydrogen and helium
c.
hydrogen, helium, and carbon
d.
hydrogen, helium, carbon, and oxygen
9. Star A is a 1 solar mass white dwarf, and star B is a 1.3 solar mass white dwarf. How would
they differ?
a.
Star A has a smaller radius.
*b.
Star B has a smaller radius.
c.
Star B is supported by neutron degeneracy pressure.
d.
Star A is hotter.
10. What is the source of the energy radiated by a white dwarf?
a.
the proton-proton chain
b.
the CNO cycle
c.
gravitational contraction after becoming a white dwarf
*d.
gravitational contraction during the white dwarf formation phase
11. What does the Chandrasekhar-Landau limit tell us?
a.
Accretion disks can grow hot through friction.
b.
Neutron stars of more than 3 solar masses are not stable.
*c.
White dwarfs more massive than 1.4 solar masses are not stable.
d.
Stars with a mass less than 0.5 solar masses will not go through helium flash.
12. What is the ultimate fate of our Sun?
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a.
It will become a neutron star.
b.
It will explode in a supernova.
*c.
It will become a white dwarf.
d.
It will explode in a nova.
13. Which scenario is most likely to happen when the Sun enters the red giant stage?
*a.
Mercury, Venus, and Earth will be destroyed by the expanding Sun.
b.
Mercury will be destroyed by the expanding Sun, but Venus and Earth will remain intact.
c.
The Sun will engulf and destroy all planets in the Solar System.
d.
The Sun will never expand far enough to reach Mercury or any other planets in the Soar
System.
14. If the stars at the turnoff point of a cluster have a mass of 3 times the mass of the Sun, what is
the age of the cluster?
*a.
6.4×108 years
b.
3.3×109 years
c.
3.0×1010 years
d.
1.6×1011 years
15. Which of the following correctly describes a relationship between pressure, temperature, and
density in degenerate matter?
a.
Pressure depends only on the temperature.
*b.
Pressure does not depend on temperature.
c.
Temperature depends only on density.
d.
Pressure does not depend on density.
16. What is a white dwarf composed of?
a.
hydrogen nuclei and degenerate electrons
b.
helium nuclei and normal electrons
*c.
carbon and oxygen nuclei and degenerate electrons
d.
degenerate iron nuclei
17. As a white dwarf cools, its radius remains the same. Why is this?
a.
because pressure due to nuclear reactions in a shell just below the surface keeps it from
collapsing
*b.
because pressure does not depend on temperature for a white dwarf, since the electrons
are degenerate
c.
because pressure does not depend on temperature, since the star has exhausted all its
nuclear fuels
d.
because material accreting onto it from a companion maintains a constant radius
18. What are the two longest stages in the life of a one solar mass star?
a.
protostar, pre–main sequence
b.
protostar, white dwarf
c.
protostar, main sequence
*d.
main sequence, white dwarf
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19. Which of the following is the most important factor that determines a life cycle of a star (for
example, why some stars have a short life span)?
*a.
mass
b.
temperature
c.
luminosity
d.
radius
1. A Black Hole has mass
M
BH
= 15
M
Solar
. What is its Schwarzschild radius?
a. 50.5 km
*b. 44.24 km
c. 76 km
d.100 km
2.
A Black Hole has mass
M
BH
= 1800
M
Solar
. What is its Schwarzschild radius?
a. 150.5 km
b. 444.24 km
*c. 5309.32 km
d.8769.60 km
3. If the Schwarzschild radius of a Black Hole is 10 km, what is its mass?
a. 15
M
solar
b. 6.8
M
solar
*c. 35
M
solar
d.
48
M
solar
4. Why black holes are black?
a. Because they do not have any energy
b. Because nothing escapes
c. Because radiation does not escape
*d. Because light does not escape
5. What is at the center of a black hole?
a. Another black hole
b. A little galaxy
*c. The singularity point
d.
An X-ray source
6. What is a supermassive black hole?
a. Black hole with mass similar to the sun
b. Black hole with mass similar to Jupiter
c. Black hole with mass similar to 3
M
solar
*d.
Black hole with mass (thousand - billion)
M
solar
7. How did the Black Holes were predicted
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a. By observation
b. With radio telescopes
c. With optical telescopes
*d.
Mathematically using Einstein’s general relativity theory
8.
Hawking radiation is black body radiation
due to
a. Electromagnetic effects
*b. Quantum effects
c. Gravity effects
d.
Mechanical effects
9.
Where is the Hawking radiation emitted?
a. Near the singularity
*b. Near the horizon
c. Near the Schwarzschild radius
d.
From particles orbiting the black hole
10. BONUS QUESTION
Two Black Holes have the following masses
M
1
= 100
M
solar
and
M
2
= 40
M
solar
. Show that
Schwarzschild radius of the first black hole satisfies the relation
R
BH
1
=
5
2
R
BH
2
. (Do not
panic this is a really easy question!!. Hint: All you need is the relation that gives the
Schwarzschild radius of a black hole. Look at the lecture slides.)
Old But Good Astronomy
Astronomy is the oldest of the sciences. Humans have always looked to the sky, and
wondered, and thought, and looked again, and said "hmmm...that's funny" (remember I.
Asimov from the quote in the Introduction?) and formulated theories and measured again
and made better instruments and recalculated and reformulated — and so on.
Of course, astronomy was always mixed up with religion — the gods were "up there" and we
- mere mortal human beings - were "down here", although man was, after all, at the centre
of the universe — make no mistake about that! The Sun god (known by various names)
raced across the sky each day, keeping a watch on us. The Moon god kept tabs on us by
night (well, not every night — and wasn't that a little confusing). Then, there were the
planet gods, obviously lesser gods, farther away and not always in the night sky (where
were they during the day?)
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The Sun, Moon and planets previously mentioned were so important that the days of the
week are actually named after the seven visible objects that have been seen, recorded and
named for centuries. In the table shown below it is quite clear how the known heavenly
objects, listed by both their current English names and their old Teutonic names correspond
to today’s English names of the days. The names of days in French and Spanish are
remarkably close to each other and you can certainly see the connection with their English
counterparts.
Heavenly Body
Teutonic Name
English Name
French Name
Spanish Name
Sun
Sun
Sunday
dimanche
domingo
Moon
Moon
Monday
lundi
lunes
Mars
Tiw
Tuesday
mardi
martes
Mercury
Woden
Wednesday
mercredi
miércoles
Jupiter
Thor
Thursday
jeudi
jueves
Venus
Fria
Friday
vendrdi
viernes
Saturn
Saturn
Saturday
samedi
sábado
Ancient peoples had various ways of keeping track of time on a daily, or even a weekly,
basis but what is particularly interesting is how some peoples kept track of time throughout
the year.
The most obvious and best-known device is Stonehenge, located in the south of England.
One of the great mysteries of this structure lies in the construction itself — just how was
this accomplished? It was built over a relatively long time (1200 years from about 2750 BC
to about 1550 BC) — see the pictures here.
This lower picture gives us another view of Stonehenge (from the ground). The inset shows
sunrise on the summer solstice as seen from the centre of the stone circle rising over the
Heel Stone.
Explanation: Stonehenge, four thousand year old monument to the Sun, provides an
appropriate setting for this delightful snapshot of the Sun's children gathering in planet
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Earth's sky. While the massive stone structure dates from around 2000 B.C., this
arrangement of the visible planets was recorded on the evening of May 4th, 2002 A.D.
Bright Jupiter stands highest above the horizon at the upper left. A remarkable, almost
equilateral triangle formed by Saturn (left), Mars (top), and Venus (right) is placed just
above the stones near picture center. Fighting the glow of the setting sun, Mercury can be
spotted closest to the horizon, below and right of the planetary triad.
Who Built Stonehenge?
The question of who built Stonehenge is largely unanswered, even today. The monument's
construction has been attributed to many ancient peoples throughout the years, but the
most captivating and enduring attribution has been to the Druids. This erroneous connection
was first made around three centuries ago by the antiquary, John Aubrey.
Julius Caesar and other Roman writers told of a Celtic priesthood that flourished around the
time of their first conquest (55 BC). By this time, though, the stones had been standing for
2,000 years, and were, perhaps, already in a ruined condition. Besides, the Druids
worshipped in forest temples and had no need for stone structures.
The best guess seems to be that the Stonehenge site was begun by the people of the late
Neolithic period (around 3000 BC) and carried forward by people from a new economy that
was arising at this time. These "new" people, called Beaker Folk because of their use of
pottery drinking vessels, began to use metal implements and to live in a more communal
fashion than their ancestors. Some think that they may have been immigrants from the
continent, but that contention is not supported by archaeological evidence. It is likely that
they were indigenous people doing the same old things in new ways.
Other Interesting Early Structures
Other spectacular (for their period) constructions include the Templo Mayor, situated near
the present-day Mexico City, constructed by the Aztec empire, and the Mayan cities of
Chichén Itzá and Tulum (on the Yucatan coast near Cancun). Here is a scale model of
Templo Mayor, one of the main temples in the ancient city of Tenochtitlan (now Mexico
City). See the Wikipedia entry for Templo Mayor for more information.
These remarkable structures always had some link with solstices and equinoxes as a
focal point, demonstrating a strong working knowledge of serious astronomy.
Possibly the best known construction on the Chichén Itzá site is Kukulcan's Pyramid. El
Castillo (Kukulkan -Quetzalcoatl), a square-based, stepped pyramid that is approximately
75 feet tall. This pyramid was built for astronomical purposes and during the vernal equinox
(March 21) and the autumnal equinox (September 21) at about 3 P.M. the sunlight bathes
the western balustrade of the pyramid's main stairway.
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This causes seven isosceles triangles to form imitating the body of a serpent 37 yards long
that creeps downwards until it joins the huge serpent's head carved in stone at the bottom
of the stairway. Mexican researcher Luis El Arochi calls it "the symbolic descent of Kukulcan"
(the feathered serpent), and believes it could have been connected with agricultural rituals.
A North American site often mentioned is the Big Horn Medicine Wheel (Wyoming, USA), a
much simpler version of Stonehenge, consisting of rocks strategically placed on the ground
in the form of a giant wheel with spokes aligned with the rising and setting of the Sun (on
equinoxes and solstices), Moon and bright stars.
Lunar Cycles
Most ancient civilizations paid particular attention to the 29.5-day lunar cycle and
formulated calendars based on this length of time. Remember the word "month" is
obviously derived from the word "moon".
Because our year of 365 days is not an even multiple of 29.5 the dates of the lunar phases
vary from year to year. However, the fact that 19 calendar years is almost exactly 235 lunar
months means that we get the same lunar phases on about the same dates every 19 years,
a fact recognized as long ago as 432 BC when Greek Mike Meton (well, at least his last
name was Meton!) realized this and now we refer to this lunar cycling as the
Metonic
cycle
(the Jewish calendar follows this cycle).
The date for Easter varies annually (unlike Christmas which always falls on December
25 — a little known fact!!!) and is related to the lunar cycle. Easter Sunday is always the
Sunday following the first full moon after the spring equinox.
The
Metonic cycle
is not to be confused with the saros cycle, which has to do with the
cycle of eclipses (so many cycles — and not one to ride!).
Above, I have highlighted three specific developments which display the interest in
astronomy by ancient cultures:
Stonehenge in Europe (England)
Chichén Itzá in Mexico (Mayan)
Big Horn Medicine Wheel in the USA (Plains Indians).
Other examples include Greek (Pleiades — more on that later), Incan (South
American — Nazca desert — pictures on various websites) and Polynesian (star positions for
navigation throughout the vast island country). As well, the Chinese had a well developed,
and at times superior, knowledge and use of astronomy (
supernova
— explosion of a giant
star — of 1054 AD).
However, it was in the Middle East (Egypt, Mesopotamia (now Iran and Iraq) and Greece)
that modern science developed and it is through here that our historical journey now takes
us.
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Many names come to mind when considering the enormous influence of the Greek empire
on present-day science. Take a look at the timelines on pages 52 and 53 of the textbook
(also shown below) for a visual representation of the early history of astronomy. Note the
long Dark Ages break between Ptolemy to Copernicus. Once you have finished viewing the
timeline, follow along with the lesson notes for more details.
Thales
of Miletus (624-547 BC) was one of the very early Greek
scholars to promote the notion that the universe was rational and,
therefore, understandable. Previous cultures in Egypt and Babylonia
believed that the real causes of things were mysteries beyond human
understanding. To Thales and his followers the mysteries of the world
(and heavens, etc.) are so because they are unknown,
not
because
they are unknowable.
Pythagoras
(570-500 BC), following from Thales' wisdom, believed
that relationships in nature had developed in accordance with
geometrical or mathematical relationships. His studies in musical
acoustics led him to believe that the planets actually produced music
as they traveled in their orbits, leading to the concept of the "music of
the spheres". You’ve probably heard Pythagoras’ name before and,
yes, he’s the same person who developed the so-called Pythagorean
formula for right-angle triangles you learn about in high school
mathematics.
Socrates
(470-399 BC), a seminal figure in Greek history, was more
of a philosopher than a scientist (there weren't really any scientists, as
we think of them, in these early Greek days) who talked a lot and
wrote nothing, so what we know of him we know through lore and
through his students (Plato being his chief biographer).
He held that virtue is
understanding and that no human being
knowingly does wrong (now how about that for a teacher!). Socrates'
method of philosophical inquiry consisted of questioning people on the
positions they asserted and working them through questions into a
contradiction, thus proving to them that their original assertion was
wrong.
Plato
(428-348 BC) carried on the teachings of Socrates for most of
his early life but actually took little interest in science although he
thought that mathematics was a valuable discipline.
Plato wrote the
Republic
, in which he formulated his ideas of the
perfect state.
According to the
New Lexicon Webster's Dictionary
Plato's greatest
contribution was on his theory of "ideas", of which "love" is one which
he describes as "
as desire for union with the beautiful, ascending
in a scale of perfection from human passion to ecstasy in the
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contemplation of designating love for a person, usually of the
opposite sex, that is free of carnal desire
", so-called Platonic
love — now that's something to aspire to!!
Aristotle
(384-322 BC), a great Greek scholar and thinker, was a
pupil of Plato (and a teacher of Alexander the Great) who really didn't
get along with Plato or anybody else for that matter.
Aristotle could not bring himself to think of the world in abstract terms
(the way Plato did) — instead he believed that the world could be
understood fundamentally through the detailed observation and
cataloguing of phenomena — in other words, knowledge (which is
what the word science means) is fundamentally
empirical
.
Aristotle wrote on many subjects, including physics, mathematics,
meteorology and, anatomy. Although much of what he wrote about
science was wrong, we must recognize that he was not really a
scientist; he was first and foremost a philosopher. Because of his
writings and insight he became the great authority for almost 2000
years and, hence, a great influence on all thinking.
Aristotle tried to understand the universe (not the universe as we
know it today) by combining the most basic observations with first
principles (ideas that he believed were obviously true; like the
perfection of the heavens). He believed that the universe existed in
two parts — Earth (corrupt and changeable) and the heavens (perfect
and immutable). He also believed that the Earth was at the centre of
the universe — another first principle.
Aristotle developed the whole idea of
inductive reasoning
through
learning what was known about a certain topic, gaining a consensus on
the subject by talking to anyone and everyone, testing it thoroughly
(although he was regarded as a know-it-all), and working out the
underlying principles.
This sequence of reasoning is now the basis of all Western scientific
thinking, the so-called scientific method, which we will get to shortly.
Another important figure in Greek science is
Claudius Ptolemy
(90-
168 AD, although these dates are approximate). He developed a
model of the universe based on his observations and those of his
forefathers which predicted fairly well planetary events of the future.
One of the more serious issues that any model had to overcome was
that of the retrograde motion of some of the planets. Ptolemy
borrowed an idea from other scholars that put planets on “epicycles”
or smaller circles around which they would travel as they orbited the
Earth in perfect, larger circles (see below the picture of Ptolemy)
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BUT, the model utilized one tenet which turned out to be the biggest
flaw in the model — an Earth-centred universe.
This concept (the Earth-centred universe) was so ingrained in all
Western thinking, that it influenced the development of science for
centuries.
How could it possibly be any other way?
Humanity just HAD TO BE at the centre of the universe, didn't we???
Let's review a few things
:
Early attempts to model the solar system and the universe belong to
the Egyptians and the Greeks (around the time of Christ). Ptolemy
(Greek) came up with his circular orbit/epicycle/Earth-centred model
around 150 A.D. Nothing much happened for about 1400 years — the
Dark Ages. All this time two things were particularly important for
Church and science. First of all, not much science was done during
these 1400 years and the Church held fast to the idea that:
a
the orbits of the planets, Sun and Moon were perfect circles — after
all, they were heavenly bodies and as such their paths had to be
perfect and nothing was more perfect than a circle, and
b
Earth was at the centre of the universe!
Enter
Nicolaus Copernicus
(1473-1543)
Copernicus was able to study astronomy by virtue of his education and
family wealth. He reviewed current (at that time) naked-eye
measurements and how they fit with the Ptolemaic model and decided
to rethink the basic model by considering Aristarchus' notion of a Sun-
centred solar system (an idea that was now some 1800 years old).
Following consultation with other scholars and following his own inner
urgings to make public his own ideas, he published a book entitled De
Revolutionibus Orbium Caelestium in 1543 (Concerning the
Revolutions of the Heavenly Spheres), in which he claimed that the
true and accurate model of the solar system could only be that of a
Sun-centred system.
However, he still held that the orbits of the planets had to be circular
(not ellipses as we now know) and, consequently, he had to make use
of the same epicycle system that Ptolemy did with the result that the
predictions of his model produced results that agreed no better with
observations than Ptolemy's model.
Three years after Copernicus' death a Dane,
Tycho Brahe
, was born
(1546-1601).
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Tycho, as he has become known, was born into a respected and noble
family, grew up as an arrogant child and teen and lost part of his nose
in a fight, but became the greatest naked-eye observer of all time. He
had always had an interest in astronomy and when he, as a young
man, observed that the expected conjunction of Jupiter and Saturn
was late by two days (based on Copernicus' model) decided to start
compiling his own set of observations.
Eventually, King Frederick II (Denmark) agreed to sponsor his work
and set him up in his own spectacular observatory, on his own island
of Hven in the Baltic Sea, where he did his work. Despite all this, he
failed to come up with any better models of planetary motion.
Just before Tycho's death he engaged a young German
scholar
Johannes Kepler
(1571-1630), who showed great promise
and who inherited Tycho's data.
Kepler, a very religious man, sought to develop a new model of the
solar system, but had great faith in Tycho's measurements and, after
trying desperately to fit the observations of Mars's orbit with a circular
orbit, decided to try something different.
Try to imagine what Kepler's thought pattern might be.
For centuries, scientists and philosophers had tried to fit observations
to models using ideas (such as circular orbits) that were central to
human beliefs. Kepler decided to try the reverse — throw out long-
held beliefs and develop a model that fit observations — some claim
this was the real birth of modern science.
After all, this is precisely how we conduct science today — this is the
scientific model (more on this shortly).
So, Kepler published his three laws of planetary motion (the first two
in 1609, the last in 1619). The laws go something like this:
Kepler's First Law
:
The orbit of each planet around the Sun is an
ellipse with the Sun at one focus.
The diagram below shows what an ellipse is.
An ellipse has two foci (plural of focus) and the Sun is at one focus
(nothing is at the other focus). The major axis is a line drawn through
the two foci and ending at each "end" of the ellipse. Half this distance
is called the
semi-major axis
. The same holds true for the minor axis,
perpendicular to the major axis.
The ratio of the distance between the two foci to the major axis length
is called the
eccentricity
. A circle has an eccentricity of zero (0.00)
because the two foci are on top of each other. A straight line has an
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eccentricity of unity (1.0) because the two foci are as far away from
each other as they can possibly be – at infinity on either side of the
ellipse. So, eccentricities vary from zero to one. The eccentricity of
Venus' orbit is 0.007 (almost a circle) while that of Pluto is
0.248 — fairly eccentric (not unlike your Astronomy prof.!)
Kepler's Second Law
:
As a planet moves around in its orbit, it
sweeps out equal areas in equal times.
As mentioned previously, when the planet is closer to the Sun (around
its perihelion) it moves faster along its orbit than when close to the
aphelion. In the diagram above the picture on the right shows
this. The planet moves from A to B (around its aphelion, farthest from
the Sun) in the same time that it takes to go from A’ to B’ (around its
perihelion, closest to the Sun). The areas shaded in blue are equal.
Kepler's Third Law
:
The squares of the periods of any two planets
have the same ratio as the cubes of their semi-major axes.
Mathematically, we can write this as
p
2
=
a
3
where
p
is the orbital period in years and
a
is the average distance
from the Sun in AU.
This is a remarkably simple relationship. When things work out this
beautifully you just know it's right!!
Here is a nice little animation (really a formula to demonstrate Kepler’s
Third Law) that I would like you to play around with. The idea is to put
a number in the square on either side of the equation and the value
for the other side pops into place. For example, if you put in the
number 1 (on either side) you will see that 1 appears in the other
side; this is the information for Earth where clearly the orbital period is
1 year and the average distance from the Sun is 1 AU (because that’s
how an AU is defined).
Try the formula for other planets, such as Mercury (
p
= 0.24 years and
α
= 0.39 AU) or Saturn
(
p
= 29.5 years and
α
= 9.58 AU).
Please try
other values found in Table A.6 in Appendix A in the textbook.
flash animation
http://astro.unl.edu/classaction/animations/renaissance/
keplers_third.html
So, there you have it. Kepler's three laws of planetary motion matched
Tycho Brahe's measurements better by far than any other models.
I want you to watch the following video about Kepler’s Laws. In this
clip from Sagan’s COSMOS series (which starts in the middle of a
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thought) quickly leads into Sagan’s brilliant commentary on Kepler’s
discovery of his three laws of orbital motion. It is well worth watching.
Kepler’s Laws (4:09 min.) video:
<div class="player-unavailable"><h1
class="message">An error occurred.</h1><div class="submessage"><a
href="http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=XFqM0lreJYw" target="_blank">Try watching this
video on www.youtube.com</a>, or enable JavaScript if it is disabled in your
browser.</div></div>
www.bing.com/videos/search?
q=kepler's+laws+videos&FORM=VIRE15#view=detail&mid=6AA900E8
C72CBB2824C56AA900E8C72CBB2824C5
However, there were still objections to the new model, all based on old
beliefs, but soon all these objections would be met by yet another
brilliant scientist.
Enter
Galileo Galilei
(1564-1642), a contemporary of Kepler.
We won't go into the details of Galileo's work to dispel the remaining
objections to Kepler's work — they are detailed in the text very well.
Among Galileo's great contributions to modern science was his
development called the telescope (Hans Lippershey actually invented
the telescope but only as a toy). He used the telescope for the first
time in 1609-10 (thus, 2009 marked the 400th anniversary of Galileo’s
first use of the telescope and that is why 2009 was the Year of
Astronomy). Although Galileo was not the first to look at the sky using
a telescope he was the one who used the telescope to open the
heavens to mankind. Galileo observed more stars in the Milky Way
than could be counted, four moons orbiting Jupiter, phases of Venus,
and other heavenly phenomena. Concerning stars never before seen,
Galileo wrote:
“I had determined to depict the entire constellation of Orion, but I was
overwhelmed by the vast quantity of stars and by want of time, and so
I have deferred attempting this to another occasion, for there are
adjacent to, or scattered among, the old stars more than five hundred
new stars.”
When he observed the irregular surface of the Moon he proved to
himself, at least, that it was not perfect, as the Church had been
teaching. However, it was his persistent viewing of Jupiter and its
points of light, which turned out to be its moons as he soon realized,
that sealed the fate of the Earth-centred Ptolemaic model of the solar
system. That, along with his observations of Venus going through a
complete set of phases that could only be explained if Venus revolved
around the Sun, which proved to Galileo, and eventually the rest of the
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world that the Sun-centred model was the correct one.
Let’s look at Galileo’s observations of Venus to demonstrate more
convincingly that what he saw demonstrated to him, and anyone else
who cared to review his observations, that the Sun-centred model was
the correct one. First, look at an animation demonstrating what Venus
would look like if the Ptolemaic (Earth-centred) model was correct.
flash animation
http://astro.unl.edu/classaction/animations/renaissance/
ptolemaic.html
.
With this configuration you see that the Earth is in the centre. Venus
orbits the Earth but on a circle of its own (called an epicycle) while the
Sun orbits Earth beyond that. When you start the animation observe
what Venus must look like from Earth (top right of picture) as Venus
and the Sun orbit Earth. You see that Venus would always show just a
crescent phase.
Now, let’s view another animation demonstrating what Venus would
look like if the Copernican (Sun-centred) model was correct.
flash animation
http://astro.unl.edu/classaction/animations/renaissance/
venusphases.html
Here you see the correct configuration with the Sun at the centre and
Earth and Venus orbiting the Sun. When you start the animation you
will see Venus going through its phases just as Galileo would have
observed with his telescope. It goes through a full phase cycle just like
the Moon, something possible only if the Sun is at the centre of the
solar system.
As mentioned above, Galileo observed Venus going through a
complete set of phase exactly like the Moon’s phase cycle. The only
possible scenario Galileo could conclude was that Venus must revolve
around the Sun with an orbital radius smaller than Earth’s. Bingo!
The revolution was complete. But what was it that "held" the planets in
their orbits???
Galileo died on January 8, 1642
having failed to convince the
leaders of the Roman Catholic Church that its interpretation of the
Holy Scriptures was inconsistent with observed facts. The Church
pronounced his findings false and heretical and forbade anyone to
teach them and put Galileo under a form of "house arrest". Only
recently was this position of the RC Church recanted (by Pope Jean
Paul II) and a much overdue apology issued.
So blind are the eyes of men when they do not want to see!
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Isaac Newton was born on December 25, 1642
.
He was a sickly child who
eventually attended Cambridge University (England) but returned to home in Woolsthorpe
during the great plague of England. There he investigated mathematics, optics, motion and
discovered gravity.
Before we look at Newton's Law of Gravitation I must caution you that this law involves the
concept of "force", something we have not yet dealt with (although we will study this later
in this module). Basically, a force is either a push or a pull. In the case of a planet circling
the Sun the idea is that something makes it do that, rather than travelling in a straight line.
That is, without a "force" acting on the planet it would travel in a straight line. Because it
travels in a circle (or ellipse) something must be pulling on it to make it follow this path.
Newton cleverly realized that an invisible force must exist between two objects, called it
"gravity", that it must be the same force which causes an apple to fall to the ground and the
rest is history, so to speak.
So, Newton's Universal Law of Gravitation, a real "tour de force" (HA!), is summed up nicely
in the diagram shown below.
This law shows that the gravitational force is proportional to the masses of both objects and
inversely proportional to the square of the distance between the masses. This is
mathematical jargon. What it really means is that if the mass of either object is doubled
(say) then the force also doubles; if the mass is tripled then the force also triples, and so
on. Also, if the distance between the masses doubles then the force diminishes by a factor
of four (which is two squared — 2 x 2); or if the distance triples then the force diminishes
by a factor of nine (three squared — 3 x 3), and so on. I've tried to explain this in simple
terms; you may need to read this a few times to understand it, although it is fairly basic
mathematics (think high school math).
With this law Newton was able to derive Kepler's Laws and showed that they applied to any
two bodies moving under the influence of gravity (not just planets) and that they orbited
with the centre of mass at one focus. He was one smart dude!
Furthermore, he showed that a few other orbital paths were possible. Elliptical orbits
are
bound or closed
orbits which keep the two objects circling each other forever. Parabolic
and hyperbolic orbits,
unbound or open
orbits, are also possible.
Comets can be on either a bound elliptical orbit (returning to the Sun like clockwork) or on
an unbound parabolic orbit (passing by the Sun only once before returning to the vast
regions of outer space). The same applies to asteroids or other space objects.
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Newton also derived Kepler's Third Law in a more generalized form which turned out to
have a very useful outcome. It goes something like this:
For any two masses, M
1
and M
2
, the formula for the period or orbit of either mass is given
by
P
2
= 4
π
2
a
3
/(G(M
1
+M
2
))
(G is the universal gravitational constant — a known, but empirical, value).
If M1 is the mass of the Sun (M
s
) and M
2
is the mass of a planet, say, then (M
1
+ M
2
)
becomes M
s
, because the mass of the Sun is so much greater than the mass of the planet,
and the formula now becomes
P
2
= (4
π
2
/GM
s
) a
3
The significance of this outcome is that we have developed the primary method of
determining masses throughout the universe. You see, we can't weigh the Sun? So, we
determine its mass by measuring both the orbital rate of a planet (P) and its average
distance from the Sun (a) and then use the equation to determine the Sun's mass, viz.
M
s
= 4
π
2
a
3
/GP
2
The same holds true for any two objects, one massive and the other a satellite (natural or
otherwise). This little derivation is for information only – no need to memorize it, thank
goodness.
We determine the Earth's mass by observing the Moon. We determine Jupiter's mass by
observing any of its moons. We can only determine a star's mass if we can find something
in orbit around it.
Tides
A very nice application of Newton's Law of Gravitation is the study of tides. You will find this
material in the textbook in section 3.5. On Earth, the oceans go through a daily cycle of
tides that are explained by the gravitational influence of the Moon.
The tides on Earth are mostly the result of the Moon’s gravitational pull on Earth. The
Moon’s gravity pulls more strongly on the near side of the Earth than the far side and this
difference is known as a tidal force. The tidal force, or difference between the force on the
near side and the force on the far side, results in a bulge in the water (high tide) on both
the Moon-facing side of Earth and the opposite side of the Earth. Of course, this also results
in a low tide on the sides of the Earth at 90° to the near and far sides (see diagram below).
So, as the Earth spins around on its axis any location on Earth experiences two high tides
and two low tides every day.
As shown in the diagram below, the side of the Earth facing the Moon feels a stronger
(bigger) gravitational attraction than the side facing away from the Moon.
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As the Earth rotates "inside this bulge" it moves you through each of these two bulges once
each day, thereby creating two high tides and, as a consequence, two low tides, as
mentioned above.
The tides do not occur at the same time each day, as this simplistic explanation suggests,
because of the Moon's rotation around the Earth, adding about 50 minutes each day to the
time of the tidal pattern.
(recall that the lunar cycle is about 29.5 days so it takes the Moon about 24/29.5 hours/day
= 0.81 hours/day = 49 minutes/day)
The Sun can also bring about tides on Earth. Although it is much, much farther away than
the Moon, its mass is considerably larger than the Moon's. It is really the
difference
in
gravitational attraction from one side of the Earth to the opposite side that results in tides;
still, the Sun does cause tiding.
The effect of the Sun is particularly noticeable when the Sun, Moon and Earth are all lined
up, as they are at a new and/or full Moon. At this time of the month, the tides are highest
and are called
spring
tides (has nothing to do with the spring season) because the water
"springs" up the shore. During first and third quarter Moons the tides are called
neap
tides
because the Sun, now perpendicular to the line between the Earth and the Moon, tends to
cancel out the effect of the lunar tides resulting in lower tides than at other times.
Two interesting results of the Earth-Moon tides are that, due to
tidal friction
, the rotation
of the Earth is gradually slowing down (the days are getting slightly longer) and the Moon is
moving further from the Earth. These changes are very, very slight and would become
noticeable over millions of years. Of course, in all of this, angular momentum is still
conserved, although we have yet to learn what "angular momentum" is — that will come
shortly. Tidal friction is believed to be the cause of the Moon's synchronous rotation with the
Earth.
Let’s now move on and learn about the scientific method.
The Scientific Method: Deductive and Inductive Reasoning
In science, knowledge progresses when we apply logical reasoning, devoid of emotion and
personal desires, to the observations from the experiments that we execute.
Two types of reasoning are utilized — deductive and inductive.
"Deductive reasoning" refers to the process of concluding that something must be true
because it is a special case of a general principle that is known to be true. For example, if
you know the general principle that the sum of the angles in any triangle is always 180
degrees, and you have a particular triangle in mind, you can then conclude that the sum of
the angles in your triangle is 180 degrees.
Deductive reasoning is logically valid and it is the fundamental method in which
mathematical facts are shown to be true.
"Inductive reasoning" is the process of reasoning that a general principle is true because the
special cases you've seen are true. For example, if all the people you've ever met from a
particular town have been very strange, you might then say "all the residents of this town
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are strange". That is inductive reasoning: constructing a general principle from special
cases. It goes in the opposite direction from deductive reasoning.
Consider the following example:
Trump
: Every time I kick a ball up, it comes back down, so I presume the next time I kick it
up, it will come back down, too.
Trudeau
: That's because of Newton's Laws. Everything that goes up must come down (not
unlike the stock market!). And so, if you kick the ball up, it must come down.
Trump is using
inductive reasoning
, arguing from observation, while Trudeau is
using
deductive reasoning
, arguing from the law of gravity. Trudeau's argument is clearly
from the general (the law of gravity) to the specific (this kick).
Trump's argument may be less obviously from the specific (each individual instance in which
he has observed balls being kicked up and coming back down) to the general (the prediction
that a similar event will result in a similar outcome in the future) because he has stated it in
terms only of the next similar event—the next time he kicks the ball.
The only reason we go through all of this is because the scientific method is based on both
inductive and deductive reasoning and so we must be aware of both types of reasoning.
The Scientific Method
The basic idea of the scientific method, the cornerstone of modern science, is quite simple:
one looks at a set of observations or demonstrated facts, develops a hypothesis that
satisfies or predicts accurately the observations, makes further observations, tests the
hypothesis and makes adjustments as necessary.
The flow chart shown here is a good pictorial representation of the scientific method.
Science and Nonscience
Now that you have a pretty good idea of what science is, it is important to be aware of what
science is
not
.
Pseudoscience
, or false science, is all around us. Lots of people make predictions based on
reading tea leaves, tarot cards, palms, psychic determinations. Such so-called scientific
prognostications have never met the "test of time" using the accepted scientific method.
(We’ll come to "astrology" shortly)
Nonscience
(notice how close this word is to "nonsense") is a term used to describe
predictions based on intuition, societal traditions (old wives’ tales), faith, political conviction,
and tradition. However, such non-science techniques also do not meet the "test of time" and
when made subject to the scientific method, simply fall apart.
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Sometimes, scientists just make mistakes — a good example of this is the "cold fusion"
proposals of some years ago. An interesting book has been published entitled
When Bad
Astronomy happens to Good People
, by Philip Plait (John Wiley & Sons, 2002), and reviewed
in October 2002 issue of Sky and Telescope.
Astronomy is once again in a period of great growth and interest, perhaps its most
remarkable, fastest-developing phase — in the past 10-15 years there have been startling
developments:
Hubble telescope has brought us pictures of heavenly objects with a clarity never
before seen
have viewed planets around other stars
have seen the births of galaxies at the very edge of the observable universe
discovered rings on all Jovian planets
discovered new moons on some Jovian planets
have found Pluto-sized Kuiper Belt objects
have found pulsars, quasars, and black holes (once thought to be a theoretical
artefact), in fact, we now have evidence that black holes are at the centre of most
galaxies
detected gravitational waves
Astrology
Let's take some time to talk somewhat about the practice of "astrology". In ancient
times astronomy and astrology went hand-in-hand and many astronomers practiced
astrology because it was important to their livelihood, even though most didn't
believe a word of it.
Astrology holds that human events and even traits depend on the positions of the
Sun, Moon, planets and star patterns at a person's birth. Important events in a
person's history, or at any time that seems appropriate to the person "reading the
heavens and predicting your future", were revealed by a certain heavenly alignment.
And so on.
Recall the picture of the Sun and the constellations of the zodiac from Chapter 2,
shown here again
Well, to put it bluntly, there is no scientific proof that "astrology is any more able to predict
the past, present or future than you or I making random choices", to paraphrase your
textbook.
Astrology is more "fun" than anything else and anyone who puts any stock in horoscopes
(or horrorscopes !!!) is only fooling themselves.
Your textbook has a few good pages on this topic in Chapter 2.
Asking a question, "Does it make sense?" is always a good approach — is it consistent with
observations and knowledge? For example, the statement that Derek Jeter (baseball player)
had a batting average of 0.666 appears to be an unreasonable assertion — over what period
of time — last season, last month, last week, yesterday?
The Cosmological Principle
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At the heart of modern astronomy is something called the
Cosmological Principle
. This
principle is based on two fundamental tenets.
There is nothing special or unique about Earth — the Earth is not at the centre of the
Universe or even our own solar system (of course, we now know that) — our location
in the Universe is where it is by chance, nothing more, nothing less — nor is our
galaxy anything special or different; there are thousands of galaxies like ours and
unlike ours
The second is that the laws of physics and chemistry that describe what happens on
Earth are valid throughout the Universe — in a sense, this follows from the first
tenet — we are nothing special (astronomically speaking)
Mankind did not always believe this.
Again, not to bore you but to make the point once again, until Copernicus, Galileo and
others, humans thought the Earth was at the centre of everything; that this was a special
place; and that everything else,
everything else
, revolved around Earth.
Further, we reasoned that the heavens were made of a different type of substance than
Earth-bound objects, and that they had their own set of rules (e.g., Aristotle's belief that
the natural state for any object was "at rest", except for the planets and stars for which
their natural state was to move in perfect circles around Earth).
However, science being what it is, and the scientific method being put to good use, "proved"
that both of these strongly and firmly held ideas were wrong. Notice here that we are
"proving" something wrong,
not
proving something right!!!
Isaac Newton, Gravity and Orbits
The Copernican Revolution resolved the problem of the place of Earth within the solar
system, but the problem of planetary motion was only partly solved by Kepler’s laws. For
the last 10 years of his life, Galileo studied the nature of motion, especially the accelerated
motion of falling bodies. Although he made some important progress, he was not able to
relate his discoveries about motion to those of the heavens. That final step was taken by
Isaac Newton.
As mentioned before Galileo died in January 1642. Some 11 months later, on Christmas day
1642, Isaac Newton was born in the English village of Woolsthorpe. Newton was a quiet
child from a farming family, but his work at school was so impressive that his uncle financed
his education at Trinity College, where he studied mathematics and physics. In 1665, plague
swept through England, and the colleges were closed. During 1665 and 1666, Newton spent
his time back home in Woolsthorpe, thinking and studying. It was during these years that
he made most of his scientific discoveries. Among other things, he studied optics, developed
three laws of motion, probed the nature of gravity, and invented calculus. The publication of
his work in his book
Principia
in 1687 placed the fields of physics and astronomy on a new
firm base.
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It is beyond the scope of these notes to analyze all of Newton’s work, but his laws of motion
and gravity had an important impact on the future of astronomy. In order to understand his
work, we must begin with a general framework for describing the motion of any object.
Position and time specify where and when an object is.
Speed
is the rate at which an object
moves (changes position). It is the total distance moved divided by the total time taken to
move that distance. For example if it took you 2 hours to travel 100 km then your speed
was 50 km/hour. Although we are used to thinking of speeds in km/hour, in science, the
Standard International (SI) units are metres/second.
Velocity
specifies both speed and
direction of travel of an object. For example if car A moves 60 km east in 2 hours and car B
moves 60 km south in 2 hours, they have the same speed of 30km/hour, but their velocities
are different because they are traveling in different directions. Thus,
velocity
can change if:
(i) The speed changes (ii) The direction changes (iii) Both speed and direction change.
Acceleration
is the rate of change of velocity with time. It is thus the change in velocity
divided by the time taken for the change to occur. Since velocity changes if speed changes,
speeding up is an example of acceleration and slowing down is negative acceleration (in a
direction opposing the direction of travel), or deceleration. On the other hand, velocity also
changes if there is a change of direction; so turning is also an example of acceleration.
Thus, an object can be traveling in a circle, let’s say, at constant speed but its direction is
constantly changing and this translates into a change in velocity.
Newton realized that the motion of all objects is a result of the forces (pulls or pushes)
acting on them. He was able to find three universal laws of motion that made it possible to
predict exactly how a body would move if all the forces acting on it were known.
Newton’s
first law of motion
states that an object remains at rest or at constant velocity
unless a net force acts to change its speed or direction. Thus when your car is at rest or
traveling at a constant speed and direction, then the forces exerted by the wheels to drive
you forward is balanced by the wind resistance and other forces in such a way that the net
(total) force is zero. If you wanted to speed up, or slow down or change direction, then the
engine would have to cause an additional force. The effect of this additional force is
described by Newton’s
second law
. If the mass (amount of matter) of the object does not
change, then the acceleration is proportional to the force exerted. Hence if you want to
double your acceleration the applied force must be doubled.
An example of acceleration that we are all familiar with is the acceleration due to gravity. All
falling objects on Earth have a constant acceleration downwards towards the centre of the
Earth. This acceleration was first pointed out by Galileo. The acceleration of gravity,
g,
is
9.8 metres per second per second, more commonly written as 9.8 m/s
2
. This means that if
you drop any object, say an apple, from rest, its speed will increase by roughly 10 m/s with
each second of falling, if one ignores air resistance. Thus after the first second its speed will
be roughly 10 m/s, after two seconds its speed will be 20 m/s and so on until it crashes into
the ground. Conversely, if you throw the apple into the air, there is still a constant
acceleration of 9.8 m/s
2
downwards. Hence the speed of the apple will
decrease
by roughly
10 m/s every second until it comes to a standstill, at which point it will start falling back
towards the ground with its speed increasing by 10 m/s every second. If you were to find
yourself on the surface of Jupiter where the acceleration due to Jupiter’s gravity is 25.4
m/sec
2
then, of course, you (or any other object) would find your speed increasing by about
25 m/sec with each second of falling and in practically no time your speed would be quite
high. In actual fact this wouldn’t happen on Jupiter because, as you will learn in Module
Four, the surface of Jupiter consists of thick gases so the force due to air resistance would
be considerable and you would soon reach some terminal velocity (speed) where the force
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of gravity would be exactly balanced by the air resistance force. This is really more than you
need to know but I’ve mentioned it because it’s interesting and it’s important to know that
what you experience here on Earth will be quite different on any other body in the solar
system.
This brings us to Newton’s
third law of motion
stating that for every action (force) there is
an equal and opposite reaction (force), although the action and reaction forces act on
different bodies. This seems like such a simple law but one that most students have the
most difficulty with, mainly because they forget about the second part of the law about
“acting on different bodies”. In terms of the Earth-Moon system this means that the Earth’s
gravity pulls on the Moon and that’s what keeps the Moon in orbit around the
Earth. However, at the same time the Moon is pulling on the Earth and these two forces
have exactly the same values although, as you can easily comprehend, they do act on
different bodies, one on the Moon and the other one on the Earth. This law has great value
to, let’s say, a spacecraft heading from Earth to Mars. As it moves along through space at
constant speed (because the rockets are turned off) it moves in a straight line and at
constant speed. Let’s suppose we turn on the rockets; this amounts to throwing hot gases
away from the spacecraft in the opposite direction of motion. The action is that the
spacecraft accelerates increasing its speed toward Mars. The reaction is that we’ve expelled
some hot gases away from the spacecraft back toward Earth – action/reaction.
So, Newton’s Laws of Motion are used all the time in astronomy whether it’s determining
orbital mechanics (a fancy way of talking about measuring and determining the speeds of
objects in motion around other objects) or working out how to get a spacecraft from Earth
to Mars (or any other planet or moon) in the shortest possible time.
Here’s a brief (4:24 min) YouTube video summarizing the ideas I’ve presented about
Newton’s Laws of Motion. I hope it helps you to better understand them.
The Universal Theory of Gravitation
When Newton thought carefully about motion, he realized that some force must pull the
Moon toward Earth’s centre. If there were no such force altering the Moon’s motion, then
according to Newton’s first law, it would continue moving in a straight line and leave Earth
forever. It can circle Earth only if Earth attracts it. Newton’s insight was to recognize that
the force that holds the Moon in its orbit is the same force of gravity that makes apples and
all other objects fall to the ground on Earth.
Newtonian gravitation is sometimes called universal mutual gravitation. Newton’s third law
points out that forces occur in pairs. If one body attracts another, the second body must
also attract the first. Thus, gravitation is mutual. Furthermore, gravity is universal. That is,
all objects with mass attract all other masses in the universe. The
mass
of an object is a
measure of the amount of matter or ‘stuff’ in the object, usually expressed in kilograms.
You may be used to thinking of ‘massive’ objects as very large objects. However, in science
massive objects are those that contain a lot of matter. They may or may not be large. For
example, a one-inch ball of lead is more massive than a large balloon full of air. In everyday
life, the terms mass and weight are used interchangeably. Thus when you report your
weight at the doctor’s office as 60kg you are actually reporting your mass. In science, mass
is not the same as
weight
. Mass is an intrinsic property of an object and is the same no
matter what forces are acting on an object. An object’s weight is the force that gravity
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exerts on the object. Thus an object in space very far from Earth might have no weight, but
it would contain the same amount of matter and would thus have the same mass that it has
on Earth.
Often, objects (even humans on board the International Space Station) are referred to as
being in a “weightless” environment. You see objects floating inside the space station and it
is assumed that they are now “weightless”. Quite frankly, this is all wrong. The ISS (and
crew) orbit the Earth at about 420 km above Earth’s surface. At that height there certainly
is a substantial gravitational field due to Earth’s presence so no thing associated with the
ISS is weightless. Remember that weight is the force acting on an object due to the
presence of Earth. It is because of this force and the tangential velocity of the ISS that it is
able to be in orbit around the Earth. So, the point is that the ISS (and its crew) is constantly
falling toward Earth (just like the Moon) – it just keeps missing! As long as it maintains its
tangential velocity it will keep “missing” and remain in the same orbit around Earth. So, the
astronauts, and everything associated with the ISS, are NOT weightless.
To summarize, Newton’s universal law of gravitation states that the force of gravity
attracting two objects to each other equals a constant times the product of their masses
divided by the square of the distance between the objects. Gravity is universal: Your mass
affects the planet Neptune and the galaxy M31, and every other object in the universe, and
their masses affect you—although not much, because they are so far away and your mass is
relatively very small.
Orbital Motion
Newton’s laws of motion and gravitation make it possible for you to understand why and
how the moon orbits Earth, the planets orbit the Sun, and to discover why Kepler’s laws
work. To understand how an object can orbit another object, you need to see orbital motion
as Newton did. Begin by studying ‘Orbiting Earth’ on pages 66-67 (First Canadian Edition)
and notice three important ideas:
1.
An object orbiting Earth, and any orbiting object, is actually falling (being accelerated
due to the gravitational force) toward Earth’s center. An object in a stable orbit
continuously misses Earth because of its horizontal velocity.
2.
Objects orbiting each other actually revolve around their mutual center of mass.
3.
Notice the difference between closed orbits and open orbits. If you want to leave
Earth never to return, you must give your spaceship a high enough velocity so it will
follow an open orbit.
When the captain of a spaceship says to the pilot, “Put us into a circular orbit,” the ship’s
computers must quickly calculate the velocity needed to achieve a circular orbit. That
circular velocity depends only on the mass of the planet and the distance from the center of
the planet. Once the engines fire and the ship reaches circular velocity, the engines can
shut down. The ship is in orbit and will fall around the planet forever, as long as it is above
the atmosphere’s friction. No further effort is needed to maintain orbit, thanks to the laws
Newton discovered.
Newton’s laws of motion and his universal theory of gravitation enabled him to explain
Kepler’s laws of planetary motion. Kepler’s first law that the planets move in elliptical orbits
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is a direct result of the inverse square law of gravitation. Newton proved that any object
moving in a closed orbit according to the inverse square law must follow an elliptical path.
Furthermore, just like the spaceship in stable orbit around the Earth, the planets, the Moon
and all objects in the universe will remain on their respective paths forever unless an
external force (such as for example a collision with another object) acts on them.
Newton’s inverse square law of gravitation also explains Kepler’s second law that reminds us
that planets move faster when they are closer to the Sun. As the planets continuously fall
towards the Sun in their orbits, they go faster when they approach the Sun, thanks to the
inverse relationship between force and distance. A measure of a planet’s rotational motion is
its angular momentum, which is proportional to its velocity and its distance from the Sun.
As a result of Newton’s laws, in the absence of additional rotational forces the total angular
momentum of a planet is conserved. Thus, when its distance from the Sun increases, its
velocity must decrease to balance out the increased distance and vice versa. You can
observe the conservation of angular momentum for yourself by watching an ice skater
spinning on the ice. She can increase or decrease her velocity of rotation by pulling her
arms in or spreading them out and thus increasing or decreasing her ‘distance’ from her
Creative commons licence attribution: PhET Interactive Simulations, University of
Colorado http://phet.colorado.edu
. (To get this to work you will have to download the
simulation by double-clicking on the picture.
You may have to change your security settings
(temporarily) to allow your computer to download the simulation and you may also have to
upgrade your Java version.
I know this should be simpler but right now that's how it is.)
Newton was also able to combine his laws of motion with the law of gravitation to derive a
relationship between a planet’s orbital period and average distance from the Sun, which was
identical to Kepler’s third law, as detailed above. You now understand the power of
Newton’s work. He was able to explain all the patterns of planetary motion observed by
Kepler by using very simple and universal rules. But this was not all. Gravity is also the key
to understanding another critical phenomenon on Earth: ocean tides.
Newton's Universe
Newton’s insights gave the world a new conception of nature. His laws of motion
were
general
laws that described the motions of
all
bodies under the action of external
forces. Just imagine! A few simple laws that can explain how your car accelerates, how the
Canadian ice hockey team manoeuvres on ice, and even how the planets move! And
furthermore, Newton’s laws and the theory of gravitation allow us to break the bonds of
Earth and the Solar System and understand the motion of all objects in the universe. As you
will see in later chapters, we can detect planets around other stars by observing the motion
of the star as it gravitationally interacts with any planets orbiting it. We can calculate the
mass of these new planets using the law of gravitation. Indeed this has been used to
calculate the mass of Earth and all the other planets, and the Sun. We can even detect
black holes at the centre of galaxies by observing the motion of objects around it.
The story of the development of astronomy that you have just read is also the story of the
development of the scientific method. Ancient astronomers began the process by carefully
gathering and recording data. Gradually models were developed that best fit the data and
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over time they were tested against observations and discarded if necessary. Good scientific
theories are those that can make a broad range of predictions that can be confirmed against
observations, and that can provide new insight into nature. Here we can hearken back to
our study of Johannes Kepler and the development of his three laws of orbital motion. Recall
that he took Brahe’s data and used it to realize that planets orbited the Sun in ellipses and
not in circles. Science and astronomy progress today through the careful application of this
method of studying nature. As the Nobel Prize winning physicist William Lawrence Bragg
said, “The important thing in science is not so much to obtain new facts as to discover new
ways of thinking about them.” Sometimes this requires a huge leap of imagination and a
questioning of our most strongly held beliefs. Indeed the shift from the geocentric to the
heliocentric viewpoint was a harsh lesson in humility for humanity. Earth became merely
another planet orbiting the Sun. But this first revolution of thought started us on a fantastic
journey of scientific discovery. The efforts of Newton and his predecessors, all the way back
to our ancient ancestors, opened the door to our modern way of scientific thinking and our
understanding of the universe.
The Physics of Heat
The physics of heat, otherwise known as Thermodynamics, is a well-developed field of study
within physics. It is also an important aspect of the study of astronomy. Therefore, we
present in this section some of the more salient features of the concept of temperature, and
those aspects of thermodynamics that will be relevant to our investigations.
So, hang onto your hats; there'll be a hot time in the old town tonight, and won't that be
cool!!
We measure how hot (or cold) an object is by "taking its temperature". When we do this we
use a temperature scale.
In Canada, we now use the metric system of measurement resulting in temperature being
measured in Centigrade or Celsius degrees. Not that long ago (and still in the United States)
temperature was measured in Fahrenheit degrees. Evidently, there are two systems in use
today in North America that measure temperature. Well, actually there are three systems as
scientists often use a scale in degrees Kelvin.
In the Fahrenheit system water freezes at 32° and boils at 212° and room temperature is
around 68°; there doesn't seem to be any rhyme or reason to this system, although it has
been in use for many years.
In the Celsius system water freezes at 0° and boils at 100°. This seems a little more
sensible. Room temperature is around 20°.
The Kelvin temperature scale is the same as the Celsius scale except that the freezing point
of water is shifted to 273.15 K (the ° sign is not used when writing temperatures in Kelvin)
to result in the lowest possible temperature being 0 K. This temperature, 0 K, is often
called
absolute zero
and is the temperature achieved when all atoms making up a sample
are in their ground state. Absolute zero can never be achieved in the laboratory (what
would you hold it in?) although scientists have got awfully close to it.
So, when we discuss the planets in greater detail we will refer to their surface temperatures
in Kelvin.
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Thermal Energy
If we examine an object at an atomic level (say a bottle of helium) we see that the
individual helium atoms are moving around inside the bottle in all directions in a seemingly
random way. Some are moving slowly while others are moving faster; some may even be
momentarily at rest. The average kinetic energy (energy of motion) of the atoms is what we
call
temperature
, so when we "take its temperature" we are really measuring the average
kinetic energy of the atoms that make up the mass. This total kinetic energy of all particles
in a system is often referred to as
thermal energy
.
Typical speeds of atoms and molecules in the air around you actually move at quite high
speeds — around 0.5 km/sec! What about a solid object? In such an object (a table, the
floor, an apple) the individual atoms do not move around as freely as they do in a gas. The
interatomic forces are strong enough to hold the atoms together in an array that is typical
of that particular solid. However, the atoms vibrate back and forth in various directions in
situ (at their location in the solid) and the speed and amplitude of vibration is an indication
of the object's temperature.
Heat Transfer
Heat is transferred from one body to another body by three unique mechanisms:
conduction
convection
radiation
Conduction
Conduction occurs when the atoms in one part of the substance vibrate or oscillate faster,
or in the case of a gas move around faster, (meaning a higher temperature) than at another
part of the substance (meaning a lower temperature) — this vibrational /translational
energy gets transferred along the chain of neighbours from the hot area to the cool area.
Thus, heat energy (really energy of motion) is transferred from one part of the object to
another in an attempt to make all parts of the object equal energy-wise, a spreading out or
sharing of the thermal energy through diffusion. Some substances are better at this than
others — metals are generally good conductors of heat (and also good electrical conductors)
or good thermal conductors while non-metals (also called insulators) are generally poor
thermal conductors, mainly because of the atomic structure of the materials.
Convection
While the best conductors of heat are generally solids (liquids less so, and gases very
poorly), liquids and gases distribute heat by another process called convection.
Here heat transfer is by the actual transfer of mass (unlike conduction where one
atom/molecule jostles the one next to it and so on).
A good example of this is what you experience at the beach. During the day the ground
(beach) heats up more than the water and the air above the land also gets hotter. It's no
secret that hot air rises (it's less dense and hence lighter) and to fill in the space cooler air
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moves in from the air over the water. Cooler air then drops in over the water and a
convection cycle is established. At night the opposite occurs with the convection cycle
creating a wind away from the land.
Convection also occurs during the heating of a pot of water on the stove — you might have
noticed this while watching (waiting for?) a pot of water or soup to boil.
Here, the bottom of the pot gets hot (conduction at work as the bottom of the pot is in
contact with the hot stove element) warming the water in contact with the bottom of the
pot. Warm water is less dense than cold water so the warm water rises being replaced by
cooler water from above and a convection cell is established.
Convection is one of the ways that terrestrial planets and moons cool down (like Earth,
Mars, and Titan). Heat from the hot core of the planet heats up the portion of the mantle
that it is in touch with core; this rocky material moves (slowly) to the outer part of the
planet (similar to our warming pot of water) being replaced by cooler material from the
upper portion of the mantle and a convection cell is established; see next below.
Radiation
The last form of heat transfer is very different from conduction and convection in that it
actually makes use of a different form of energy to remove (or transport) heat from an
object (or from one place to another).
Inside a solid object light is emitted by atoms all the time. These photons are quickly
absorbed by neighbouring atoms or molecules which themselves emit photons and the
process continues within the object.
So, within any object photons of various frequencies (hence energies) are bouncing around
randomly. The average photon energy depends on the object's temperature. Eventually
some of these photons make their way to the object's surface and are radiated away from
the object, taking with it energy, thus cooling the object.
The heat transferred through light (electromagnetic) waves is commonly called radiant
energy or thermal radiation. The really interesting thing about this is that all objects do this
— stars, cars, bars, Mars, even you! When an object cools by emitting light the radiation is
not at one specific frequency (colour) but rather a spectrum (range) of frequencies (see
below) depending on the temperature of the object.
Two simple rules describe how a thermal radiation spectrum depends on the temperature of
the emitting object:
Rule 1 — Hotter objects emit more total radiation per unit surface area (actually the
radiated energy is proportional to the fourth power of the temperature (in K) — you
don't need to know this — it's just interesting "stuff" — thus, a 600 K object radiates
16 times as much energy as a 300 K (room temperature) object)
Rule 2 — Hotter objects emit photons with a higher average energy (a fireplace
poker which is relatively cool emits infrared radiation (not visible to us) but as it
heats up it gets red (emitting higher energy photons) and at still hotter temperatures
it might get white hot (emitting yellow and blue photons along with the red)
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The graph shown below shows the intensity of light emitted (or energy per unit time) as a
function of wavelength for several objects of different temperatures. You can see the
validity of Rule 1 because the 15,000 K star clearly emits more total radiation than your 310
K human.
Furthermore, the hot star emits the most photons at a shorter wavelength (higher energy)
than our human who emits radiation primarily in the infrared (which is why tracking
binoculars used by police at night allow observers to "see" humans).
A relatively cool star (3000 K) emits mostly red light (such as Orion's Betelgeuse). Our Sun
(5800 K) emits about the same amount of light of all visible colours so it looks yellow. A
very hot star (Orion's Rigel) emits more blue light than any other visible colour so it appears
bluish.
This graph shows the amount of energy radiated by a body across the spectrum for a few
objects at different temperatures.
Types of Electromagnetic Radiation and their Sources
Type of
Radiation
Wavelength Range
(nm)
Object
Temperature
Typical Sources
Gamma Rays
Less than 0.01
More than 108 K
Nuclear reactions
X-rays
0.01 - 20
106 – 108 K
Supernova remnants and
solar corona
Ultraviolet
20 - 400
104 – 106 K
Very hot stars
Visible
400 - 700
103 – 104 K
Stars
Infrared
1000 - 1,000,000
10 – 103 K
Cool clouds of dust,
planets, satellites
Radio
More than 1,000,000
Less than 10 K
No astronomical objects
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are this cold
Light - The Cosmic Messenger
Light is obviously a very important part of astronomy. Let's face it; light is an important part
of living!
Ancient astronomers started to put together models of the universe by observing light from
the Sun, light from the Moon, light from the planets, and light from the stars.
Today we analyze light from stars to learn about the star's temperature, chemical
composition, and motion. Light received from distant galaxies tells us about the expansion
of the universe and possibly about the future of the universe. Light (radio signals) from
spacecraft carries important information about properties of planets and their
moons. Clearly, and this is a very important point, everything
we know about our solar
system (with the exception of what we have learned from manned or robotic lander
missions), everything
we know about our own galaxy and everything
we know about the
universe, we know because of the light we have observed and analyzed originating from
beyond our planet Earth. Light is not just our primary tool; it’s pretty much our only tool.
Thus, it is imperative that we understand what light is, what its properties are, and how we
use it to explore the universe around us.
What is Light?
From a scientific perspective light is a transverse, electromagnetic wave propagating
through space. Now that we've got that out of the way, let's find an easier way to describe
light.
Actually, light is quite analogous to water waves. By observing water waves you learn that
they move away across the surface of the water from the source of the wave (a bobbing
boat, the spot where a thrown stone enters the water, the location where a raindrop meets
the puddle). Closer examination reveals that although the wave moves across the surface of
the water, the water itself doesn't actually move in the direction of the wave. Observe a leaf
floating on the water; as the wave "goes by" the leaf actually moves up and down
perpendicular to the direction of the wave. This indicates that the water just under the leaf
must also simply move up and down.
Light has the same characteristics. As the light moves along through space, the coupled
electric and magnetic fields vary in a wave-like fashion in directions perpendicular to the
light ray's direction. It is not essential that you understand this aspect of light.
Normally we think about light as only the visible (to the human eye) part of the entire light
spectrum. In actual fact, the visible portion of the light spectrum is a very small part of the
entire range of light. From the picture below you can see that X-rays, gamma rays,
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ultraviolet, infrared, and radio and television waves are also light. The only thing that differs
in all of these is the frequency of the wave.
What is Light?
From a scientific perspective light is a transverse, electromagnetic wave propagating
through space. Now that we've got that out of the way, let's find an easier way to describe
light.
Actually, light is quite analogous to water waves. By observing water waves you learn that
they move away across the surface of the water from the source of the wave (a bobbing
boat, the spot where a thrown stone enters the water, the location where a raindrop meets
the puddle). Closer examination reveals that although the wave moves across the surface of
the water, the water itself doesn't actually move in the direction of the wave. Observe a leaf
floating on the water; as the wave "goes by" the leaf actually moves up and down
perpendicular to the direction of the wave. This indicates that the water just under the leaf
must also simply move up and down.
Light has the same characteristics. As the light moves along through space, the coupled
electric and magnetic fields vary in a wave-like fashion in directions perpendicular to the
light ray's direction. It is not essential that you understand this aspect of light.
Normally we think about light as only the visible (to the human eye) part of the entire light
spectrum. In actual fact, the visible portion of the light spectrum is a very small part of the
entire range of light. From the picture below you can see that X-rays, gamma rays,
ultraviolet, infrared, and radio and television waves are also light. The only thing that differs
in all of these is the frequency of the wave.
Light and Matter
Light on its own is fairly interesting but is much more impressive when it interacts with
matter. Every time light interacts with some object, one or more of the following
happens — absorption, transmission, or reflection.
If you paint your bedroom walls green, dyes in the paint absorb all visible light frequencies
except green, which get reflected, giving your walls a green colour. An orange basketball
absorbs all "colours" except those that combine to give the ball an "orange" colour.
The source of all light is atomic or molecular. Light comes from an atom when it undergoes
a transition from one energy level to a lower one. The frequency of the light is directly
dependent on the difference between the energy levels. The higher the energy difference
the closer the light is to the blue end (and beyond) of the spectrum.
Because there are many different energy levels possible in an individual atom there are a
number of different light frequencies that can be generated by a single atom. Each element
(H, He, Na, Au, etc.) has a spectrum (a series of lines) that is unique — a fingerprint
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characteristic of that particular element. Such a spectrum is called an emission spectrum, as
shown in the picture here that is a spectrum for hydrogen. Much of this is outlined on a two-
page spread in your textbook in Section 5.5 – please look at these pages carefully.
Doppler Shift
An interesting and useful phenomenon concerning light (and sound) waves called the
Doppler Effect was first correctly explained by Christian Doppler in 1842. Note that this
phenomenon is known as the Doppler Effect and not
the Doppler Affect (a common error).
If a sound source is moving toward an observer the waves in front of the sound source get
bunched up (closer together) so that the observer hears more waves per second than if the
sound source was not moving. Similarly, if the sound source is moving away from the
observer the waves behind the sound source get pulled apart so that the observer hears
fewer waves per second than if the sound source was not moving.
This situation is shown below where the sound source is a fire truck. Perhaps you have
experienced this situation waiting at a sidewalk and hearing the pitch of an emergency
vehicle siren or bell drop as it passes.
Telescopes - Types, Properties and Uses
Before we get to the point of learning about the different types of telescopes and how they
work we will study a little about common optical devices. In actual fact both the eye and the
camera, optical devices we will study first, are adjuncts to the telescope. Obviously we use
our eyes to "see" the images produced by telescopes and we use cameras to record those
images. Thus, learning about the optics of the eye and the camera first seems a logical
approach.
By now you will have realized that we have learned, or will learn, a great deal about optics,
an important branch of physics. See how sneaky we physicists are; we teach physics
through astronomy!!
Common Properties of Optical Devices
All optical devices use light from some part of the electromagnetic spectrum (often the
visible part).
All optical devices normally gather parallel light rays and make use of a focussing device of
some sort.
All have some kind of a light detection device which transforms the light information into a
more usable form (electric, chemical, etc.).
As well all optical devices have some way of controlling the intensity of the light.
Human Eye
Our study of optical devices starts with the most common (but complex) light-sensitive
instrument — the human eye.
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The eye has a pupil (iris), a lens (for focusing) and a retina (for detecting the light).
Ideally light focuses on the retina which is really a focal plane (somewhat of a misnomer
because it is actually a curved surface).
One important feature of this optical system is the fact that the image is inverted, as shown
above. Thus, you constantly see things upside down but learn early in life to flip the image
top to bottom.
All optical instruments operate this way so when you first use a telescope you must learn to
adjust your thinking to seeing star fields upside down and backwards unless you employ an
inverting device.
Remarkably your pupil dilates in low light environments to allow more light in, allowing you
to see better in the dark.
Angular Resolution
Angular Resolution is a measure of the ability to separate two closely-spaced lights. The
human eye has an angular resolution of about 1 arc minute (1/60th of a degree).
So, if you see a star in the night sky, are you really seeing one star or two (most stars are
at least binary star systems)?
With the naked eye you will see two distinct stars if they are separated by 1 arc minute or
more.
Angular resolution is an important aspect of all optical devices.
Cameras
Cameras have optics similar to the eye with a lens (often interchangeable to change the
focal length), an aperture (to change the amount of light which enters the camera), and a
film (to record the image). Another part, called the shutter (similar to our eyelid), allows
light to be exposed to the film for a controlled amount of time.
Charge-coupled Devices (CCDs)
The quantum efficiency (% of photons striking the surface detected) of the three main
optical recording devices are as follows:
human eye — 1%
photo film — 10%
CCDs — 90%.
Today, digital devices and camcorders employ an image recording device known as
a
charge-coupled device
or CCD. A CCD is a silicon chip made of grid of picture elements
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(pixels) which are very sensitive to light and convert photon energy into an electronic
charge which accumulates. The overall image is stored in a computer for later processing.
Telescopes
Telescopes have come a long way from the modest tool that Galileo first used to examine
the heavens. Today there are large, land-based, visible-light telescopes (the largest will be
a 10.4 metre diameter located in the Canary Islands); X-ray observatories; ultraviolet
spectroscopic units; Very Large Array radio wave telescopes; and the Hubble Space
Telescope — an Earth-orbiting, visible-light telescope that has brought us amazing pictures
of our own solar system and deep-space objects.
There are two basic types of visible-light telescopes; refractive and reflective.
Refractive Telescopes
The basic design of refractive telescope is much like human eye in that it takes light in
through a lens, the image of which is viewed with an eyepiece (a common part of all
telescopes).
The largest refractive telescope is 1 metre in diameter with a telescopic tube 19.5 metres
long. There are several problems with refractors — their large size and weight and the
difficulty in maintaining a consistent glass composition and surfacing during the
manufacturing process. Also, something called
chromatic aberration
(different light colours
focus at different spots) result in fuzzy images. The telescope model on the left (below) is
an example of a refracting telescope.
Reflecting Telescope
Reflecting telescopes are much more common, having none of the difficulties discussed for
refractors. Reflectors use one optical surface to collect light — a spherical mirror surface —
which focuses the light at a point in front of the mirror. The telescope on the right (above)
is an example of a reflecting telescope.
Various arrangements are used to view the image. A Cassegrain focus, a Newtonian focus
and a Schmidt-Cassegrain focus are shown below.
Properties of Telescopes
The two most fundamental properties of any telescope are its light-gathering power and its
resolving power. Note that magnification is NOT listed as an important factor.
Light-gathering power
— Telescopes are described by the diameter of the primary mirror
(or lens) — a 6" reflector has a diameter of 6" and a light-collecting area of about 28 in
2
.
The largest optical telescope today actually the Gran Telescopio Canarias in La Palma,
Canary Islands at 10.4 m followed closely by the Keck I (or Keck II) on Mauna Kea in Hawaii
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(10.0 m). These telescopes consist of 36 hexagonal mirrors pieced together to form a very
large light-collecting device.
Resolving power or Angular Resolution
— Angular resolution is the ability to resolve
two closely spaced light sources. The angular resolution is generally greater the larger the
telescope.
Perfect angular resolution is limited by the very wave nature of light which causes
interference patterns resulting in blurred images. The angular resolution limit owing to this
phenomenon is called its
diffraction limit
, and is not likely a term that you will ever use
unless you are buying a high-end telescope (if you do I hope you will let me come and have
a peek through it!!).
Telescope Uses
Naturally, telescopes are used in obtaining pictures of bodies in the sky (planets, Sun,
moons, individual stars, binary stars, star clusters, galaxies, planetary systems, etc.).
They are also used in carrying out spectroscopy — the science of analyzing light to learn of
its constituent parts thereby determining the composition of the body being examined.
As well, telescopes are involved in longitudinal studies — measuring how light from objects
varies with time.
None of these uses are limited to any particular part of the spectrum as telescopes have
been built for light of all kinds — visible, infrared, ultraviolet, X-ray, microwave, γ-rays,
radio (long, medium, short), discussed later.
Visible light ground-based telescopes (the ones most of us use) must contend with light
pollution and weather conditions. Anyone who has tried to view the sky, even with the
naked eye, knows well these difficulties. The picture below demonstrates well the growing
problem of Earth-based light pollution.
To circumvent this difficulty some telescopes have been placed in orbit about the Earth,
above the atmosphere. The most famous of these is the Hubble Space Telescope (HST),
commonly known just as the Hubble. The Hubble operates mostly in the visible part of the
spectrum. Others operate at different frequencies. The Spitzer Space Telescope operates in
the infrared. The James Webb Space Telescope (not yet in orbit) is proposed to replace the
Hubble and will operate in the near-infrared. The Chandra X-ray Observatory obviously
operates in the X-ray region of the spectrum. Observing objects at across the entire
spectrum provides us with much more information than viewing at only visible wavelengths.
Some of the most spectacular telescopes are actually arrays of radio telescopes which make
use of radio interferometry, possible because light (of all frequencies) is a wave
phenomenon. The Very Large Array (VLA), shown here, consists of 27 telescopes that can
be moved along train tracks which form a Y shape — the result is a system equivalent to a
single huge (130 metre) telescope.
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Most of everything we know from outside Earth we know because of
our use of what?
-Light
Light is a wave phenomenon with which of the following
characteristics?
-
Wavelength, Frequency, Energy, Speed
What is the range of the wavelength of visible light?
-
400- 700 nanometers
From highest frequency to lowest frequency what is the correct
sequence?
-
Gamma, Xray, Ultraviolet, Visable, infrared, radio waves
The Doppler EAect is a way to determine what?
-
Velocity of an object moving away from us
The two basic types of telescopes are what?
-
Reflective and refractive
The larger the size of the telescope the greater the what?
-
Light gathering ability
The main problem that ground-based telescopes have to contend
with is
- The earths atmosphere, marrying atmospheric condi;ons, light pollu;on
Which of the following statements about the Hubble Space Telescope
is false?
- it was designed by a famous astronomer named Edwin Hubble
What is the main advantage of the Hubble Space Telescope?
-
It orbits above the earths atmosphere
The Teutonic name Thor is related to the heavenly body and English
name:
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- Thursday, Jupiter
Stonehenge was built by whom?
-
No body knows for sure
The date for Easter is determined by
-
Full moon following spring equinox
Early Greek philosophers who inHuenced the development of
scientiIc thought included
-
Aristotle, Socrates, Plato, Ptolemy
Nicolaus Copernicus was important because
-
although he didn’t come up with the concept of the heliocentric
model he was convinced that it was the correct model and
wrote about it in a published book
Galileo was a very important Igure in the development of astronomy.
Which of the following statements about Galileo’s accomplishments is
false?
-
Galileo looked at the moon through his telescope and observed rivers,
mountains and lakes filled with liquid
Galileo was a very important Igure in the development of astronomy.
Which of the following statements about Galileo’s accomplishments is
false?
-
The force of gravity is inversely proportional to the
square of the distance between a planet and the sun
-
The scientiIc method involves observing some phenomenon,
hypothesizing a theory, observing some more, reIning the
hypothesis, and so on
-
True
If you run down the street covering 2 km in 30 minutes your speed is
-
1.1 m/sec
Accelera;on is
-
The rate of change of speed (or velocity) with time
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the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the Earth is
- 9.8 m/sec squared
Newton’s Universal Law of Gravitation tells us that the force between
two objects
-
Varies inversely as the square distance between the two objects
Which of the following statements about energy is
false?
-
Energy comes in little blobs that we have seen and can describe
Which of the following statements about momentum is true?
-
Momentum is the product of mass and velocity
An object is able to stay in orbit around another object because
-
It has just the right tangential speed
Two diDerent tempuratures scales are
-
Kelvin and Fahrenheit
Heat is transferred from one body to another by
-
Conduction, radiation, convection
A hot star emits primarily what colour of visible light?
-
Blue
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AS101 Final Exam Test Bank
Module 1:
Question 1:
Which of the following is largest?
A.
Size of a typical galaxy
B.
1 Astronomical unit
C.
Distance to the nearest star (other than our sun)
D.
1 light year
E.
size of Pluto’s orbit
Question 2:
On the Cosmic Calendar about when did the solar system begin to form?
Answer:
Sometime around Labour Day
–
September 1
Question 3
: Which of the following statements does not use the term light year in an
appropriate way?
Answer:
It will take me light-years to complete this homework assignment.
Question 4:
On the Cosmic Calendar (where the age of the universe in condensed into the
equivalent to one calendar year) most of recorded history takes up what portion of the “year”?
Answer:
the last few seconds of the year
Question 5:
Which of the following is furthest from the Sun?
A.
a comet in the Kuiper belt
B.
an asteroid in the asteroid belt
C.
a comet in the Oort cloud
D.
Pluto
E.
Neptune
Question 6:
What is an Astronomical Unit (AU)?
a.
1.5 x 10
8
kilometres (km).
b.
1.5 x 10
11
metres
c.
150 million kilometres
d.
The average distance between the Sun and the Earth.
e.
All of the above
Question 7:
Which of the following best describes the Milky Way Galaxy?
Answer:
A spiral galaxy with a disk about 80,000 light-years in diameter and containing
between 100 billion and 1 trillion stars
Question 8:
Which of the following statements about the sizes of stars is most true?
Answer:
Rigel, the bluish star representing the left foot of Orion, is considerably larger than the
Sun
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Question 9:
The nearest star to the Sun (and us) is Proxima Centauri, a red dwarf in the Alpha
Centauri system. How far away from the Sun is Proxima Centauri?
Answer:
4.2 light years
Question 10:
Which of the following is closest to the Sun?
a.
Mercury
b.
Earth
c.
Saturn
d.
Pluto
e.
A comet in the Oort Cloud
Question 11:
What is light year?
Answer:
The distance light travels in one year
Question 12
: On the Cosmic Calendar when did the big bang occur?
Answer:
January 1
Question 13:
The order of the planets beyond Earth, away from the Sun, is
Answer:
Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune, Pluto
Question 14:
Which of the following statements about sidereal and solar days is not true?
Answer:
The time it takes for the Moon to make one circuit of our sky is one solar day.
Question 15:
Which of the following correctly describes the meridian in your sky?
Answer:
a half-circle extending from your horizon due north, through your zenith, to your
horizon due south
Question 16:
Which of the following statements about the ecliptic plane is not true?
Answer:
It is the plane of the Moon's orbit around the Earth.
Question 17:
What makes the North Star, Polaris, special?
Answer:
It appears very near the north celestial pole.
Question 18:
Which of the following statements about the Celestial Sphere is not true.
Answer:
The Celestial Equator lies in the Ecliptic Plane
Question 19:
The ecliptic is the apparent path of the Sun moving how?
Answer:
eastward among the stars
Question 20:
What is the ecliptic?
Answer:
The Sun's apparent path along the celestial sphere
Question 21:
You are standing on the Earth's equator at midnight. Which way is Polaris, the
North star?
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Answer:
on the northern horizon
Question 22:
Suppose you live on the Moon. How long is a day (i.e., from sunrise to sunrise)?
Answer:
a lunar month
Question 23:
Which of the following statements about the Moon is true?
Answer:
The Moon's distance from the Earth varies during its orbit.
Question 24:
We can't detect stellar parallax with naked-eye observations. Which of the
following would make parallax easier to observe?
Answer:
increasing the size of the earths orbit
Question 25:
Patterns of stars in constellations hardly change in appearance over times of even
a few thousand years. Why?
Answer:
The stars in our sky actually move rapidly relative to us thousands of kilometres per
hour but are so far away that it takes a long time for this motion to make a noticeable change in
the patterns in the sky.
Question 26:
Each cycle of the Earth’s precession takes about
Answer:
26,000 years
Question 27:
What happens during the apparent retrograde motion of a planet?
Answer:
The planet appears to move westward with respect to the stars over a period of many
nights.
Question 28:
If the Moon was in its same orbital plane but twice as far from Earth, which of the
following would happen?
Answer:
Total eclipses of the Sun would not happen.
Question 29:
The tilt of the Earth’s axis causes the seasons because
Answer:
the rays of light strike the ground more directly in summer
Question 30:
On the vernal and autumnal equinoxes
a.
every place on Earth has 12 hours of daylight and 12 hours of darkness
b.
the Sun rises due east and sets due west
c.
the Sun’s path is coincident with the celestial equator
d.
all of A, B and C
Question 31:
The number of days in a month is associated with
Answer:
Lunar Phases
Question 32:
Suppose the date is June 21 and the Sun never sets, just touching your northern
horizon at midnight. Where are you?
Answer:
The Arctic Circle
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Question 33:
Right ascension is expressed in
Answer:
Hours, minutes and seconds from 0 to 24 hours
Question 34:
The problem with the Julian calendar was that it was
Answer:
Too short by 11 minutes in a year
Question 35:
The calendar we use now is called the
Answer:
Gregorian after Pope Gregory
Question 36:
Latitude in stellar coordinates is known as
Answer:
Declination
Question 37:
Day and night are caused by
Answer:
the rotation of the Earth on its axis
Question 38:
Mars is in opposition with the Earth when it is
Answer:
Perfectly in line with the Sun and Earth with the Earth between the Sun and Mars.
Question 39:
If you lived at the North Pole at night the stars would
Answer:
never rise or set but move in circles around Polaris, the North Star.
Question 40:
Which of the following is the reason for the solar day being longer than a sidereal
day?
Answer:
the combined effect of the rotation of the Earth and its orbit about the Sun
Question 41:
which of the following statements about lunar phases is true?
Answer:
it is possible to have 2 full moons during January but not during February
Question 42:
which of the following celestial phenomena is the smallest?
Answer:
the orbit of the moon
Question 43
: Suppose you lived at the Earth’s equator. Which of the fo
llowing statements
would not be true?
Answer:
the celestial equator goes through your sky from due east on your horizon, through 50
degrees altitude in the south, to due west on the horizon
Question 44:
When you observe a star for a period of a few hours, you notice that it moves
across the sky. What is responsible for this motion?
Answer:
Earths rotation on its axis
Question 45:
The order of the planets, from the sun outward is
Answer:
mercury, Venus, earth, mars, Jupiter, Saturn
Question 46:
One light year is closest to what distance
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Answer:
ten million kilometers
Question 47:
Which of the following is the best reason for the leap years
Answer:
the combined effect of the rotation of the earth and the precession of the earth’s axis
Question 48:
The apparent visual magnitude of star A is +2 and the apparent visual magnitude
Of star B is +1. Based on this information which statement below must be true
Answer:
light output distance cannot be determined from a stars apparent visual magnitude
alone
Question 49:
Which of the following would appear brightest in the night sky
Answer:
The full moon
Question 50:
What conditions are required for a lunar eclipse
Answer:
the phase of the moon must be full, and the nodes of the moons orbit must be nearly
aligned with the earth and the sun
Question 51:
The size of a hockey rink is best measured in what units
Answer:
meters
Question 52:
If the moon is setting at midnight, the phase of the moon must be
Answer:
first quarter
Question 53:
Which of the following statements is true?
Answer:
Answer is both B and C
Statements were
- Both the northern and southern hemispheres receive the same amount of sunlight on the
equinoxes
- The northern hemisphere receives the most direct sunlight on the summer solstice
Question 54:
Which of the following best describes the tropic of Cancer
Answer:
it is a place where the sun is directly overhead at noon on the summer solstice
Question 55:
The sun is rising in the east and will be on your meridian in 2 hours. What time is
it currently?
Answer
: 10 am
Question 56:
While in Bracebridge, ON where the latitude is 45 degrees, at the spring equinox
(about March 21st) the sun follows the path where it
Answer:
rises due east, crosses the meridian at an altitude of 45 degrees in the south, and sets
due west
Question 57:
What conditions are required for a solar eclipse
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Answer:
the phase of the moon must be new, and the nodes of the moons orbit must be nearly
aligned with the earth and the sun
Question 58:
Which of the following is the furthest from the sun?
Answer:
Proxima Centauri
Question 59:
If it is midnight in waterloo it is
Answer:
daytime in Sydney, Australia
Question 60:
The lunar month is longer than the sidereal month because
Answer:
the moon has to complete more than one full orbit around the earth to complete the
cycle of lunar phases
Question 61:
Which of the following celestial phenomena is the largest
Answer:
the milky way galaxy
Question 62:
How long does it take light from the surface of the sun to get to earth?
Answer:
a few minutes
Question 63:
Which of the following has your address in the correct order? In this question the
local group also means thee local Clusters
Answer:
you, Earth, Solar system, Milky Way, Local Group, Local super cluster
Question 64:
The size of our galaxy in light years is closest to which of the following numbers
Answer:
100000
Question 65
: Which statement below most accurately describes modern constellations?
Answer:
there are 88 well-defined regions on the celestial sphere
Question
: the solar system consists of
Answer:
the sun and its planets, asteroids and comets
Question:
what is the largest object in the solar system?
Answer
: The sun
Question
: In our journey outward from the Sun, what is a feature you notice about the spacing
of the planets.
Answer
: the inner planets are grouped together relatively close to the sun while the planets
from Jupiter to Neptune are spaced much further apart.
Question:
Each of the following shows a constellation followed by a bright star. In all cases but
one, the star is part of the constellation. Which one is a mismatch?
Answer:
Canis Minor, Polaris
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Question:
Which of the following statements about the Moon is false?
Answer:
The side of the moon we never see from Earth is always in darkness.
Question:
On the summer solstice in June, the Sun will be directly above ________ and all
locations north of _____________ will experience daylight all day.
Answer:
The Tropic of Cancer: The Artic Circle
Question:
If you see the Moon rising in the Earth just as the Sun is setting in the west then the
phase of the Moon is
Answer:
Full
Module 2
Question 1:
Galileo observed that Venus had phases very similar to the phases our Moon goes
through. From this he concluded that
Answer:
Venus must, therefore, orbit the Sun and not Earth.
Question 2:
Which of the following is not one of, nor follows directly from, Kepler's laws?
Answer:
When a planet travels at slower speeds it must be nearer the Sun and when it speeds
up it must be as far from the Sun as it can get.
Question 3:
Suppose you read on a newspaper website that a new planet has been found
having an average speed of 33 km/sec. When it’s closest to the star it moves at 31 km/sec and
when it’s farthest it moves at 35 km/sec. Why is this information incorrect?
Answer:
From
Kepler’s second law we infer that a planet must move fastest when it’s closest,
not when it is farthest away.
Question 4:
Which of the following is not part of Newton’s universal law of gravitation?
Answer:
The gravitational attraction between two objects depends directly on the distance
between their centres of mass.
Question 5
: Kepler’s third law of planetary motion states that
Answer:
The cube of the semi-
major axis of a planet’s orbit is directly proportional to the
square of its period of motion around the Sun.
Question 6:
Which of the following is not an example of a “pseudoscience”?
Answer:
Astronomy
Question 7:
The names of the seven days of the week are based on the
Answer:
seven naked-eye objects that appear to move among the constellations.
Question 8:
The Metonic cycle recognizes what?
Answer:
The cycle of lunar phases that repeats every 19 years.
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Question 9:
Which of the following best describes the origin of ocean tides on Earth?
Answer:
Tides are caused by the difference in the force of gravity exerted by the Moon across
the sphere of the Earth.
Question 10:
Spring tides occur
Answer:
At any time of the year when the Moon is full.
Question 11:
When Copernicus first created his Sun-centred model of the universe, it did not
lead to substantially better predictions of planetary positions than the Ptolemaic model. Why
not?
Answer:
Copernicus used perfect circles for the orbits of the planets.
Question 12:
Galileo was a very important figure in the development of astronomy. Which of
the following statements about Galileo’s accomplishments is
false
?
Answer
: Galileo looked at the Moon through his telescope and observed rivers, mountains and
lakes filled with liquid.
Question 13:
Which statement about the Cosmological Principle is valid?
Answer:
It is based on two tenets involving the universality of the laws of physics and chemistry
and the belief that there is nothing special about the Earth.
Question 14:
Galileo observed that Jupiter has moons. From this information you may
conclude that
Answer:
some things do not orbit Earth.
Question 15:
Which of the following is not regarded as a heat transfer mechanism?
Answer:
Segregation
Question 16:
A green apple (nor your Mac computer) looks green because
Answer:
it reflects green light and absorbs all other colors
Question 17:
Which of the following is not a unit of speed?
Answer:
centimetres/light-year
Question 18:
What is acceleration?
Answer:
It is the rate of change of velocity with time.
Question 19:
Which of the following statements about orbital motion is not true?
Answer:
An elliptical orbit is an example of an open orbit.
Question 20:
Which of the following statements correctly describes the law of conservation of
energy?
Answer:
The total quantity of energy in the universe never changes.
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Question 21:
Which of the following statements is not one of Newton's laws of motion?
Answer:
The net force applied to an object is equal to its mass times its velocity.
Question 22:
A skater can spin faster by pulling in her arms closer to her body or spin slower by
spreading her arms out from her body. This is due to
Answer:
The conservation of angular momentum.
Question 23:
If your mass is 75 kg on Earth, what would be your mass on Saturn which is about
95 times as massive as Earth?
Answer:
About the same, 75 kg
Question 24:
Suppose that the Sun were to suddenly disappear from our solar system. What
would happen to Earth’s motion?
Answer:
It would begin travelling in a straight line heading out of the solar system.
Question 25:
What does temperature measure?
Answer:
the average kinetic energy of particles in a substance
Question 26:
The amount of matter contained in an object is called its mass. Which of the
following statements about mass is
false
?
Answer:
The average human mass is about 150 pounds.
Question 27:
Radiative (or radiant) energy is
Answer:
light energy
Question 28:
Without telescopes or other aid, we can see the Moon in the night sky because it
Answer:
reflects visible light coming from the Sun
Question 29:
What do astronomers mean by light pollution?
Answer:
Light pollution refers to light used for human activities that brightens the sky and
hinders astronomical observations.
Question 30:
From laboratory measurements, we know that a particular spectral line formed by
hydrogen appears at a wavelength of 486.1 nanometers (nm). The spectrum of a particular star
shows the same hydrogen line appearing at a wavelength of 496.1 nm (in other words,
redshifted or having a longer wavelength). What can we conclude?
Answer:
The star is moving away from us.
Question 31:
The light gathering power of a 10-cm telescope is _____________ that of a 20-cm
telescope.
Answer:
less than
Question 32:
The wavelength of a wave is
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Answer:
the distance between two adjacent peaks of the wave.
Question 33:
The trouble with refraction telescopes is that
Answer:
different colours of visible starlight get focussed to different points in space making
the image blurry
Question 34:
The larger the size of the telescope the greater the what?
Answer:
light gathering ability
Question 35:
The frequency of a wave is
a.
the number of peaks passing by any point each second.
b.
measured in cycles per second.
c.
measured in Hertz (Hz).
d.
equal to the speed of the wave divided by the wavelength of the wave.
e.
all of the above
Question 36:
The 29.5-day lunar month results in full moon dates that slowly change from
month to month. Eventually, this entire cycle repeats such that a full moon that occurred on
November 19 one year, let’s say, occurs on November 19 again some years later. Which of the
following statements about this cycle is true?
Answer:
This cycle repeats every 19 years when the lunar phases occur again on the same
dates.
Question 37:
Which of the following statements about X-rays and radio waves is not true?
Answer:
Neither X-
rays nor radio waves can penetrate the Earth’s atmosphere.
Question 38:
Suppose the angular separation of two stars is smaller than the angular resolution
of your eyes. How will the stars appear to your eyes?
Answer:
The two stars will look like a single point of light.
Question 39:
From lowest energy to highest energy, which of the following correctly orders the
different categories of electromagnetic radiation?
Answer:
radio, infrared, visible light, ultraviolet, X rays, gamma rays
Question 40:
The two basic types of telescopes are what?
Answer:
reflection and refraction
Question 41:
Which of the following statements about electrons is not true
Answer:
Electrons are actually neutrons that have acquired an electrical charge
Question 42:
Considering Einstein's famous equation E =mc2 which of the following is true
Answer:
A small amount of mass can be turned into a large amount of energy
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Question 43:
Upon what quantities does angular momentum depend
Answer:
Mass velocity radius
Question 44:
The amount of matter contained in an object is called its mass. Which of the
following is false
Answer:
If you were to go to the moon your mass would be lower than your mass on Earth
because gravity is less on the moon
Question 45
: Where does the energy come from that your body uses to keep you alive
Answer:
Mostly it comes from the foods you eat
Question 46:
The scientific method is best described by which of the following:
Answer:
A system of collecting analyzing data, formulating a hypothesis, testing it and
reforming it as needed
Question 47:
If your mass is 60 KG on earth would it be on Jupiter
Answer:
60 kg
Question 48:
Ptolemy was important in history of astronomy because he
Answer:
Developed a model of the solar system that made sufficiently accurate predictions of
planetary positions to remain in use for centuries
Question 49:
Radiative energy is
Answer:
Energy carried by light
Question 50:
Retrograde motion is observable for what objects
Answer:
Planets located more distant from the sun than earth
Question 51:
The Doppler shift is a wave phenomenon that
Answer:
Uses change in wavelength of light to determine speed of a moving star
Question 52:
At which lunar phases are the tides smallest
Answer:
both first and 3
rd
Question 53:
Spectral line formed by hydrogen appears at a wavelength of 486.1 nanometres
the spectrum of a star sows the same hydrogen line appearing at 485.2 what can we conclude
Answer:
The star is moving towards us
Question 54
: Which of the following is not a unit of energy
Answer:
Kilowatt
Question 55:
Spectroscopy can be used to
Answer:
all of the above
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Question 56:
Which of the following statements best describes the principle advantage of
telescopes over eyes
Answer:
Telescopes can collect far more light with far better angular resolution
Question 57:
Kinetic Energy is
Answer:
Energy of motion
Question 58
: What would happen if the space shuttle were launched with greater speed then
earths escape velocity
Answer:
It would travel away from the Earth into the solar system
Question 59:
Which of the following is not an advantage of the HST over ground based
telescopes
Answer:
Although it orbits the Earth and is outside the atmosphere, it is closer to the star
Question 60:
When hold a rock potential energy, drop it kinetic, hits the ground what happens
Answer:
The energy goes to producing sound and to heating the ground rock, air
Question:
What determines the date for Easter?
Answer:
The Sunday following the first full moon following the spring equinox.
Question:
Who Built Stonehenge?
Answer:
Nobody really knows for sure
Question:
Suppose a planet is discovered orbiting a star in a highly elliptical orbit. While the
planet is close to the star it _________, but while its far away it _______
Answer:
moves fast, moves slower
Question:
Early Greek philosophers who influenced the development of scientific thought
included
Answer:
Aristotle, Socrates, Plato and Ptolemy
Question:
When a rock is held above the group, we say it has some potential energy. When we
let it go, it falls and we say the potential energy is converted to kinetic energy. Finally, the rock
hits the ground. What has happened to the energy?
Answer:
The energy goes to producing sound and to heating the ground, rock and surrounding
air.
Question:
Which of the following are systems for measuring temperature?
Answer:
Only A, B and D
Question:
At which lunar phases(s) are the tides most pronounced (the highest tide levels)
Answer:
Both new and full moons
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Question:
Which of the following statements about orbital motion is not true?
Answer:
An elliptical orbit is an example of an open orbit.
Question:
Which of the following statements about the Hubble Space Telescope is false?
Answer:
It was designed by a famous astronomer named Edwin Hubble.
Question:
Upon what quantities does angular momentum depend?
Answer:
Three quantities- an objects mass, its rotational speed, and its radius or distance from
the rotational center.
Question:
A hot star emits primary what colour of visible light?
Answer:
ultraviolet
Question:
Which of the following is not an advantage of the Hubble Space Telescope over
grounded- base telescopes?
Answer:
although it orbits the Earth and is outside the Earths atmosphere, it is, after all, closer
to the stars.
Question:
Suppose there are two monochromatic light beams. Beam 1 has half the wavelength
of beam 2. How do their frequencies compare?
Answer:
Beam 1 has 2 times the frequency of Beam 2.
Question:
Most of everything we know from outside Earth we know because of our use of
what?
Answer:
Light
Module 3
Question 1:
Which of the following characteristics of the terrestrial planets is (are)
correct?
Answer:
They are relatively small, high density objects with solid surfaces on which to
walk
Question 2:
Ring systems around planets are:
Answer:
quite common among the large, gas planets; all Jovian planets have them.
Question 3:
Which of the following statements about meteorites is
true
?
Answer:
A meteorite is what's left of a meteor when it hits the Earth's surface
Question 4:
Which of the following statements about the Jovian planets is
not
true?
Answer:
The outermost Jovian planet, Uranus, is also the least massive.
Question 5:
The age of our solar system is approximately
Answer:
4.6 billion years.
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Question 6:
Which of the following statements about the moons of the solar system is
false
?
Answer:
All planets have moons except Mercury
Question 7:
Which of the following statements is
not
an observed pattern of motion in our
solar system?
Answer:
Most planets orbit at the same speed.
Question 8:
According to our theory of solar system formation, what is the origin of
asteroids and comets?
Answer:
Asteroids are the leftover planetesimals of the inner solar system, and comets are
the leftover planetesimals that formed beyond the frost line
Question 9:
We have determined the age of the solar system through:
Answer:
radioactive dating.
Question 10:
Rank the following planets in order of size from the smallest to the largest.
Answer:
Mercury, Mars, Earth, Uranus, Saturn
Question 11:
Which of the following statements about comets is
true
?
Answer:
Comets have a relatively small nucleus (normally less than 10 km in diameter)
that develop debris tails as they get close to the Sun.
Question 12:
What is a comet?
Answer:
The nucleus of a comet is a collection of various ices mixed with dust and tiny bits
of rocky debris.
Question 13:
What is the origin of the atoms of hydrogen, oxygen and sodium in the
perspiration that exits your body during this astronomy test?
Answer:
The hydrogen nuclei were produced a few minutes after the big bang event 13.8
billion years ago; the oxygen and sodium nuclei were synthesized inside stars more than
4.6 billion years ago.
Question 14:
What is meant by the period of heavy bombardment?
Answer:
During the 500-700 million years of the solar system existence there were plenty
of larger objects roaming around in the solar disk. These larger objects constantly
bombarded the terrestrial objects building up their surfaces and often leaving large craters
that still exist today.
Question 15:
The terrestrial planets and the giant Jovian planets have different
compositions because
Answer:
the terrestrial planets are closer to the Sun
Question 16:
How were the moons of the Jovian planets most likely formed?
Answer:
Probably through the same process as the planets themselves formed.
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Question 17:
Why did the solar nebula heat up as it collapsed?
Answer:
As the cloud shrank, its gravitational potential energy was converted to kinetic
energy and then into thermal energy.
Question 18:
The sticking together of small but solid particles is an important feature of
the solar nebular theory. What is this process known as?
Answer:
Accretion
Question 19:
Why are the inner planets made of denser materials than the outer planets?
Answer:
In the inner part of the nebula only metals and rocks were able to condense
because of the high temperatures, whereas hydrogen compounds, although more
abundant, were only able to condense in the cooler outer regions.
Question 20:
Atmospheres formed around some terrestrial planets because
Answer:
outgassing through volcanic activity plus a strong enough gravity kept the gas
from escaping into space
Question 21:
The terrestrial planet cores contain mostly metal because
Answer:
only metals condensed closest to the Sun in the solar nebula and the rocks then
accreted around them as the protoplanets cooled.
Question 22:
What is differentiation in planetary geology?
Answer:
the process by which gravity separates materials according to density
Question 23:
According to our theory of solar system formation, why does the Sun rotate
slowly today?
Answer:
The Sun once rotated much faster, but it transferred angular momentum to
charged particles caught in its magnetic field and then blew the particles away with its
strong solar wind.
Question 24:
Protoplanets grow into planetesimals by which processes?
Answer:
A combination of A and B.
Question 25:
According to our theory of solar system formation, what is Pluto?
Answer:
Pluto is one of the largest of the Kuiper belt objects.
Question 26:
What constitutes the solar wind?
Answer:
It's the continuous emission of charged particles (electrons, protons, etc.) from
the solar surface
Question 27:
About how much of the solar nebula consisted of elements heavier than
hydrogen and helium?
Answer:
2% by mass.
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Question 28:
Which of the following space telescope missions was dedicated entirely to
discovering exoplanets?
Answer:
Kepler.
Question 29:
Which statement best describes the transit method of discovering
exoplanets?
Answer:
Measuring the periodic dimming of light as an exoplanet crosses in front of the
star.
Question 30:
Why is it easier to find exoplanets that are much more massive than the
Earth?
Answer:
Because their transits and tugging on their stars are easier to detect
Question 31:
Which of the following statements about exoplanets is true?
Answer:
Only A and C are true
Question 32:
Which of the following statements about exoplanets is false?
Answer:
No planets have been found orbiting their stars at radii less than Mercury's orbital
radius.
Question 33:
Which statement best describes the direct detection technique for finding
exoplanets?
Answer:
Actually seeing the exoplanet orbiting the star through our more powerful
telescopes.
Question 34:
Which statement best describes the transit technique for finding exoplanets?
Answer:
Observing the slight dip in the brightness of a star as the planet moves across it's
face.
Question 35:
Which of the following techniques has so far yielded the fewest detections of
an exoplanet?
Answer:
Astrometric method.
Question 36:
What is the name of the exoplanet that has been found that is closest to our
solar system?
Answer:
Alpha Centauri Bb
Question 37:
What is an exoplanet moon?
Answer:
It is an object orbiting an exoplanet just as our Moon orbits Earth.
Question 38:
Which of the following three factors would affect the size of a star's Doppler
shift caused by an exoplanet?
Answer:
Only A and B
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Question 39:
Why would a star continuously wobble back-and-forth in space?
Answer:
Because it is revolving around a common centre of mass with other planets
Question 40:
What is so special about a star known as 51 Pegasi?
Answer:
It is the first main sequence star (stars like our Sun) found to have a planet
orbiting it.
Question 41:
As of now most known extra solar planets have been discovered by
Answer:
Doppler technique
Question: Which of the following is not a characteristic of the moons of the solar system
planets
Answer:
All of the eight classical planets have at least one moon
Question:
Which of the following statements about asteroids is not true
Answer:
an asteroid is just a failed comet
Question:
Which of the following solar system moons were likely formed through the same
processes as our solar system
Answer:
Jupiter’s so called Galilean moons
Question:
what was the ice or frost line of the solar system
Answer:
between present day orbits of mars and Jupiter
Question:
which of the following is not characteristic of the terrestrial planets
Answer:
they have more moons than the Jovian plants
Question:
why haven’t we detected low mass planets close to their stars and high mass
planets far from their stars?
Answer
: Both A and B above
Question:
To date about how many extra solar planets have been discovered
Answer:
700
Question:
what are the main constituents of the Jovian planets
Answer:
hydrogen and helium
Question;
the first small solid grans or flakes formed in our solar system by the process of
_________, the addition of material to an object by an atom or molecule at a time
Answer:
condensation
Question:
what is an extrasolar planet
Answer:
a planet that orbits a star that is not our sun
Question:
at first the suns present at rotation seems to contradict the prediction of the
nebular theory because
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Answer:
sun should have been rotating fast when it formed, but the actual rotation is fairly
slow
Question:
which one of the following is a characteristic of Jovian planets
Answer:
low average density
Question:
based on available data what kind of objects in our solar system do most of the
known extra solar planets resemble?
Answer:
Jovian planets
Question:
the planet closest in size to earth is
Answer:
Venus
Question:
which of the following is the origin of almost all the large moons around the
Jovian planets
Answer:
they were formed by condensation and accretion in disk of gas around the planet
Question:
which type of exoplanet would you expect to cause the largest Doppler shift
Answer
: massive planet close to its star
Question:
rank the 5 worlds in order of size from large to small
Answer:
earth, Venus, mars mercury moon
Question:
the asteroid belt is found where
Answer
: mars and Jupiter
Question:
the nebular theory of the formation of the solar system successfully predicts all
but one of the following, which one does the theory not predict
Answer
: the equal number of terrestrial and Jovian planets
Question;
which detection technique has been used to find orbital distance
Answer:
Doppler technique
Question:
what is the origin of the atoms of hydrogen, oxygen, and sodium in the
perspiration that exits your body during this astronomy test
Answer:
hydrogen nuclei were produced a few minutes after the big bang event 13.7
billion years ago …..
Question:
which of the following is not a technique that could be used to discover
extrasolar planet
Answer:
direct binocular
Question:
why does the solar nebula theory predict that planetary systems are common
Answer:
all of the other answers
Question:
which of the following statements about comets is not true
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Answer:
the nucleus of a comet is quite large about 100 km across
Question:
which of the following is not a characteristic of the general layout of the solar
system
Answer:
all planets rotate on their polar axes at about the same rate
Question:
The rotation (daily spin) of the planets are:
Answer:
al in the same direction (with the exception of Venus and Uranus)
Question:
Where are most of the known asteroids found?
Answer:
Between Mars and Jupiter
Question:
What was the frost line of the solar system?
Answer:
the distance from the sun beyond which temperatures were low enough for hydrogen
compounds and methane to condense into ices, between the present day orbits of Mars and
Jupiter
Question:
Which of the following is most likely to describe a comet, but not an asteroid?
Answer:
Comets are mainly composed of ice and snow with some dust and rocky bits
Question:
Which statement best describes the Doppler Technique for finding exoplanets
Answer:
observing the slight shifting of the frequency of the lights as the star wobbles back and
forth in space due to an exoplanet orbiting it.
Question:
thinking about our own solar system, which planet will have the greatest effect on
the Sun’s movement
about the solar system.
Answer:
Jupiter, because of its huge mass.
Question:
What does the exoplanet descriptor “hot Jupiter” mean?
Answer:
its an exoplanet just like Jupiter but orbiting must closer to its sun than 5 AU
Question:
So far about how many exoplanets have been discovered?
Answer:
over 1500
Question:
When we examine of the types of planets making up the solar system we notice the
following
Answer:
There are two types of planets: terrestrial and Jovian
Question:
Which of the following characteristics of the Jovian planets is (are) correct?
Answer:
None of A, B or C are correct
Question:
Which of the following statements about the Jovian planets is not true?
Answer:
the outermost Jovian planet, Uranus is also the least massive.
Question:
What is a planetesimal?
Answer:
a smaller building block of planets
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Question:
Which statement best describes the astrometric technique for finding exoplanets?
Answer:
Observing the slight side to side movement of the star in space caused by an exoplanet
orbiting it
Question:
What type of exoplanet would you expect to cause the largest Doppler shift in the
spectrum of its star?
Answer:
A massive planet that is close to its sun.
Module 4
Question 1:
There are no auroras on Venus because it
Answer:
lacks a strong magnetic field.
Question 2:
Which component of our atmosphere has steadily increased in the last 100
years and has led to warming temperatures?
Answer:
Carbon Dioxide
Question 3:
All but one of the following statements about Mercury are true. Which one is
false
?
Answer:
Mercury has a very thin atmosphere which is strange because there are still active
volcanoes outgassing carbon dioxide and water vapour
Question 4:
How would you describe Venus's retrograde rotation?
Answer:
It rotates very slowly in a direction opposite to its revolution
Question 5:
The origin of Earth's only natural satellite, Moon, is
Answer:
a combination of the "capture" theory and the "daughter" theory, sometimes
called the impact theory which posits that early in the solar system history the formative
years. a young, molten Earth collided with a Mars-like object in a sort of glancing blow.
Question 6:
All of the following statements about Venus are true but one. Which one is
false?
Answer:
The magnetic field on Venus has about the same intensity as on Earth, although it
appears to change directions every 100,000 years or so.
Question 7:
Earth's atmosphere contains only small amounts of carbon dioxide because
Answer:
carbon dioxide dissolves in water, and most of it is now contained in the oceans
and carbonate rocks.
Question 8:
Which of the following statements about Earth is
false?
Answer:
The poles of the Earth's magnetic field are precisely aligned with Earth's
rotational axis.
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Question 9:
All but one of the following statements about Venus are true. Which one is
false?
Answer:
The atmospheric pressure on Venus is significantly greater than on Earth, about 9
times as great.
Question 10:
Which of the following statements about conjunctions and opposition is
false?
Answer:
Mars can have an inferior conjunction but not a superior conjunction from Earth's
perspective.
Question 11:
What function does the ozone layer provide on the Earth?
Answer:
It shields us from ultraviolet radiation that is harmful to life
Question 12:
Why does the burning of fossil fuels increase the greenhouse effect on Earth?
Answer:
Burning releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere
Question 13:
How have we been able to construct maps of surface features on the planet
Venus?
Answer:
by using radar from spacecraft that were sent to orbit Venus
Question 14:
Which of the following statements about Uranus is false?
Answer:
Uranus has the Great Red Spot on its surface that has been visible for the last 400
years.
Question 15:
Exploration on Mars has been accomplished by orbiters, lander and rovers.
Which of the following statements about Martian exploration is false?
Answer:
The remains of some type of life form have been found near
Olympus Mons,
the
largest volcano on Mars.
Question 16:
Which of the following does Jupiter not have?
Answer:
crustal plates on its surface
Question 17:
Which of the following statements about Neptune is true?
Answer:
Neptune's largest surface feature is the Great Dark Spot that is about the size of
Earth and is probably a storm of some sort.
Question 18:
Mars is about how far from the Sun, on average?
Answer:
1.5 AU
Question 19:
All of the following statements about Jupiter are true but one. Which one is
false?
Answer:
The Great Red Spot is a large storm center that has been observed for only the last
75 years.
Question 20:
About how far from the Sun, on average, is Saturn?
Answer:
10 AU
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Question 21:
What is the region around a planet called where the magnetic field is able to
deflect the solar wind and other charged particles?
Answer:
Magnetosphere
Question 22:
Which of the following do the Jovian planets not have in common?
Answer:
They are all less dense than water
Question 23:
What is a Roche zone?
Answer:
the region near a planet where tidal forces would tear apart an object held
together only by gravity
Question 24:
How does the atmospheric pressure on Mars compare to that on Earth and
Venus?
Answer:
Lower than on both Earth and Venus.
Question 25:
Saturn is how far from the Sun, on average?
Answer:
10 AU
Question 26:
All of the following statements about Jupiter are true but one. Which one is
false?
Answer:
The density of Jupiter is greater than that of air but less than that for water.
Question 27:
The belts and zones of Jupiter are
Answer:
alternating bands of rising and falling air at different latitudes
Question 28:
What did the Huygens probe discover about Saturn's moon, Titan?
Answer:
Methane rains onto the surface, evaporates, and rains again cyclically
Question 29:
Which of the following is
not
classified as a dwarf planet?
Answer:
Triton
Question 30:
All of the following statements about Charon, Pluto's moon, are true except
which one?
Answer:
As strange as it may seem, astronomers have actually observed seasonal effects
on Charon
Question 31:
Why are there no impact craters on the surface of Io?
Answer:
Io did have impact craters but they have all been buried in lava flows.
Question 32:
What is the Cassini division of Saturn's rings?
Answer:
a large gap, visible from Earth, produced by an orbital resonance with the moon
Mimas
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Question 33:
Which of the following statements about Jovian moons is false?
Answer:
All of the Jovian moons orbit their planet in the same direction, counter-clockwise
as seem from above the solar system
Question 34:
This satellite's interior has probably warmed enough by tidal stressing to
have a liquid water ocean below an icy crust
Answer:
Europa
Question 35:
Which of the following statements about Pluto is
false
?
Answer:
Pluto is one of the larger Kuiper Belt Objects discovered to date and is actually
bigger than Mercury.
Question 36:
Why is Triton referred to as Neptune's "backward" moon?
Answer:
It orbits in the opposite direction of its revaluation.
Question 37:
Planetary rings are
Answer:
all of the above.
Question 38:
What mechanism is most responsible for generating the internal heat of Io
that drives the volcanic activity?
Answer:
tidal heating
Question 39:
Why was Pluto's status was changed to that of "dwarf planet" by the IAU?
Answer:
Because it has not cleared its orbital region of other objects.
Question 40:
Why isn't there a planet where the asteroid belt is located?
Answer:
Gravitational tugs from Jupiter prevented material from collecting together to
form a planet.
Question:
Jupiter and Saturn emit _________ heat than absorbed from the sun due to
__________
Answer:
More; heat left over from their formation
Question:
Which of the following statements about the rings of the four Jovian planets is
not true
Answer:
All probably looks much like they did when the solar system first formed
Question:
How thick are Saturn’s rings from top to bottom
Answer:
A few tens of meters
Question:
All but one of the following statements about Mars are true. Which is false
Answer:
The Martian atmosphere is fairly substantial with a composition similar to earth
Question:
Which of these moons is the most geologically active
Answer:
Io
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Question:
Mercury's large core is composed of
Answer:
Iron
Question:
We know about Earth’s interior because of
Answer:
Study of waves created by earthquakes
Question:
Why does Jupiter have several distinct cloud layers
Answer:
Different layers represent clouds made of gases that condense at different temps
Question
: Which of the following objects contains mostly nitrogen with some methane
Answer:
Titan
Question:
The orbit of Venus around the sun is almost circular. What is the radius of its
orbit
Answer:
0.72 AU
Question:
All but one of the following statements about Mercury is true. Which one is
false?
Answer:
Mercury’s orbit around the sun is circular, more so than any other planet
Question:
Planetary rings are
Answer:
All of the above
Question:
A solar day on Mercury is about how long
Answer:
176 Earth days
Question:
Why does Mars have more extreme seasons than Earth
Answer:
Because it has a more eccentric orbit
Question:
Why does the burning of fossil fuels increase the greenhouse effect on earth?
Answer:
Burning releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere
Question:
In what ways is Earth different from other terrestrial planets?
Answer:
All of the above
Question
: Why do astronomers believe Triton may have been a planet that was captured
by Neptune?
Answer:
It orbits Neptune in the opposite direction of Neptune’s rotation
Question:
Which of the following statements about Saturn is false
Answer:
Saturn was first discovered by Galileo about 400 years ago
Question:
Which of the following is not a Kuiper Belt Object
Answer:
Triton
Question:
Which of the following statements about the moons of the Jovian planets is false
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Answer:
Tiania, one of the largest Jovian moons, has a wrinkly surface that is often
referred to as “cantaloupe terrain”
Question:
What is the moons average orbital distance from the sun?
Answer:
1.0 AU
Question:
At what special time in Venus’s orbit might we be able to see a solar transit?
Answer:
inferior conjunction
Question:
All but one of the following statements about Mercury are true. Which one is false?
Answer:
Mercury’s orbit about the sun is almost circular, more so than any other planet in the
solar system.
Question:
Which of the following planets was found using Newton’s laws after discrepancies
were observed in another planets orbit?
Answer:
Neptune
Question:
Mercury is how far from the sun, on average?
Answer:
0.39 AU
Question:
Where do the majority of the confirmed dwarf planets in the solar system reside?
Answer:
The Kuiper Belt
Question:
What is a likely feature of the moons of Mars?
Answer:
They are captured steroids.
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Which of the following objects would not be considered an optical device?
Your bedroom window
what is the main advantage of the Hubble space telescope?
It orbits above the earth’s atmosphere
the light gathering power of a 5-cm telescope is ______that of a 10-cm telescope
less than
Consider a loaded dump truck and you in your Smartcar driving along the 401 highway. Which
of the following statements about linear momentum (not angular momentum) is true?
As long as you follow the truck, both travelling at the same speed, your combined momentum or
total momentum, is conserved.
which of the following statements about isaac newton is not true?
Newton grew up in Germany
the speed of light is 300000 km/sec why is it so important to know this value so precisely?
All of a,b, and c are true
whose model of the universe was supported by Galileo's observations of the phase of Venus?
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Nicolaus Copernicus’s model
Humans have been trying to determine the truth behind the workings
of the heavens for years. Which of the following people show a record
of interest in anything related to astronomy?
E)
All of A,B,C
Betelgeuse and rigel are two bright stars in the constellation orion
(famous for the three bright stars appearing in a straight line as
orion’s belt) betelgeuse emits primarily red light while rigel appears as
a blue colour. What can you determine from this observation?
Betelgeuse is moving away from you and Rigel is moving toward you
Q) the larger the size of the telescope, the greater the what?
A) light gathering ability
where is stonehenge located?
in England, west of London.
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Johanes Kepler and Galileo Galelei lived pretty much at the same time. When was that
timeframe?
1550-1650
What is the approximate period of Jupiter’s orbit if its average distance from the sun is 5.2AU
11.8 years
Which of the following statements is not true about the motions of the moon?
A crescent moon will be seen either just after sunset or just before sunrise.
What is an Astronomical Unit(AU) ?
All of the rest
imagine you are standing on the equator watching the stars at night? which of the following
statements is true?
Over a year you will see all the stars in the sky
which of the following statements is not true about total solar eclipses
the moon passes through the shadow of the earth
If you see the Moon rising in the East just as the Sun is setting in the west then the phase of
the Moon is
FULL
which of the following sequences is a correct ordering of the moon's phases
The 8
moon phases
in
order
are New
moon
, Waxing Crescent, First Quarter,
Waxing Gibbous, Full
moon
, Waning Gibbous, Third Quarter, and finally Waxing
Crescent
Waxing Gibbous, Full
moon
, Waning Gibbous
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From a latitude of 42 degrees, how many degrees above the northern horizon does the north
celestial pole appear to be
42
when you observe a star for a period of a few hours from a location in canada, you notice it
never rises or sets
the star is near the north star, Polaris.
what does the big dipper exemplify
an asterism
on the vernal and autumnal equinoxes
all of a,b,c
A sidereal period is an orbit relative to the position of what
The position of the stars
what is the apparent visual magnitude of a star a measure of
the star
’
s brightness as seen by human eyes on earth
if we consider a circular sphere around our solar system with a radius of about 10 light years
…
would be included in such a sphere?
10
Which of the following statements about the moon is false?
The side of the moon we never see from the earth is always in darkness
If you looked at an area 10000 light-years across, centered on the sun, which of the following
would not be in your field of view?
The entire milky way galaxy
When you observe a star for a period of a few hours from a location in Canada, you notice it
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never rises or sets, what accounts for this
The star is near the north star, Polaris
Which of the following celestial phenomena is the smallest
• The orbit of the moon
Which of the following correctly describes the meridian in your sky
•
-
a half circle extending from your horizon due north through your zenith,
to your horizon due south
What conditions are required for a solar eclipse
•
-
the phase of the moon must be new,
and the nodes of the moons orbit
must be nearly aligned with the earth and sun
What conditions are required for a lunar eclipse
•
-
the phase of the moon must be
ʼ
full, and the nodes of moons orbit must
be aligned with SU and E
which of the following years is not a leap year
So
2000
and 2400 are leap years but
1800
,
1900
, 2100, 2200 and 2300 are not.
Apart from that, every year divisible by 4 (2012,
2016
,
2020
,
2024
, etc.) is a leap
year.
Question 1
1 / 1 point
Which of the following is closest to the Sun?
Saturn.
Pluto.
Mercury.
a comet in the Oort cloud
Earth.
Question 2
1 / 1 point
How long does it take light from the Sun to get to Earth?
a few hours
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several days
a few seconds
a half hour
a few minutes
Question 3
0 / 1 point
On the Cosmic Calendar about when did the solar system begin to form?
Around the spring equinox
–
March 21
January 1
Around the summer solstice
–
June 21
Somtime around Labour Day
–
September
1
About mid-November
Question 4
1 / 1 point
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On the Cosmic Calendar all of recorded history occurred beginning when?
December 25
December 31 around noon
December 1
December 31 within the last minute of this last day of the year.
December 30 around noon
Question 5
0 / 1 point
The order of the planets beyond Earth, away from the Sun, is
Mars, Saturn, Jupiter, Uranus, Neptune, Pluto
Mars, Jupiter, Uranus, Saturn, Neptune, Pluto
Venus, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune,
Pluto
Mars, Venus, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune,
Pluto
Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune, Pluto
Question 6
1 / 1 point
In our journey outward from the Sun what is a feature you notice about the spacing of the
planets?
The spacing between the planets is actually quite random with some spaces
being small followed by a huge spacing outward to the next one and then a
small spacing and so on.
They are all pretty much evenly spaced
The largest planets are closer to the Sun while the smaller Earth-like planets
are much farther from the Sun.
What’s most interesting is that some planets share the same
orbit.
The inner planets are grouped together and relatively close to the Sun while
the planets from Jupiter out to Neptune are spaced much further apart.
Question 7
1 / 1 point
Which of the following best describes the Milky Way Galaxy?
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a spiral galaxy with a disk about 80,000 light-years in diameter and containing
between 100 billion and 1 trillion stars
a spherically shaped collection of about 1 million stars that is about 100 light-
years in diameter
a spherically shaped collection of stars including our solar system and about a
dozen other solar systems, stretching about 4 light-years in diameter
a spiral galaxy with a disk about 80,000 light-years in diameter and containing
about 100,000 stars
a spiral galaxy with a disk about a billion kilometres in diameter and containing
between 100 million and 1 billion stars
Question 8
1 / 1 point
What is a light-year?
The average distance between the Sun and the Earth.
The time is takes light to travel across the Milky Way galaxy.
The distance light travels in one year.
The time for light to travel to Earth from the Andromeda galaxy.
The time is takes light to get to the nearest star, Proxima Centauri.
Question 9
0 / 1 point
What is the largest object in the solar system?
Ceres, the largest asteroid in the asteroid belt
Earth, of course
The
Sun
Jupiter
Neptune
Question 10
1 / 1 point
Which of the following is largest?
1 Astronomical Unit
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distance to the nearest star (other than our Sun)
size of a typical galaxy
size of Pluto's orbit
1 light-year
Question 11
1 / 1 point
On the Cosmic Calendar (where the age of the universe in condensed into the equivalent to one
calendar year) most of recorded
history takes up what portion of the “year”?
the last few minutes of the year
the last few seconds of the year
the last few days of the year
the last few weeks of the year
the last few months of the year
Question 12
1 / 1 point
Which of the following is furthest from the Sun?
Neptune
Pluto
a comet in the Oort cloud
an asteroid in the asteroid belt
a comet in the Kuiper belt
Question 13
1 / 1 point
The solar system consists of
The inner planets (Mercury, Mars, Earth, Venus) plus the Sun
All of the stars in our galaxy
The Sun plus the asteroids and comets
The Sun, Moon and stars in our galaxy
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The Sun and its planets, asteroids and comets
Group B
Question 14
1 / 1 point
What makes the North Star, Polaris, special?
It is the brightest star in the sky.
It appears very near the north celestial pole.
It can be used to determine your longitude on Earth.
It is the star straight overhead.
It is the star directly on your northern horizon.
Question 15
0 / 1 point
We can't detect stellar parallax with naked-eye observations. Which of the following would
make parallax easier to observe?
speeding up the Earth's orbital motion
slowing down the Earth's orbital motion
speeding up the precession of the Earth's axis
getting away from streetlights
increasing the size of the Earth's orbit
Question 16
1 / 1 point
The ecliptic is the apparent path of the Sun moving how?
eastward among the stars
northward among the stars
northeastward among the stars
southwestward among the stars
westward among the stars
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Question 17
1 / 1 point
What happens during the apparent retrograde motion of a planet?
The planet rises in the west and sets in the east.
The planet moves through constellations that are not part of the zodiac.
The planet moves backward through the sky.
The planet moves backward in its orbit around the Sun.
The planet appears to move westward with respect to the stars over a period
of many nights.
Question 18
1 / 1 point
Patterns of stars in constellations hardly change in appearance over times of even a few
thousand years. Why?
Although most stars move through the sky, the brightest stars do not, and
these are the ones that trace the patterns we see in the constellations.
Stars within a constellation move together as a group, which tends to hide
their actual motion and prevent the pattern from changing.
Stars are fixed and never move.
Stars move, but they move very slowly only a few kilometres in a thousand
years.
The stars in our sky actually move rapidly relative to us thousands of
kilometres per hour but are so far away that it takes a long time for this
motion to make a noticeable change in the patterns in the sky.
Question 19
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about the ecliptic plane is not true?
During a solar eclipse, the Moon lies in the ecliptic plane.
It is the plane of the Earth's orbit around the Sun.
It is the plane of the Moon's orbit around the Earth.
The nodes of the Moon's orbit lie in the ecliptic plane.
During a lunar eclipse, the Moon lies in the ecliptic plane.
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Question 20
0 / 1 point
On the summer solstice in June, the Sun will be directly above
and all locations
north of
will experience daylight all day.
The Tropic of Capricorn: the Antarctic Circle
The Tropic of Capricorn; the Arctic Circle
The Tropic of Cancer; the Antarctic
Circle
The Equator; Edmonton
The Tropic of Cancer: the Arctic Circle
Question 21
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about sidereal and solar days is not true?
The time it takes for a star to make one circuit of our sky is one sidereal day.
A solar day represents more than 360 degrees of rotation for the Earth.
The time it takes for the Sun to make one circuit of our sky is one solar day.
A solar day is 4 minutes longer than a sidereal day.
The time it takes for the Moon to make one circuit of our sky is one solar day.
Question 22
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements is true?
A)
Both the Northern and Southern hemispheres receive the same amount of
sunlight on the equinoxes.
B)
Both the Northern and Southern hemispheres receive the same amount of
sunlight on the solstices.
C)
The Northern Hemisphere receives the most direct sunlight on the
summer solstice.
D)
The Southern Hemisphere receives the most direct sunlight on the
summer solstice.
E)
Both A and C are true.
Question 23
1 / 1 point
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You are standing on the Earth's equator at midnight. Which way is Polaris
directly overhead
23.5 degrees above the North Pole, along the meridian.
The answer depends on whether its winter or summer.
30 degrees up, due West
on the northern horizon
Question 24
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about lunar phases is true?
It is possible to have two full moons during November, but not during
December.
The time between new moons is two weeks.
The time from one new moon to the next new moon is the same as the time
from first-quarter moon to third-quarter moon.
The full moon sometimes rises around midnight.
It is possible to have two full moons during January, but not during February.
Question 25
1 / 1 point
Each cycle of the Earth’s precession takes about
2,600 years
2,600 light-years
26,000 years
26,000 light-years
None of the above
Question 26
1 / 1 point
What conditions are required for a solar eclipse?
The phase of the Moon must be full, and the Moon's orbital plane must lie in
the ecliptic.
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The phase of the Moon must be full, and the nodes of the Moon's orbit must
be nearly aligned with the Earth and the Sun.
The phase of the Moon can be new or full, and the nodes of the Moon's orbit
must be nearly aligned with the Earth and the Sun.
The phase of the Moon must be new, and the Moon's orbital plane must lie in
the ecliptic.
The phase of the Moon must be new, and the nodes of the Moon's orbit must
be nearly aligned with the Earth and the Sun.
Question 27
1 / 1 point
Suppose you live on the Moon. How long is a day (i.e., from sunrise to sunrise)?
23 hours, 56 minutes
a lunar month
24 hours
a year
about 18 years
Group C
Question 28
1 / 1 point
Right ascension is expressed in
Hours, minutes and seconds from 0 to 24
hours
Hours per day
Metres
Degrees from 0 to 360
Light-years
Question 29
1 / 1 point
Which of the following is the reason for the solar day being longer than a sidereal day?
the tilt of the Earth's axis
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the non-circular orbit of the Earth around the Sun
precession of the Earth's axis
the Earth year being a non-integer number of Earth days
the combined effect of the rotation of the Earth and its orbit about the Sun
Question 30
1 / 1 point
Which of the following best describes the tropic of Cancer?
It is a place where the Sun is directly overhead at noon on the spring equinox.
It is a place where the Sun is directly overhead at noon on the summer
solstice.
It is a place where the Sun appears to remain stationary in the sky.
It is another name for the equator.
It is any place where it is always very warm.
Question 31
0 / 1 point
Mercury is in superior conjunction with the Earth when it is
Perfectly in line with the Earth, the Sun, and Venus.
Perfectly in line with the Sun and Earth with the Earth between the Sun and
Mercury.
Perfectly in line with the Earth and Polaris but on the other side of the Sun.
Perfectly in line with the Sun and Earth and in between them.
Perfectly in line with the Sun and Earth but on the side opposite the Sun.
Question 32
1 / 1 point
Suppose you lived at the Earth's equator. Which of the following statements would not be true?
The south celestial pole is directly on your horizon, due south.
Every day of the year, the Sun is above your horizon for 12 hours and below it
for 12 hours.
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The celestial equator goes through your sky from due east on your horizon,
through 50 degree altitude in the south, to due west on the horizon.
The north celestial pole is directly on your horizon, due north (with Polaris
quite nearby).
No stars are circumpolar.
Question 33
1 / 1 point
Day and night are caused by
the tilt of the Earth on its axis
the rotation of the Earth on its axis
the revolution of the Moon around the Earth
a combination of the rotation of the Moon around the Earth and the Earth
around the Sun
the revolution of the Earth around the Sun
Question 34
1 / 1 point
Latitude in stellar coordinates is known as
Declination Ascension
Declination
Right Ascension
Right Declination
Longitude
Question 35
0 / 1 point
Which of the following is the best reason for the leap years?
the tilt of the Earth's axis
the Earth year being a non-integer number of Earth
days
the non-circular orbit of the Earth around the Sun
precession of the Earth's axis
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the combined effect of the rotation of the Earth and the precession of the
Earth’s axis
Question 36
0 / 1 point
While in Bracebridge, ON where the latitude is 45°, at the spring equinox (about March 21), the
Sun follows the path where it
rises due east, crosses the meridian at the zenith, and sets due west.
rises due east, crosses the meridian at an altitude of 45° in the south, and sets
due west.
rises due east, crosses the meridian at an altitude of 45° in the north, and sets
due west.
rises due north-east, crosses the meridian at the zenith, and sets due north-
west.
rises due north-east, crosses the meridian at an altitude of 45° in the south,
and sets due north-west.
Question 37
0 / 1 point
The tilt of the Earth’s axis causes the
seasons because
the days are longer in summer
the tilt of the Earth’s axis does not cause the seasons at all; it’s because of
Earth’s eccentric orbit
the rays of light strike the ground more directly in
summer
the rays of light strike the ground less directly in
summer
one hemisphere of Earth is closer to the Sun in
summer
Question 38
0 / 1 point
If you see the Moon rising in the East just as the Sun is setting in the west then the phase of the
Moon is
new
first
quarter full
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waning crescent
third quarter
Question 39
1 / 1 point
The number of days in a month is associated with
Lunar phases
Various annual holidays
Earth’s rotation around
the Moon
The motion of Jupiter around the Sun
Solar phases
Question 40
0 / 1 point
The lunar month is longer than the sidereal month because
the Moon orbits the Earth faster than the Earth orbits the Sun.
the Moon has to complete more than one full orbit around the Earth to complete the
cycle of lunar phases.
the lunar month is based on the Moon's orbit, while the sidereal month is based on
the Earth's orbit.
the Moon completes the cycle of lunar phases before it completes a full orbit around
the Earth.
the Moon orbits the Earth faster than the Earth rotates.
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estion 1
0 / 1 point
Which of the following objects within our solar system is the smallest?
Earth
Neptune
Mercury
Moon
Mars
Question 2
1 / 1 point
On the Cosmic Calendar when did the big bang occur?
September 1
March 21
December 25
January 1
December 31
Question 3
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements does
not
use the term
light-year
in an appropriate way?
It will take me light-years to complete this
homework assignment.
It will take the Voyager spacecraft about 20,000
years to travel just 1 light-year.
A light-year is about 10 trillion kilometres.
The Milky Way Galaxy is about 100,000 light-years
in diameter.
It's about 4 light-years from here to Alpha Centauri.
Question 4
1 / 1 point
On the Cosmic Calendar about when did the solar system begin to form?
January 1
About mid-November
Around the summer solstice
–
June 21
Around the spring equinox
–
March 21
Somtime around Labour Day
–
September 1
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Question 5
0 / 1 point
In our journey outward from the Sun what is a feature you notice about the spacing of the planets?
What’s most interesting is that some planets share
the same orbit.
The spacing between the planets is actually quite
random with some spaces being small followed by a
huge spacing outward to the next one and then a
small spacing and so on.
The inner planets are grouped together and
relatively close to the Sun while the planets from
Jupiter out to Neptune are spaced much further
apart.
The largest planets are closer to the Sun while the
smaller Earth-like planets are much farther from the
Sun.
They are all pretty much evenly spaced
Question 6
0 / 1 point
What is the largest object in the solar system?
Neptune
Earth, of course
Ceres, the largest asteroid in the asteroid belt
The Sun
Jupiter
Question 7
0 / 1 point
The order of the planets beyond Earth, away from the Sun, is
Mars, Venus, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune, Pluto
Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune, Pluto
Venus, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune, Pluto
Mars, Saturn, Jupiter, Uranus, Neptune, Pluto
Mars, Jupiter, Uranus, Saturn, Neptune, Pluto
Question 8
0 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about the sizes of stars is most true?
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The largest known star, VY Canis Majoris, is about 5
times larger than the Sun.
All stars in our galaxy are about the same size.
Rigel, the bluish star representing the left foot of
Orion, is considerably larger than the Sun.
Antares, the brightest star in the constellation
Scorpius, is bigger than Earth but smaller than the
Sun.
The Sun is one of the bigger stars in our galaxy.
Question 9
1 / 1 point
Which of the following is largest?
size of a typical galaxy
1 Astronomical Unit
size of Pluto's orbit
1 light-year
distance to the nearest star (other than our Sun)
Question 10
0 / 1 point
The solar system consists of
The inner planets (Mercury, Mars, Earth, Venus)
plus the Sun
All of the stars in our galaxy
The Sun and its planets, asteroids and comets
The Sun plus the asteroids and comets
The Sun, Moon and stars in our galaxy
Question 11
0 / 1 point
Which of the following has your "address" in the correct order?
you, Earth, solar system, Local Group, Local
Supercluster, Milky Way
you, Earth, Local Group, Local Supercluster, solar
system, Milky Way
you, Earth, solar system, Milky Way, Local
Supercluster, Local Group
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you, Earth, solar system, Milky Way, Local Group,
Local Supercluster
you, Earth, solar system, Local Group, Milky Way,
Local Supercluster
Question 12
0 / 1 point
Which of the following is furthest from the Sun?
a comet in the Kuiper belt
a comet in the Oort cloud
an asteroid in the asteroid belt
Pluto
Neptune
Question 13
0 / 1 point
the last few months of the year
the last few seconds of the
year
the last few minutes of the
year
the last few weeks of the year
the last few days of the year
Group B
estion 14
0 / 1 point
What is the ecliptic?
the Sun's apparent path along the celestial sphere
the Moon's apparent path along the celestial sphere
the Sun's daily path across the sky
the constellations commonly used in astrology to
predict the future
when the Moon passes in front of the Sun
Question 15
1 / 1 point
Each cycle of the Earth’s precession takes
about
2,600 years
2,600 light-years
On the Cosmic Calendar (where the age of the universe in condensed into the equivalent to one
calendar year) most of
recorded history takes up what portion of the “year”?
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26,000 years
26,000 light-years
None of the above
Question 16
1 / 1 point
The Tropic of Capricorn: the Antarctic Circle
The Tropic of Cancer: the Arctic Circle
The Equator; Edmonton
The Tropic of Capricorn; the Arctic Circle
The Tropic of Cancer; the Antarctic Circle
Question 17
0 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about sidereal and solar days is not true?
The time it takes for the Sun to make one circuit of
our sky is one solar day.
A solar day is 4 minutes longer than a sidereal day.
The time it takes for the Moon to make one circuit
of our sky is one solar day.
The time it takes for a star to make one circuit of
our sky is one sidereal day.
A solar day represents more than 360 degrees of
rotation for the Earth.
Question 18
0 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about the ecliptic plane is not true?
During a solar eclipse, the Moon lies in the ecliptic
plane.
The nodes of the Moon's orbit lie in the ecliptic
plane.
It is the plane of the Earth's orbit around the Sun.
During a lunar eclipse, the Moon lies in the ecliptic
plane.
It is the plane of the Moon's orbit around the Earth.
Question 19
0 / 1 point
On the summer solstice in June, the Sun will be directly above
north of
will experience daylight all day.
and all locations
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Which of the following statements about the Celestial Sphere is not true.
The Celestial Equator lies in the Ecliptic Plane.
The Celestial Sphere does not take into account the
fact that stellar distances from Earth vary.
The Celestial Sphere is an imaginary sphere
surrounding the Earth with all the stars fixed on it.
The North and South Celestial poles are coincident
with the Earth’s North and South Poles.
The Celestial Sphere is completely divided up into
88 surface areas with one constellation in each
area.
Question 20
0 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about lunar phases is true?
The time between new moons is two weeks.
It is possible to have two full moons during
November, but not during December.
The full moon sometimes rises around midnight.
It is possible to have two full moons during
January, but not during February.
The time from one new moon to the next new
moon is the same as the time from first-quarter
moon to third-quarter moon.
Question 21
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements is true?
A)
Both the Northern and Southern hemispheres receive the same amount of
equinoxes.
B)
Both the Northern and Southern hemispheres receive the same amount of
solstices.
C) The Northern Hemisphere receives the most direct sunlight on the summe
D) The Southern Hemisphere receives the most direct sunlight on the summe
E) Both A and C are true.
Questio
n 22
1 / 1
point
Suppose you live on the Moon. How long is a day (i.e., from sunrise to sunrise)?
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a year
24 hours
a lunar month
about 18 years
23 hours, 56 minutes
Question 23
1 / 1 point
The ecliptic is the apparent path of the Sun moving how?
eastward among the stars
northeastward among the stars
southwestward among the stars
westward among the stars
northward among the stars
Question 24
1 / 1 point
increasing the size of the Earth's orbit
speeding up the Earth's orbital motion
getting away from streetlights
slowing down the Earth's orbital motion
speeding up the precession of the Earth's axis
Question 25
0 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about the Moon is true?
The Moon goes through a cycle of phases because
it always has the same side facing the Earth.
The Moon's distance from the Earth varies during
its orbit.
The side of the Moon facing away from the Earth is
in perpetual darkness.
If you see a full Moon from North America,
someone in South America would see a new moon.
The Moon is only visible at night.
Question 26
0 / 1 point
We can't detect stellar parallax with naked-eye observations. Which of the following would make
parallax easier to observe?
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What conditions are required for a solar eclipse?
The phase of the Moon must be full, and the nodes
of the Moon's orbit must be nearly aligned with the
Earth and the Sun.
The phase of the Moon can be new or full, and the
nodes of the Moon's orbit must be nearly aligned
with the Earth and the Sun.
The phase of the Moon must be full, and the
Moon's orbital plane must lie in the ecliptic.
The phase of the Moon must be new, and the
nodes of the Moon's orbit must be nearly aligned
with the Earth and the Sun.
The phase of the Moon must be new, and the
Moon's orbital plane must lie in the ecliptic.
Question 27
0 / 1 point
What makes the North Star, Polaris, special?
It is the star directly on your northern horizon.
It is the star straight overhead.
It appears very near the north celestial pole.
It is the brightest star in the sky.
It can be used to determine your longitude on Earth.
Group C
estion 28
1 / 1 point
Suppose you lived at the Earth's equator. Which of the following statements would not be true?
The north celestial pole is directly on your horizon,
due north (with Polaris quite nearby).
The south celestial pole is directly on your horizon,
due south.
Every day of the year, the Sun is above your
horizon for 12 hours and below it for 12 hours.
The celestial equator goes through your sky from
due east on your horizon, through 50 degree
altitude in the south, to due west on the horizon.
No stars are circumpolar.
Question 29
1 / 1 point
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first quarter
waning crescent
new
third quarter
full
Question 30
0 / 1 point
The number of days in a month is associated with
Earth’s rotation around the
Moon
Lunar phases
Solar phases
The motion of Jupiter around the Sun
Various annual holidays
Question 31
0 / 1 point
Which of the following is the best reason for the leap years?
the tilt of the Earth's axis
the combined effect of the rotation of the Earth and
the precession of the Earth’s axis
the non-circular orbit of the Earth around the Sun
precession of the Earth's axis
the Earth year being a non-integer number of Earth
days
Question 32
1 / 1 point
The lunar month is longer than the sidereal month because
the Moon completes the cycle of lunar phases
before it completes a full orbit around the Earth.
the lunar month is based on the Moon's orbit, while
the sidereal month is based on the Earth's orbit.
the Moon has to complete more than one full orbit
around the Earth to complete the cycle of lunar
phases.
If you see the Moon rising in the East just as the Sun is setting in the west then the phase of the
Moon is
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the Moon orbits the Earth faster than the Earth
rotates.
the Moon orbits the Earth faster than the Earth
orbits the Sun.
Question 33
0 / 1 point
Mercury is in superior conjunction with the Earth when it is
Perfectly in line with the Earth, the Sun, and
Venus.
Perfectly in line with the Earth and Polaris but on
the other side of the Sun.
Perfectly in line with the Sun and Earth with the
Earth between the Sun and Mercury.
Perfectly in line with the Sun and Earth and in
between them.
Perfectly in line with the Sun and Earth but on the
side opposite the Sun.
Question 34
1 / 1 point
Day and night are caused by
the tilt of the Earth on its axis
the rotation of the Earth on its axis
the revolution of the Earth around the Sun
a combination of the rotation of the Moon around
the Earth and the Earth around the Sun
the revolution of the Moon around the Earth
Question 35
1 / 1 point
Right ascension is expressed in
Hours per day
Hours, minutes and seconds from 0 to 24 hours
Light-years
Degrees from 0 to 360
Metres
Question 36
1 / 1 point
If you lived at the North Pole at night the stars would
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never rise or set but move in ellipses around
Polaris.
rise in the east, cross your meridian at midnight,
and set in the west.
show retrograde motion every night of the year.
never rise or set but move in circles around Polaris,
the North Star.
rise in the west, cross your meridian at midnight,
and set in the east.
Question 37
1 / 1 point
The problem with the Julian calendar was that it was
Too short by 11 minutes in a year
Too short by 11 hours in a year
Too long by 11 minutes in a year
Too long by 11 days in a year
There was nothing wrong with it and that’s why we
use it today.
Question 38
1 / 1 point
Which of the following best describes the tropic of Cancer?
It is a place where the Sun appears to remain
stationary in the sky.
It is any place where it is always very warm.
It is a place where the Sun is directly overhead at
noon on the spring equinox.
It is another name for the equator.
It is a place where the Sun is directly overhead at
noon on the summer solstice.
Question 39
1 / 1 point
Mars is in opposition with the Earth when it is
Perfectly in line with the Sun and Earth but on the
side opposite the Sun.
Perfectly in line with the Sun and Earth with the
Earth between the Sun and Mars.
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Perfectly in line with the Earth, the Sun, and
Mercury.
Perfectly in line with the Earth and Polaris.
Perfectly in line with the Sun and Earth and in
between them.
Question 40
0 / 1 point
The tilt of the Earth’s axis causes the seasons
because
the tilt of the Earth’s axis does not cause the seasons at all; it’s
because of Earth’s eccentric orbit
the days are longer in summer
the rays of light strike the ground less directly in summer
one hemisphere of Earth is closer to the Sun in summer
the rays of light strike the ground more directly in summer
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Quiz Submissions - Module 2 Test- Requires Respondus LockDown
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Group A
Question 1
1 / 1 point
Which of the following is not part of Newton’s universal law of gravitation?
The gravitational attraction between two objects depends inversely as the square of the distance
between their centres of mass.
If the Sun’s mass were to suddenly be reduced to 50% of its present mass the force of gravity on
the
Earth caused by the Sun would be exactly half of what it now is.
The gravitational attraction between two objects depends directly on the distance between their
centres of mass.
The gravitational attraction between two objects depends on the product of their masses.
The force of gravity between Earth and Mars depends on both the mass of Mars and the mass of the
Earth.
Question 2
0 / 1 point
Who built Stonehenge?
The Druids, a priestly class of Celts, in the 1000year period prior to Christ’s
birth.
A combination of Scottish and Irish peoples around 1500 AD.
1/14
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-
Welsh peoples from 1500 to 1100 BCE.
Nobody really knows for sure.
The Teutonic kings of England during a 500-year period between 100 AD and 1100 AD
Question 3
1 / 1 point
The names of the seven days of the week are based on the
seven brightest stars in the prominent constellation Orion.
seven planets closest to the Sun.
most popular Norse gods.
seven naked-eye objects that appear to move among the constellations.
seven largest constellations of the ancient world.
Question 4
1 / 1 point
Spring tides occur
Between March 21 and June 21 when the Moon is in its first quarter.
Between March 21 and June 21 when the Moon is in its third quarter.
Only between March 21 and June 21 when the Moon is full.
At any time of the year when the Moon is full.
Any of the above.
Question 5
1 / 1 point
The Metonic cycle recognizes what?
The cycle of eclipses that take place over an 18-year period.
The cycle of sunspots that seems to repeat every 11 years.
The brand of bicycles that most riders use on the Tour de France.
The cycle of lunar phases that repeats every 19 years.
The cycle of seasons on Earth.
2/14
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Question 6
1 / 1 point
Galileo observed that Jupiter has moons. From this information you may conclude that
Jupiter orbits the Sun.
Jupiter is the centre of the solar system.
some things do not orbit Earth.
Jupiter orbits the Earth.
Ptolemy’s vision of the solar system is
correct.
Question 7
1 / 1 point
Ptolemy was important in the history of astronomy because he
was the first to believe in an Earth-centred universe.
developed the first scientific model of the universe.
was the first to create a model of the solar system that placed the Sun rather than the Earth at the
centre.
was the first to believe that all orbits are perfect circles.
developed a model of the solar system that made sufficiently accurate predictions of planetary
positions to remain in use for many centuries.
Question 8
1 / 1 point
The scientific method is best described by which of the following?
A system of using other
scientists’
data to refute theories and formulate new ones that suit your own
beliefs and inclinations.
A system of collecting and analyzing data and formulating hypotheses which lead to the dispelling of
or proving old theories.
A system of data collection involving new investigations which hopefully lead to new, irrefutable
theories resulting in Nobel prizes.
A system of using other scientists’ data and using deductive and inductive reasoning to prove
theories.
A system of collecting and analyzing data, formulating a hypothesis, testing the hypothesis and
reformulating the hypothesis as needed.
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Question 9
0 / 1 point
Galileo was a very important figure in the development of astronomy. Which of the following statements about
Galileo’s accomplishments is
false
?
Galileo was the first to observe the four largest moons of Jupiter.
Galileo observed Venus going through a phase cycle similar to the cycle the Moon goes through.
Galileo observed, with his telescope, sunspots moving across the face of the Sun and concluded that
the Sun rotated on a rotational axis.
Galileo, with the aid of his telescope, saw that the Milky Way was made up of thousands of stars
rather than diffuse nebulae.
Galileo looked at the Moon through his telescope and observed rivers, mountains and lakes filled with
liquid.
Question 10
0 / 1 point
Which statement about the Cosmological Principle is valid?
It is based on three tenets involving the uniqueness of Earth, the universality of the laws of physics
and chemistry, and the concept that our galaxy is the centre of the Universe.
It is based on two tenets involving the uniqueness of Earth and the universality of the laws of physics
and chemistry.
It is based on two tenets involving the universality of the laws of physics and chemistry and the belief
that there is nothing special about the Earth.
It is based on only one tenet and that is that the laws of physics and chemistry apply only to our
solar system.
It is based on only one tenet (principle) and that is that there is nothing special about the Earth.
Question 11
1 / 1 point
Suppose you read on a newspaper website that a new planet has been found having an average speed of 33
km/sec. When it’s closest to the star it moves at 31 km/sec and when it’s farthest it moves at 35 km/sec. Why
is this information incorrect?
From
Kepler’s second law we infer that a planet must move fastest when it’s closest, not when it
is
farthest away.
Using these values, the square of the orbital period will not be equal to the cube of the semimajor
axis.
Planets remain at a
constant distance from their stars so they don’t move closer or farther
away.
Kepler’s second law says the planet sweeps our equal areas in equal times, so the speed of
the
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planets never change.
The average speed is too slow.
Question 12
1 / 1 point
What determines the date for Easter?
The Sunday before the first new moon following the spring equinox.
The second Sunday after the spring equinox.
The day the Easter bunny arrives at your house.
The Sunday following the first full moon following the spring equinox.
The first Sunday after the spring equinox.
Question 13
1 / 1 point
Which of the following best describes the origin of ocean tides on Earth?
Tides are caused by the difference in the force of gravity exerted by the Moon across the sphere of
the Earth.
Tides are caused by the 23.5
tilt of the Earth's rotational axis to the ecliptic plane.
Tides are caused by the force of gravity exerted by the Moon on the Earth.
Tides are caused primarily by the gravitational force of the Sun, the Moon has nothing to do with it.
The Moon's gravity pulls harder on water than on land, because water is less dense than rock.
Question 14
1 / 1 point
Which of the
following is not an example of a “pseudoscience”?
Reading tea leaves
Palm Reading
Astronomy
Astrology
Tarot Cards
-
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Group B
Question 15
1 / 1 point
What is acceleration?
It is something caused by gravity and it has a value of 980 metres/second.
It’s really just another name for
force.
It is a quantity, useful in physics, which has units of distance divided by time.
When you are traveling along a straight line at constant speed you are said to be
“accelerating”.
It is the rate of change of velocity with time.
Question 16
1 / 1 point
When a rock is held above the ground, we say it has some potential energy. When we let it go, it falls and we
say the potential energy is converted to kinetic energy. Finally, the rock hits the ground. What has happened to
the energy?
It is transformed back into gravitational potential energy.
The energy goes into the ground and, as a result, the orbit of the Earth about the Sun is slightly
changed.
The energy goes to producing sound and to heating the ground, rock, and surrounding air.
The rock keeps the energy inside it (saving it for later use).
It is lost forever. Energy does not have to be conserved.
Question 17
1 / 1 point
Which of the following are systems for measuring temperature?
A) Fahrenheit
B) Celsius
C) Newtonian
D) Kelvin
E) Only A, B and D
Question 18
1 / 1 point
-
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Upon what quantities does angular momentum depend?
Momentum and angular velocity
Three quantities
–
an object’s weight, the acceleration of gravity, and its
radius
Just the mass of the object
Three quantities
–
an object’s mass,
its rotational speed, and its radius or distance from the
rotational centre
Force and radius
Question 19
1 / 1 point
What would happen if the Space Shuttle were launched with a speed greater than the Earth's escape velocity?
It would take less time to reach its bound orbit.
It would travel in a higher orbit around the Earth.
It would be in an unstable orbit.
It would travel away from the Earth into the solar system.
It would orbit the Earth at a faster velocity.
Question 20
1 / 1 point
If your mass is 75 kg on Earth, what would be your mass on Saturn which is about 95 times as massive as
Earth?
About 75 x 95 = 7,125 kilograms
About 20 kilograms (95
–
75 = 20) because the radius of Saturn is so much greater
About the same, 75 kg
About 75 pounds
About 75 grams
Question 21
0 / 1 point
Which of the following is not a unit of speed?
millimetres/minute
-
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light-years/second
kilometres/hour
centimetres/light-
year
metres/second
Question 22
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements is not one of Newton's laws of motion?
The net force applied to an object is equal to its mass times its velocity.
The rate of change of momentum of an object is equal to the net force applied to the object.
For any force, there always is an equal and opposite reaction force.
In the absence of a net force, an object moves with constant velocity.
The net force applied to an object is equal to its mass times its acceleration.
Question 23
0 / 1 point
Which of the following is not regarded as a heat transfer mechanism?
A) Segregation
B) Convection
C) Radiation
D) Conduction
E) Only A, B and C
Question 24
1 / 1 point
Radiative (or radiant) energy is
any energy connected with motion.
energy used in home radiators.
energy from nuclear power plants.
-
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light
energy.
heat
energy.
Question 25
1 / 1 point
A skater can spin faster by pulling in her arms closer to her body or spin slower by spreading her arms out
from her body. This is due to
The conservation of angular momentum.
The law of gravity.
Newton's third law.
The conservation of momentum.
The conservation of energy because energy can’t be created or
destroyed.
Question 26
1 / 1 point
An object is able to stay in orbit around another object because
It has just the right tangential speed.
It has just the right temperature.
It have just the right shape.
It just wants to.
It has just the right mass.
Question 27
1 / 1 point
What does temperature measure?
the average mass of particles in a substance
the total number of particles in a substance
the average kinetic energy of particles in a substance
the average size of particles in a substance
the total potential energy of particles in a substance
-
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Group C
Question 28
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about the Hubble Space Telescope is false?
It orbits the Earth well above the Earth’s
atmosphere
It operates 24 hours per day
It operates mainly at visible light frequencies
It was designed by a famous astronomer named Edwin Hubble
It will eventually be replaced by the James Webb Space Telescope
Question 29
0 / 1 point
The Doppler Shift is a wave phenomenon that
Uses the change in the speed of light to determine the speed of a moving star.
Uses the change in wavelength of light to determine the speed of a moving star.
Uses the change in the frequency of light to determine the age of a moving star.
Uses the change in wavelength of light to determine the age of a moving star.
Uses the change in light intensity to determine the speed of a moving star.
Question 30
1 / 1 point
Without telescopes or other aid, we can see the Moon in the night sky because it
Emits infrared light because of its own internal heat.
reflects microwaves that, strangely enough, originate from the surface of Jupiter.
reflects infrared light coming from the Sun.
emits ultraviolet radiation because of all the radioactive rocks on the surface of the Moon.
reflects visible light coming from the Sun.
Question 31
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about X-rays and radio waves is not true?
-
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Neither Xrays nor radio waves can penetrate the Earth’s
atmosphere.
X-rays have a higher frequency than radio waves.
X-rays have shorter wavelengths than radio waves.
X-rays and radio waves are both forms of light.
X-rays have higher energy than radio waves.
Question 32
1 / 1 point
What do astronomers mean by light pollution?
Light pollution refers to harmful gases emitted by common street lights.
Light pollution is another name for sunlight, which makes it impossible to see stars in the daytime.
Light pollution refers to light used for human activities that brightens the sky and hinders
astronomical observations.
Light pollution refers to the lights that must be used inside major observatories and that make it
difficult for astronomers’ eyes to adapt to darkness.
Light pollution refers to pollution caused by light industry as opposed to heavy industry.
Question 33
1 / 1 point
Which of the following is not an advantage of the Hubble Space Telescope over ground-based telescopes?
It can observe infrared and ultraviolet light, as well as visible light.
Stars do not twinkle when observed from space.
It never has to close because of bad weather.
Although it orbits the Earth and is outside Earth’s atmosphere, it is, after all, closer to the
stars.
Observers on the ground can use it at any time of the 24-hour day.
Question 34
1 / 1 point
The 29.5-day lunar month results in full moon dates that slowly change from month to month. Eventually, this
entire cycle repeats such that a full moon that occurred on November 19 one year, let’s say, occurs on
November 19 again some years later. Which of the following statements about this cycle is true?
The dates for Easter are based on this cycle.
-
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This continual cycling of the lunar phase dates repeating on the same dates has been known since
Galileo’s time when the
telescope was first developed.
This cycle repeats every 19 years when the lunar phases occur again on the same dates.
It is known as the saros cycle.
This socalled Metonic cycle is a result of the Earth’s rotational axis being
tipped at 23.5 degrees to
the ecliptic plane.
Question 35
1 / 1 point
Suppose there are two monochromatic light beams. Beam 1 has half the wavelength of beam 2. How do their
frequencies compare?
They have the same frequency.
Beam 1 has ¼ the frequency of beam 2
Beam 1 has 2 times the frequency of Beam
2
Beam 1 has ½ the frequency of beam 2
Beam 1 has 4 times the frequency of Beam 2
ultraviolet
red
yellow
blue
infrared
Question 37
0 / 1 point
The trouble with refraction telescopes is that
it is impossible to view galaxies because of the type of light generated by them
different colours of visible starlight get focussed to different points in space making the image blurry
the bigger the telescope the heavier the main lens which makes it impossible to star-hop
-
12/14
A hot star emits primarily what colour of visible light?
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different colours of starlight get focussed differently because of the poor quality of the lenses
the lenses and mirrors that make up the telescope cannot be sonsistently co-ordinated to produce
clear images
Question 38
0 / 1 point
Spectroscopy can be used to
A) Determine the surface temperature of a planet in our solar system.
B) Determine the atmospheric composition of a planet in our solar system.
C) Determine the surface colour of a planet in our solar system.
D) Determine the presence of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere of Mars.
E) All of A, B, C and D.
Question 39
1 / 1 point
Most of everything we know from outside Earth we know because of our use of what?
Microwaves
Light
Heat
Our study of energy
X-ray detection
Question 40
1 / 1 point
From lowest energy to highest energy, which of the following correctly orders the different categories of
electromagnetic radiation?
radio, infrared, visible light, ultraviolet, X rays, gamma rays
infrared, visible light, ultraviolet, X rays, gamma rays, radio
gamma rays, X rays, visible light, ultraviolet, infrared, radio
visible light, infrared, X rays, ultraviolet, gamma rays, radio
-
13/14
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radio, X rays, visible light, ultraviolet, infrared, gamma rays
Attempt Score: 32 / 40 - A-
Overall Grade (highest attempt): 32 / 40 - A-
Done
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Quiz Submissions - Module 2 Test- Requires Respondus
LockDown Browser
Group A
Question 1
1 / 1 point
Which of the following best describes the origin of ocean tides on Earth?
The Moon's gravity pulls harder on water than on land, because water is less dense than
rock.
Tides are caused by the 23.5
tilt of the Earth's rotational axis to the ecliptic plane.
Tides are caused by the force of gravity exerted by the Moon on the Earth.
Tides are caused primarily by the gravitational force of the Sun, the Moon has nothing to do
with it.
Tides are caused by the difference in the force of gravity exerted by the Moon across the
sphere of the Earth.
Question 2
1 / 1 point
When Copernicus first created his Sun-centred model of the universe, it did not lead to substantially
better predictions of planetary positions than the Ptolemaic model. Why not?
Copernicus used perfect circles for the orbits of the planets.
Copernicus placed the Sun at the centre but did not realize that the Moon orbits the Earth.
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Copernicus misjudged the speeds at which the planets orbit the Sun.
Copernicus misjudged the distances between the planets.
Copernicus placed the planets in the wrong order going outward from the Sun.
Question 3
1 / 1 point
The scientific method is best described by which of the following?
A system of using other scientists’ data and using deductive and inductive reasoning
to
prove theories.
A system of collecting and analyzing data and formulating hypotheses which lead to the
dispelling of or proving old theories.
A system of collecting and analyzing data, formulating a hypothesis, testing the hypothesis
and reformulating the hypothesis as needed.
A system of data collection involving new investigations which hopefully lead to new,
irrefutable theories resulting in Nobel prizes.
A system of using other scientists’ data to refute theories and formulate new ones that
suit
your own beliefs and inclinations.
Question 4
1 / 1 point
The Metonic cycle recognizes what?
The cycle of sunspots that seems to repeat every 11 years.
The cycle of lunar phases that repeats every 19 years.
The cycle of seasons on Earth.
The brand of bicycles that most riders use on the Tour de France.
The cycle of eclipses that take place over an 18-year period.
Question 5
1 / 1 point
Early Greek philosophers who influenced the development of scientific thought included
Pythagoras, Socrates, Kepler and Aristotle
Aristotle, Socrates, Plato, and Ptolemy
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Thales, Plato, Socrates, and Galileo
Pythagoras, Socrates, Artistotle Onasis, and Ptolemy
Ptolemy, Socrates, Tycho Brahe and Plato
Question 6
1 / 1 point
Which statement about the Cosmological Principle is valid?
It is based on only one tenet and that is that the laws of physics and chemistry apply only to
our solar system.
It is based on two tenets involving the uniqueness of Earth and the universality of the laws
of physics and chemistry.
It is based on two tenets involving the universality of the laws of physics and chemistry and
the belief that there is nothing special about the Earth.
It is based on three tenets involving the uniqueness of Earth, the universality of the laws of
physics and chemistry, and the concept that our galaxy is the centre of the Universe.
It is based on only one tenet (principle) and that is that there is nothing special about the
Earth.
Question 7
1 / 1 point
Which of the following is not an example of a “pseudoscience”?
Palm Reading
Tarot Cards
Astronomy
Astrology
Reading tea leaves
Question 8
1 / 1 point
Suppose a planet is discovered orbiting a star in a highly elliptical orbit. While the planet is close to
the star it
, but while it is far away it
.
rotates (spins) slower, rotates faster
moves slower, moves faster
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rotates (spins) faster, rotates slower
moves faster, moves slower
moves slower, rotates (spins) faster
Question 9
1 / 1 point
Who built Stonehenge?
The Druids, a priestly class of Celts, in the 1000year period prior to Christ’s
birth.
Nobody really knows for sure.
Welsh peoples from 1500 to 1100 BCE.
The Teutonic kings of England during a 500-year period between 100 AD and 1100 AD
A combination of Scottish and Irish peoples around 1500 AD.
Question 10
0 / 1 point
Galileo observed that Venus had phases very similar to the phases our Moon goes through. From this
he concluded that
Venus must, therefore, orbit the Sun and not Earth.
Venus must, therefore, have a moon just like
Earth.
Venus has its own epicycle just as Ptolemy predicted.
Venus must, therefore, orbit the Earth.
Venus must, therefore, be made of green cheese, just like the Moon.
Question 11
1 / 1 point
The names of the seven days of the week are based on the
seven planets closest to the Sun.
seven brightest stars in the prominent constellation Orion.
seven naked-eye objects that appear to move among the constellations.
most popular Norse gods.
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seven largest constellations of the ancient world.
Question 12
1 / 1 point
Kepler’s third law of planetary motion states that
the semimajor axis of a planet’s orbit is directly proportional to the cube of its period
of
motion around the Sun.
the square of the semimajor axis of a planet’s orbit is directly proportional to the cube of
its
period of motion around the Sun.
the cube of the semimajor axis of a planet’s orbit is directly proportional to the square of
its
period of motion around the Sun.
the square of the semimajor axis of a planet’s orbit is directly proportional to its period
of
motion around the Sun.
the semimajor axis of a planet’s orbit is directly proportional to its period of motion
around
the Sun.
Question 13
1 / 1 point
Ptolemy was important in the history of astronomy because he
was the first to believe in an Earth-centred universe.
was the first to believe that all orbits are perfect circles.
was the first to create a model of the solar system that placed the Sun rather than the Earth
at the centre.
developed a model of the solar system that made sufficiently accurate predictions of
planetary positions to remain in use for many centuries.
developed the first scientific model of the universe.
Question 14
1 / 1 point
Galileo observed that Jupiter has moons. From this information you may conclude that
Jupiter orbits the Earth.
Ptolemy’s vision of the solar system is
correct.
Jupiter orbits the Sun.
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Group B
Jupiter is the centre of the solar system.
some things do not orbit Earth.
Question 15
1 / 1 point
Upon what quantities does angular momentum depend?
Force and radius
Three quantities
–
an object’s mass, its rotational speed, and its radius or distance from
the
rotational centre
Momentum and angular velocity
Just the mass of the object
Three quantities
–
an object’s weight, the
acceleration of gravity, and its radius
Question 16
1 / 1 point
A green apple (nor your Mac computer) looks green because
it transmits green light and emits all other colors.
it reflects all colours but green light.
it emits green light and absorbs all other colors.
it absorbs green light and emits all other colors.
it reflects green light and absorbs all other colors.
Question 17
1 / 1 point
Radiative (or radiant) energy is
light energy.
any energy connected with motion.
heat energy.
energy used in home radiators.
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energy from nuclear power plants.
Question 18
1 / 1 point
Suppose that the Sun were to suddenly disappear from our solar system. What would happen to
Earth’s motion?
It would begin spiralling in toward the centre of the solar system.
It would begin travelling in a straight line heading out of the solar system.
It would begin orbiting Jupiter in a circular orbit because Jupiter is the next biggest object in
the solar system.
Nothing; it would continue to orbit the centre of the solar system along its current path
in
space.
It would suddenly stop in its orbit and remain in this spot forever.
Question 19
1 / 1 point
Which of the following are systems for measuring temperature?
A) Fahrenheit
B) Celsius
C) Newtonian
D) Kelvin
E) Only A, B and D
Question 20
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements is not one of Newton's laws of motion?
The rate of change of momentum of an object is equal to the net force applied to the object.
For any force, there always is an equal and opposite reaction force.
In the absence of a net force, an object moves with constant velocity.
The net force applied to an object is equal to its mass times its acceleration.
The net force applied to an object is equal to its mass times its velocity.
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Question 21
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements correctly describes the law of conservation of energy?
The total quantity of energy in the universe never changes.
Energy can change between many different forms, such as potential, kinetic, and thermal,
but it is ultimately destroyed.
An object always has the same amount of energy.
The fact that you can fuse hydrogen into helium to produce energy means that helium can
be turned into hydrogen to produce energy.
It is not really possible for an object to gain or lose potential energy, because energy cannot
be destroyed.
Question 22
1 / 1 point
Which of the following is not a unit of speed?
light-years/second
millimetres/minute
kilometres/hour
centimetres/light-
year
metres/second
Question 23
1 / 1 point
What is acceleration?
It is the rate of change of velocity with time.
It is something caused by gravity and it has a value of 980 metres/second.
When you are traveling along a straight line at constant speed you are said to be
“accelerating”.
It is a quantity, useful in physics, which has units of distance divided by time.
It’s
really just another name for force.
8/14
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Question 24
0 / 1 point
The amount of matter contained in an object is called its mass. Which of the following statements
about mass is
false
?
Mass is measured in kilograms.
The average human mass is about 150 pounds.
If you were to go to the Moon your mass would be the same as your mass on Earth.
Mass is measured in grams.
Weight and mass are not the same quantities.
Question 25
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about orbital motion is not true?
The Moon is in a stable orbit around the Earth.
An elliptical orbit is an example of an open
orbit.
Once an object is in a “circular” orbit it does not need any additional
energy to remain in
orbit.
Some orbits are closed orbits, like that of the Moon, and some are open orbits where the
orbiting object comes closest to Earth (say) just once.
Two objects orbiting each other revolve about their mutual centre of mass (sometimes
called the barycentre).
Question 26
1 / 1 point
When a rock is held above the ground, we say it has some potential energy. When we let it go, it falls
and we say the potential energy is converted to kinetic energy. Finally, the rock hits the ground. What
has happened to the energy?
It is lost forever. Energy does not have to be conserved.
The energy goes to producing sound and to heating the ground, rock, and surrounding air.
The energy goes into the ground and, as a result, the orbit of the Earth about the Sun is
slightly changed.
It is transformed back into gravitational potential energy.
The rock keeps the energy inside it (saving it for later use).
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Question 27
0 / 1 point
Which of the following is not regarded as a heat transfer mechanism?
A) Segregation
B) Convection
C) Radiation
D) Conduction
E) Only A, B and C
Group C
Question 28
1 / 1 point
Most of everything we know from outside Earth we know because of our use of what?
Our study of energy
Heat
X-ray detection
Light
Microwaves
Question 29
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements best describes the principle advantage of telescopes over eyes?
Telescopes can see farther without image distortion and can record more accurate colours.
Telescopes can collect far more light with far better angular resolution.
Telescopes can collect more light and are unaffected by twinkling.
Telescopes have much more magnification and better angular resolution.
Telescopes can collect far more light with far greater magnification.
Question 30
1 / 1 point
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Suppose there are two monochromatic light beams. Beam 1 has half the wavelength of beam 2. How
do their frequencies compare?
Beam 1 has ¼ the frequency of beam 2
Beam 1 has 2 times the frequency of Beam 2
Beam 1 has ½ the frequency of beam 2
They have the same frequency.
Beam 1 has 4 times the frequency of Beam 2
Question 31
1 / 1 point
What do astronomers mean by light pollution?
Light pollution refers to the lights that must be used inside major observatories and that
make it
difficult for astronomers’ eyes to adapt to
darkness.
Light pollution refers to harmful gases emitted by common street lights.
Light pollution is another name for sunlight, which makes it impossible to see stars in the
daytime.
Light pollution refers to pollution caused by light industry as opposed to heavy industry.
Light pollution refers to light used for human activities that brightens the sky and hinders
astronomical observations.
Question 32
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about the Hubble Space Telescope is false?
It will eventually be replaced by the James Webb Space Telescope
It operates mainly at visible light frequencies
It orbits the Earth well above the Earth’s
atmosphere
It operates 24 hours per day
It was designed by a famous astronomer named Edwin Hubble
Question 33
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about X-rays and radio waves is not true?
11/14
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X-rays and radio waves are both forms of light.
Neither X-
rays nor radio waves can penetrate the Earth’s
atmosphere.
X-rays have higher energy than radio waves.
X-rays have shorter wavelengths than radio waves.
X-rays have a higher frequency than radio waves.
Question 34
1 / 1 point
Without telescopes or other aid, we can see the Moon in the night sky because it
reflects infrared light coming from the Sun.
reflects microwaves that, strangely enough, originate from the surface of Jupiter.
Emits infrared light because of its own internal heat.
reflects visible light coming from the Sun.
emits ultraviolet radiation because of all the radioactive rocks on the surface of the Moon.
Question 35
1 / 1 point
The 29.5-day lunar month results in full moon dates that slowly change from month to month.
Eventually, this entire cycle repeats such that a full moon that occurred on November 19 one year,
let’s say, occurs on November 19 again some years later. Which of the
following statements about
this cycle is true?
It is known as the saros cycle.
This so-
called Metonic cycle is a result of the Earth’s rotational axis being tipped at
23.5
degrees to the ecliptic plane.
This continual cycling of the lunar phase dates repeating on the same dates has been known
since Galileo’s time when the telescope was first developed.
The dates for Easter are based on this cycle.
This cycle repeats every 19 years when the lunar phases occur again on the same dates.
Question 36
1 / 1 point
The Doppler Shift is a wave phenomenon that
12/14
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Uses the change in light intensity to determine the speed of a moving star.
Uses the change in the speed of light to determine the speed of a moving star.
Uses the change in wavelength of light to determine the speed of a moving
star.
Uses the change in wavelength of light to determine the age of a moving star.
Uses the change in the frequency of light to determine the age of a moving star.
Question 37
1 / 1 point
A hot star emits primarily what colour of visible light?
ultraviolet
red
infrared
blue
yellow
Question 38
1 / 1 point
From laboratory measurements, we know that a particular spectral line formed by hydrogen appears
at a wavelength of 486.1 nanometers (nm). The spectrum of a particular star shows the same
hydrogen line appearing at a wavelength of 496.1 nm (in other words, redshifted or having a longer
wavelength). What can we conclude?
The star is getting hotter.
The star is moving toward us.
The "star" actually is a planet.
The star is moving away from us.
The star is getting colder.
Question 39
1 / 1 point
The light gathering power of a 10-cm telescope is
that of a 20-cm telescope.
equal to
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less than
twice
greater than
10 times less
Question 40
1 / 1 point
The wavelength of a wave is
equal to the speed of the wave times the wave's frequency.
the distance between a peak of the wave and the next trough.
the distance between where the wave is emitted and where it is absorbed.
the distance between two adjacent peaks of the wave.
how strong the wave is.
Attempt Score:
37 / 40 - A+
Overall Grade
(highest attempt)
:
37 / 40 - A+
Group A
Question 1
0 / 1 point
Spring tides occur
Between March 21 and June 21 when the Moon is in its first quarter.
Between March 21 and June 21 when the Moon is in its third quarter.
Only between March 21 and June 21 when the Moon is full.
At any time of the year when the Moon is full.
Any of the above.
Question 2
1 / 1 point
What determines the date for Easter?
The Sunday before the first new moon following the spring equinox.
The day the Easter bunny arrives at your house.
The Sunday following the first full moon following the spring equinox.
The first Sunday after the spring equinox.
The second Sunday after the spring equinox.
Question 3
1 / 1 point
The Metonic cycle recognizes what?
The cycle of eclipses that take place over an 18-year period.
Done
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The cycle of lunar phases that repeats every 19 years.
The cycle of seasons on Earth.
The cycle of sunspots that seems to repeat every 11 years.
The brand of bicycles that most riders use on the Tour de France.
Question 4
0 / 1 point
Galileo observed that Venus had phases very similar to the phases our Moon goes through. From this he concluded that
Venus must, therefore, orbit the Earth.
Venus must, therefore, be made of green cheese, just like the Moon.
Venus has its own epicycle just as Ptolemy predicted.
Venus must, therefore, have a moon just like Earth.
Venus must, therefore, orbit the Sun and not Earth.
Question 5
0 / 1 point
The scientific method is best described by which of the following?
A system of using other
scientists’
data and using deductive and inductive reasoning to prove theories.
A system of collecting and analyzing data and formulating hypotheses which lead to the dispelling of or proving
old theories.
A system of collecting and analyzing data, formulating a hypothesis, testing the hypothesis and reformulating the
hypothesis as needed.
A system of using other scientists’ data to refute theories and formulate new ones that suit your own beliefs and
inclinations.
A system of data collection involving new investigations which hopefully lead to new, irrefutable theories
resulting in Nobel prizes.
Question 6
0 / 1 point
Which of the following is not part of Newton’s universal law of gravitation?
The gravitational attraction between two objects depends inversely as the square of the distance between their
centres of mass.
The gravitational attraction between two objects depends directly on the distance between their centres of mass.
If the Sun’s mass were to suddenly be reduced to 50% of its
present mass the force of gravity on the Earth caused
by the Sun would be exactly half of what it now is.
The force of gravity between Earth and Mars depends on both the mass of Mars and the mass of the Earth.
The gravitational attraction between two objects depends on the product of their masses.
Question 7
0 / 1 point
Kepler’s third law of planetary motion states that
the square of the semi-
major axis of a planet’s orbit is directly proportional to the cube of its
period of motion
around the Sun.
the semi-major axis of a
planet’s
orbit is directly proportional to the cube of its period of motion around the Sun.
the semi-major axis of a
planet’s
orbit is directly proportional to its period of motion around the Sun.
the cube of the semi-
major axis of a planet’s orbit is directly proportional to the square of its period of motion
around the Sun.
the square of the semi-
major axis of a planet’s orbit is directly proportional to its period of motion aro
und the
Sun.
Question 8
0 / 1 point
Suppose you read on a newspaper website that a new planet has been found having an average speed of 33 km/sec. When it’s clos
est
to the star it moves at 31 km/sec and when it’s farthest it moves at 35 km/sec. Why is
this information incorrect?
Kepler’s second law says the planet sweeps our equal areas in equal times, so the speed of the planets never
change.
Planets remain at a constant distance from their stars so they
don’t
move closer or farther away.
Using these values, the square of the orbital period will not be equal to the cube of the semimajor axis.
The average speed is too slow.
From
Kepler’s
second law we infer that a planet must move fastest when
it’s
closest, not when it is farthest away.
Question 9
1 / 1 point
When Copernicus first created his Sun-centred model of the universe, it did not lead to substantially better predictions of planetary
positions than the Ptolemaic model. Why not?
Copernicus placed the Sun at the centre but did not realize that the Moon orbits the Earth.
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Copernicus misjudged the distances between the planets.
Copernicus misjudged the speeds at which the planets orbit the Sun.
Copernicus used perfect circles for the orbits of the planets.
Copernicus placed the planets in the wrong order going outward from the Sun.
Question 10
1 / 1 point
Suppose a planet is discovered orbiting a star in a highly elliptical orbit. While the planet is close to the star it
, but while it
is far away it
.
rotates (spins) faster, rotates slower
moves slower, moves faster
moves faster, moves slower
moves slower, rotates (spins) faster
rotates (spins) slower, rotates faster
Question 11
1 / 1 point
Early Greek philosophers who influenced the development of scientific thought included
Aristotle, Socrates, Plato, and Ptolemy
Pythagoras, Socrates, Artistotle Onasis, and Ptolemy
Pythagoras, Socrates, Kepler and Aristotle
Ptolemy, Socrates, Tycho Brahe and Plato
Thales, Plato, Socrates, and Galileo
Question 12
0 / 1 point
Which of the following is not one of, nor follows directly from, Kepler's laws?
When a planet travels at slower speeds it must be nearer the Sun and when it speeds up it must be as far from
the Sun as it can get.
The orbit of each planet about the Sun is an ellipse with the Sun at one focus and nothing at the other focus.
As a planet moves around its orbit, it sweeps out equal areas in equal times.
The square of a planet’s orbital period is proportional to the cube of its average
orbital radius.
A planet travels faster when it is nearer to the Sun and slower when it is farther from the Sun.
Question 13
1 / 1 point
Galileo observed that Jupiter has moons. From this information you may conclude that
Jupiter orbits the Sun.
Jupiter orbits the Earth.
Jupiter is the centre of the solar system.
some things do not orbit Earth.
Ptolemy’s vision of the solar system is
correct.
Question 14
1 / 1 point
The names of the seven days of the week are based on the
seven planets closest to the Sun.
seven naked-eye objects that appear to move among the constellations.
most popular Norse gods.
seven largest constellations of the ancient world.
seven brightest stars in the prominent constellation Orion.
Group B
Question 15
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements correctly describes the law of conservation of energy?
An object always has the same amount of energy.
The total quantity of energy in the universe never changes.
It is not really possible for an object to gain or lose potential energy, because energy cannot be destroyed.
Energy can change between many different forms, such as potential, kinetic, and thermal, but it is ultimately
destroyed.
The fact that you can fuse hydrogen into helium to produce energy means that helium can be turned into
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hydrogen to produce energy.
Question 16
1 / 1 point
An object is able to stay in orbit around another object because
It have just the right shape.
It has just the right temperature.
It has just the right mass.
It just wants to.
It has just the right tangential speed.
Question 17
1 / 1 point
What is acceleration?
When you are traveling along a straight line at constant speed you are said to be
“accelerating”.
It is a quantity, useful in physics, which has units of distance divided by time.
It’s really just another name for
force.
It is the rate of change of velocity with time.
It is something caused by gravity and it has a value of 980 metres/second.
Question 18
1 / 1 point
What would happen if the Space Shuttle were launched with a speed greater than the Earth's escape velocity?
It would travel away from the Earth into the solar system.
It would travel in a higher orbit around the Earth.
It would orbit the Earth at a faster velocity.
It would be in an unstable orbit.
It would take less time to reach its bound orbit.
Question 19
0 / 1 point
The amount of matter contained in an object is called its mass. Which of the following statements about mass is false?
Mass is measured in kilograms.
Weight and mass are not the same quantities.
The average human mass is about 150 pounds.
Mass is measured in grams.
If you were to go to the Moon your mass would be the same as your mass on Earth.
Question 20
0 / 1 point
Which of the following statements is not one of Newton's laws of motion?
The net force applied to an object is equal to its mass times its acceleration.
For any force, there always is an equal and opposite reaction force.
The rate of change of momentum of an object is equal to the net force applied to the object.
In the absence of a net force, an object moves with constant velocity.
The net force applied to an object is equal to its mass times its velocity.
Question 21
1 / 1 point
What does temperature measure?
the total potential energy of particles in a substance
the average size of particles in a substance
the average mass of particles in a substance
the total number of particles in a substance
the average kinetic energy of particles in a substance
Question 22
1 / 1 point
A green apple (nor your Mac computer) looks green because
it emits green light and absorbs all other colors.
it absorbs green light and emits all other colors.
it transmits green light and emits all other colors.
it reflects all colours but green light.
it reflects green light and absorbs all other colors.
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Question 23
1 / 1 point
Suppose that the Sun were to suddenly disappear from our solar system. What would happen to Earth’s motion?
Nothing; it would continue to orbit the centre of the solar system along its current path in space.
It would suddenly stop in its orbit and remain in this spot forever.
It would begin orbiting Jupiter in a circular orbit because Jupiter is the next biggest object in the solar system.
It would begin spiralling in toward the centre of the solar system.
It would begin travelling in a straight line heading out of the solar system.
Question 24
1 / 1 point
A skater can spin faster by pulling in her arms closer to her body or spin slower by spreading her arms out from her body. This is due
to
The conservation of energy because energy can’t be created or
destroyed.
The conservation of angular momentum.
The law of gravity.
The conservation of momentum.
Newton's third law.
Question 25
1 / 1 point
At which lunar phases(s) are the tides most pronounced (the highest tide levels)?
New moon
First quarter
Both first and third quarters
Full Moon
Both new and full moons
Question 26
0 / 1 point
If your mass is 75 kg on Earth, what would be your mass on Saturn which is about 95 times as massive as Earth?
About the same, 75 kg
About 75 grams
About 75 x 95 = 7,125 kilograms
About 75 pounds
About 20 kilograms (95
–
75 = 20) because the radius of Saturn is so much greater
Question 27
0 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about orbital motion is not true?
Some orbits are closed orbits, like that of the Moon, and some are open orbits where the orbiting object comes closest to
Earth (say) just once.
An elliptical orbit is an example of an open orbit.
Two objects orbiting each other revolve about their mutual centre of mass (sometimes called the barycentre).
The Moon is in a stable orbit around the Earth.
Once an
object is in a “circular” orbit it does not need any additional energy to remain in orbit.
Group C
Question 28
0 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about the Hubble Space Telescope is false?
It operates 24 hours per day
It will eventually be replaced by the James Webb Space Telescope
It orbits the Earth well above the Earth’s
atmosphere
It was designed by a famous astronomer named Edwin Hubble
It operates mainly at visible light frequencies
Question 29
1 / 1 point
From lowest energy to highest energy, which of the following correctly orders the different categories of electromagnetic radiation?
gamma rays, X rays, visible light, ultraviolet, infrared, radio
infrared, visible light, ultraviolet, X rays, gamma rays, radio
radio, infrared, visible light, ultraviolet, X rays, gamma rays
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visible light, infrared, X rays, ultraviolet, gamma rays, radio
radio, X rays, visible light, ultraviolet, infrared, gamma rays
Question 30
1 / 1 point
The 29.5-day lunar month results in full moon dates that slowly change from month to month. Eventually, this entire cycle repeats
such that a full moon that occurred on November 19 one year, let’s say, occurs on November 19 aga
in some years later. Which of the
following statements about this cycle is true?
This so-
called Metonic cycle is a result of the Earth’s rotational axis being tipped at 23.5 degrees to the ecliptic
plane.
The dates for Easter are based on this cycle.
This continual cycling of the lunar phase dates repeating on the same dates has been known since Galileo’s time
when the telescope was first developed.
This cycle repeats every 19 years when the lunar phases occur again on the same dates.
It is known as the saros cycle.
Question 31
1 / 1 point
A hot star emits primarily what colour of visible light?
red
blue
infrared
yellow
ultraviolet
Question 32
0 / 1 point
From laboratory measurements, we know that a particular spectral line formed by hydrogen appears at a wavelength of 486.1
nanometers (nm). The spectrum of a particular star shows the same hydrogen line appearing at a wavelength of 496.1 nm (in other
words, redshifted or having a longer wavelength). What can we conclude?
The star is moving away from us.
The star is getting colder.
The "star" actually is a planet.
The star is moving toward us.
The star is getting hotter.
Question 33
1 / 1 point
Suppose there are two monochromatic light beams. Beam 1 has half the wavelength of beam 2. How do their frequencies compare?
Beam 1 has ½ the frequency of beam 2
They have the same frequency.
Beam 1 has 2 times the frequency of Beam 2
Beam 1 has ¼ the frequency of beam 2
Beam 1 has 4 times the frequency of Beam 2
Question 34
1 / 1 point
The two basic types of telescopes are what?
reflection and spectrographic
refraction and ones using lenses
refraction and Galilean
reflection and mirror
reflection and refrac
Question 35
1 / 1 point
Suppose the angular separation of two stars is smaller than the angular resolution of your eyes. How will the stars appear to your
eyes?
You will see two distinct stars.
You will see only the larger of the two stars, not the smaller one.
The two stars will look like a single point of light.
The two stars will appear to be touching, looking rather like a small dumbbell.
You will not be able to see the two stars at all.
Question 36
1 / 1 point
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What do astronomers mean by light pollution?
Light pollution refers to pollution caused by light industry as opposed to heavy industry.
Light pollution refers to the lights that must be used inside major observatories and that make it difficult for
astronomers’ eyes to adapt to darkness.
Light pollution refers to light used for human activities that brightens the sky and hinders astronomical
observations.
Light pollution is another name for sunlight, which makes it impossible to see stars in the daytime.
Light pollution refers to harmful gases emitted by common street lights.
Question 37
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements best describes the principle advantage of telescopes over eyes?
Telescopes can see farther without image distortion and can record more accurate colours.
Telescopes can collect far more light with far greater magnification.
Telescopes can collect more light and are unaffected by twinkling.
Telescopes can collect far more light with far better angular resolution.
Telescopes have much more magnification and better angular resolution.
Question 38
1 / 1 point
Which of the following is not an advantage of the Hubble Space Telescope over ground-based telescopes?
It can observe infrared and ultraviolet light, as well as visible light.
Stars do not twinkle when observed from space.
Observers on the ground can use it at any time of the 24-hour day.
It never has to close because of bad weather.
Although it orbits the Earth and is outside Earth’s atmosphere, it is, after all, closer to the
stars.
Question 39
1 / 1 point
The frequency of a wave is
the number of peaks passing by any point each second.
measured in cycles per second.
measured in Hertz (Hz).
equal to the speed of the wave divided by the wavelength of the wave.
all of the above.
Question 40
0 / 1 point
The light gathering power of a 10-cm telescope is
that of a 20-cm telescope.
equal to
greater than
twice
less than
10 times less
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14/14
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Question 1
0 / 1 point
Rank the following planets in order of size from the smallest to the largest.
Mercury, Mars, Earth, Uranus, Saturn
Mercury, Mars, Uranus, Saturn, Earth
Mars, Mercury, Earth, Saturn, Uranus
Uranus, Mars, Mercury, Earth, Saturn
Mars, Mercury, Earth, Saturn, Uranus
Question 2
0 / 1 point
We have determined the age of the solar system through:
A)
taking measurements of tree rings.
B)
radioactive dating.
C) the study of rocks and the determination of their composition.
D) the analysis of the sand on various beaches around the Earth.
E)
all of A, B, C and D.
Question 3
1 / 1 point
Ring systems around planets are:
quite common among terrestrial planets.
quite common among the large, gas planets; all Jovian planets have them.
fairly rare; just Venus and Saturn have them.
fairly rare; just Saturn has rings.
quite common; all planets have them.
Question 4
0 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about the Jovian planets is not true?
Saturn is the least dense planet, having a density less than water.
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The largest Jovian planet is Jupiter.
All the Jovian planets have ring systems.
Together, Jupiter and Saturn have over 100 moons.
The outermost Jovian planet, Uranus, is also the least massive.
Question 5
1 / 1 point
What is the origin of the atoms of hydrogen, oxygen and sodium in the perspiration that exits
your body during this astronomy test?
They were synthesized during the early stages of the Sun's formation and
spewed out from the Sun through the solar wind and our planet, Earth, simply
intercepted them.
All of these elements were synthesized inside stars more than 4.6 billion years
ago.
All of these elements were produced in the first few minutes after the big bang
event.
They were all fused deep inside Earth.
The hydrogen nuclei were produced a few minutes after the big bang event
13.8 billion years ago; the oxygen and sodium nuclei were synthesized inside
stars more than 4.6 billion years ago.
Question 6
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about the moons of the solar system is false?
Moons vary in size from quite small to the largest, Ganymede, which is just
over 2600 km in radius.
Mars has two small moons which are irregularly-shaped (not round).
Earth has one moon, named Moon, and no rings that we know of.
All planets have moons except Mercury.
Jupiter has the most moons in our solar system.
Question 7
1 / 1 point
The age of our solar system is approximately
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13.8 million years.
13.8 billion years.
4.6 million years.
10,000 years.
4.6 billion years.
Question 8
1 / 1 point
The rotation (daily spin) of the planets are:
All in the same direction (clockwise as seen from above the system)
All in the same direction (with the exception of Venus and Neptune)
All in the same direction (with the exception of Venus and Uranus)
All in the same direction (with the exception of Mercury)
All in the same direction (counter clockwise as seen from above the system)
Question 9
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about asteroids is false?
Some asteroids seem to have originated on Mars.
Sometime asteroids enter Earth's atmosphere but most burn up before they
reach Earth's surface.
Asteroids have been found outside the asteroid belt.
Most asteroids have congregated in the asteroid belt between Mars and
Jupiter.
An asteroid is just a failed comet.
Question 10
0 / 1 point
Which of the following characteristics of the terrestrial planets is (are) correct?
A)
They are relatively small, low density bodies with solid surfaces on which
to walk.
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B)
They are relatively small, high density objects with solid surfaces on which
to walk.
C)
They have varying sizes; Earth is one size but large Jupiter is also terrestrial
and you can walk on its surface.
D)
They are all closer to the Sun than the Jovian planets but their densities
are quite varied with one being less dense than water.
E)
All of A, B, C and D are correct.
Question 11
0 / 1 point
According to our theory of solar system formation, what is the origin of asteroids and comets?
Asteroids are the remains of a terrestrial planet that shattered, and comets
are the remains of a jovian planet that shattered.
Asteroids are the leftover planetesimals of the inner solar system, and comets
are the leftover planetesimals that formed beyond the frost line.
Asteroids and comets are both leftover planetesimals that formed between
the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.
Asteroids and comets represent material from interstellar space that was
captured in the solar nebula by gravity.
Asteroids are chunks of pure metal that condensed in the solar nebula, and
comets are chunks of pure rock that condensed in the solar nebula.
Question 12
1 / 1 point
Where are most of the known asteroids found?
in the Kuiper Belt.
between Jupiter and Saturn.
between Mars and Jupiter.
in the Oort Cloud.
between Mercury and Venus.
Question 13
1 / 1 point
Which of the following characteristics of the Jovian planets is (are) correct?
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A)
They have varying sizes; Jupiter is one size, Neptune about half as big and Mercury
is quite small.
B) They are relatively large, low density objects with solid surfaces.
C)
They are closer to the Sun than the terrestrial planets; that's why we can see them
at night.
D)
Both A and B are correct.
E)
None of A, B or C are correct.
Group B
Question 14
0 / 1 point
Which of the following solar system moons likely formed through the same processes as our
solar system?
A)
The moons of Mars, Phobos and Deimos.
B)
Venus's small moon, Dactyl.
C)
Jupiter's so-called Galilean moons.
D)
Uranus's moon, Triton
E)
All of A, C and D.
Question 15
0 / 1 point
How were the moons of the Jovian planets most likely formed?
Most of the solar system's moons initially formed around Jupiter which were
then ejected by Jupiter toward other planets which eventually captured them.
Early in their formation the planets spun wildly and flung off chunks of
themselves which coalesced as moons.
They were all formed in the Asteroid Belt between Venus and Jupiter and
through BB (Belt Benevolence) they got distributed among the Jovian planets.
Most likely by gravitationally attracting asteroids as a protoplanet might form.
Probably through the same process as the planets themselves formed.
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Question 16
1 / 1 point
What is differentiation in planetary geology?
the process by which gravity separates materials according to density
any process by which a planet's surface evolves differently from another
planet's surface
the process by which different types of minerals form a conglomerate rock
any process by which a planet evolves differently from its moons
any process by which one part of a planet's surface evolves differently from
another part of the same planet's surface
Question 17
0 / 1 point
The sticking together of small but solid particles is an important feature of the solar nebular
theory. What is this process known as?
Gluons
Differentiation
Condensation
Accretion
Gravitational collapse.
Question 18
1 / 1 point
Protoplanets grow into planetesimals by which processes?
A)
Colliding with other protoplanets.
B)
Gravitationally pulling in other protoplanets
C) Attracting other planetesimals with the same charge.
D)
A combination of A and B.
E)
A combination of A, B and C.
Question 19
1 / 1 point
Why are the inner planets made of denser materials than the outer planets?
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When the solar nebula formed a disk, materials naturally segregated into
bands, and in our particular solar system the denser materials settled nearer
the Sun while lighter materials are found in the outer part.
In the inner part of the nebula only metals and rocks were able to condense
because of the high temperatures, whereas hydrogen compounds, although
more abundant, were only able to condense in the cooler outer regions.
Denser materials were heavier and sank to the centre of the nebula.
In the beginning, when the protoplanetary disk was spinning faster,
centrifugal forces flung the lighter materials toward the outer parts of the
solar nebula.
The Sun's gravity pulled denser materials toward the inner part of the solar
nebula, while lighter gases escaped more easily.
Question 20
0 / 1 point
The terrestrial planet cores contain mostly metal because
metals sank to the centre during a time when the interiors were molten
throughout.
the entire planets are made mostly of metal.
radioactivity created metals in the core from the decay of uranium.
only metals condensed closest to the Sun in the solar nebula and the rocks
then accreted around them as the protoplanets cooled.
convection carried the metals to the core.
Question 21
0 / 1 point
The nebular theory of formation of the solar system successfully predict ts all but one of the
following. Which one does the theory not predict?
Planets orbit around the Sun in nearly circular orbits in a flattened disk.
The craters on the Moon.
Asteroids, Kuiper-belt objects and comets.
The equal number of terrestrial and Jovian planets.
The compositional differences between terrestrial and Jovian planets.
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Question 22
1 / 1 point
The first solid grains or flakes formed in our solar system by the process of
, the
addition of material to an object an atom or molecule at a time.
Hydration
Accretion
Vapourization
Sublimation
Condensation
Question 23
1 / 1 point
The terrestrial planets and the giant Jovian planets have different compositions because
the terrestrial planets have few moons.
the Jovian planets are closer to the Sun.
the Jovians are much larger.
the giant Jovian planets are made mostly of solids.
the terrestrial planets are closer to the Sun.
Question 24
0 / 1 point
According to our theory of solar system formation, what is Pluto?
Pluto is one of the largest of the Kuiper belt objects.
Pluto is a terrestrial planet that was shot out from the inner solar system to
its present location as the most distant planet.
Pluto is simply an oddball planet, and thus represents one of the "exceptions"
that the nebular theory cannot explain.
Pluto is a very small jovian planet.
Pluto is a terrestrial planet that happened to form at a large distance from the
Sun.
Question 25
1 / 1 point
What was the frost line of the solar system?
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the distance from the Sun beyond which temperatures were low enough for
metals to condense, between the Sun and the present-day orbit of Mercury
the distance from the Sun beyond which temperatures were low enough for
rocks to condense, between the present-day orbits of Mercury and Venus
the distance from the Sun beyond which temperatures were low enough for
hydrogen and helium to condense, between the present-day orbits of Jupiter
and Saturn
the distance from the Sun beyond which temperatures were low enough for
hydrogen compounds and methane to condense into ices, between the
present-day orbits of Mars and Jupiter
the distance from the Sun beyond which temperatures were low enough for
asteroids to form, between the present-day orbits of Venus and Earth
Question 26
0 / 1 point
Atmospheres formed around some terrestrial planets because
A)
outgassing through volcanic activity plus a strong enough gravity kept the
gas from escaping into space
B)
their gravity was great enough to capture atoms and molecules floating
around in the solar nebula
C)
radioactivity from surface rocks produced oxygen and carbon dioxide in
sufficient quantities to build up an atmosphere
D)
human activity produces carbon dioxide and plants produce oxygen which
are the main constituents of an atmosphere
E)
all of A, B, C and D.
Question 27
1 / 1 point
What is meant by the period of heavy bombardment?
It refers to a period of human history known as the Dark Ages when many people died
from being hit by the constant rain of meteors from the Kuiper Belt.
During the second world war London, England was heavily bombed by the German
Airforce.
During the 500-700 million years of the solar system existence there were plenty of
larger objects roaming around in the solar disk. These larger objects constantly
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bombarded the terrestrial objects building up their surfaces and often leaving large
craters that still exist today.
It refers to a particularly interesting period about 65 millions years ago when so many
asteroid hit Earth that many animal species, including the dinosaurs, were wiped out.
Throughout the solar system's existence the Jovian planets especially have been
bombarded with rogue asteroids leaving scars on their surfaces.
Group C
Question 28
0 / 1 point
What is the name of the exoplanet that has been found that is closest to our solar system?
Alpha Centauri Bb
Sirius
Fomalhaut b
Rigel
Kepler 56c
Question 29
0 / 1 point
Which statement best describes the direct detection technique for finding exoplanets?
Observing the slight shifting of the frequency of the light as the star wobbles
back and forth in space due to an exoplanet orbiting it.
Actually seeing the exoplanet orbiting the star through our more powerful
telescopes.
Observing the slight side-to-side movement of the star in space caused by an
exoplanet orbiting it.
Observing the gravitational effects the orbiting exoplanet has on other nearby
stars.
Observing the slight dip in the brightness of a star as the planet moves across
it's face.
Question 30
1 / 1 point
So far, about how many exoplanets have been discovered?
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700
around 75
about 4000
over 1500
150
Question 31
1 / 1 point
Which of the following techniques has so far yielded the fewest detections of an exoplanet?
Gravitational lensing.
Doppler technique
Transit method.
Astrometric method.
Direct Detection.
Question 32
0 / 1 point
Which statement best describes the transit technique for finding exoplanets?
Actually seeing the exoplanet orbiting the star through our more powerful
telescopes.
Observing the gravitational effects the orbiting exoplanet has on other nearby
stars.
Observing the slight shifting of the frequency of the light as the star wobbles
back and forth in space due to an exoplanet orbiting it.
Observing the slight dip in the brightness of a star as the planet moves across
it's face.
Observing the slight side-to-side movement of the star in space caused by an
exoplanet orbiting it.
Question 33
0 / 1 point
Thinking about our own solar system, which planet will have the greatest effect on the Sun's
movement about the solar system's centre of mass?
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Earth, because we live here.
Jupiter, because of its huge mass.
Mars, because it's the red planet.
Saturn, because of its large ring structure.
Mercury, because it is closest to the Sun.
Question 34
1 / 1 point
Why would a star continuously wobble back-and-forth in space?
Because it is revolving around a common centre of mass with other planets
Because of air currents in the atmosphere surrounding it
Because the nebula it formed out of collided with a supernova shockwave
Because it is undergoing precession
Because it had too much to drink
Question 35
1 / 1 point
Which statement best describes the Doppler technique for finding exoplanets?
Observing the gravitational effects the orbiting exoplanet has on other nearby
stars.
Observing the slight shifting of the frequency of the light as the star wobbles
back and forth in space due to an exoplanet orbiting it.
Observing the slight dip in the brightness of a star as the planet moves across
it's face.
Observing the slight side-to-side movement of the star in space caused by an
exoplanet orbiting it.
Actually seeing the exoplanet orbiting the star through our more powerful
telescopes.
Question 36
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about exoplanets is true?
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The large majority of confirmed exoplanets orbit their stars at radii less than 5
AU.
No planets have been found orbiting their stars at radii less than Mercury's
orbital radius.
A considerable number of exoplanets seem to have orbits that are quite
elliptical.
All of A, B and C are true.
Only A and C are true.
Question 37
0 / 1 point
What does the exoplanet descriptor "hot Jupiter" mean?
It's an exoplanet the same size as Jupiter but with an extensive ring system.
It's an exoplanet jult like Jupiter but orbiting much closer to its sun than 5 AU.
It's an exoplanet just like Jupiter but orbiting much further away from its sun
than 5 AU.
It's the latest fast car made by Toyota having Jupiter as its model name.
It's any exoplanet orbiting around a much bigger star than our Sun.
Question 38
0 / 1 point
Why is it easier to find exoplanets that are much more massive than the Earth?
Because they are mainly found around dimmer stars
Because their transits and tugging on their stars are easier to detect
Because there aren't any exoplanets with masses lower than Earth
Because the solar nebula theory predicts more massive exoplanets should
exist
Because massive exoplanets orbit more slowly
Question 39
0 / 1 point
What is an exoplanet moon?
It is an object orbiting a Kuiper Belt object.
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So far we have not detected any exoplanet moons so they don't exist.
It is an object orbiting an exoplanet just as our Moon orbits Earth.
It is an object orbiting an exostar.
It is an object orbiting an object other than Earth in our own solar system.
Question 40
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about exoplanets is false?
The information about exoplanets we have been able to determine so far seem to
indicate that most of them are similar to our own solar system component.
No planets have been found orbiting their stars at radii less than Mercury's orbital
radius.
The large majority of confirmed exoplanets orbit their stars at radii less than 5 AU.
The masses of the large majority of confirmed exoplanets that we have been able to
measure with any degree of certainty are larger than Earth's mass.
A considerable number of exoplanets seem to have orbits that are quite elliptical.
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Quiz Submissions • Module 3 Test• Requires Respondus
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Group A
Question 1
0 / 1 point
Which of the following statements is
not
an observed pattern of motion in our solar system?
Most planetary orbits lie nearly in the same plane.
Almost all moons orbit their planet in the same direction as the planet's rotation.
Most planets orbit at the same speed.
All planets orbit the Sun in the same direction.
Most planets rotate in the same direction in which they orbit.
Question 2
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about asteroids is
false
?
Some asteroids seem to have originated on Mars.
An asteroid is just a failed comet.
Most asteroids have congregated in the asteroid belt between Mars and Jupiter.
Sometime asteroids enter Earth's atmosphere but most burn up before they reach Earth's surface.
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Asteroids have been found outside the asteroid belt.
Question 3
1 / 1 point
When we examine of the types of planets making up the solar system we notice the following:
there are three types of planets: terrestrial, Jovian and small snowballs.
there is just one type of planet: round, small and rocky.
all planets making up the solar system are like Pluto.
there seems to be no general category of planets; each is unique and the
re are very few similarities
among them.
there are two types of planets: terrestrial and Jovian.
Question 4
1 / 1 point
We have determined the age of the solar system through:
A) taking measurements of tree rings.
B) radioactive dating.
C) the study of rocks and the determination of their composition.
D) the analysis of the sand on various beaches around the Earth.
E) all of A, B, C and D.
Question 5
1 / 1 point
Which of the following characteristics of the Jovian planets is (are) correct?
C)
They have varying sizes; Jupiter is one size, Neptune about half as big and Mercury is quite small.
B) They are relatively large, low density objects with solid surfaces.
C) They
are closer to the Sun than the terrestrial planets; that's why we can see them at
night.
D) Both A and B are correct.
E) None of A, B or C are correct.
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Question 6
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about the Jovian planets is
not
true?
Together, Jupiter and Saturn have over 100 moons.
The largest Jovian planet is Jupiter.
The outermost Jovian planet, Uranus, is also the least massive.
All the Jovian planets have ring systems.
Saturn is the least dense planet, having a density less than water.
Question 7
1 / 1 point
What is the origin of the atoms of hydrogen, oxygen and sodium in the perspiration that exits your body during
this astronomy test?
They were synthesized during the early stages of the Sun's formation and spewed out from the Sun
through the solar wind and our planet, Earth, simply intercepted them.
All of these elements were synthesized inside stars more than 4.6 billion years ago.
They were all fused deep inside Earth.
The hydrogen nuclei were produced a few minutes after the big bang event 13.8 billion years
ago;
the oxygen and sodium nuclei were synthesized inside stars more than 4.6 billion years ago.
All of these elements were produced in the first few minutes after the big bang event.
Question 8
0 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about meteorites is
true
?
A meteorite is the same thing as a meteoroid.
A meteorite becomes a meteoroid once it hits the Earth's surface.
A meteorite is what's left of a meteor when it hits the Earth's surface.
Meteorites are often called "shooting stars" when they are seen as flashes of light across the sky at
night.
A meteorite is the same thing as an asteroid.
Question 9
1 / 1 point
Where are most of the known asteroids found?
-
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in the Oort Cloud.
between Mars and Jupiter.
between Mercury and Venus.
between Jupiter and Saturn.
in the Kuiper Belt.
Question 10
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about the moons of the solar system is
false
?
All planets have moons except Mercury.
Earth has one moon, named Moon, and no rings that we know of.
Jupiter has the most moons in our solar system.
Mars has two small moons which are irregularly•shaped (not
round).
Moons vary in size from quite small to the largest, Ganymede, which is just over 2600 km in radius.
Question 11
1 / 1 point
The rotation (daily spin) of the planets are:
All in the same direction (with the exception of Venus and Neptune)
All in the same direction (counter clockwise as seen from above the system)
All in the same direction (clockwise as seen from above the system)
All in the same direction (with the exception of Venus and Uranus)
All in the same direction (with the exception of Mercury)
Question 12
1 / 1 point
Which of the following characteristics of the terrestrial planets is (are) correct?
A) They are relatively small, low density bodies with solid surfaces on which to walk.
B) They are relatively small, high density objects with solid surfaces on which to walk.
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A)
They have varying sizes; Earth is one size but large Jupiter is also terrestrial and you can walk on its surface.
B)
They are all closer to the Sun than the Jovian planets but their densities are quite varied with one being less
dense than water.
E) All of A, B, C and D are correct.
Question 13
1 / 1 point
Which of the following is
not
characteristic of the terrestrial planets?
They are more closely spaced together than the jovian planets.
They are relatively smaller than the jovian planets.
They have more moons than the jovian planets.
They have higher densities than the jovian planets
They all have solid surfaces.
Group B
Question 14
1 / 1 point
Which of the following solar system moons likely formed through the same processes as our solar system?
A) The moons of Mars, Phobos and Deimos.
B) Venus's small moon, Dactyl.
C) Jupiter's so•called Galilean
moons.
D) Uranus's moon, Triton
E) All of A, C and D.
Question 15
1 / 1 point
Why did the solar nebula heat up as it collapsed?
Nuclear fusion occurring in the core of the protosun produced energy that heated the nebula.
Collisions among planetesimals generated friction and heat.
Radiation from other nearby stars that had formed earlier heated the nebula.
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As the cloud shrank, its gravitational potential energy was converted to kinetic energy and then into
thermal energy.
The shock wave from a nearby supernova heated the gas.
Question 16
1 / 1 point
The terrestrial planet cores contain mostly metal because
the entire planets are made mostly of metal.
convection carried the metals to the core.
only metals condensed closest to the Sun in the solar nebula and the rocks then accreted around
them as the protoplanets cooled.
radioactivity created metals in the core from the decay of uranium.
metals sank to the centre during a time when the interiors were molten throughout.
Question 17
1 / 1 point
The terrestrial planets and the giant Jovian planets have different compositions because
the Jovian planets are closer to the Sun.
the Jovians are much larger.
the giant Jovian planets are made mostly of solids.
the terrestrial planets have few moons.
the terrestrial planets are closer to the Sun.
Question 18
1 / 1 point
According to our theory of solar system formation, what is Pluto?
Pluto is simply an oddball planet, and thus represents one of the "exceptions" that the nebular theory
cannot explain.
Pluto is one of the largest of the Kuiper belt objects.
Pluto is a terrestrial planet that was shot out from the inner solar system to its present location as the
most distant planet.
Pluto is a very small jovian planet.
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Pluto is a terrestrial planet that happened to form at a large distance from the Sun.
Question 19
1 / 1 point
According to our theory of solar system formation, why does the Sun rotate slowly today?
The Sun once rotated much faster, but it transferred angular momentum to planets and other objects
during close encounters.
The Sun once rotated much faster, but it lost angular momentum due to internal friction.
The Sun was born rotating slowly because the solar nebula had very little angular momentum.
The Sun once rotated much faster, but it lost angular momentum because everything slows down
with time.
The Sun once rotated much faster, but it transferred angular momentum to charged particles caught
in its magnetic field and then blew the particles away with its strong solar wind.
Question 20
1 / 1 point
What is differentiation in planetary geology?
any process by which a planet evolves differently from its moons
any process by which a planet's surface evolves differently from another planet's surface
the process by which different types of minerals form a conglomerate rock
any process by which one part of a planet's surface evolves differently from another part of the
same planet's surface
the process by which gravity separates materials according to density
Question 21
0 / 1 point
What constitutes the solar wind?
C)
It's very similar to the wind here on Earth which is merely the moving around of atmospheric gases.
B) It is the continuous stream of hot air being released by the fusion process deep inside the Sun.
C) It's the continuous emission of charged particles (electrons, protons, etc.) from the solar surface.
A)
The solar wind in not constant but happens in spurts especially during the time of coronal mass ejections
from sunspots.
B) It is a combination of both A and B.
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Question 22
1 / 1 point
What is meant by the period of heavy bombardment?
It refers to a particularly interesting period about 65 millions years ago when so many asteroid hit
Earth that many animal species, including the dinosaurs, were wiped out.
Throughout the solar system's existence the Jovian planets especially have been bombarded with
rogue asteroids leaving scars on their surfaces.
It refers to a period of human history known as the Dark Ages when many people died from being hit
by the constant rain of meteors from the Kuiper Belt.
During the
500•700
million years of the solar system existence there were plenty of larger objects
roaming around in the solar disk. These larger objects constantly bombarded the terrestrial objects
building up their surfaces and often leaving large craters that still exist today.
During the second world war London, England was heavily bombed by the German Airforce.
Question 23
1 / 1 point
Which of the following is most likely to describe a comet, but not an asteroid?
Comets reside with similar bodies in a sparsely populated belt.
Comets are leftover planetesimals from the time when the planets were formed.
Comets are partially but not totally composed of rocks and metals.
There really is no difference between a comet and an asteroid.
Comets are mainly composed of ice and snow with some dust and rocky bits.
Question 24
1 / 1 point
How were the moons of the Jovian planets most likely formed?
They were all formed in the Asteroid Belt between Venus and Jupiter and through BB (Belt
Benevolence) they got distributed among the Jovian planets.
Most of the solar system's moons initially formed around Jupiter which were then ejected by Jupiter
toward other planets which eventually captured them.
Most likely by gravitationally attracting asteroids as a protoplanet might form.
Early in their formation the planets spun wildly and flung off chunks of themselves which coalesced
as moons.
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Probably through the same process as the planets themselves formed.
Question 25
1 / 1 point
What was the frost line of the solar system?
the distance from the Sun beyond which temperatures were low enough for hydrogen and helium to
condense, between the
present•day
orbits of Jupiter and Saturn
the distance from the Sun beyond which temperatures were low enough for hydrogen compounds
and methane to condense into ices, between the
present•day
orbits of Mars and Jupiter
the distance from the Sun beyond which temperatures were low enough for metals to condense,
between the Sun and the present•day orbit of
Mercury
the distance from the Sun beyond which temperatures were low enough for asteroids to form,
between the present•day orbits of Venus and
Earth
the distance from the Sun beyond which temperatures were low enough for rocks to condense,
between the present•day orbits of Mercury and
Venus
Question 26
1 / 1 point
The nebular theory of formation of the solar system successfully predict ts all but one of the following. Which
one does the theory
not
predict?
The compositional differences between terrestrial and Jovian planets.
The equal number of terrestrial and Jovian planets.
Asteroids, Kuiper•belt objects
and comets.
The craters on the Moon.
Planets orbit around the Sun in nearly circular orbits in a flattened disk.
Question 27
1 / 1 point
What is a planetesimal?
One of the larger planets in the solar system.
An object that is in orbit around a planet.
A rogue planet moving around in the solar system not attached to any particular planet.
A smaller building block of a protostar.
A smaller building block of planets.
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Group C
Question 28
0 / 1 point
What is so special about a star known as 51 Pegasi?
It was the first star found with a planet orbiting it that is known to support intelligent life.
It is a pulsar with planets orbiting around it.
It was the first star found with multiple planets orbiting it.
It is the largest known white dwarf star.
It is the first main sequence star (stars like our Sun) found to have a planet orbiting it.
Question 29
1 / 1 point
Why would a star continuously wobble back•and•forth in space?
Because it is undergoing precession
Because the nebula it formed out of collided with a supernova shockwave
Because it is revolving around a common centre of mass with other planets
Because it had too much to drink
Because of air currents in the atmosphere surrounding it
Question 30
1 / 1 point
Which of the following space telescope missions was dedicated entirely to discovering exoplanets?
Spitzer.
Casinni.
Apollo.
Hubble.
Kepler.
Question 31
1 / 1 point
What does the exoplanet descriptor "hot Jupiter" mean?
It's any exoplanet orbiting around a much bigger star than our Sun.
It's an exoplanet just like Jupiter but orbiting much further away from its sun than 5 AU.
It's an exoplanet jult like Jupiter but orbiting much closer to its sun than 5 AU.
It's the latest fast car made by Toyota having Jupiter as its model name.
It's an exoplanet the same size as Jupiter but with an extensive ring system.
Question 32
0 / 1 point
What type of exoplanet would you expect to cause the largest Doppler shift in the spectrum of its star?
A low•mass planet that
is far from its sun.
A low•mass planet that is close to its
sun.
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A massive planet that is close to its sun.
An average•mass planet that is at an average distance from its
sun.
A massive planet that is far from its sun.
Question 33
1 / 1 point
Which statement best describes the direct detection technique for finding exoplanets?
Observing the slight shifting of the frequency of the light as the star wobbles back and forth in space
due to an exoplanet orbiting it.
Actually seeing the exoplanet orbiting the star through our more powerful telescopes.
Observing the slight dip in the brightness of a star as the planet moves across it's face.
Observing the slight
side•to•side
movement of the star in space caused by an exoplanet orbiting it.
Observing the gravitational effects the orbiting exoplanet has on other nearby stars.
Question 34
1 / 1 point
What is an extrasolar planet?
A planet that is considered an "extra" in that it was not needed for the formation of its solar system.
A planet that is found orbiting another planet outside our solar system.
A planet that orbits a star that is not our Sun.
A planet that is extra large compared to what we would expect.
A planet that is larger than the Sun.
Question 35
1 / 1 point
Which statement best describes the transit technique for finding exoplanets?
Observing the slight shifting of the frequency of the light as the star wobbles back and forth in space
due to an exoplanet orbiting it.
Observing the slight dip in the brightness of a star as the planet moves across it's face.
Observing the gravitational effects the orbiting exoplanet has on other nearby stars.
Actually seeing the exoplanet orbiting the star through our more powerful telescopes.
Observing the slight
side•to•side
movement of the star in space caused by an exoplanet orbiting it.
Question 36
1 / 1 point
What is the name of the exoplanet that has been found that is closest to our solar system?
Sirius
Rigel
Fomalhaut b
Alpha
Centauri
Bb
Kepler 56c
Question 37
0 / 1 point
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Which statement best describes the astrometric technique for finding exoplanets?
Observing the slight shifting of the frequency of the light as the star wobbles back and forth in space
due to an exoplanet orbiting it.
Observing the slight dip in the brightness of a star as the planet moves across it's face.
Observing the gravitational effects the orbiting exoplanet has on other nearby stars.
Actually seeing the exoplanet orbiting the star through our more powerful telescopes.
Observing the slight side•to•side movement of the star in space caused by an exoplanet orbiting it.
Question 38
1 / 1 point
Which statement best describes the Doppler technique for finding exoplanets?
Observing the gravitational effects the orbiting exoplanet has on other nearby stars.
Observing the slight dip in the brightness of a star as the planet moves across it's face.
Observing the slight shifting of the frequency of the light as the star wobbles back and forth in space
due to an exoplanet orbiting it.
Actually seeing the exoplanet orbiting the star through our more powerful telescopes.
Observing the slight
side•to•side
movement of the star in space caused by an exoplanet orbiting it.
Question 39
1 / 1 point
Which of the following three factors would affect the size of a star's Doppler shift caused by an exoplanet?
The planet's mass
The size of the planet's orbit
The planet's composition
Only A and B
All of A, B and C
Question 40
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about exoplanets is false?
A considerable number of exoplanets seem to have orbits that are quite elliptical.
The masses of the large majority of confirmed exoplanets that we have been able to measure with
any degree of certainty are larger than Earth's mass.
The large majority of confirmed exoplanets orbit their stars at radii less than 5 AU.
The information about exoplanets we have been able to determine so far seem to indicate that most
of them are similar to our own solar system component.
No planets have been found orbiting their stars at radii less than Mercury's orbital radius.
Attempt Score: 34 / 40 • A
Overall Grade (highest attempt): 34 / 40 • A
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Module 3 Test•
Group A
Question 1
1 / 1 point
The age of our solar system is approximately
4.6 billion years.
4.6 million years.
13.8 million years.
10,000 years.
13.8 billion years.
Question 2
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about the Jovian planets is
not
true?
The largest Jovian planet is Jupiter.
Saturn is the least dense planet, having a density less than water.
Together, Jupiter and Saturn have over 100 moons.
All the Jovian planets have ring systems.
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The outermost Jovian planet, Uranus, is also the least massive.
Question 3
1 / 1 point
The rotation (daily spin) of the planets are:
All in the same direction (clockwise as seen from above the system)
All in the same direction (with the exception of Venus and Uranus)
All in the same direction (counter clockwise as seen from above the system)
All in the same direction (with the exception of Mercury)
All in the same direction (with the exception of Venus and Neptune)
Question 4
1 / 1 point
Which of the following characteristics of the terrestrial planets is (are) correct?
A) They are relatively small, low density bodies with solid surfaces on which to walk.
B) They are relatively small, high density objects with solid surfaces on which to walk.
D)
They have varying sizes; Earth is one size but large Jupiter is also terrestrial and you can
walk on its surface.
E)
They are all closer to the Sun than the Jovian planets but their densities are quite varied with
one being less dense than water.
E) All of A, B, C and D are correct.
Question 5
1 / 1 point
According to our theory of solar system formation, what is the origin of asteroids and comets?
Asteroids and comets represent material from interstellar space that was captured in the
solar nebula by gravity.
Asteroids and comets are both leftover planetesimals that formed between the orbits of
Mars and Jupiter.
Asteroids are the remains of a terrestrial planet that shattered, and comets are the remains
of a jovian planet that shattered.
Asteroids are chunks of pure metal that condensed in the solar nebula, and comets are
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chunks of pure rock that condensed in the solar nebula.
Asteroids are the leftover planetesimals of the inner solar system, and comets are the
leftover planetesimals that formed beyond the frost line.
Question 6
1 / 1 point
We have determined the age of the solar system through:
A) taking measurements of tree rings.
B) radioactive dating.
C) the study of rocks and the determination of their composition.
D) the analysis of the sand on various beaches around the Earth.
E) all of A, B, C and D.
Question 7
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about asteroids is
false
?
Most asteroids have congregated in the asteroid belt between Mars and Jupiter.
Asteroids have been found outside the asteroid belt.
Some asteroids seem to have originated on Mars.
Sometime asteroids enter Earth's atmosphere but most burn up before they reach Earth's
surface.
An asteroid is just a failed comet.
Question 8
1 / 1 point
When we examine of the types of planets making up the solar system we notice the following:
all planets making up the solar system are like Pluto.
there seems to be no general category of planets; each is unique and there are very few
similarities among them.
there is just one type of planet: round, small and rocky.
there are three types of planets: terrestrial, Jovian and small snowballs.
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there are two types of planets: terrestrial and Jovian.
Question 9
0 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about comets is
true
?
Comets have a relatively small nucleus (normally less than 10 km in diameter) that develop
debris tails as they get close to the Sun.
Comets have a relatively small nucleus and never visit the inner solar system more than
once because they burn out completely as they get close to the Sun (Halley's comet is an
exception)
Comets have a relatively small nucleus (normally larger than 100 km wide) that develop just
one debris tail as they get into the inner part of the solar system.
Comets have a small nucleus with tails that always exist, even when they are at home in the
Kuiper Belt.
We are not really sure what they are made of because we can't get close enough to one,
even with unmanned spacecraft, to determine their makeup.
Question 10
1 / 1 point
What is the origin of the atoms of hydrogen, oxygen and sodium in the perspiration that exits your
body during this astronomy test?
The hydrogen nuclei were produced a few minutes after the big bang event 13.8 billion years
ago; the oxygen and sodium nuclei were synthesized inside stars more than 4.6 billion
years
ago.
All of these elements were synthesized inside stars more than 4.6 billion years ago.
They were synthesized during the early stages of the Sun's formation and spewed out from
the Sun through the solar wind and our planet, Earth, simply intercepted them.
All of these elements were produced in the first few minutes after the big bang event.
They were all fused deep inside Earth.
Question 11
1 / 1 point
Which of the following characteristics of the Jovian planets is (are) correct?
C)
They have varying sizes; Jupiter is one size, Neptune about half as big and Mercury is quite
small.
B) They are relatively large, low density objects with solid surfaces.
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D)
They are closer to the Sun than the terrestrial planets; that's why we can see them at
night.
D) Both A and B are correct.
E) None of A, B or C are correct.
Question 12
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about the moons of the solar system is
false
?
Earth has one moon, named Moon, and no rings that we know of.
Moons vary in size from quite small to the largest, Ganymede, which is just over 2600 km in
radius.
Jupiter has the most moons in our solar system.
Mars has two small moons which are
irregularly•shaped
(not round).
All planets have moons except Mercury.
Question 13
1 / 1 point
Ring systems around planets are:
quite common among terrestrial planets.
fairly rare; just Saturn has
rings.
fairly rare; just Venus and Saturn have
them.
quite common among the large, gas planets; all Jovian planets
have them.
quite common; all planets have
them.
Group B
Question 14
1 / 1 point
What was the frost line of the solar system?
the distance from the Sun beyond which temperatures were low enough for hydrogen and
helium to condense, between the present•day orbits of Jupiter and
Saturn
the distance from the Sun beyond which temperatures were low enough for rocks to
condense, between the present•day orbits of Mercury and
Venus
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the distance from the Sun beyond which temperatures were low enough for hydrogen
compounds and methane to condense into ices, between the present•day orbits of Mars
and
Jupiter
the distance from the Sun beyond which temperatures were low enough for asteroids to
form, between the present•day orbits of Venus
and Earth
the distance from the Sun beyond which temperatures were low enough for metals to
condense, between the Sun and the present•day orbit of
Mercury
Question 15
1 / 1 point
Why are the inner planets made of denser materials than the outer planets?
In the beginning, when the protoplanetary disk was spinning faster, centrifugal forces flung
the lighter materials toward the outer parts of the solar nebula.
In the inner part of the nebula only metals and rocks were able to condense because of the
high temperatures, whereas hydrogen compounds, although more abundant, were only
able
to condense in the cooler outer regions.
Denser materials were heavier and sank to the centre of the nebula.
When the solar nebula formed a disk, materials naturally segregated into bands, and in our
particular solar system the denser materials settled nearer the Sun while lighter materials
are found in the outer part.
The Sun's gravity pulled denser materials toward the inner part of the solar nebula, while
lighter gases escaped more easily.
Question 16
1 / 1 point
What is a planetesimal?
An object that is in orbit around a planet.
A rogue planet moving around in the solar system not attached to any particular planet.
A smaller building block of planets.
One of the larger planets in the solar system.
A smaller building block of a protostar.
Question 17
1 / 1 point
The terrestrial planet cores contain mostly metal because
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radioactivity created metals in the core from the decay of uranium.
metals sank to the centre during a time when the interiors were molten throughout.
the entire planets are made mostly of metal.
only metals condensed closest to the Sun in the solar nebula and the rocks then accreted
around them as the protoplanets cooled.
convection carried the metals to the core.
Question 18
1 / 1 point
According to our theory of solar system formation, why does the Sun rotate slowly today?
The Sun once rotated much faster, but it lost angular momentum because everything slows
down with time.
The Sun once rotated much faster, but it transferred angular momentum to charged
particles caught in its magnetic field and then blew the particles away with its strong solar
wind.
The Sun was born rotating slowly because the solar nebula had very little angular
momentum.
The Sun once rotated much faster, but it lost angular momentum due to internal friction.
The Sun once rotated much faster, but it transferred angular momentum to planets and
other objects during close encounters.
Question 19
1 / 1 point
The nebular theory of formation of the solar system successfully predict ts all but one of the following.
Which one does the theory
not
predict?
The compositional differences between terrestrial and Jovian planets.
The equal number of terrestrial and Jovian planets.
Asteroids, Kuiper•belt objects and
comets.
Planets orbit around the Sun in nearly circular orbits in a flattened disk.
The craters on the Moon.
Question 20
1 / 1 point
Protoplanets grow into planetesimals by which processes?
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A) Colliding with other protoplanets.
B) Gravitationally pulling in other protoplanets
C) Attracting other planetesimals with the same charge.
D) A combination of A and B.
E) A combination of A, B and C.
Question 21
1 / 1 point
What constitutes the solar wind?
C)
It's very similar to the wind here on Earth which is merely the moving around of
atmospheric gases.
D)
It is the continuous stream of hot air being released by the fusion process deep inside the
Sun.
E)
It's the continuous emission of charged particles (electrons, protons, etc.) from the solar
surface.
F)
The solar wind in not constant but happens in spurts especially during the time of
coronal mass ejections from sunspots.
E) It is a combination of both A and B.
Question 22
0 / 1 point
About how much of the solar nebula consisted of elements heavier than hydrogen and helium?
2% by mass.
98% by mass.
10% by mass.
25% by mass.
50% by mass.
Question 23
1 / 1 point
Atmospheres formed around some terrestrial planets because
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A)
outgassing through volcanic activity plus a strong enough gravity kept the gas from
escaping into space
B)
their gravity was great enough to capture atoms and molecules floating around in the solar
nebula
C)
radioactivity from surface rocks produced oxygen and carbon dioxide in sufficient
quantities to build up an atmosphere
D)
human activity produces carbon dioxide and plants produce oxygen which are the main
constituents of an atmosphere
E) all of A, B, C and D.
Question 24
1 / 1 point
The sticking together of small but solid particles is an important feature of the solar nebular theory.
What is this process known as?
Differentiation
Condensation
Gravitational collapse.
Gluons
Accretion
Question 25
1 / 1 point
According to our theory of solar system formation, what is Pluto?
Pluto is a terrestrial planet that was shot out from the inner solar system to its present
location as the most distant planet.
Pluto is simply an oddball planet, and thus represents one of the "exceptions" that the
nebular theory cannot explain.
Pluto is a terrestrial planet that happened to form at a large distance from the Sun.
Pluto is a very small jovian planet.
Pluto is one of the largest of the Kuiper belt objects.
Question 26
1 / 1 point
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What is differentiation in planetary geology?
the process by which different types of minerals form a conglomerate rock
any process by which a planet's surface evolves differently from another planet's surface
the process by which gravity separates materials according to density
any process by which one part of a planet's surface evolves differently from another part of
the same planet's surface
any process by which a planet evolves differently from its moons
Question 27
1 / 1 point
Why did the solar nebula heat up as it collapsed?
Nuclear fusion occurring in the core of the protosun produced energy that heated the
nebula.
Collisions among planetesimals generated friction and heat.
As the cloud shrank, its gravitational potential energy was converted to kinetic energy and
then into thermal energy.
Radiation from other nearby stars that had formed earlier heated the nebula.
The shock wave from a nearby supernova heated the gas.
Group C
Question 28
1 / 1 point
Thinking about our own solar system, which planet will have the greatest effect on the Sun's
movement about the solar system's centre of mass?
Earth, because we live here.
Mars, because it's the red planet.
Mercury, because it is closest to the Sun.
Saturn, because of its large ring structure.
Jupiter, because of its huge mass.
Question 29
1 / 1 point
Why would a star continuously wobble back•and•forth in space?
Because of air currents in the atmosphere surrounding it
Because it had too much to drink
Because it is undergoing precession
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Because it is revolving around a common centre of mass with other planets
Because the nebula it formed out of collided with a supernova shockwave
Question 30
1 / 1 point
Which of the following three factors would affect the size of a star's Doppler shift caused by an
exoplanet?
The planet's mass
The size of the planet's orbit
The planet's composition
Only A and B
All of A, B and C
Question 31
1 / 1 point
Which statement best describes the transit method of discovering exoplanets?
Measuring the distance a star wobbles on the sky as it is tugged in its orbit by an exoplanet.
Taking a photograph of planets around a star through a telescope that can block the light of
the star.
Measuring the size of the star around which the exoplanet is orbiting.
Measuring the periodic dimming of light as an exoplanet crosses in front of the star.
Measuring the Doppler shift of a star as it orbits its combined centre of mass with an
exoplanet.
Question 32
1 / 1 point
Which statement best describes the astrometric technique for finding exoplanets?
Observing the slight shifting of the frequency of the light as the star wobbles back and forth
in space due to an exoplanet orbiting it.
Observing the slight side•to•side movement of the star in space caused by an exoplanet
orbiting it.
Observing the slight dip in the brightness of a star as the planet moves across it's face.
Actually seeing the exoplanet orbiting the star through our more powerful telescopes.
Observing the gravitational effects the orbiting exoplanet has on other nearby stars.
Question 33
1 / 1 point
Why is it easier to find exoplanets that are much more massive than the Earth?
Because they are mainly found around dimmer stars
Because their transits and tugging on their stars are easier to detect
Because massive exoplanets orbit more slowly
Because the solar nebula theory predicts more massive exoplanets should exist
Because there aren't any exoplanets with masses lower than Earth
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Question 34
0 / 1 point
Which statement best describes the transit technique for finding exoplanets?
Observing the slight dip in the brightness of a star as the planet moves across it's face.
Observing the slight
side•to•side
movement of the star in space caused by an exoplanet
orbiting it.
Observing the slight shifting of the frequency of the light as the star wobbles back and forth
in space due to an exoplanet orbiting it.
Observing the gravitational effects the orbiting exoplanet has on other nearby stars.
Actually seeing the exoplanet orbiting the star through our more powerful
telescopes.
Question 35
1 / 1 point
What is an exoplanet moon?
It is an object orbiting an object other than Earth in our own solar system.
It is an object orbiting an exoplanet just as our Moon orbits Earth.
It is an object orbiting a Kuiper Belt object.
So far we have not detected any exoplanet moons so they don't exist.
It is an object orbiting an exostar.
Question 36
1 / 1 point
What type of exoplanet would you expect to cause the largest Doppler shift in the spectrum of its
star?
A massive planet that is close to its sun.
A massive planet that is far from its sun.
An average•mass planet that is at an
average distance from its sun.
A low•mass planet that is close to its
sun.
A low•mass planet that is far from its
sun.
Question 37
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about exoplanets is true?
The large majority of confirmed exoplanets orbit their stars at radii less than 5 AU.
No planets have been found orbiting their stars at radii less than Mercury's orbital radius.
A considerable number of exoplanets seem to have orbits that are quite elliptical.
All of A, B and C are true.
Only A and C are true.
Question 38
1 / 1 point
Which statement best describes the Doppler technique for finding exoplanets?
Observing the gravitational effects the orbiting exoplanet has on other nearby stars.
Observing the slight dip in the brightness of a star as the planet moves across it's face.
Actually seeing the exoplanet orbiting the star through our more powerful telescopes.
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Observing the
slight side•to•side movement of the star in space caused by an exoplanet
orbiting it.
Observing the slight shifting of the frequency of the light as the star wobbles back and forth
in space due to an exoplanet orbiting it.
Question 39
1 / 1 point
So far, about how many exoplanets have been discovered?
150
700
about 4000
over 1500
around 75
Question 40
1 / 1 point
What is the name of the exoplanet that has been found that is closest to our solar system?
Fomalhaut b
Alpha
Centauri
Bb
Rigel
Sirius
Kepler 56c
Attempt Score:
37 / 40 • A+
Overall Grade
(highest attempt)
:
37 / 40 • A+
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170.
Which of the following statements about Earth is
false?
A:
The poles of the Earth's magnetic field are precisely aligned with Earth's rotational axis.
171.
How would you describe Venus's retrograde rotation?
A: It rotates very slowly in a direction opposite to its revolution.
172.
Mercury's large core is composed of
A: iron
172.
A solar day on Mercury is about how long?
A: 176 Earth days
173.
In what ways is Earth different from the other terrestrial planets?
A: Its lithosphere crust. is broken into plates that move around. / It has oxygen in its atmosphere. / Most
of its surface is covered with liquid water. / Life can be found almost everywhere. (All of the above are
true.)
174.
All but one of the following statements about Mercury are true. Which one is
false?
A:
Mercury's orbit about the Sun is almost circular, more so than any other planet in the solar system.
175.
All but one of the following statements about Venus are true. Which one is
false?
A:
The atmospheric pressure on Venus is significantly greater than on Earth, about 9 times as great.
176.
At what special time in Venus's orbit might we be able to see a solar transit?
A: inferior conjunction
177.
Why does the burning of fossil fuels increase the greenhouse effect on Earth?
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A: Burning releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.
178.
The origin of Earth's only natural satellite, Moon, is
A: a combination of the "capture" theory and the "daughter" theory, sometimes called the impact theory
which posits that early in the solar system history the formative years. a young, molten Earth collided with
a Mars-like object in a sort of glancing blow.
179.
The orbit of Venus around the Sun is almost circular. What is the radius of its orbit?
A: 0.72 AU
180.
How have we been able to construct maps of surface features on the planet Venus?
A: by using radar from spacecraft that were sent to orbit Venus
181.
Earth's atmosphere contains only small amounts of carbon dioxide because
A: carbon dioxide dissolves in water, and most of it is now contained in the oceans and carbonate rocks.
182.
What is the region around a planet called where the magnetic field is able to deflect the solar wind
and other charged particles?
A: Magnetosphere
183.
Mars is about how far from the Sun, on average?
A: 1.5 AU
184.
Which of the following statements about Uranus is false?
A: Uranus has the Great Red Spot on its surface that has been visible for the last 400 years.
185.
Which of the following statements about Neptune is true?
A: Neptune's largest surface feature is the Great Dark Spot that is about the size of Earth and is probably
a storm of some sort.
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186.
Which of the following do the Jovian planets not have in common?
A: They are all less dense than water.
187.
All of the following statements about Jupiter are true but one. Which one is false?
A: The density of Jupiter is greater than that of air but less than that for water.
188.
Why does Mars have more extreme seasons than Earth?
A: because it has a more eccentric orbit
189.
What is a Roche zone?
A: the region near a planet where tidal forces would tear apart an object held together only by gravity
190.
Why does Jupiter have several distinct cloud layers?
A: Different layers represent clouds made of gases that condense at different temperatures.
191.
How does the atmospheric pressure on Mars compare to that on Earth and Venus?
A: Lower than on both Earth and Venus.
192.
A: more; heat left over from their formation
193.
Which of the following does Jupiter not have?
A: crustal plates on its surface
194.
Which of the following planets was found using Newton's laws after discrepancies were observed in
another planet's orbit?
Jupiter and Saturn emit
heat than absorbed from the Sun due to
.
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A: Neptune
195.
All but one of the following statements about Mars are true. Which one is false?
A: The Martian atmosphere is fairly substantial with a composition similar to Earth.
196.
Why isn't there a planet where the asteroid belt is located?
A: Gravitational tugs from Jupiter prevented material from collecting together to form a planet.
197.
How thick are Saturn's rings from top to bottom?
A: a few tens of meters
198.
Why is Triton referred to as Neptune's "backward" moon?
A: It orbits in the opposite direction of its revoluation.
199.
Which of the following is
not
classified as a dwarf planet?
A: Triton
200.
All of the following statements about Charon, Pluto's moon, are true except which one?
A: As strange as it may seem, astronomers have actually observed seasonal effects on Charon.
201.
Where do the majority of confirmed dwarf planets in the solar system reside?
A: The Kuiper Belt
202.
Why are there no impact craters on the surface of Io?
A: Io did have impact craters but they have all been buried in lava flows.
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203.
What mechanism is most responsible for generating the internal heat of Io that drives the volcanic
activity?
A: tidal heating
204.
Which of the following statements about the moons of the Jovian planets is
false
?
A: Titania, one of the largest jovian moons, has a wrinkly surface that is often referred to as "cantaloupe
terrain".
205.
Which of the following statements about the rings of the four jovian planets is
not
true?
A: All probably look much like they did when the solar system first formed.
206.
Which of the following statements about Pluto is
false
?
A: Pluto is one of the larger Kuiper Belt Objects discovered to date and is actually bigger than Mercury.
207.
Why do astronomers believe Triton may have been a planet that was captured by Neptune?
A: It orbits Neptune in the opposite direction of Neptune's rotation.
208.
Why was Pluto's status was changed to that of "dwarf planet" by the IAU?
A: Because it has not cleared its orbital region of other objects.
209.
All but one of the following statements about Venus are true. Which one is
false?
A:
The atmospheric pressure on Venus is significantly greater than on Earth, about 9 times as
great.
210.
Which component of our atmosphere has steadily increased in the last 100 years and has
led to warming temperatures?
A: Carbon Dioxide
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211.
Which of the following statements about Earth is
false?
A:
The poles of the Earth's magnetic field are precisely aligned with Earth's rotational axis.
212.
All of the following statements about Venus are true but one. Which one is
false?
A:
The magnetic field on Venus has about the same intensity as on Earth, although it appears to
change directions every 100,000 years or so.
213.
What is the Moon's average orbital distance from the Sun?
A: 1.0 AU
214.
About how far from the Sun, on average, is Saturn?
A: 10 AU
215.
The belts and zones of Jupiter are
A: alternating bands of rising and falling air at different latitudes.
216.
Saturn is how far from the Sun, on average?
A: 10 AU
217.
Which of the following statements about Saturn is false?
A: Saturn was first discovered by Galileo about 400 years ago.
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218.
Exploration on Mars has been accomplished by orbiters, lander and rovers. Which of the
following statements about Martian exploration is false?
A: The remains of some type of life form have been found near Olympus Mons, the largest
volcano on Mars.
219.
Which of the following statements about the moons of the Jovian planets is
false
?
A: Titania, one of the largest jovian moons, has a wrinkly surface that is often referred to as
"cantaloupe terrain".
220.
This satellite's interior has probably warmed enough by tidal stressing to have a liquid
water ocean below an icy crust.
A: Europa
221.
Which of the following statements about the rings of the four jovian planets is
not
true?
A: All probably look much like they did when the solar system first formed.
222.
Which of the following is
not
classified as a dwarf planet?
A: Triton
223.
What did the Huygens probe discover about Saturn's moon, Titan?
A: Methane rains onto the surface, evaporates, and rains again cyclically.
224.
Which of the following statements about Pluto is
false
?
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A: Pluto is one of the larger Kuiper Belt Objects discovered to date and is actually bigger than
Mercury.
225.
What is the Cassini division of Saturn's rings?
A: a large gap, visible from Earth, produced by an orbital resonance with the moon Mimas
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WILFRID LAURIER UNIVERSITY
AS101a
Chapter 8
Quiz # 8
Instructor: Dr. Ioannis Haranas
1.
As a star exhausts the hydrogen in its core, what happens?
a.
It becomes hotter and more luminous.
b.
It becomes hotter and less luminous.
c.
It becomes cooler and less luminous.
*d.
It becomes cooler and more luminous.
2.
When does a star experience helium fusion?
a.
just before it enters the main sequence
b.
after it has become a red giant star
*c.
when it is on the horizontal branch
d.
before it leaves the main sequence
3.
Why are giant and supergiant stars rare?
*a.
The giant and supergiant stages are very short.
b.
The star blows up before the giant or supergiant stage is reached.
c.
They do not form as often as main sequence stars.
d.
The giant or supergiant stage is very long.
4.
Which of the following statements best describes why stars eventually die?
a.
Their lifespan is limited.
*b.
They exhaust all their fuel.
c.
Their cores become hotter.
d.
They become less luminous.
5.
Which of the following occurs during the giant stage?
*a.
helium fusion in the core and hydrogen fusion in the surrounding shell
b.
hydrogen fusion in the core and helium fusion in the surrounding shell
c.
hydrogen and helium fusion in the core
d.
hydrogen flash
6.
In what way are giants and supergiants similar?
a.
They are the main sequence stars.
b.
They undergo a helium flash stage as they enter the main sequence.
*c.
They are very luminous.
d.
Their cores expand rapidly to reach giant sizes.
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7 B
8 A
9 C
10 C
11 B
12 B
13 A
14 B
15 B
16 D
17 C
18 C
19 A
20 A
21 B
22 C
23 B
24 D
25 A
26 C
27 D
28 C
29 A
30 B
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WILFRID LAURIER UNIVERSITY
AS101a
Chapter 7
Quiz # 7
Instructor: Dr. Ioannis Haranas
1.
Stars with masses below a certain threshold produce most of their energy via the proton-proton
chain. What is that threshold?
a.
0.01 solar masses
b.
0.1 solar masses
*c.
1.1 solar masses
d.
11 solar masses
2.
Which of the following is considered to be the best explanation for the missing solar
neutrinos?
a.
The Sun is fusing helium but not hydrogen.
b.
Nuclear reactions do not produce neutrinos as fast as theory predicts.
c.
The Sun may contain matter we haven't yet identified.
*d.
Neutrinos may oscillate between three different flavours.
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3.
How did observations at the Sudbury Neutrino Observatory solve the solar neutrino problem?
*a.
They showed that the
“missing
neutrinos”
had changed into a different type.
b.
They showed that other experiments had miscounted the number of solar neutrinos.
c.
They showed that models for the number of neutrinos produced by the Sun were
wrong.
d.
They showed that neutrinos were not escaping from the core of the Sun.
4.
Why does the main sequence have a limit at the lower end?
a.
Low mass stars form from the interstellar medium very rarely.
b.
Low mass objects are composed primarily of solids, not gases.
c.
The lower limit represents a star with zero radius.
*d.
A minimum temperature is required for hydrogen nuclear fusion to take place.
5.
Why is there a main sequence mass-luminosity relation?
•
a.
because helium fusion produces carbon
•
*b.
because more massive stars support their larger weight by making more energy
•
c.
because the helium flash occurs in degenerate matter
•
d.
because all stars on the main sequence have about the same radius
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6.
What is the approximate mass of the lowest mass object that can initiate the thermonuclear
fusion of hydrogen?
*a.
0.08 solar mass
b.
1 solar mass
c.
8 solar masses
d.
80 solar masses
7.
Which of the following is most similar in size to a brown dwarf?
*a.
the planet Jupiter
b.
a red dwarf
c.
a white dwarf
d.
a Bok globule
8.
Which of the following are star-like objects that contain less than 0.08 solar masses and will
never raise their core temperatures high enough that the proton-proton chain can begin?
*a.
brown dwarfs
b.
Herbig-Haro objects
c.
Bok globules
d.
T Tauri stars
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9.
What would happen if the nuclear reactions in a star began to produce too much energy?
a.
The star would shrink.
*b.
The star would expand.
c.
The star would collapse.
d.
Nothing would happen.
10.
How much of its lifetime does the average star spend on the main sequence?
a.
1%
b.
10%
c.
20%
*d.
90%
11.
The lower edge of the main-sequence band represents the location in the H-R diagram at
which stars begin their lives as main-sequence stars. What is it called?
*a.
the zero-age main sequence
b.
the birth line
c.
the Coulomb barrier
d.
the evolutionary track
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Main
12.
On the H-R diagram, the line indicates the location of the main sequence. Which of the four
labeled locations on the H-R diagram indicates a luminosity and temperature similar to that of a
T Tauri star?
a.
1
b.
2
*c.
3
d.
4
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13.
Refer to the H-R diagram. Which point represents a star in which the proton-proton chain is
occurring?
a.
1
b.
2
*c.
3
d.
4
14.
The Sun has an expected main-sequence lifetime of about 10
10
years. What is the lifetime on
the main sequence of a 2 solar mass star?
a.
1.8
×
10
6
years
*b.
1.8
×
10
9
years
c.
1.8
×
10
10
years
d.
1.8
×
10
11
years
16. What type of star is our Sun?
a. intermediate-mass star
b. yellow giant
*c. low-mass star
d. high-mass star
17. What is the lifetime of a 10 solar mass star on the main sequence?
*a. 3.2
×
10
7
years
b. 1
×
10
9
years
c. 1
×
10
11
years
d. 3.2
×
10
12
years
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18. What characteristic of a star primarily determines its location on the main sequence?
a.
age
b.
distance from the galactic centre
*c. mass
d.
radius
19. In which option below are the stellar types sorted from shortest to longest main-sequence
lifetime?
*a.
O, A, K, M
b.
A, B, F, G
c.
K, F, B, O
d.
B, A, M, G
20. Consider two stars of the same mass: star 1 has just moved on to the main sequence, and star
2 is about to leave it. How are these two stars different?
a.
Star 2 has more helium in its core and a hotter surface.
*b.
Star 2 has more helium in its core and a cooler surface.
c.
Star 1 is more luminous and has a hotter surface.
d.
Star 1 is more luminous and has a cooler surface.
19. In which option below are the stellar types sorted from shortest to longest main-sequence
lifetime?
*a.
O, A, K, M
b.
A, B, F, G
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c.
K, F, B, O
d.
B, A, M, G
20. Consider two stars of the same mass: star 1 has just moved on to the main sequence, and star
2 is about to leave it. How are these two stars different?
a.
Star 2 has more helium in its core and a hotter surface.
*b.
Star 2 has more helium in its core and a cooler surface.
c.
Star 1 is more luminous and has a hotter surface.
d.
Star 1 is more luminous and has a cooler surface.
GOOD LUCK!
Wilfrid Laurier University
AS 101 Assignment # 1
Instructor: Dr. Ioannis Haranas
Chapter 1: From Solar System to Galaxy to Universe
Q:1 Which one of the following statements best describes the Sun?
*
a.
generates energy by nuclear fusion
b.
located 10 AU from Earth
c.
orbiting the Solar System
d.
located in the centre of the Milky Way
Q:2 In the organization diagram below in which area the term: Polaris would appropriate fit?
a)
Yellow area= Solar
system,
*b) Red area=Milky Way,
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c) Light Blue= Universe
.
A
Q:3 Which of the following sequences objects is in the correct order of increasing distance?
a)
Venus, Saturn, Moon, Andromeda galaxy, Polaris
b)
*Moon, Venus, Saturn, Polaris, Andromeda galaxy
*b)
c)
Polaris, Andromeda galaxy, Moon
, Saturn, Venus
d)
Andromeda galaxy, Saturn, Venus, Polaris, Moon.
OR
a)
Alpha Centauri, Uranus, Mercury, Small Magellanic Cloud, Coma Supercluster
b)
Mercury, Uranus Alpha Centauri ,Small Magellanic Cloud, Coma Supercluster ,
*b)
c)
Cloud, Coma Supercluster, Mercury, Small Magellanic Cloud, Uranus
d)
Small Magellanic Cloud, Coma Supercluster, Alpha Centauri, Uranus, Mercury
Q:4 The nearest star to our solar system is alpha Centauri at 4.0
u
10
16
m (4.3 ly away). The diameter of
the sun is 1.4
u
10
9
m. How many suns would it take to line up adjacent to each other in order to reach
alpha Centauri?
a) 5.6
u
10
6
,
b) 5.6
u
10
6
,
c) 2.8
u
10
25
*d) 2.8
u
10
7
Q:5 There approximately 100 billion stars in our galaxy. If there 100 billion observable galaxies in our
universe, what is a reasonable estimate for the total number ion the universe?
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*a) 1.0
u
10
22
b) 2.0
u
10
20
c) 1.5
u
10
15
d) 1.0
u
10
24
Q:6 The distance to a super cluster galaxy might be:
*a) 100 Mpc
b) 10 Kpc
c) 120 Ly
d) 10 AU
Q:7 Approximately 100 Earths would fit inside Jupiter. This Jupiter’s radius
must be …………….times
larger that Earth’s radius.
a) 100
b) 12
*c)10
d) 1000
Q:8) A spherical particle in the ring of Saturn has radius of about 1m. The surface area of the particle in
the area of radiation flow is:
a) 125 m
2
b) 3.14 m
2
*c) 12.6 m
2
d) 14 m
2
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Q:9) A spherical particle in the ring of Saturn has radius of about 1m. The cross sectional area of the
particle in the area of radiation flow is:
a) 125 m
2
*b) 3.14 m
2
c) 12.6 m
2
d) 14 m
2
Q:10) If the landing lights in Denver airport were switched on, then in one second these photons travel
to:
a) New York (1580 km)
b) Alpha Centauri (40,000,000,000 000 km),
c) The Sun(150,000,000 km)
*d) Moon (384,000 km)
Q:11) Sirius the brightest star in the sky is about 9 ly away. If the speed of light became half of its
present value, how far would Sirius be?
a) 9 ly
*b) 18 ly
c) 4.5 ly
d) 32 ly
Q:12) The Andromeda galaxy is about 2,000,000 ly away. Therefore light started its travel:
a) 1,000,000 y
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*b) 2,000,000 y
c) Just a second ago,
d) Can’t be determined
ago.
Q:13) In the diagram, what is the diameter of Mercury?
a.
about 240 km
*b.
about 2400 km
c.
about 24,000 km
d.
about 240,000 km
Q:15) . What is 5.7
×
10
7
the same as?
a.
5.7 million
*b.
57 thousand
c.
570 thousand
d.
57 million
Q:16 If the distance from the Sun to the Earth is represented by roughly 15 metres, then what would the
distance from the Earth to the Moon on the same scale be?
a.
about 30 metres
b.
about 10 metres
c.
about 1 metre
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*d.
smaller than the width of your hand
Q 17. Approximately how many times larger than the diameter of a typical planet (the Earth) is the
diameter of a typical star (the Sun)?
a.
10 times
*b.
100 times
c.
1000 times
d.
10,000 times
.
Q: 18 What does the Solar System contain?
*a.
the Sun, its planets, and some smaller bodies
b.
the Sun, galaxies, planets, and stars
c.
the Sun, planets, moons, and stars
d.
the Sun, planets, asteroids, and galaxies
. Q: 19 What does the Solar System contain?
*a.
the Sun, its planets, and some smaller bodies
b.
the Sun, galaxies, planets, and stars
c.
the Sun, planets, moons, and stars
d.
the Sun, planets, asteroids, and galaxies
Q 20. What is the approximate diameter of the Earth?
a.
1 AU
b.
13,000 light-years
*c.
13,000 kilometres
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d.
1,000,000 kilometres
Q 21. Which of the following is no longer considered a major planet?
a.
Mercury
b.
Uranus
*c.
Pluto
d.
Saturn
GOOD LUCK!!
Wilfrid Laurier University
AS101a
Assignment # 9
Instructor: Dr. Ioannis Haranas
1. What is the term for a collection of 105 to 106 old stars in a region 30 to 100 light-years in diameter?
a.
Herbig-Haro object
*b.
globular cluster
c.
open cluster
d.
giant cluster
2. What is the defining characteristic of stars within a cluster that are at the turnoff point?
*a.
They are just leaving the main sequence.
b.
They are just becoming white dwarfs.
c.
They are just entering the main sequence.
d.
They are about to explode in supernovae.
Cluster
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3. What is the approximate age of the star cluster in the H-R diagram? (Hint: Main sequence stars of
spectral types O and B have a core supply of hydrogen that is sufficient to last about 250 million years;
types A and F, about 2 billion years; type G about 10 billion years; types K and M about 30 billion years.
The apparent magnitude scale means that larger numbers are toward the bottom of the vertical axis.)
a.
200 million years
b.
2 billion years
*c.
10 billion years
d.
30 billion years
4. Refer to the H-R diagram. How would the H-R diagram of a more distant star cluster look different?
*a.
The points would shift down, because all of the stars would have larger apparent magnitudes.
b.
The points would shift to the right, because all of the stars would appear to be cooler.
c.
The points would shift up, because all of the stars would have smaller apparent magnitudes.
d.
The points would shift to the left, because all of the stars would appear to be hotter.
5. Which nuclear fuels does a one solar mass star use over the course of its entire lifespan?
a.
hydrogen
*b.
hydrogen and helium
c.
hydrogen, helium, and carbon
d.
hydrogen, helium, carbon, and oxygen
6. What is the ultimate fate of our Sun?
a.
It will become a neutron star.
b.
It will explode in a supernova.
*c.
It will become a white dwarf.
d.
It will explode in a nova.
7. Which of the following is the most important factor that determines a life cycle of a star (for example,
why some stars have a short life span)?
*a.
mass
b.
temperature
c.
luminosity
d.
radius
8. What principle explains why matter flowing from one star in a binary system to its companion forms an
accretion disk?
a.
conservation of tidal forces
b.
conservation of temperature
*c.
conservation of angular momentum
d.
conservation of energy
9. Suppose you discover a binary star system with a 0.7 solar mass giant star and a 2 solar mass main
sequence star. Why is this surprising?
a.
0.7 solar mass stars are not expected to become giants.
b.
All 2 solar mass stars should have left the main sequence.
c.
Giant stars are expected to destroy their companions, so the 2 solar mass star
shouldn’t exist.
*d.
The 2 solar mass star should have become a giant before the 0.7 solar mass star.
10. When material expanding away from a star in a binary system reaches the edge of its Roche lobe,
what happens?
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a.
The material will start to fall back toward the star.
b.
All of the material will accrete on to the companion.
*c.
The material will no longer be gravitationally bound to the star.
d.
The material will increase in temperature and eventually undergo thermonuclear fusion.
11. When mass is transferred toward a white dwarf in a binary system, the material forms a rapidly
growing whirlpool of material. What is that whirlpool called?
*a.
an accretion disk
b.
an Algol paradox
c.
a planetary nebula
d.
a supernova remnant
12. Under what conditions are Type Ia supernovae believed to occur?
a.
when the core of a massive star collapses
*b.
when a white dwarf exceeds the Chandrasekhar-Landau limit
c.
when hydrogen detonation occurs
d.
when neutrinos in a massive star form a shock wave that explodes the star
13. Which of the following is almost always associated with a nova?
a.
a very massive star
b.
a star undergoing helium burning
c.
a white dwarf in a close binary system
*d.
a solar-like star that has exhausted its hydrogen and helium
14
. Why can’t massive stars generate energy through iron fusion?
a.
because iron fusion requires very high density
b.
because no star can get hot enough for iron fusion
*c.
because both fusion and fission of iron nuclei absorb energy
d.
because massive stars go supernova before they create an iron core
15. If the hypothesis that novae occur in close binary systems is correct, then which of the following
should novae do?
a.
They should produce synchrotron radiation.
b.
They should occur in regions of star formation.
c.
They should all be visual binaries.
*d.
They should repeat after some interval.
16. Why is the material that accretes onto a neutron star or black hole expected to emit X-rays?
a.
The material contains magnetic fields that will produce synchrotron radiation.
b.
Hydrogen nuclei begin to fuse and emit high energy photons.
*c.
The material will become hot enough that it will radiate most strongly at X-ray wavelengths.
d.
As the material slows down it converts thermal energy to gravitational potential energy.
17. What is the term for the form of electromagnetic radiation produced by rapidly moving electrons
spiralling through magnetic fields?
a.
Lagrangian radiation
b.
ultraviolet radiation
*c.
synchrotron radiation
d.
infrared radiation
18. What type of object is the Crab nebula?
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a.
a planetary nebula
b.
an open cluster
c.
an absorption nebula
*d.
a supernova remnant
19. In the year 1054 CE, Chinese astronomers observed the appearance of a new star. What occupies that
location now?
a.
a molecular cloud
b.
a planetary nebula with a white dwarf in the centre
*c.
a supernova remnant with a pulsar in the centre
d.
nothing
20. What produces synchrotron radiation?
a.
objects with temperatures below 10,000 K
*b.
high-velocity electrons moving through a magnetic field
c.
cold hydrogen atoms in space
d.
helium burning in a massive star
21. Where is synchrotron radiation produced?
a.
in planetary nebulae
b.
in the outer layers of red dwarfs
c.
in the collapsing iron cores of massive stars
*d.
in supernova remnants
22. What does the explosion of a type II supernova typically leave behind?
a.
It leaves behind a planetary nebula.
b.
It leaves behind a shell of hot, expanding gas with a white dwarf at the centre.
*c.
It leaves behind a shell of hot, expanding gas with a pulsar at the centre.
d.
Nothing is ever left behind.
23. Which of the following offered support for the theory tha
t the collapse of a massive star’s iron core
produces neutrinos?
*a.
the detection of neutrinos from the supernova of 1987
b.
the brightening of supernovae a few days after they are first visible
c.
underground counts of solar neutrinos
d.
laboratory measurements of the mass of the neutrino
24. If you were to land on a neutron star, how would your mass change compared to your mass on the
Earth?
a.
It would increase a lot.
b.
It would decrease a lot.
c.
It would increase a little.
*d.
It would remain the same.
Good Luck!!
Wilfrid Laurier University
Chapter 6
AS 101a
Instructor: Dr. Ioannis Haranas
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1.
What is the spectral sequence in order of increasing temperature?
a.
MKFAGBO
b.
BAFGKMO
*c.
MKGFABO
d.
ABFMKGO
2.
Which of the following can we use to determine the surface temperature of a star?
a.
determining if the star has a companion star
*b.
studying its line absorption spectrum
c.
measuring the
star’s
distance
d.
measuring the
star’s
parallax
Table 1
Star Name
Spectral Type
α
For
F8
ο
Cet
M7
γ
Tri
A0
ξ
Per
O7
3.
The table lists the spectral types for each of four stars. Which star in this table would have the
lowest surface temperature?
a.
α
For
*b.
ο
Cet
c.
γ
Tri
d.
ξ
Per
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4.
The table lists the spectral types for each of four stars. Which star in this table would have the
highest surface temperature?
a.
α
For
b.
ο
Cet
c.
γ
Tri
d.
ξ
Per
ANSWER:
d
5.
What properties of a star determine its luminosity?
a.
distance and diameter
b.
temperature and distance
c.
temperature and diameter
*d.
apparent magnitude and temperature
6.
How do we know that giant stars are larger in diameter than the Sun?
*a.
They are more luminous but have about the same temperature.
b.
They are less luminous but have about the same temperature.
c.
They are hotter but have about the same luminosity.
d.
They are cooler but have about the same luminosity.
7.
Sirius A and B are two stars at the same distance from the Earth. In this binary system, Sirius
A is much brighter but Sirius B is much hotter. From this information, what can you conclude
about the two stars?
*a.
Sirius B must be much smaller than Sirius A.
b.
Sirius B must be much larger than Sirius A.
c.
Sirius B must be much more massive than Sirius A.
d.
Sirius B must be much less massive than Sirius A.
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8.
In a Hertzsprung-Russell diagram, where are the stars with the smallest radius found?
a.
in the upper left corner
b.
in the upper right corner
*c.
in the lower left corner
d.
in the lower right corner
9.
In a Hertzsprung-Russell diagram, where are 90 percent of all the stars found?
a.
in the giant region
b.
in the supergiant region
c.
on the dwarf sequence
*d.
on the main sequence
11.
The star named Sheat is of spectral type M2 and luminosity class II. Based on this
information, how does Sheat compare to the Sun?
*a.
Sheat is cooler and larger than the Sun.
b.
Sheat is cooler and smaller than the Sun.
c.
Sheat is hotter and more luminous than the Sun.
d.
Sheat is hotter and larger than the Sun.
12.
The star named Circini has the spectral type and luminosity class of O 8.5 V. Based on this
information, how does Circini compare to the Sun?
a.
Circini is cooler and larger than the Sun.
b.
Circini is cooler and smaller than the Sun.
*c.
Circini is hotter and more luminous than the Sun.
d.
Circini is hotter and less luminous than the Sun.
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13.
Where are red giant stars found in the Hertzsprung-Russell diagram?
*a.
above the main sequence
b.
below the main sequence
c.
on the lower main sequence
d.
on the upper main sequence
Table 2
Star
Parallax
(sec of arc)
Spectral
Type
δ
Cen
0.026
B2 IV
HR 4758
0.05
G0 V
HD 39801
0.005
M2 I
9 CMa
0.4
A1 V
14.
Which star in the table is the closest to Earth?
a.
δ
Cen
b.
HR 4758
c.
HD 39801
*d.
9 CMa
15.
Which star in the table has the highest surface temperature?
a.
δ
Cen
b.
HR 4758
c.
HD 39801
*d.
9 CMa
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16.
Which star in the table has the largest diameter?
a.
δ
Cen
b.
HR 4758
*c.
HD 39801
d.
9 CMa
`
Wilfrid Laurier University
AS 101 Quiz # 1
Instructor: Dr. Ioannis Haranas
Chapter 1: From Solar System to Galaxy to Universe
Right answers are indicated with an asterisk!!
Q:1 Which one of the following statements best describes the Sun?
*
a.
generates energy by nuclear fusion
b.
located 10 AU from Earth
c.
orbiting the Solar System
d.
located in the centre of the Milky Way
Q:2 Which of the following sequences objects is in the correct order of increasing distance?
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a. Venus, Saturn, Moon, Andromeda galaxy, Polaris
*b. Moon, Venus, Saturn, Polaris, Andromeda galaxy
c. Polaris, Andromeda galaxy, Moon, Saturn, Venus
c. Andromeda galaxy, Saturn, Venus, Polaris, Moon.
Q:3 Today the age of the universe is estimated in 13,700,000,000 years
a)1.37
×
10
6
y
b) 1.37
×
10
7
y
c) 1.37
×
10
9
y
*d) 1.37
×
10
9
y
Q:4. Which statement best describes the Milky Way Galaxy?
*a.
It is a spiral galaxy.
b.
It is comprised of several smaller galaxies.
c.
It is about 1,000 light-years in diameter.
d.
It is type of supercluster.
Q:5 What is the implication if the distance to the nearest star is 4.2 light-years?
a.
The star is 4.2 million AU away.
*b.
The light we see left the star 4.2 years ago.
c.
The star must be very old.
d.
The star must be very young.
Q 6 If we say that an object is 1,000 light-years away, how does that affect how we see it?
*a.
We see it as it looked 1,000 years ago.
b.
We see it as it would appear to our ancestors 1,000 years ago.
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c.
We see it as it looked 1,000 light-years ago.
d.
We see it as it is right now, but it appears 1,000 times dimmer.
Q.7. What is the average distance from Earth to the Sun?
a.
1 ly
*b.
1 AU
c.
1 million km
d.
1 billion km
Q.8 In the diagram, what is the diameter of Mercury?
*a.
about 240 km
b.
about 2400 km
c.
about 24,000 km
d.
about 240,000 km
Q.9 . How is a planet different from a star?
a.
Planets are larger than stars.
*b.
Planets reflect light, while stars produce their own light.
c.
Stars move faster in the sky than planets.
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d.
Planets are brighter than stars.
Q.10 Which of the following is the smallest?
*a.
size of a typical planet
b.
1 AU
c.
1 light-year
d.
size of a typical galaxy
Q.11. In the diagram, what is the diameter of Jupiter?
a.
about 7.0
×
10
4
km
b.
about 7.0
×
10
5
km
c.
about 1.4
×
10
4
km
*d.
about 1.4
×
10
5
km
Q. 12. What is 1.95 billion the same as?
a.
1.95
×
10
12
*b.
1.95
×
10
9
c.
1.95
×
10
6
d.
1.95
×
10
5
Q. 13 It takes light 1.3 seconds to travel from the Moon to Earth and 8 minutes for light to travel from the
Sun to Earth. Which of the following statements is true?
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a.
The Sun is 6.2 times farther from Earth than the Moon.
b.
The Sun is 10 times farther from Earth than the Moon.
*c.
The Sun is 370 times farther from Earth than the Moon.
d.
The Sun is 0.10 times farther from Earth than the Moon.
Q.14. How long does it take for light to travel from the Sun to Neptune?
a.
several seconds
b.
several minutes
*c.
several hours
d.
several weeks
Q. 15 The speed of light is 3.0
×
10
5
km/s, and it takes 1.3 seconds for light to travel from the Moon to
Earth. Based on this information, what is the distance from the Earth to the Moon?
*a.
390,000 km
b.
230,000 km
c.
3.9 km
d.
2.3 km
WILFRID LAURIER UNIVERSITY
AS101a
Chapter 8
Quiz # 8
Instructor: Dr. Ioannis Haranas
1.
As a star exhausts the hydrogen in its core, what happens?
a.
It becomes hotter and more luminous.
b.
It becomes hotter and less luminous.
c.
It becomes cooler and less luminous.
*d.
It becomes cooler and more luminous.
2.
When does a star experience helium fusion?
a.
just before it enters the main sequence
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b.
after it has become a red giant star
*c.
when it is on the horizontal branch
d.
before it leaves the main sequence
3.
Why are giant and supergiant stars rare?
*a.
The giant and supergiant stages are very short.
b.
The star blows up before the giant or supergiant stage is reached.
c.
They do not form as often as main sequence stars.
d.
The giant or supergiant stage is very long.
4.
Which of the following statements best describes why stars eventually die?
a.
Their lifespan is limited.
*b.
They exhaust all their fuel.
c.
Their cores become hotter.
d.
They become less luminous.
5.
Which of the following occurs during the giant stage?
*a.
helium fusion in the core and hydrogen fusion in the surrounding shell
b.
hydrogen fusion in the core and helium fusion in the surrounding shell
c.
hydrogen and helium fusion in the core
d.
hydrogen flash
6.
In what way are giants and supergiants similar?
a.
They are the main sequence stars.
b.
They undergo a helium flash stage as they enter the main sequence.
*c.
They are very luminous.
d.
Their cores expand rapidly to reach giant sizes.
7.
What do we call the region of the HR diagram that represents giant stars that are fusing helium in
their cores and then in their shells?
a.
turnoff point
*b.
horizontal branch
c.
turn-on point
d.
main sequence
8.
Why are star clusters important to our study of stars?
a.
because all stars formed in star clusters
*b.
because they allow us to test our theories and models of stellar evolution
c.
because the Sun was once a member of a globular cluster
d.
because they are the only objects that contain Cepheid variables
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9.
What property is the same for all stars in a star cluster?
*a.
age
b.
mass
c.
luminosity
d.
radius
10.
Which point indicates the location on the H-R diagram of a one-solar-mass star when it stars
to fuse helium?
a.
1
b.
2
c.
3
*d.
4
11.
Why can
’
t the lowest mass stars become giants?
*a.
Their centers never get hot enough.
b.
Their rotation is too slow.
c.
They do not contain helium.
d.
They never use up their hydrogen.
12.
How is a giant star different from the star it evolved from?
a.
A giant is hotter and more luminous.
b.
A giant is hotter and less luminous.
*c.
A giant is cooler and more luminous.
d.
A giant is cooler and less luminous.
13.
After they leave the main sequence, what happens to stars with masses between 0.4 and 4
solar masses?
*a.
They undergo thermonuclear fusion of hydrogen and helium, but never get hot
enough to ignite carbon.
b.
They undergo thermonuclear fusion of hydrogen, but never get hot enough to ignite
helium.
c.
They produce type-I supernovae after they exhaust their nuclear fuels.
d.
They produce type-II supernovae after they exhaust their nuclear fuels.
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14.
About how long will a 0.5 solar mass star spend on the main sequence?
a.
5 million years
b.
570 million years
c.
5 billion years
*d.
57 billion years
15.
For a star with a mass similar to that of the Sun, what is the last stage of the nuclear fusion?
a.
hydrogen to helium
*b.
helium to carbon and oxygen
c.
carbon to magnesium
d.
silicon to iron
16.
A low mass star goes through several stages of life from birth to death. Which of the
following lists are in correct order?
a.
protostar, main sequence star, red giant, supernova, neutron star
b.
protostar, main sequence star, planetary nebula, super giant, supernova
*c.
protostar, main sequence star, red giant, planetary nebula, white dwarf
d.
protostar, main sequence star, white dwarf, red giant
17.
What happens to stars that have ejected a planetary nebula?
a.
They become protostars.
b.
They become brown dwarfs.
*c.
They become white dwarfs.
d.
They become red giants.
18.
After what evolutionary stage does a star become a white dwarf?
a.
protostar
b.
pre-main sequence
c.
main sequence
*d.
giant
19.
What is a planetary nebula?
*a.
the expelled outer envelope of a medium mass star
b.
a cloud of hot gas produced by a supernova explosion
c.
a nebula within which planets are forming
d.
a cloud of hot gas surrounding a planet
20.
What does a planetary nebula do?
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a.
produces an absorption spectrum
*b.
produces an emission spectrum
c.
contracts to form planets
d.
contracts to form a star
21.
What is the term for a collection of 100 to 1000 young stars in a region about 80 light-years
in diameter?
a.
Herbig-Haro object
b.
globular cluster
*c.
open cluster
d.
giant cluster
GOOD LUCK!!
WILFRID LAURIER UNIVERSITY
AS101a
Chapter 6
Quiz # 6
Instructor: Dr. Ioannis Haranas
1.
The parsec is defined so that a star at a distance of 1 parsec has a parallax of one arcsecond. If
a star has a parallax of 0.02 seconds of arc, what is its distance?
a.
2 parsecs
b.
5 parsecs
c.
20 parsecs
*d.
50 parsecs
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2.
The parsec is defined so that a star at a distance of 1 parsec has a parallax of one arcsecond. If
a star has a parallax of 0.05 seconds of arc, what is its distance?
a.
2 parsecs
b.
5 parsecs
*c.
20 parsecs
d.
50 parsecs
3.
The parsec is defined so that a star at a distance of 1 parsec has a parallax of one arcsecond. If
a star is located at a distance of 10 parsecs, what is its parallax?
*a.
0.1 arcseconds
b.
0.01 arcseconds
c.
1 arcsecond
d.
10 arcseconds
4.
The parsec is defined so that a star at a distance of 1 parsec has a parallax of one arcsecond. If
a star is located at a distance of 40 parsecs, what is its parallax?
a.
0.25 arcseconds
*b.
0.025 arcseconds
c.
0.04 arcseconds
d.
0.05 arcseconds
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5.
How do humans use their eyes to measure relative distance by parallax?
a
.
By continuously focusing our eyes on distant objects, we can determine distance.
*
.
b. Since our eyes are separated, the brain interprets the relative look angles of the two
eyes in terms of distance to the object viewed.
c
.
Our eyes can measure the time it takes light to travel from an object, and from this we
get distance.
d
.
As we move our heads from side to side, our brain compares angles from each of these
positions to work out the distance to the object viewed.
7.
What would make parallax easier to measure?
*a.
the Earth's orbit being larger
b.
the stars being farther away
c.
the Earth moving faster along its orbit
d.
stars moving faster in their orbits
8.
If two stars are emitting the same amount of light, how will the star that is farther away
appear?
a.
brighter
*b.
dimmer
c.
redder
d.
bluer
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9.
What is absolute visual magnitude?
a.
the luminosity of a star observed from Earth
b.
the luminosity of a star observed from a distance of 1000 parsecs
*c.
the apparent magnitude of a star observed from a distance of 10 parsecs
d.
the apparent magnitude of a star observed from Earth
10.
Absolute magnitude is defined as the apparent magnitude that a star would have if observed
at a distance of 33 light-years. Consider a star at a distance of 350 light-years that has an
apparent magnitude of +5. What would its absolute magnitude be?
*a.
It would be less than +5.
b.
It would be exactly +5.
c.
It would be greater than +5.
d.
More information on the
star’s
luminosity would be required to answer this question.
11.
What aspect of a star is a measure of the total energy radiated by the star in one second?
a.
apparent visual magnitude
b.
luminosity class
c.
spectral type
*d.
luminosity
12.
Which stars have a large positive absolute magnitude?
a.
stars of high luminosity
*b.
stars of low luminosity
c.
nearby stars
d.
distant stars
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13.
If you compare two stars, which one will always have the greater luminosity?
a.
The one with the larger radius will always have the greater luminosity.
b.
The one with the higher surface temperature will always have the greater luminosity.
*c.
The one with the smaller absolute magnitude will always have the greater luminosity.
d.
The one with the largest distance will always have the greater luminosity.
14.
The nearest star, Proxima Centauri, is about four light-years away and has a luminosity about
0.001 times that of the Sun. If Proxima Centauri were at a distance of one light-year instead of
four, how much brighter would it appear in the sky?
*a.
twice as bright
b.
four times as bright
c.
16 times as bright
d.
4000 times as bright
15.
How does a
star’s
surface temperature determine the appearance of its spectrum?
a.
Surface temperature affects which elements are solid, liquid, or gaseous.
b.
Surface temperature determines the luminosity of the star.
c.
Surface temperature affects which elements can escape from the surface of the star.
*d.
Surface temperature determines the velocity of collision rates of atoms and ions.
16.
What is the most accurate way to determine the surface temperature of a star?
*a.
Study the pattern of absorption lines from various atoms.
b.
Study the relative intensities of light measured through different photometric filters.
c.
Study the peak wavelength of the star's continuum blackbody spectrum.
d.
Study the pattern of emission lines on the star's spectrum.
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17.
Which of the following can the strength of spectral lines tell you about a star?
a.
the radius
b.
the distance
*c.
the temperature
d.
the visual magnitude
18.
You observe medium hydrogen Balmer lines, as well as neutral helium spectral features, in a
star. What is the most likely spectral class of this star?
a.
G
b.
M
c.
F
*d.
B
19.
You observe medium hydrogen Balmer lines, as well as neutral helium spectral features, in a
star. What is the approximate surface temperature of this star?
a.
3000 K
b.
10 000 K
*c.
20 000 K
d.
5500 K
20.
What is the spectral sequence in order of decreasing temperature?
*a.
OBAFGKM
b.
OBAGFKM
c.
BAGFKMO
d.
ABFGKMO
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GOOD LUCK!!
WILFRID LAURIER UNIVERSITY
AS101a
Chapter 7
Quiz # 7
Instructor: Dr. Ioannis Haranas
1.
Which of the following relationships is the key to nuclear reactions in a
star’s
core remaining
under control?
a.
Luminosity depends on mass.
*b.
Pressure depends on temperature.
c.
Density depends on mass.
d.
Weight depends on temperature.
2.
What is opacity?
a.
the balance between the pressure and force of gravity inside a star
b.
the force that binds protons and neutrons together to form a nucleus
c.
the temperature and density at which a gas will undergo thermonuclear fusion
*d.
a measure of the resistance to the flow of radiation (photons) through a gas
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3.
What causes the outward gas pressure that balances the inward pull of gravity in a main-
sequence star?
a.
the rapid outward flow of gas
b.
the rapid inward flow of gas
*c.
the high temperature and density of the gas
d.
the low mass of helium nuclei
4.
Why is convection important in stars?
a.
because it mixes the
star’s
gases and increases the temperature of the star
*b.
because it mixes the
star’s
gases and transports energy outwards
c.
because it carries energy toward the core of the star
d.
because it carries the neutrinos to the surface of the star where they can escape
5.
How does the temperature inside a star determine how energy flows inside it?
a.
The radiation rate depends on temperature.
*b.
The dependence of opacity on temperature makes convection happen.
c.
The dependence of opacity on temperature makes conduction happen.
d.
The temperature determines how much energy is produced at each layer.
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6.
Which of the following is the best example of energy transport by conduction?
a.
Your feet are warmed when you hold them in front of a fire.
b.
Your feet are warmed when you wear socks.
*c.
Your feet get cold when you stand on a cold floor.
d.
Your feet get cold when you hold them over a cool air vent.
ANSWER:
c
7.
What does solving equations on a computer have to do with making a stellar model?
*a.
The equations apply the laws of stellar structure at locations within the star.
b.
Equations can describe the H-R diagram and a
star’s
location on it.
c.
The mass-luminosity equation tells you how to find a
star’s
luminosity given its mass.
d.
Equations are used to model the nuclear reactions inside a star.
8.
What does the strong force do?
a.
It binds electrons to the nucleus in an atom.
b.
It holds the Moon in orbit around the Earth.
c.
It creates the magnetic field associated with sunspots.
*d.
It binds protons and neutrons together to form a nucleus.
9.
What concept explains why both fusion and fission release energy?
a.
proton-proton chain energy
b.
Coulomb barrier energy
c.
strong force energy
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*d.
nuclear binding energy
10.
What is the name of the process by which the Sun turns mass into energy?
a.
nuclear fission
*b.
nuclear fusion
c.
convection
d.
radiation
11.
While on the main sequence, what is a
star’s
primary energy source?
*a.
nuclear fusion
b.
nuclear fission
c.
gravitational potential energy
d.
magnetic fields
ANSWER:
a
12.
Why does the proton-proton chain need high temperatures?
a.
High temperatures increase the ground state energy of the hydrogen atom.
b.
High temperatures increase the velocity of the protons so they can overcome the Coulomb barrier.
c.
High temperatures lower the density of the gas.
d.
High temperatures allow the neutrinos to carry more energy away than the reaction produces.
ANSWER:
b
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13.
Why do nuclear fusion reactions only take place in the interior of a star (rather than at the surface)?
a.
The magnetic fields are strongest there.
*b.
The temperature and density are highest in the centre.
c.
The core is the only place where hydrogen is found.
d.
The strong nuclear force is only active in the centers of stars.
14.
What is produced in the proton-proton chain?
a.
two hydrogen nuclei, a single helium nucleus, and energy in the form of visible light
b.
four hydrogen nuclei and energy in the form of gamma rays
*c.
a helium nucleus and energy in the form of gamma rays
d.
two hydrogen nuclei and energy in the form of visible light
15.
What happens in the proton-proton chain?
a.
Two protons are fused to make a helium nucleus.
b.
Three protons are fused to make a lithium nucleus.
c.
A helium nucleus is split into four protons.
*d.
Four protons are fused to make a helium nucleus.
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16.
What is the term for the process that fuses hydrogen into helium in the cores of massive
main-sequence stars?
*a.
the CNO cycle
b.
the proton-proton chain
c.
hydrostatic equilibrium
d.
the neutrino process
17.
What happens in the carbon-nitrogen-oxygen (CNO) cycle?
a.
Carbon nuclei are split 3 ways to make helium nuclei.
b.
Carbon and oxygen combine to form nitrogen, which produces energy.
c.
Carbon and nitrogen combine to form oxygen and energy.
*d.
Four hydrogen nuclei combine to form one helium nucleus and energy.
18.
Stars with masses below a certain threshold produce most of their energy via the proton-
proton chain. What is that threshold?
a.
0.01 solar masses
b.
0.1 solar masses
*c.
1.1 solar masses
d.
11 solar masses
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19.
Which of the following is considered to be the best explanation for the missing solar
neutrinos?
a.
The Sun is fusing helium but not hydrogen.
b.
Nuclear reactions do not produce neutrinos as fast as theory predicts.
c.
The Sun may contain matter we haven't yet identified.
*d.
Neutrinos may oscillate between three different flavours.
20.
How did observations at the Sudbury Neutrino Observatory solve the solar neutrino problem?
*a.
They showed that the
“missing
neutrinos”
had changed into a different type.
b.
They showed that other experiments had miscounted the number of solar neutrinos.
c.
They showed that models for the number of neutrinos produced by the Sun were
wrong.
d.
They showed that neutrinos were not escaping from the core of the Sun.
Good Luck!!
Wilfrid Laurier University
AS101a
Quiz # 9
Instructor: Dr. Ioannis Haranas
1. What is the term for a collection of 105 to 106 old stars in a region 30 to 100 light-years in diameter?
a.
Herbig-Haro object
*b.
globular cluster
c.
open cluster
d.
giant cluster
2. What is the defining characteristic of stars within a cluster that are at the turnoff point?
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*a.
They are just leaving the main sequence.
b.
They are just becoming white dwarfs.
c.
They are just entering the main sequence.
d.
They are about to explode in supernovae.
Cluster
3. What is the approximate age of the star cluster in the H-R diagram? (Hint: Main sequence stars of
spectral types O and B have a core supply of hydrogen that is sufficient to last about 250 million years;
types A and F, about 2 billion years; type G about 10 billion years; types K and M about 30 billion years.
The apparent magnitude scale means that larger numbers are toward the bottom of the vertical axis.)
a.
200 million years
b.
2 billion years
*c.
10 billion years
d.
30 billion years
4. Refer to the H-
R diagram. What type of star do the two data points above spectral type “A” represent?
a.
massive main sequence stars
b.
massive supergiant stars
*c.
white dwarfs with mass less than the sun’s mass
d.
white dwarfs with m
ass greater than twice the sun’s mass
5. Refer to the H-
R diagram. What type of star do the data points above spectral type “M” represent?
a.
massive main sequence stars
*b.
main sequence stars with mass less than the sun’s mass
c.
main sequence st
ars with luminosities higher than the sun’s luminosity
d.
pre-main sequence stars
6. Refer to the H-R diagram. How would the H-R diagram of an older star cluster look different?
a.
The points would shift to the right, because all of the stars would have lower temperatures.
*b.
The lower main sequence would look the same, but the turnoff would be at spectral type K or M.
c.
The points would shift down, because all of the stars would have lower luminosities.
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d.
The lower main sequence would look the same, but the turnoff would be at spectral type F or A.
7. Refer to the H-R diagram. How would the H-R diagram of a more distant star cluster look different?
*a.
The points would shift down, because all of the stars would have larger apparent magnitudes.
b.
The points would shift to the right, because all of the stars would appear to be cooler.
c.
The points would shift up, because all of the stars would have smaller apparent magnitudes.
d.
The points would shift to the left, because all of the stars would appear to be hotter.
8. Which nuclear fuels does a one solar mass star use over the course of its entire lifespan?
a.
hydrogen
*b.
hydrogen and helium
c.
hydrogen, helium, and carbon
d.
hydrogen, helium, carbon, and oxygen
9. Star A is a 1 solar mass white dwarf, and star B is a 1.3 solar mass white dwarf. How would they
differ?
a.
Star A has a smaller radius.
*b.
Star B has a smaller radius.
c.
Star B is supported by neutron degeneracy pressure.
d.
Star A is hotter.
10. What is the source of the energy radiated by a white dwarf?
a.
the proton-proton chain
b.
the CNO cycle
c.
gravitational contraction after becoming a white dwarf
*d.
gravitational contraction during the white dwarf formation phase
11. What does the Chandrasekhar-Landau limit tell us?
a.
Accretion disks can grow hot through friction.
b.
Neutron stars of more than 3 solar masses are not stable.
*c.
White dwarfs more massive than 1.4 solar masses are not stable.
d.
Stars with a mass less than 0.5 solar masses will not go through helium flash.
12. What is the ultimate fate of our Sun?
a.
It will become a neutron star.
b.
It will explode in a supernova.
*c.
It will become a white dwarf.
d.
It will explode in a nova.
13. Which scenario is most likely to happen when the Sun enters the red giant stage?
*a.
Mercury, Venus, and Earth will be destroyed by the expanding Sun.
b.
Mercury will be destroyed by the expanding Sun, but Venus and Earth will remain intact.
c.
The Sun will engulf and destroy all planets in the Solar System.
d.
The Sun will never expand far enough to reach Mercury or any other planets in the Soar System.
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14. If the stars at the turnoff point of a cluster have a mass of 3 times the mass of the Sun, what is the age
of the cluster?
*a.
6.4
×
108 years
b.
3.3
×
109 years
c.
3.0
×
1010 years
d.
1.6
×
1011 years
15. Which of the following correctly describes a relationship between pressure, temperature, and density
in degenerate matter?
a.
Pressure depends only on the temperature.
*b.
Pressure does not depend on temperature.
c.
Temperature depends only on density.
d.
Pressure does not depend on density.
16. What is a white dwarf composed of?
a.
hydrogen nuclei and degenerate electrons
b.
helium nuclei and normal electrons
*c.
carbon and oxygen nuclei and degenerate electrons
d.
degenerate iron nuclei
17. As a white dwarf cools, its radius remains the same. Why is this?
a.
because pressure due to nuclear reactions in a shell just below the surface keeps it from collapsing
*b.
because pressure does not depend on temperature for a white dwarf, since the electrons are
degenerate
c.
because pressure does not depend on temperature, since the star has exhausted all its nuclear fuels
d.
because material accreting onto it from a companion maintains a constant radius
18. What are the two longest stages in the life of a one solar mass star?
a.
protostar, pre
–
main sequence
b.
protostar, white dwarf
c.
protostar, main sequence
*d.
main sequence, white dwarf
19. Which of the following is the most important factor that determines a life cycle of a star (for example,
why some stars have a short life span)?
*a.
mass
b.
temperature
c.
luminosity
d.
radius
Good Luck!!
WILFRID LAURIER UNIVERSITY
AS101a
Black Holes
Quiz and Assignment
# 10
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Instructor: Dr. Ioannis Haranas
1. A Black Hole has mass
M
BH
= 15
M
Solar
. What is its Schwarzschild radius?
a. 50.5 km
*b. 44.24 km
c. 76 km
d.100 km
2.
A Black Hole has mass
M
BH
= 1800
M
Solar
. What is its Schwarzschild radius?
a. 150.5 km
b. 444.24 km
*c. 5309.32 km
d.8769.60 km
3. If the Schwarzschild radius of a Black Hole is 10 km, what is its mass?
a. 15
M
solar
b. 6.8
M
solar
*c. 35
M
solar
d.
48
M
solar
4. Why black holes are black?
a. Because they do not have any energy
b. Because nothing escapes
c. Because radiation does not escape
*d. Because light does not escape
5. What is at the center of a black hole?
a. Another black hole
b. A little galaxy
*c. The singularity point
d.
An X-ray source
6. What is a supermassive black hole?
a. Black hole with mass similar to the sun
b. Black hole with mass similar to Jupiter
c. Black hole with mass similar to 3
M
solar
*d.
Black hole with mass (thousand - billion)
M
solar
7. How did the Black Holes were predicted
a. By observation
b. With radio telescopes
c. With optical telescopes
*d.
Mathematically using Einstein’s general relativity theory
8.
Hawking radiation is black body radiation
due to
a. Electromagnetic effects
*b. Quantum effects
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c. Gravity effects
d.
Mechanical effects
9.
Where is the Hawking radiation emitted?
a. Near the singularity
*b. Near the horizon
c. Near the Schwarzschild radius
d.
From particles orbiting the black hole
10. BONUS QUESTION
Two Black Holes have the following masses
M
1
= 100
M
solar
and
M
2
= 40
M
solar
. Show that Schwarzschild
radius of the first black hole satisfies the relation
2
1
2
5
BH
BH
R
R
=
. (Do not panic this is a really easy
question!!. Hint: All you need is the relation that gives the Schwarzschild radius of a black hole. Look at
the lecture slides.)
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Which of the following is largest?
Size of a typical Galaxy
What is a light-year?
The distance light travels in one year
The distance across our galaxy in light-years is closest to..
100,000
Which of the following celestial phenom is the largest?
The Milky Way Galaxy
Which of the following celestial phenomena is the smallest?
The orbit of the Moon
If we consider a circular sphere around our solar system with a radius of about 10 ly how
many stars, other than the Sun, would be included in such a sphere?
Ten
Suppose you live on the Moon. How long is a day? (sunrise to sunset)
a lunar month
Which of the following statements about lunar phases is true?
It is possible to have two full moons during January, but not during February
Which of the following statements is NOT true about the motions of the Moon?
A crescent moon will be seen either just after sunset or just before sunrise
The lunar month is longer than the sidereal month because..
The Moon has to complete more than one full orbit around the Earth to complete the cycle if the
lunar phases
Latitude in stellar coordinates is known as:
Declination
Which of the following best describes the Milky Way Galaxy?
A spiral galaxy with a disk about 80,000 ly in diameter and containing between 100 billion and 1
trillion stars
When you observe a star for a period of a few hours from a location in Canada, you notice
it never rises or sets. What accounts for this?
The star is near the North Star; Polaris
If the Moon is setting at midnight, the phase of the Moon must be
first quarter
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Which of the following is the reason for the solar day being longer than a sidereal day?
The combined effect of the rotation of the Earth and its orbit about the Sun
Which of the following statements does not use the term light-year in an appropriate way?
It will take me light-years to run this marathon
Day and night are caused by
the rotation of the Earth on its axis
If you lived at the North Pole at night the stars would..
Never rise or set but move in circles around the Polaris, the North Star
Suppose you lived at the Earth’s equator. Which of the following statements would not be
true?
The celestial equator goes through your sky from due east on your horizon, through 50
degree altitude in the south, to due west on the horizon
What is the apparent visual magnitude of a star a measure of?
The star’s brightness as seen by the human eyes on Eart
h
The order of the planets beyond Earth, away from the Sun is:
Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune
Which of the following is closest to the Sun?
Mercury
The ecliptic is the apparent path of the Sun moving how?
Eastward among the stars
The nearest star to the Sun (and us) is Proxima Centauri, a red dwarf in the Alpha
Centauri system. How far away from the Sun is PC?
4.2 ly
Each cycle of the Earth’s precession takes abou
t
26,000 years
Which of the following statements about the Moon is true?
The Moon’s distance from the Earth varies during its orbi
t
Which of the following statements about the Moon IS true?
The Moon passes through the shadow of the Earth
Which of the following is the best reason for the leap years?
The combined effect of the rotation of the Earth and the precession of the Earth’s axi
s
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If the Moon was in the same orbital plane but twice as far from Earth, which of the
following would happen?
Total eclipses of the Sun would NOT happen
The solar system consists of:
The Sun and its planets, asteroids and comets
In our journey outward from the Sun what is a feature you notice about the spacing of the
planets?
The inner planets are grouped together and relatively close to the Sun while the planets from
Jupiter to Neptune are spaced much farther apart
What makes the North Star, Polaris, special?
It appears very close to the north celestial pole right now
Which of the following statements about the ecliptic plane is NOT true?
It is the pla
ne of the Moon’s orbit around the Eart
h
The calendar we use now is called the
Gregorian after Pope Gregory
Suppose the date is June 21 and the Sun never sets, just touching your northern horizon at
midnight. Where are you?
The Arctic circle
From a latitude of 42 degrees, how many degrees above the northern horizon does the
north celestial pole appear to be?
42
Which of the following statements about the Celestial Sphere is NOT true?
The Celestial Equator lies in the Ecliptic Plane
Which of the following statements about the sizes of stars is most true?
Rigel, the bluish star representing the left foot of Orion, is considerably larger than the Sun
Which of the following objects within our solar system is the smallest?
Moon
Which of the following DOES use the term, light-year correctly?
The nearest star is about 4.2 ly from our solar system
How many constellations make up the entire celestial sphere?
88
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If you see the Moon rising in the East just as the Sun is setting in the west then the phase of
the Moon is
Full
Which of the following best describes the tropic of Cancer?
It is a place where the Sun is directly overhead at noon on the summer solstice
Which of the following has your “address” in the correct order
?
You, Earth, solar system, Milky Way, Local Group, Local Supercluster
What is the ecliptic?
The Sun’s apparent path along the celestial spher
e
On the Cosmic Calendar, when did the big bang occur?
Jan 1
How long does it take light from the Sun to get to Earth?
8.3 minutes
What is the largest object in our solar system?
The Sun
From a latitude of 42 degrees, how many degrees above the northern horizon does the
north celestial pole appear to be?
42
Which of the following statements about sidereal and solar days is NOT true?
The time is takes for the Moon to make one circuit of our sky is one solar day
Which of the following is the furthers from the Sun?
A comet in the Oort cloud
The order of planets beyond Earth, away from the Sun are:
Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune
The problem with the Julian calendar was that it was:
too short by 11 minutes in a year
The number of days in a month is associated with
Lunar phases
Right ascension is expressed in
Hours, minutes and seconds from 0 to 24 hours
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Patterns of stars in constellations hardly change in appearance over times of even a few
thousand years. Why?
The stars in our sky actually move rapidly relative to us thousands of km/h but are so far away
that it takes a long time for this motion to make a noticeable change in the patterns in the sky
On the
Cosmic Calendar most of recorded history takes up what portion of the “year”
?
The last few seconds of the year
You are standing at the Earth’s Equator at midnight. Which way is Polaris, the Nort
h
Star?
Right on the northern horizon due north
If we consider a circular sphere around our solar system with a radius of about 10 ly, how
many stars, other than the Sun, would be included in such a sphere?
ten
Which of the following statements about the Moon is false?
The die of the Moon we never see from Earth is always in darkness
Imagine you are in Durban, South Africa (latitude
–
30 degrees or 30 degrees South). You
wish to walk north along a longitudinal line so that you've covered exactly one quarter of
the Earth’s circumference. What is the lati
tude when you arrive at your destination?
60 degrees
Imagine you are standing on the equator watching the stars at night. Which of
the following statements is true?
Over a year you will see all the stars in the sky
Which of the following about lunar phases is true?
It is possible to have two full moons during Jan but not during Feb
The ecliptic is the apparent path of the Sun moving how?
Eastward among the stars
What is an astronomical Unit (AU)
All of the rest
What happens during the apparent retrograde motion of a planet?
The planet appears to move westward with respect to the stars over a period of many nights
Which of the following sequences is a correct ordering of the Moon’s phases
?
Waxing gibbous, full, waning gibbous
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On the summer solstice in June, the Sun will be directly above ____ and all locations north
of ____ will experience daylight all day
The Tropic of Cancer, the Arctic Circle
What conditions are required for a solar eclipse?
The phase of the Moon must b
e new, and the nodes of the Moon’s orbit must be nearly aligned
with the Earth and the Sun
On the vernal and autumnal equinoxes,
all of A, B and C
Which of the following years is NOT a leap year?
1900
Which of the following best describes the tropic of Cancer?
It is a place where the Sun is directly overhead at noon on the summer solstice
Each of the following shows a constellation followed by a bright star. In all cases, but one,
the star is a part of the constellation. Which one is a mismatch?
Canis Minor, Polaris
The lunar month is longer than the sidereal month because..
The Moon has to complete more than one full orbit around the Earth to complete the cycle of
lunar phases
What does the Big Dipper exemplify?
An asterism
A sidereal period is an orbit relative to the position of what?
the position of the stars
We can’t det
ect stellar parallax with naked-eye observations. Which of the following would
make parallax easier to observe?
Increasing the size of the Earth’s orbit
Which of the following correctly describes the meridian in your sky?
A half-circle extending from your horizon due north, through your zenith, to your horizon due
south
Suppose that the sun were to suddenly disappear from our solar system. What would
happen to earth’s motion.
It would begin travelling in a straight line heading out of the solar system
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Which of the following statements about electrons is not true.
Electrons are actually neutrons that have acquired an electrical charge
The Metonic Cycle is the
19 year period over which the lunar phases occur on about the same dates
Which statement about the cosmological principle is valid
It is based on two tenents involving the universality of the laws of physics and chemistry and the
belief that there is nothing special about earth
Consi
dering einsten’s famous equation E=MC2 which of the following is true
A small amount of mass can be turned into a large amount of energy
Which of the following best describes the origin of the ocean tides on earth
Tides are caused by the difference in the force of gravity exerted by the moon across the sphere
of the earth
What does temperature measure
The average kinetic energy of particles in a substance
Upon what quantities does angular momentum depend
3 quanitities
–
an objects mass, its rotational speed, etc
The amount of matter contained in an object is called its mass. Which of the following is
false.
The average adult human mass is about 160 pounds
Where does the energy come from that your body uses to keep you alive
Mostly it comes from the foods you each
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Without telescopes or other aid we can see the moon in the night sky because
It reflects light
The scientific method is best described by which of the following
A system collecting analyzing data, formulating a hypothesis, testing it and forming it as needed
If your mass is 60kg on earth would would it be on Jupiter
60kg
The names of the 7 days of the week are based on
Seven naked eye objects that appear to move among constellations
Which of
the following is not one of nor followings Kepler’s law
When a planet travels slower it must be nearer to the sun and it speeds up far from the sun
Ptolemy was important in history of astronomy because he
Developed a model of the solar system that made sufficiently accurate predictions of planetary
positions to remain in use of centuries
Radioactive energy is
Energy carried by light
Retrograde motion is observable for what objects
Planets located more distant from the sun than earth
The doppler shift is a wave phenomenon that
Uses change in wavelength of light to determine speed of a moving star
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At which lunar phases are tides smallest
Both first and 3
rd
When Copernicus 1
st
created his sun centred model it not lead to better predictions than
Ptolemaic why
Copernicus used perfect circles for the orbits of the planets
A skater can spin faster by pulling arms closer to her body and slower by pulling out
Conservation of angular momentum
From lowest energy to highest energy electromagnetic radiation
Radio, infrared, visible, ultraviolet, x rays, gamma rays
Spectral line formed by hydrogen appears at a wavelength of 486.1 nanometres the
spectrum of a star sows the same hydrogen line appearing at 4.85 what can we conclude
The star is moving towards us
Which of the following is not a unit of energy
Kilowatt
The frequency of a wave is
All of the other answers are true
Spectroscopy can be used to
All of the above
Which of the following statements best describes the principle advantage of telescopes over
eyes
Telescopes can collect far more light with far better angular resolution
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A green apple looks green because
It reflects green light and absorbs all other colours
The wavelength of a wave is
The distance between two adjacent peaks of the wave
Kinetic energy
Energy of motion
What would happen if the space shuttle were launched with greater speed then earths
escape velocity
It would travel away from the earth into the solar system
What do astronomers mean by light pollution
Refers to light used for human activities that brightens the sky and hinders astronomical
observations
Which of the following statements it not one of newton’s laws of motion
The net force applied to an object is equal to its mass times velocity
Which of the following statements correctly described the law of conservation of energy
The total quantity of energy in the universe never changes
Which of the following statements about x rays and radio waves is not true
Nether x rays nor radio waves can penetrate t
he earth’s atmosphere
Which of the following is not an advantage of the HST over ground based telescopes
Although it orbits the earth and is outside the atmosphere, it is closer to the stars
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When hold a rock potential energy, drop it kinetic, hits the ground what happens
The energy goes to producing sound and to heating the ground rock, air
The trouble with refraction telescopes is that
Different colours of visible starlight get focused to different points in space making the image
blurry
Suppose the angular separation of 2 stars is smaller than the angular resolution of your
eyes how will stars appear to your eyes
The 2 stars look like a single point of light
Galileo observed that venus had phases very similar to the phases our moon goes through.
From this he concluded that
Venus must, therefore, orbit the sun and not earth
Using Kepler’s third law of planetary motion…
11.8 years
Which statement best describes the difference between your mass and your weight
Your mass is a measure of the amount of matter you contain and your weight is a measure of the
amount of gravitational pull on your body
How did kepler’s first law of planetary motion alter the Copernican system?
It changed the perfect circles to ellipses
Galileo was a very important figure in the development of astronomy. Which of the
following statements about Galileo’s accomplishments is false?
Galileo looked at the moon through his telescope and observed rivers flowing with some kind of
high liquid
Which of the following is not an exam
ple of a “pseudoscience”
Astronomy
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Where is Stonehenge located
In England, west of London
Ptolemy was important in the history of astronomy because he
Developed a model of the solar system that made sufficiently accurate predictions of planetary
positons to remain in use for many centuries
Galileo observed that Jupiter has moons. From this information you may conclude that
There are so-called heavenly objects that do not orbit the earth and although its clear that the
moon orbits earth there is, then, no reason why the earth-moon combination cannot orbit the sun
What determines the date for easter
The Sunday following the first full moon following the spring equinox
At which lunar phases are the tides most pronounced?
Both new and full moons
Which of the following is not regarded as a heat transfer mechanisms
Segregation
Which of the following are systems for measuring temperature
Only A, B, and D
Betelgeuse and Rigel are two bright stars in the constellation Orion. Betelgeuse emits
primarily red light while rigel appears a blue colour. What can you determine from this
observation
Riel is hotter than Betelgeuse
Which of the following statements about Isaac newton is not true
Newton grew up in Germany
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Consider a loaded dump truck and you in your smartcar driving along the 401 highway.
Which of the following statements about linear momentum is true
As long as you follow the truck, both travelling at the same speed, your combined momentum or
total momentum, is conserved
A neap tide is when the rides are least pronounced, during which lunar phrase do neap
tides occur?
Both first and third quarter moons
The two basic types of telescopes are what?
Reflection and refraction
What is the main problem that ground-based telescopes have to deal with
All A, B, and C
Spectroscopy can be used to
All of A, B, C, and D
Most of everything we know from outside earth we know because of our use of what?
Light
Which of the following objects would not be considered an optical device
Your bedroom window
What is the main advantage of the hubble space telescope
It orbits above the earth’s atmosphere
Which of the following statements about exoplanets is false?
no planets have been found orbiting their stars at radii less than mercury’s orbital radius
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Which statement best describes the direct detection technique for finding exoplanets?
actually, seeing the exoplanet orbiting the star through our more powerful telescopes
Which of the following techniques has so far yielded the fewest detections of an exoplanet?
astrometric method
Why would a star continuously wobble back and forth in space?
because it is revolving around a common centre of mass with other planets
What is the name of the exoplanet that has been found closest to our solar system?
alpha centauri Bb
which of the following statements about exoplanets is true?
only a and c are true
What does the exoplanet descriptor “hot Jupiter” mean?
it’s an exoplanet just like Jupiter but orbiting much closer to its sun than 5 AU
Why is it easier to find exoplanets that are much more massive than the earth?
because their transits and tugging on their stars are easier to detect
Thinking about our own solar system which planet will have the greatest effect on the suns
movement about the solar system?
Jupiter because of its huge mass
Which statements best describes the transit technique for finding exoplanets?
observing slight dip in the brightness of a star as the planet moves across its face
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Which of the following three factors would affect the size of a stars Doppler shift caused by
an exoplanet?
only a and b
Which statement best describes the astrometric technique for finding exoplanets?
Observing the slight side to side movement of the stars
which of the following space telescope missions was dedicated entirely to discovering
exoplanets?
Kepler
The terrestrial planet cores contain mostly metal because?
only metals condensed closest to the sun in the solar nebula and the rocks accreted around them
as the protoplanetary
The terrestrial planets and the giant Jovian planets have different compositions because?
the terrestrial planets are closer to the sun
How were the moons of the Jovian planets likely formed?
probably through the same process as the planets themselves formed
The first solid grains or flake formed in our solar system by the process of ________ the
addition of material to an object an atom….
condensation
Which of the following is the most likely to describe a comet but not an asteroid?
comets are mainly composed of ice and snow with some dust and rocky bits
What is the differentiation in planetary geology?
the process by which gravity separates materials according to density
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Why did the solar nebula heat up as it collapsed?
as the cloud shrank its gravitational potential energy was converted to kinetic energy and then
into thermal energy
The sticking together of small but solid particles is an important feature of the solar
nebular theory. What is this process known as?
accretion
What constitutes the solar wind?
it’s the continuous
emission of charged particles from the solar surface
The nebular theory of formation of the solar system successfully predicts all but one of the
following. Which one does the theory not predict?
the equal number of terrestrial and Jovian planets
Which on the following solar system moons likely formed through the same process as our
solar system
Jupiter’s so ca
lled Galilean moon
What was the frost line of the solar system?
the distance from the sun beyond which temperatures we low enough for hydrogen compounds
and methane to condense into the present-day orbits of mars and Jupiter
Why are the inner planets made of denser materials that the outer planets?
in the inner part of the nebula only metals and rocks were able to condense because of the high
temperatures
What is plantsman?
a small building block of planets
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Which of the following statements about asteroids is false?
an asteroid in just a failed comet
Where are most of the known asteroids found?
between Jupiter and mars
The age of our solar system is approximately?
4.6 billion years
Which of the following statements about comets is false?
the nucleus of a comet is quite large about 100 km across
Which of the following statements about the moons of the solar system is false?
all planets have moons except mercury
Rank the following planets in order of size from the smallest to the largest?
mercury, mars, earth, Uranus, Saturn
When we examine of the types of planets making up the solar system we notice the
following?
there are two types of planets, terrestrial and Jovian
Which of the following is not characteristics of the terrestrial planets?
they have more moons than the Jovian planets
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What is the origin of the atoms of hydrogen, oxygen, and sodium into eh perspiration that
exits your body du
ring this…
the hydrogen nuclei were produced a few minutes after the big bang event 13.8 billion years
ago…
Which of the following characteristics of the Jovian planets is correct?
none of a, b or c are correct
The rotation of the planets are?
all in the same direction (with exception of Venus and Uranus)
Which of the following statements about meteorites is true?
A
meteorite is what’s left of a meteor when it hits the earth’s surface
Ring systems around planets are?
quite common among the large, gas planets; all Jovian planets have them
The Age of our Solar system is approximately
4.6 billion years
As of now most known extrasolar planets have been discovered by
Doppler technique
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the moons of the solar system planets
all of the eight classical planets have at least one moon
Which of the following statements about asteroids is not true
no asteroids have been found beyond the asteroid belt
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What is a comet
the nucleus of a comet is a collection of various ices mixed with dust and tiny bits fo rocky
debris
Atmospheres formed around some terrestrial planets because
outgassing through volcanic activity
Which of the following solar system moons were likely formed through the same processes
as our solar system
jupiter’s so called Galilean moons
what was the ice or frost line of the solar system
between present day orbits of mars and Jupiter
which of the following is not characteristic of the terrestrial planets
they have more moons than the jovial plants
why haven’t we detected low mass planets close to their stars an
d high mass planets far
from their stars
Both A and B above
To date about how many extrasolar planets have been discovered
700
what are the main constituents of the jovian planets
hydrogen and helium
the first small solid grans or flakes formed in our solar system by the process of
condensation
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what is an extrasolar planet
a planet that orbits a star that is not our sun
What is an exoplanet moon
it is an object orbiting an exoplanet
at first the suns present data rotation seems to contradict the prediction of the nebular
theory because
sun should have been rotating fast when it formed, but the actual rotation is fairly slow
why did the solar nebula heat up as it collapsed
as the cloud s
hrank, its gravitational potential energy….
Which of the following statements about the jovian planets is not true
outermost jovian planet Uranus….
Which one of the following is a characteristic of jovian planets
low average density
the terrestrial planet cores contain mostly metal because
metals condensed first in the solar nebula and the rocks then accreted around them
based on available data what kind of objects in our solar system do most of the known
extrasolar planets resemble
jovian planets
the planet closest in size to earth is
venus
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51 pegasi is important because
it is the first star like our sun that was found to have a planet orbiting it
which of the following is the origin of almost all the large moons around the jovian planets
they were formed by condensation and accretion in disk of gas around the planet
which type of exoplanet would you expect to cause the largest Doppler shift
massive planet close to its star
rank the 5 worlds in order of size from large to small
earth, venus, mars mercury moon
the asteroid belt is found where
mars and Jupiter
according to our theory of solar system formation what is pluto
one of the largest Kuiper belt objects
the nebular theory of the formation of the solar system successfully predicts all but one of
the following, which one does the theory not predict
the equal number of terrestrial and jovian planets
which of the following statements about meteorites is true
a meteo
rite is what’s left of a meteor when it hits the earth’s surface
which detection technique has been used to find orbital distance
Doppler technique
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how much of the solar nebula consisted of elements heavier than hydron and helium
2%
which of the following statements is not an observed pattern of motion in our solar system
most planets orbit at the same speed
what is the origin of the atoms of hydrogen, oxygen, and sodium in the perspiration that
exits your body during this astronomy test
hydrogen nuclei were produced a few minutes after the big bang event 13.7 billion years ago …..
which of the following is not a technique that could be used to discover extrasolar planet
direct binocular
why does the solar nebula theory predict that planetary systems are common
all of the other answers
why are the inner planets made of denser materials than the outer planets
in the inner part of the nebula only metals and rocks were able to condense because of the high
temperatures whereas hydrogen compounds although more abundant were only able to condense
in the cooler outer regions
which of the following statements about comets is not true
the nucleus of a comet is quite large about 100 km across
which of the following is not a characteristic of the general layout of the solar system
all planets rotate on their polar axes at about the same rate
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according to our theory of solar system formation what is the origin of asteroids and
comets
asteroids are the leftover planetesimals of the inner solar system and comets are the leftover
planetesimals that formed beyond the frost line
Which of the following characteristics of the terrestrial planets is (are) correct?
They are relatively small, high density objects with solid surfaces on which to walk
Which of the following statements about comets is true?
Comets have a relatively small nucleus
that develop debris tails as they get close to the sun
What is a planetesimal?
A smaller building block of planets
Protoplanets grow into planetesimals by which processes
A combination of A and B
About how much of the solar nebula consisted of elements heavier than hydrogen and
helium
2% by mass
What is meant by the period of heavy bombardment?
During the 500-700
What is different in planetary geology?
The process by which gravity separates materials according to density
Which statements best describes the direct detection technique for finding exoplanets?
Actually seeing the exoplanet orbiting the star through our more powerful telescopes
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Which statement best describes the doppler technique for finding exoplanets
Observing the slight shifting of the frequency
Which statement best describes the transit method of discovering exoplanets
Measuring the periodic dimming
Which of the following statements about jovian moons is false
All of the jovian moons orbit their planet in the same direction, counter clockwise as seem from
above the solar system
All of the following statements about Charon,
Pluto’s
moon, are true except which one?
As strange as it may sound, astronomers have actually observed seasonal effects on Charon
Planetary rings are
All of the above
Where do the majority of confirmed dwarf planets in the system reside
Between mars and Jupiter
Which of the following statements about the rings of the four Jovian planets is not true
All probably look much like they did when the solar system first formed
The satellites interior has probably warmed enough by tidal stressing to have liquid water
ocean below an icy crust
Lo
Which of the following s not classified as a dwarf planet
Triton
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Why
isn’t
there a planet where the asteroid belt is located
Gravitational tugs from Jupiter prevented material from collecting together to form a planet
What is the cassini division of saturn
’
s rings?
A large gap, visible from earth, produced by an orbital resonance with the moon mimas
Why was pluto
’
s status was changed to that of
“
dwarf planet
”
by the IAU?
Because it has not cleared its orbital region of other objects
Which of these moons is the most geologically active?
Lo
What did the Huygens probe discover about Saturn
’
s moon, Titan?
A system of caverns and tunnels that appear to run throughout the interior of the satellite
Why is Triton referred as Neptune
’
s
“
backward
”
moon
It orbits in the opposite direction of its revolution
All of the following statements about Jupiter are true but one. Which one is false
The great red spot is a large storm that has been observed for only the last 75 years
Which of the following do the Jovian planets not have in common?
They are all less dense than water
How does the atmospheric pressure on Mars compare to that on Earth and Mars
Lower than on both earth and venus
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Why does mars have more extreme seasons than earth
Because it has a more eccentric orbit
Mercury is how far from the sun, on average
0.39 AU
Which of the following statements about Uranus is false
Uranus has a great red spot on its surface that has been visible for the last 400 years
Why does Jupiter have several distinct cloud layers
Different layers represent clouds made of gases that condense at different temperatures
Which of the following planets was found using newton
’
s laws after discrepancies were
observed in another planet
’
s orbit
Neptune
Which of the following does Jupiter not have
Crustal plates on its surface
Which of the following statements about mars is false
Saturn has one big moon, titan, and a lot of small ones
The belts and zones of Jupiter are
Alternating bands and rising and falling air at different latitudes
All but one of the following statements about mars are true. Which one is false?
The Martian atmosphere is fairly substantial with a composition similar to earth
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What is the region around a planet called where the magnetic field is able to deflect the
solar wind and other charged particles
Magnetosphere
Exploration of mars has been accomplished by orbiters, landers, and rovers. Which of the
following statements about martian exploration is false
The remains
…
(cant depict -
blurry - but no other answer starts with that)
…
largest volcano on
mars
All but one of the following statements about mercury are true. Which one is false?
Mercury
’
s orbit about the sun is almost circular, more so than any other planet in the solar
system
The origin of Earth
’
s only natural satellite, moon, is?
A combination of the
“
capture
”
theory and the
“
daughter
”
theory, sometimes called the impact
theory which posits that early in the solar system history the formative years. A young, molten
earth collided with a mars-like object in a sort of glancing blow
In what ways is earth different from the other terrestrial planets?
All of the above is true
The orbit of venus around the sun is almost circular. What is the radius of its orbit?
0.72au
How have we been able to construct maps of surface features on the planet venus?
By using radar from spacecraft that were sent to orbit venus
How would you describe venus
’
s retrograde rotation
It rotates slowly in a direction opposite to its revolution
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All but one of the following statements about mercury are true. Which one is false?
Mercury has a very thin atmosphere which is strange because there are still active volcanoes
outgassing carbon dioxide and water vapour
Which of the following statements about conjunctions and opposition is false?
Mars can have an inferior conjunction but not a superior conjunction from earth
’
s perspective
At what special time in venus
’
s orbit might we be able to see a solar transit
Inferior conjunction
What is the moon
’
s average orbital distance from the sun
1.0Au
Why does the burning of fossil fuels increase the greenhouse effect on earth?
Burning releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere
There are no auroras in venus because
Lacks a strong magnetic field
Which component of our atmosphere has steadily increased in the last 100 years and has
lead to warming temperatures
Carbon dioxide
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Module 1 Test - Test 1
Astronomy I Our Place in the Cosmos (Wilfrid Laurier University)
StuDocu is not sponsored or endorsed by any college or university
Module 1 Test - Test 1
Astronomy I Our Place in the Cosmos (Wilfrid Laurier University)
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Which of the following statements about the ecliptic plane is not true?
•
It is the plane of the moon
ʼ
s orbit around the earth
Which of the following statements about lunar phases is true
•
It is possible to have 2 full moons during January but not during February
Which of the following celestial phenomena is the smallest
•
The orbit of the moon
Suppose you lived at the Earth
ʼ
s equator. Which of the following statements
would not be true
- the celestial equator goes through your sky from due east on your horizon, through 50
degrees altitude in the south, to due west on the horizon
When you observe a star for a period of a few hours, you notice that it moves
across the sky. What is responsible for this motion
- Earth
ʼ
s rotation on its axis
On the cosmic calendar (where the age of the universe in condensed into the
equivalent to one calendar year) most of recorded history takes up what portion
of the “year”?
- the last few seconds of the year
The order of the planets, from the sun outward is
- mercury, venus, earth, mars, jupiter, saturn
Which of the following is the reason for the solar day being longer than a sidereal
day?
- the combined effect of the rotation of the Earth and its orbit around the sun
Which of the following statements about the moon is true
-the moon
ʼ
s distance from the earth varies during its orbit
One light year is closest to what distance
- ten million million kilometres
Which of the following is the best reason for the leap years
- the combined effect of the rotation of the earth and the precession of the earth
ʼ
s axis
The apparent visual magnitude of star A is +2 and the apparent visual magnitude
of star B is +1. Based on this information which statement below must be true
- light output can distance cannot be determined from a star
ʼ
s apparent visual
magnitude alone
Which of the following would appear brightest in the night sky
- the full moon
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Which of the following best describes the Milky Way Galaxy
- a spiral galaxy with a disk about 100,000 light years in diameter and containing
between 100 billion and 1 trillion stars
What conditions are required for a lunar eclipse
- the phase of the moon must be full, and the nodes of the moon
ʼ
s orbit must be nearly
aligned with the earth and the sun
We can
ʼ
t detect stellar parallax with naked-eye observations. Which of the
following would make parallax easier to observe?
- increasing the size of the earth
ʼ
s orbit
Which statement below most accurately describes modern constellations
-there are 88 well defined regions on the celestial sphere
You are standing on the earth
ʼ
s equator at midnight which way is polaris, the
north star?
- on the northern horizon
Suppose the date is June 21
st
and the sun never sets, just touching your Northern
horizon at midnight. Where are you?
- the arctic circle
The size of a hockey rink is best measured in what units
- metres
If the moon is setting at midnight, the phase of the moon must be
- first quarter
Which of the following correctly describes the meridian in your sky
- a half circle extending from your horizon due north through your zenith, to your horizon
due south
Which of the following statements is true?
Answer is both B and C
Statements were
- both the northern and southern hemispheres receive the same amount of sunlight on
the equinoxes
- The northern hemisphere receives the most direct sunlight on the summer solstice
Which of the following best describes the tropic of Cancer
- it is a place where the sun is directly overhead at noon on the summer solstice
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The sun is rising in the east and will be on your meridian in 2 hours. What time is
it currently?
-10 am
While in Bracebridge, ON where the latitude is 45 degrees, at the spring equinox
(about March 21
st
) the sun follows the path where it
- rises due east, crosses the meridian at an altitude of 45 degrees in the south, and sets
due west
What is an astronomical Unit
- the average distance from the earth to the sun
What conditions are required for a solar eclipse
- the phase of the moon must be new, and the nodes of the moon
ʼ
s orbit must be nearly
aligned with the earth and the sun
Which of the following is the furthest from the sun?
-Proxima Centauri
If it is midnight in waterloo it is
- daytime in sydney Australia
The lunar month is longer than the sidereal month because
- the moon has to complete more than one full orbit around the earth to complete the
cycle of lunar phases
What is the ecliptic
- the sun
ʼ
s apparent path along the celestial sphere
Which of the following celestial phenomena is the largest
- the milk way galaxy
How long does it take light from the surface of the sun to get to earth?
- a few minutes
Which of the following has your address in the correct order? In this question the
local group also means thee local Clusters
- you, Earth, Solar system, Milky Way, Local Group, Local supercluster
The size of our galaxy in light years is closest to which of the following numbers
-100,000
Which of the following statements about the celestial sphere is not true
- the celestial equator lies in the ecliptic plane
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Which of the following is the largest?
- size of a typical galaxy
If you lived at the north pole at night the stars would
- never rise or set, but move in circles around polaris, the north star
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Module 2 Test - Test 2
Astronomy I Our Place in the Cosmos (Wilfrid Laurier University)
StuDocu is not sponsored or endorsed by any college or university
Module 2 Test - Test 2
Astronomy I Our Place in the Cosmos (Wilfrid Laurier University)
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Suppose that the Sun were to suddenly disappear from our solar system. What
would happen to earth
ʼ
s motion
It would begin traveling in a straight line heading out of the solar system
Which of the following statements about electrons is not true
Electrons are actually neutrons that have acquired an electrical charge
The Metonic Cycle is the
19 year period over which the lunar phases occur on about the same dates
Which statement about the cosmological principle is valid
It is based on two tenets involving the universality of the laws of physics and
chemistry and the belief that there is nothing special about Earth
Considering Einstein's famous equation E =mc2 which of the following is true
A small amount of mass can be turned into a large amount of energy
Which of the following best describes the origin of the ocean tides on earth
Tides are caused by the difference in the force of gravity exerted by the moon
across the sphere of the Earth
What does temperature measure
The average kinetic energy of particles in a substance
Upon what quantities does angular momentum depend
Mass velocity radius
The amount of matter contained in an object is called its mass. Which of the
following is false
If you were to go to the moon your mass would be lower than your moss on Earth
because gravity is less on the moon
Where does the energy come from that your body uses to keep you alive
Mostly it comes from the foods you eat
Without telescopes or other aid we can see the moon in the night sky because
It reflects light
The scientific method is best described by which of the following
A system of collecting analyzing data, formulating a hypothesis, testing it and
reforming it as needed
If your mass is 60 KG on earth would would it be on Jupiter
60 KG
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The names of the 7 days of the week are based on
Seven naked eye objects that appear to move among the constellations
Which of the following is not one of nor follows kepler
ʼ
s laws
When a planet travels slower it must be nearer to the sun and it speeds up far
from the sun
Ptolemy was important in history of astronomy because he
Developed a model of the solar system that made sufficiently accurate
predictions of planetary positions to remain in use for centuries
Radiative energy is
Energy carried by light
Retrograde motion is observable for what objects
Planets located more distant from the sun than earth
The doppler shift is a wave phenomenon that
Uses change in wavelength of light to determine speed of a moving star
At which lunar phases are the tides smallest
Both first and 3
rd
When copernicus 1
st
created his sun centred model it not lead to better
predictions than ptolemaic why
Copernicus used perfect circles for the orbits of the planets
A skater can spin faster by pulling arms closer to her body and slower by pulling
out
Conservation of angular momentum
From lowest energy to highest energy electromagnetic radiation
Radio, infrared, visible, ultraviolet, x rays, gamma rays
Spectral line formed by hydrogen appears at a wavelength of 486.1 nanometres
the spectrum of a star sows the same hydrogen line appearing at 485.2 what can
we conclude
The star is moving towards us
Which of the following is not a unit of energy
Kilowatt
The frequency of a wave is
All of the above
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Spectroscopy can be used to
All of the above
Which of the following statements best describes the principle advantage of
telescopes over eyes
Telescopes can collect far more light with far better angular resolution
A green apple looks green because
It reflects green light and absorbs all other colours
The wavelength of a wave is
The distance between two adjacent peaks of the wave
Kinetic Energy is
Energy of motion
What would happen if the space shuttle were launched with greater speed then
earths escape velocity
It would travel away from the Earth into the solar system
What do astronomers mean by light pollution
Refers to light used for human activities that brightens the sky and hinders
astronomical observations
Which of the following statements it not one of Newton
ʼ
s laws of motion
The net force applied to an object is equal to its mass times velocity
Which of the following statements correctly describes the law of conservation of
energy
The total quantity of energy in the universe is constant, although we
ʼ
re not sure
how much energy there really is
Which of the following statements about X rays and radio waves is not true
Neither X rays nor radio waves can penetrate the Earth
ʼ
s atmosphere
Which of the following is not an advantage of the HST over ground based
telescopes
Although it orbits the Earth and is outside the atmosphere, it is closer to the stars
When hold a rock potential energy, drop it kinetic, hits the ground what happens
The energy goes to producing sound and to heating the ground rock, air
The trouble with refraction telescopes is that
Different colours of visible starlight get focused to different points in space
making the image blurry
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Suppose the angular separation of 2 stars is smaller than the angular resolution
of your eyes how will stars appear to your eyes
The 2 stars look like a single point of light
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StuDocu is not sponsored or endorsed by any college or university
Module 4 Test
Astronomy I Our Place in the Cosmos (Wilfrid Laurier University)
StuDocu is not sponsored or endorsed by any college or university
Module 4 Test
Astronomy I Our Place in the Cosmos (Wilfrid Laurier University)
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Jupiter and Satrun emit
heat than absorbed from the sun due
to
More; heat left over from their formation
Which of the following statements about the rings of the 4 jovian planets is not
true
All probably look much like they did when the solar system first formed
What is a Roche zone
The region near a planet where tidal forces would tear apart an object held
together only by gravity
Saturn is how far from the sun
10 AU
What mechanism is most responsible for generating the internal heat of IO that
drives volcanic activity
Tidal heating
The belts and zones of jupiter are
Alternating bands of rising and falling air at different latitudes
How thick are saturn
ʼ
s rings from top to bottom
A few tens of metres
Which of the following does Jupiter not
have
Crustal plates on its surface
All but one of the following statements about Mars are true. Which is false
The Martian atmosphere is fairly substantial with a composition similar to earth
Which of these moons is the most geologically active
Io
Mars is how far from the sun
1.5 AU
All but one of the following statements about mercury are true. Which is false
Mercury has a very thin atmosphere which is strange because there are still
active volcanoes outgassing carbon dioxide and water vapour
Why are there no impact craters on the surface of Io
Io did have impact craters but they have all ben buried in lava flows
Mercury's Large core is composed of
Iron
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We know about Earth
ʼ
s interior because of
Study of waves created by earthquakes
Why does Jupiter have several distinct cloud layers
Different layers represent clouds made of gases that condense at different temps
How have we been able to construct maps of surface features on the plant venus
By using radar from spacecraft that were sent to orbit venus
Which of the following objects contains mostly nitrogen with some methane
Titan
The orbit of Venus around the sun is almost circular. What is the radius of its
orbit
0.72 AU
Earth
ʼ
s atmosphere contains only small amounts of Carbon dioxide because
It dissolves in water, and most of it is now in the oceans and carbonate rocks
All but one of the following statements about Mercury are true. Which one is false
Mercury
ʼ
s orbit around the sun is circular, more so than any other planet
All of the following statements about Jupiter are true, which is false
The great red spot is a large storm centre which has been observed for last 50
yrs
Planetary rings are
All of the above
A solar day on Mercury is about how long
176 Earth days
Why does Marys have more extreme seasons than Earth
Because it has a more eccentric orbit
What is the Cassini division of Saturn
ʼ
s rings
A large gap, visible from earth, produced by an orbital resonance with moon
Mimas
Why does the burning of fossil fuels increase the greenhouse effect on earth
Burning releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere
All but one of the statements about earth is true. Which is false
The poles of the earth
ʼ
s magnetic field are precisely aligned with Earth
ʼ
s
rotational axis
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In what ways is Earth different from other terrestrial planets
All of the above
What is the region around a planet called where the magnetic field is able to
deflect solar wind and other charged particles
Magnetosphere
Why do astronomers believe Triton may have been a planet that was captured by
neptune
It orbits neptune in the opposite direction of Neptune
ʼ
s rotation
The origin of Earth
ʼ
s only natural satellite, Moon is
A combination of the capture theory and the daughter theory called the impact
theory which posits that early a young molten earth collided with a mars like object
Which of the following statements about conjunctions and oppositions if false
Mars can have an inferior conjunction but not a superior conjunction from earth
ʼ
s
perspective
All of the following about Venus are true. Which one is false
The magnetic field has about the same intensity as on Earth it appears to change
directions every 100,000 years
There are no auroras on Venus because it
Lacks a strong magnetic field
Which of the following statements about Saturn is false
Saturn was first discovered by Galileo about 400 years ago
Which of the following is not
a Kuiper Belt Object
Triton
Which of the following statements about Pluto is false
Pluto is one of the larger KBOs discovered to date and is actually bigger than
Mercury
Which of the following statements about charon, Pluto
ʼ
s moon are true expect
which one
As strange as it may seem, astronomers have actually observed seasonal effects
on Charon
Which of the following statements about the moons of the Jovian planets is false
Tiania, one of the largest jovian moons, has a wrinkly surface that is often
referred to as “cantaloupe terrain”
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AS101 - Assignment 1
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Which one of the following statements best describes the Sun?
Question options:
a) generates energy by nuclear fusion
b) located 10 AU from Earth
c) orbiting the Solar System
d) located in the centre of the Milky Way
A
In the organization diagram below in which area the term: Polaris
would appropriate fit?
Question options:
Yellow area= Solar system
Red area=Milky Way
Light Blue= Universe
B
Which of the following sequences objects is in the correct order
of increasing distance?
Question options:
Venus, Saturn, Moon, Andromeda galaxy, Polaris
Moon, Venus, Saturn, Polaris, Andromeda galaxy
Polaris, Andromeda galaxy, Moon, Saturn, Venus
Andromeda galaxy, Saturn, Venus, Polaris, Moon
B
The nearest star to our solar system is alpha Centauri at 4.0 x
1016 m (4.3 ly away). The diameter of the sun is 1.4 x 109 m.
How many suns would it take to line up adjacent to each other in
order to reach alpha Centauri?
Question options:
5.6x106
5.6x106
2.8x1025
2.8x107
D
There approximately 100 billion stars in our galaxy. If there 100
billion observable galaxies in our universe, what is a reasonable
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AS101 - Assignment 1
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estimate for the total number ion the universe?
Question options:
1.0x1022
2.0x1020
1.5x1015
1.0x1024
A
The distance to a super cluster galaxy might be
Question options:
100 Mpc
10 Kpc
120 Ly
10 AU
A
Approximately 100 Earths would fit inside Jupiter. This Jupiter's
radius must be
................
times larger that Earth's radius.
Question options:
100
12
10
1000
C
A spherical particle in the ring of Saturn has radius of about 1m.
The surface area of the particle in the area of radiation flow is
Question options:
125 m2
3.14 m2
12.6 m2
14 m2
B
A spherical particle in the ring of Saturn has radius of about 1m.
The cross sectional area of the particle in the area of radiation
flow is:
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AS101 - Assignment 1
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Question options:
125 m2
3.14 m2
12.6 m2
14 m2
B
If the landing lights in Denver airport were switched on, then in
one second these photons travel to:
Question options:
New York (1580 km)
Alpha Centauri (40,000,000,000 000 km)
The Sun(150,000,000 km)
Moon (384,000 km)
D
Sirius the brightest star in the sky is about 9 ly away. If the speed
of light became half of its present value, how far would Sirius be?
Question options:
9 ly
18 ly
4.5 ly
32 ly
B
If the distance from the Sun to the Earth is represented by roughly
15 metres, then what would the distance from the Earth to the
Moon on the same scale be?
Question options:
about 30 metres
about 10 metres
about 1 metre
smaller than the width of your hand
D
The Andromeda galaxy is about 2,000,000 ly away. Therefore light
started its travel
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AS101 - Assignment 1
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Question options:
1,000,000 y
2,000,000 y
Just a second ago
Can't be determined
B
Approximately how many times larger than the diameter of a
typical planet (the Earth) is the diameter of a typical star (the
Sun)?
Question options:
10 times
100 times
1000 times
10,000 times
B
What does the Solar System contain?
Question options:
the Sun, its planets, and some smaller bodies
the Sun, galaxies, planets, and stars
the Sun, planets, moons, and stars
the Sun, planets, asteroids, and galaxies
A
What do we mean when we say that the universe is expanding?
Question options:
Average distances are increasing between star systems within
galaxies.
Everything in the universe is gradually growing in size.
All galaxies are increasingly moving away from one another.
The statement is not meant to be literal; rather, it means that our
knowledge of the universe is growing.
C
What is the approximate diameter of the Earth?
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AS101 - Assignment 1
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Question options:
1 AU
13,000 light-years
13,000 kilometres
1,000,000 kilometres
C
The age of the universe is
Question options:
between 10 million and 16 million years.
between 100 million and 160 million years.
between 1 billion and 1.6 billion years.
between 10 billion and 16 billion years.
D
One light-hour is the distance that light travels in an hour. How far
is this, in kilometers? (Recall that the speed of light is 300,000
km/s.)
Question options:
300,000 km
18 million km
100 million km
1.08 billion km
D
Which of the following is largest?
Question options:
size of a typical galaxy
size of Pluto's orbit
distance to the nearest star (other than our Sun)
1 light-year
A
Which of the following is smallest?
Question options:
size of a typical planet
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AS101 - Assignment 1
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1 light-second
1 AU
size of a typical star
A
If we use 1 millimeter to represent 1 light-year, how large in
diameter is the Milky Way Galaxy?
Question options:
100 millimeters
100 meters
1 kilometer
100 kilometers
B
Imagine that we put a raisin cake into the oven, with each raisin
separated from the others by 1 cm. An hour later, we take it out
and the distances between raisins are 3 cm. If you lived in one of
the raisins and watched the other raisins as the cake expanded,
which of the following would you conclude?
Question options:
All raisins would be moving away from you at the same speed.
More distant raisins would be moving away from you faster.
More distant raisins would be moving away from you more slowly.
It depends: If you lived in a raisin near the edge of the cake, you'd
see other raisins moving away from you, but they'd be coming
toward you if you lived in a raisin near the center of the cake.
B
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AS101 - Assignment 2
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You are standing on Earth's equator. Which way is Polaris, the
North star?
Question options:
30 degrees up, due West
on the northern horizon
directly overhead
The answer depends on whether it's winter or summer.
B
By locating the north celestial pole (NCP) in the sky, how can you
determine your latitude?
Question options:
The altitude of the NCP is the same as your latitude.
The altitude of the NCP is your angular distance from the North
Pole.
The azimuth of the NCP is the same as your latitude.
The azimuth of the NCP is the angular distance from the North
Pole.
A
Orion is visible on winter evenings in the northern hemisphere but
not summer evenings because of
Question options:
interference from the full Moon.
the tilt of Earth's axis.
the location of Earth in its orbit.
the precession of Earth's axis.
C
Why do we have seasons on Earth?
Question options:
As Earth goes around the Sun and Earth's axis remains pointed
toward Polaris, the Northern and Southern hemispheres alter-
nately receive more and less direct sunlight.
The tilt of Earth's axis constantly changes between 0 and 23 1/2°,
giving us summer when Earth is tilted more and winter when it is
straight up.
Earth's distance from the Sun varies, so that it is summer when
A
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AS101 - Assignment 2
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we are closer to the Sun and winter when we are farther from the
Sun.
Seasons are caused by the influence of the planet Jupiter on our
orbit.
Which of the following statements is true?
Question options:
Both the Northern and Southern hemispheres receive the same
amount of sunlight on the equinoxes.
Both the Northern and Southern hemispheres receive the same
amount of sunlight on the solstices.
The Northern Hemisphere receives the most direct sunlight on
the summer solstice.
Both A and C are true.
D
Why is it summer in the Northern Hemisphere when it is winter in
the Southern Hemisphere?
Question options:
The Northern Hemisphere is closer to the Sun than the Southern
Hemisphere.
The Northern Hemisphere is "on top" of Earth and therefore
receives more sunlight.
The Northern Hemisphere is tilted toward the Sun and receives
more direct sunlight.
The Northern Hemisphere is tilted away from the Sun and re-
ceives more indirect sunlight.
C
Which of the following statements about constellations is false?
Question options:
There are only 88 official constellations.
Some constellations can be seen from both the Northern and
Southern hemispheres.
Some constellations can be seen in both the winter and summer.
Most constellations will be unrecognizable hundreds of years from
now.
D
Star Name Apparent Visual Magnitude
´ Dra 3.07
± Cet 2.53
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AS101 - Assignment 2
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Nim 8.07
± CMa -1.46
Refer to Table 2-1. Which star in the table would appear brightest
to an observer on Earth?
Question options:
´ Dra
± Cet
Nim
± CMa
D
What causes the precession of the Earth's rotation axis?
Question options:
the force of gravity from the Sun and Moon on the Earth's equa-
torial bulge
the force of gravity from the Sun and Jupiter on the Earth-Moon
system
the magnetic field of the Earth
the impacts of asteroids
A
Which of the following diagrams represent the area of the sky
where an ancient Greek astronomer could observe the planets?
(Ancient Greeks knew the 5 planets, in fact the word planet comes
from the Greek word "planetes" = wanderer.)
A
If the Earth turns one full rotation in approximately 24 hours, how
many degrees per hour
does the sky turn?
Question options:
12 deg/h
16 deg/h
15 deg/h
8 deg/h
C
An observer in Salt Lake City Utah (latitude= 40.7608 N) sees
three stars rising in the eastern horizon. Which of these stars
might later on pass through zenith point?
Question options:
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AS101 - Assignment 2
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A
B
C
A
Where is an observer's nadir?
Question options:
the east point on the observer's horizon
the north point on the observer's horizon
the point directly opposite the observer's zenith
the point directly opposite the north celestial pole
C
Which of the following is equivalent to one-3,600th of a degree?
Question options:
precession
second of arc
minute of arc
angular diameter
B
Where is the zenith for an observer standing at a point on the
Earth's equator?
Question options:
directly overhead
near the horizon and towards the south
near the horizon and towards the west
the position depends on the time of day
A
The orbit of the Earth had an eccentricity 0.017. If the eccen-
tricity increased to 0.65 what would happened to the Earth's
seasons?e=0.017 e=0.65
Question options:
More intense seasons
A
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AS101 - Assignment 2
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Less intense seasons
No appreciable change
Which of the following locations are closer to the South Celestial
Pole ?
Question options:
(RA= 14h Declination=+88°)
(RA= 14h Declination=-88°)
(RA= 23h Declination=2°)
(RA= 18h Declination=-66°)
B
Where is the north celestial pole in our sky for latitudes between
35-45° N?
Question options:
The answer will vary with latitude in the latitude range 40°-90° N
The answer will vary with latitude in the latitude range 30°-90° N
The answer will vary with latitude in the latitude range 35°-40° N
The answer will vary with latitude in the latitude range 35°-45° N
D
How often is the sun at zenith for an observer at the equator?
Question options:
Never
Twice per year
12 times per year
Every day
B
Suppose Earth's axis tilt was significantly greater than its current
23.5 degrees, but Earth's rotation period and orbital period were
unchanged. Which statement below would not be true?
Question options:
Summers and winters would be more severe (for example, hotter
and colder, respectively) than they are now.
The region of Earth where the Sun does not rise on the winter
solstice would be larger (extending farther south) than it is now.
C
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AS101 - Assignment 2
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The length of each season (for example, the number of days from
the summer solstice to the fall equinox) would be significantly
longer than it is now.
Polaris would not be our North star.
An observer in the northern hemisphere watches the sky for sev-
eral hours. Due to the motion of the Earth, this observer notices
that the stars near the north celestial pole appear to move. What
pattern does this apparent movement follow?
Question options:
clockwise around the celestial pole
counter-clockwise around the celestial pole
from left to right
from right to left
B
If the apparent visual magnitude of a star is 7.3, what does this
tell us about the brightness of the star?
Question options:
It is one of the brighter stars in the sky.
It is bright enough that it would be visible even during the day.
It is not visible with the unaided eye.
It appears faint because of its great distance from the Earth.
C
Which of the following describes a concept very similar to latitude?
Question options:
right ascension
declination
magnitude
meridian
B
Which of the following best defines the ecliptic?
Question options:
the plane that is perpendicular to the Earth's axis of rotation
the projection of the Earth's equator onto the sky
D
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AS101 - Assignment 2
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the path traced out by the Moon in our sky in one month against
the background stars
the path traced out by the Sun in our sky over one year against
the background stars
If the north celestial pole appears on your horizon, what is your
latitude?
Question options:
50° N
50° S
90° N
0° S
D
If the north celestial pole appears on your zenith, what is your
latitude?
Question options:
50° N
50° S
90° N
0° S
C
Where on Earth would you be if Polaris were at your zenith?
Question options:
North Pole
Arctic Circle
Tropic of Cancer
Equator
A
While watching a star, you see it moves 45 degrees across the
sky. How long have you been watching it?
Question options:
1 hour
3 hours
B
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AS101 - Assignment 2
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15 minutes
15 seconds
An observer in the northern hemisphere takes a time exposure
photograph of the night sky. If the illustration depicts the pho-
tograph taken by the observer, which direction was the camera
pointing?
29
Question options:
Due north
Due south
Due east
Straight up
A
An observer in the northern hemisphere takes a time exposure
photograph of the night sky. If the illustration depicts the pho-
tograph taken by the observer, which direction was the camera
pointing?
30
Question options:
Due north
Due south
Due east
Due west
B
For an observer in Sydney Australia, at a latitude 34° South, what
is the angle between the southern horizon and the south celestial
pole?
Question options:
23.5°
34°
45°
51°
B
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AS101 - Assignment 2
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If you were standing at the Earth's North Pole, which of the
following would be located at the zenith?
Question options:
the nadir
the star Vega
the celestial equator
the north celestial pole
D
How much of the night sky lies north of the celestial equator?
Question options:
Less than half, because of the tilt of the equator to the ecliptic
plane.
More than half, because of the precession of the poles.
Exactly half.
All of the night sky.
C
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AS101- Assignment 3
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In 1054 CE, the Chinese recorded a very interesting and powerful
cosmic event. What was this event?
Question options:
a star merger
a supernova
a galactic collapse
simultaneous solar and lunar eclipses
B
What did Eratosthenes measure very accurately?
Question options:
the size of the Earth
the length of the year
the distance to the Moon
the length of the month
A
Who were the two great authorities of Greek astronomy?
Question options:
Aristotle and Ptolemy
Julius Caesar and Aristotle
Columbus and Ptolemy
Alexander the Great and Julius Caesar
A
Whose writings became so famous that he was known throughout
the Middle East simply as "The Philosopher"?
Question options:
Ptolemy
Eratosthenes
Aristotle
Hipparchus
C
Which of the following statements reflects beliefs that were almost
universally held in pre-Copernican astronomy?
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Question options:
The planets travelled in elliptical orbits around the Earth
The planets travelled in elliptical orbits around the Sun
The Sun was at the centre of the universe
The Earth was at the centre of the universe
D
In what circumstances is retrograde motion observable?
Question options:
It is observable for planets located between the Earth and the Sun
It is observable for planets more distant from the Sun than the
Earth
It is only observable for the Moon
It is observable for all planets
B
You are observing the night sky from Mars. In what circumstances
is retrograde motion observable?
Question options:
It is observable for planets more distant from the Sun than Mars
It is observable for planets located between Mars and the Sun
It is only observable for Earth and Venus
It is observable for all planets
A
What is the term for the apparent westward motion of a planet in
the sky compared to the background stars (as viewed from the
Earth) when observed on successive nights?
Question options:
epicycle
retrograde motion
prograde motion
heliocentric motion
B
What is parallax?
Question options:
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the apparent motion of an object due to the motion of the observer
the distance between two straight lines
the small circle that the planets slid along in Ptolemy's geocentric
universe
the distance between two foci of an ellipse
A
Why did ancient astronomers believe that the Earth did not move?
Question options:
because they could not detect parallax
because they believed in circular motion
because all observable planets follow retrograde motion
because parallax is only detectable during the day
A
In Ptolemy's view of the universe, what is at the centre of a planet's
epicycle?
Question options:
the Sun
the Earth
the deferent
the equant
C
Which of the following astronomers described the universe in a
way that matches the diagram?
Question options:
Kepler
Ptolemy
Copernicus
Galileo
B
What was the greatest inaccuracy in Copernicus's model of the
solar system?
Question options:
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that the planets travelled in circular orbits with uniform motion
that the planets travelled on epicycles, the centers of which fol-
lowed orbits around the Sun
that the planets travelled in elliptical orbits
that the planets were allowed to travel backwards in their orbits
A
Which of the following objects cannot transit (i.e. pass in front of)
the Sun, as seen from Jupiter?
Question options:
Mercury
Venus
Mars
Saturn
D
What was Tycho Brahe's greatest contribution to astronomy?
Question options:
his model of the universe
his telescopic observations
his discovery of three laws of motion
his 20 years of careful observations of the planets
D
What two numbers tell us the size and shape of an ellipse
Question options:
radius, eccentricity
radius, deferent
semi-major axis, deferent
semi-major axis, eccentricity
D
The orbit of planet A has an eccentricity of 0.5 and the orbit of
planet B has an eccentricity of 0.01. What can be said about the
shape of the orbits of these two planets?
Question options:
Planet A has a nearly circular orbit
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The orbit of planet A is more elongated than the orbit of planet B
The orbit of planet B is more elongated than the orbit of planet A
There is not enough information to say anything meaningful about
the shape of either orbit
B
Which of the following masses exert higher gravitational force on
each other?
Question options:
M=2------------------m=2
M=2------------------m=1
M=2------------------m=8
C
Which of the following masses exert smaller gravitational force on
each other?
Question options:
M=2------------------m=2
M=2------------------m=1
M=2------------------m=8
B
Which of th following masses exerts the largest gravitational force
on mass M?
Question options:
Blue and Gray
Gray and Green
Gray and Red
Gray and Yellow
B
A hypothetical solar system has planets evenly spaced in circular
orbits from the sun in the following distances and with the following
masses, that they are given in terms with the mass of Jupiter MJ.
Which of the following planets exerts the larger gravitational force
of the star.
Planet A --> 1 MJ, 1 AU
Planet B --> 3 MJ, 2 AU
Planet C --> 10 MJ, 3 AU
C
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Planet D --> 16 MJ, 4 AU
Given its orbital period of 76 years, what is the average distance
of Comet Halley from the Sun?
Question options:
18AU
38 AU
54 AU
114
A
An object has been located orbiting the Sun at a distance of 65
AU. What is the approximate orbital period of this object?
Question options:
8.1 years
65 years
524 years
4225 years
C
On average, Saturn is 10 AU from the Sun. What is the approxi-
mate orbital period of Saturn?
Question options:
10 years
32 years
1000 years
3200 years
B
The orbit of the planet Jupiter is an ellipse with the Sun at one
focus. What is located at the other focus?
Question options:
the Earth
the asteroid belt
Saturn
D
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nothing
The orbit of the Moon is an ellipse with the Earth at one focus.
What is located at the other focus?
Question options:
nothing
the asteroid belt
comets
the Sun
A
A comet is found in a highly elliptical orbit with a semi-major axis
equal to one astronomical unit (AU). According to Kepler's third
law of planetary motion, what would the sidereal period of this
comet be?
Question options:
It would be more than one year.
It would be one year.
It would be less than one year.
It would be 76 years; the same for every comet.
B
At perihelion the gravitational force of the sun exerted on the Earth
is
3-33
What is the force exerted on the sun by the Earth.
Question options:
Larger
The same
Smaller
B
At which position (A, B, C) is the gravitational force of the Earth on
the spaceship (green capsule) going to the Moon is the greatest?
Question options:
A
B
A
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C
An object moves in a straight line at a constant speed. Which
number of forces could not act on the object?
Question options:
0
1
2
3
4
B
What does the orbital velocity of an object with respect to the
distance does?
Question options:
Stays the same
Deceases
Increases
B
Would your mass and weight change if you went to the Moon?
Question options:
Weight would change but mass would not
Mass would change but weight would not
Both would change
Neither would change
A
At which lunar phase(s) are tides at their lowest?
Question options:
both new Moon and first quarter Moon
both first quarter Moon and third quarter Moon
new Moon
full Moon
B
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If Mars rises approximately the same time as a particular star. If
Mars is in normal prograde motion at what time Mars will rise next
night?
Question options:
Same time as the star
Earlier than the star
Later than the star
C
A planet orbits a planet in a circular orbit. How many forces are
acting on the planet?
Question options:
0
1
2
3
4
B
The spring tides occur during the new and full lunar phases.
Question options:
True
False
A
If a planet orbits the Sun at a distance of 4 AU, then its orbital
period is 8 years.
Question options:
True
False
A
Imagine you are travelling though the asteroid belt. Which of the
following would you expect to observe?
Question options:
All asteroids in the asteroid belt have shorter orbital period than
Earth.
Asteroids closer to Mars have longer orbital period than those
closer to Jupiter.
D
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All asteroids within the asteroid belt have the same orbital period.
Asteroids closer to Mars have shorter orbital periods than those
closer to Jupiter.
What feature of Ptolemy's model of the universe made it possible
to explain retrograde motion?
Question options:
heliocentrism
elliptical orbits
epicycles
geocentrism
C
If the mass of the Earth increased by a factor of 4, with no change
in the radius, what would happen to your mass?
Question options:
It would increase.
It would decrease.
It would stay the same.
It would exponentially decrease to zero.
A
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Why do astronomers build radio telescopes?
Question options:
Radio waves give a different view of the universe
Radio waves from space reach the Earth's surface
Radio telescopes can detect signals from aliens
Radio telescopes can be much larger than optical telescopes
A
What type of telescope is most likely to suffer from chromatic
aberration and have a low light-gathering power?
Question options:
a small diameter reflecting telescope
a large diameter reflecting telescope
a small diameter refracting telescope
a large diameter refracting telescope
C
When does chromatic aberration occur in a telescope?
Question options:
when different colours of light do not focus at the same point in a
reflecting telescope
when different colours of light do not focus at the same point in a
refracting telescope
when light of different wavelengths gets absorbed by the mirror in
a reflecting telescope
when light of different wavelengths gets absorbed by the lens in
a refracting telescope
B
What type of telescope is a radio telescope?
Question options:
reflecting
refracting
deflecting
retracting
A
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What type of telescope has a lens as its objective and contains
no mirrors?
Question options:
deflecting
reflecting
refracting
compound
C
How is the objective of most radio telescopes similar to the ob-
jective of a reflecting optical telescope?
Question options:
They are both bowl-shaped (concave)
They are both hill-shaped (convex)
They are typically the same size
They are both made of metal
A
What type of primary is found in a reflecting telescope?
Question options:
prism
mirror
lens
diffraction grating
C
You point your backyard reflecting telescope at the star Vega.
Where does Vega's light go?
Question options:
from the primary mirror, to the secondary mirror, to the eyepiece
from the primary mirror to the eyepiece
through the primary lens, to the secondary mirror, to the eyepiece
through the primary lens, through the secondary lens, to the
eyepiece
A
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Which of the following best explains the concept of atmospheric
windows?
Question options:
Holes in the Earth's atmosphere allow ultraviolet radiation to
reach the North and South poles
X-ray radiation from space can see through the atmosphere to
observe activities on the ground
Only certain wavelengths of electromagnetic radiation from space
reach the Earth's surface
The Earth's atmosphere can be "closed" or "open" to electromag-
netic radiation, depending on the weather
C
What is the main reason for building large optical telescopes?
Question options:
It's the best way to see through clouds and other light-absorbers
in the atmosphere
It's the best way to collect as much light as possible from faint
objects
It's the best way to nullify the blurring effects of the Earth's atmos-
phere and thus produce higher resolution images
It's the best way to magnify objects and make them brighter
B
An astronomer takes two pictures of the same object using the
Hubble Space Telescope. One picture is taken with red light and
one with blue light. Which one would you expect to show finer
details?
Question options:
Blue light will show finer details
Red light will show finer details
Both should be the same
The amount of detail depends on the distance to the object
A
Which property of a telescope determines its light-gathering pow-
er?
Question options:
the focal length of the objective
the focal length of the eyepiece
C
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the diameter of the objective
the length of the telescope tube
What is the light-gathering power of a telescope directly propor-
tional to?
Question options:
the diameter of the primary mirror or lens
the focal length of the primary mirror or lens
the length of the telescope tube
the diameter of the eyepiece
A
Why can't a telescope image be magnified to show any level of
detail?
Question options:
Diffraction limits the amount of detail that is visible
Telescopes only view a small region of the sky
Magnification depends on focal length
Resolving power depends on wavelength
A
Which of the following has the most light-gathering power?
Question options:
a telescope of 5 centimeters diameter and focal length of 50
centimeters
a telescope of 6 centimeters diameter and focal length of 100
centimeters
a telescope of 2 centimeters diameter and focal length of 100
centimeters
a telescope of 3 centimeters diameter and focal length of 75
centimeters
B
How is the resolving power of a telescope defined?
Question options:
It is a measure of the minimum angular separation that can be
seen with the telescope
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It is a measure of the amount of light that the telescope can gather
in one second
It is the separation between the objective and the imag
It is a measure of how blurry objects appear in the telescope
A
What happens to a telescope's light-gathering power and resolv-
ing power when you increase its diameter?
Question options:
Its light-gathering power and resolving power both increase
Its light-gathering power increases and its resolving power de-
creases
Its light-gathering power decreases and its resolving power in-
creases
Its light-gathering power and resolving power both decrease
A
What can be done to improve the resolving power of
ground-based optical telescopes?
Question options:
Use them at longer wavelengths
Equip them with an adaptive optics system
Change them from reflectors to refractors
Increase their focal length
B
The pupil of the human eye is approximately 0.8 centimeters
in diameter when adapted to the dark. What is the ratio of the
light-gathering power of a 1.6 meter telescope to that of the
human eye?
Question options:
2 : 1
20 : 1
400 : 1
40,000 : 1
D
What is the ratio of the light-gathering power of a 10-metre tele-
scope to that of a 1-metre telescope?
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Question options:
10 to 1
1 to 10
100 to 1
1 t100
C
The diagram below illustrates the layout and light path of a reflect-
ing telescope of the __________ design
cassegrain
A(n)_________ is used to measure the brightness and colour of
stars
photometer
300 nanometer light has a lower frequency than 500 nanometer
light
Question options:
True
False
B
X-rays easily penetrate the Earth's atmosphere and reach the
ground from space
Question options:
B
What is the purpose of interferometry?
Question options:
It is used to improve the resolving power of telescopes
It is used to decrease the chromatic aberration of a telescope
It is used to make large X-ray and ultraviolet telescopes
It allows radio telescopes to be within a few hundred feet of each
other
A
The wavelength of a wave is
Question options:
how strong the wave is.
the distance between a peak of the wave and the next trough.
the distance between two adjacent peaks of the wave.
the distance between where the wave is emitted and where it is
absorbed.
C
How are wavelength, frequency, and energy related for photons
of light?
Question options:
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Longer wavelength means lower frequency and lower energy.
Longer wavelength means higher frequency and lower energy.
Longer wavelength means higher frequency and higher energy.
Longer wavelength means lower frequency and higher energy.
A
Which forms of light are lower in energy and frequency than the
light that our eyes can see?
Question options:
infrared and radio
ultraviolet and X-rays
visible light
infrared and ultraviolet
A
When considering light as made up of individual "pieces," each
characterized by a particular amount of energy, the pieces are
called
Question options:
photons.
wavicles.
gamma rays.
frequencies.
A
From shortest to longest wavelength, which of the following cor-
rectly orders the different \categories of electromagnetic radia-
tion?
Question options:
gamma rays, X-rays, ultraviolet, visible light, infrared, radio
infrared, visible light, ultraviolet, X-rays, gamma rays, radio
radio, infrared, visible light, ultraviolet, X-rays, gamma rays
gamma rays, X-rays, visible light, ultraviolet, infrared, radio
A
Gamma rays have a very small
Question options:
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energy.
frequency.
mass.
wavelength.
D
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How can the density of the Sun be measured?
Question options:
by using the density of hydrogen as measured on Earth
by analyzing samples of the solar wind
by using the amount of area covered by Venus during a transit
by using Newton's laws and the Sun's diameter
D
What is the definition of Absolute Zero?
Question options:
zero degrees Celsius
the temperature at which no thermal energy can be extracted from
atoms
the temperature at which water freezes
the temperature at which molecules split into atoms
B
The temperature of an object is 273K. What is the temperature in
degrees Celsius?
Question options:
273
-273
0
373
C
The temperature of an object is 373K. What is the temperature in
degrees Celsius?
Question options:
-273
-173
173
273
B
What is the temperature of an object from which no heat energy
can be extracted?
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Question options:
0 Kelvin
100 Kelvin
100 Celsius
Celsius
A
The surface temperature of the Sun is about 5800K. Based on this
temperature, what is the expected peak wavelength of radiation?
Question options:
orange
green
yellow
red
B
Which of the following measures the average speed of the parti-
cles (atoms or molecules) in a gas?
Question options:
Heat
Composition
Temperature
Binding energy
C
A plot of the continuous spectra of four different stars is shown
in the figure. Based on these spectra, which of the stars is the
hottest?
Question options:
A
B
C
D
A
A plot of the continuous spectra of four different stars is shown
in the figure. Based on these spectra, which of the stars has the
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lowest temperature?
Question options:
A
B
C
D
D
The Sun emits its maximum intensity of light at about 520 nm.
According to Wien's Law, at what wavelength would the maximum
intensity be for a star with a surface temperature twice that of the
Sun?
Question options:
260 nm
1040 nm
5800 nm
11600 nm
A
What is the sequence of star colours in order of increasing tem-
perature?
Question options:
red, yellow, blue
red, blue, yellow
yellow, blue, red
blue, yellow, red
A
Is it possible for a red star to emit more energy than a blue star?
Question options:
No, because the red star has a lower temperature.
Yes, if the red star has a larger area.
Yes, if the red star has a larger wavelength of maximum intensity.
No, because red stars are less massive than blue stars.
B
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The Stefan-Boltzmann law says that hot objects emit energy
proportional to the fourth power of their temperature. One star has
a temperature of 30,000 K and another star has a temperature of
6,000 K. Compared to the cooler star, how much more energy per
second will the hotter star radiate from each square meter of its
surface? (Please see appendix)
Question options:
5 times
25 times
625 times
1015 times
C
What is the explanation for the pattern of granulation seen on the
visible surface of the Sun?
Question options:
The granules form the base of a circulation pattern that extends
from the photosphere to the outer corona.
The granules are regions of nuclear energy generation in the
Each granule contains a strong magnetic field, which compresses
and heats the gas underneath it.
The granules are the tops of hot gases that have risen from the
Sun's convective Zone
D
What is found in the centers of granules?
Question options:
hot material rising to the photosphere from below
cool material falling from the photosphere to the regions below
material that is fainter and hotter than its surroundings
material that is brighter and cooler than its surroundings
A
What is responsible for binding the electrons to the nucleus?
Question options:
Kirchhoff's law
Wien's law
Coulombs Law
C
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Balmer series
Which of the following is a set of rules that describes how atoms
and subatomic particles behave?
Question options:
Kirchhoff's law
Wien's law
Quantum Mechanics
General Relativity
C
What is the lowest energy level in an atom called?
Question options:
Ground State
The absolute zero temperature
The ionization level
The energy level from which the Paschen series of hydrogen
originates
A
The energy of the first level in an atom is 2.2×10-18 J, and the
energy of the second energy level is 1.6×10-18 J. What is the
energy of the photon that is emitted if an electron moves from the
second level to the first?
Question options:
3.5×10-36 J
6.0×10-19 J
3.5×10-18 J
6.0×10-18 J
B
The diagram illustrates a light source, a gas cloud, and three
different lines of sight (the observer is located at the numbered
positions). Along which line of sight would an observer see an
absorption spectrum
Question options:
1
2
C
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3
Which of the following can be determined from the spectrum of a
star, without additional information?
Question options:
radial velocity
core temperature
distance
velocity across the sky
A
Which of the following is a property of the Sun's chromosphere?
Question options:
produces a coronal filtergram
is below the visible surface of the Sun
is above the corona
hotter than the photosphere
D
A boy has mass equal to 35 kg on the surface of the Earth? What
is his weight on the surface of the sun?
Question options:
2678 N
350 N
1589 N
9620.8 N
D
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What is feild of view
the area visible in an image given as a
diameter
increases exponentially
astronomical unit
the average distance from the earth to
the sun
1.5 x 10^8 km
what is a light year
the distance light travels in 1 year
300 000 m/s
solar system
the sun the planets moons comets and
asteroids
what is earths diameter
13 000 km
in which direction does earth rotate
west to east (eastwards)
which way does the sun appear to move
east to west (westward)
an effect of the eastward rotation of the
sun
what is a star
a ball of gas held together by its own
gravity and prevented from collapsing
due to the pressure of its own internal
core
generates energy via nuclear fusion
form from thin clouds of gas
how old is the sun
5 billion years
expected to last another 5 billion years
before becoming a white dwarf and fad-
ing out
Galaxy
a large system of stars gas nebula dust
that orbit a common centre of mass
are bound together by their collective
mass and gravity
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young galaxies appear blue
how many galaxies are estimated to ex-
ist
1-2 trillion
what is the milky way
the hazy band of light produced by the
glow of the universe
what is the milky way galaxy
the galaxy earth is located in
how many stars i nthe milky way galaxy
100 billiob
how old is the milky way galaxy
estimated 13 billion years old
what type of arms does the milky way
galaxy have
spiral arms
what is the diameter of the milky way
80 000 lightyears
what is the order of grouping for galaxies
from smallest to largest
local group --> cluster --> supercluster
--> filament
what do filaments outline
voids
absent of any clusters of galaxies
what are the two largest structures in the
universe
filaments and voids
why have we reached the frontier of hu-
man knowledge
because we can only see as far as the
age of the universe (estimated 13 billion
years ago) and have achieved this al-
ready
why is the universe a paradoxical entity
has no beginning and no end
had no start point - began everywhere at
once
how are humans related to stars
comprised of elements that originate
from stars which make life on earth pos-
sible
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1.
What is a constellation?
a region in the sky contain-
ing a certain star pattern
2.
What is the Big Dipper?
an asterism
3.
What do stars in the same constellation have
in common?
they are in the same part
of the sky as seen from the
Earth
4.
What languages do the standard constellation
names come from?
Greek and Latin
5.
Stars of which magnitude appear bright to
observers on Earth? (high or low)
Stars with a magnitude that
is small such as a negative
number (positive numbers
appear fainter)
6.
What causes the precession of Earth's rota-
tion axis?
the force of gravity from
the Sun and Moon on the
Earth's equatorial bulge
7.
How many moons can be stacked from the
horizon to the zenith?
180
8.
Where is an observer's nadir?
the point directly opposite
of the observer's zenith
9.
If the apparent visual magnitude of a star is
7.3, what does this tell us about the brightness
of the star?
It is not visible with the un-
aided eye
10.
What is the apparent visual magnitude of a
star a measure of?
the star's brightness as
seen by human eyes on
Earth
11.
Second of Arc:
1/3600 of a degree
12.
What is the term for the point on the celestial
sphere directly above an observer, no matter
where on the Earth the observer is located?
zenith
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13.
Where is the zenith for an observer standing
at a point on the Earth's equator?
directly overhead
14.
If the Earth had an orbital tilt of 0 degrees (
obliquity) then
The direct rays of the Sun
would shine on the equa-
tor, and an observer at the
equator would see the Sun
pass at the zenith every day
15.
When the eccentricity of the orbit of the Earth
increases,
seasons become more in-
tense
16.
On an imaginary planet that has an orbital
tilt of 32 degrees, its corresponding Tropic of
Cancer can be found at the latitude of
32 degrees north
17.
An observer in the northern hemisphere
watches the sky for several hours. Due to
the motion of the Earth, this observer notices
that the stars near the north celestial pole ap-
pear to move. What pattern does this apparent
movement follow?
counter-clockwise around
the celestial pole
18.
If you were standing at the Earth's North Pole,
what would be located at the zenith?
the north celestial pole
19.
How much of the night sky lies north of the
celestial equator?
exactly half
20.
Seen from Winnipeg (latitude 50 degrees
North), where is the star Polaris in the sky?
50 degrees above the hori-
zon
21.
For an observer in Oberon Bay, Australia, at
a latitude of 39° South, what is the angle be-
tween the southern horizon and the south ce-
lestial pole?
39 degrees
22.
If the north celestial pole appears on your
horizon, what is your latitude?
50 degrees north
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23.
Where in the sky would an observer at the
Earth's equator see the celestial equator?
the celestial equator would
be directly overhead
24.
Define the ecliptic:
the path traced out by
the Sun in our sky over
one year against the back-
ground stars
25.
Which concept is similar to latitude?
declination
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Chapter 3
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A wave's velocity is the product of the...
frequency times the wavelength of the
wave
Which statement gives the relationship
between the waves in the electric and
magnetic fields in an electromagnetic
wave?
they are in phase but perpendicular to
each other in space
Electromagnetic radiation...
can behave both as a wave and as a
particle
The temperature scale that places zero
at the point where all atomic and molec-
ular motion ceases is...
kelvin
The speed of light in water compared to
the speed of light in a vacuum is...
slower
Which type of electromagnetic radiation
travels fastest in a vacuum?
they all travel at the same speed
Which form of electromagnetic radiation
is absorbed by carbon dioxide and water
vapor in our atmosphere?
infrared
Which form of electromagnetic radiation
would be blocked in the stratosphere by
ozone?
ultraviolet
Of all the forms of electromagnetic radi-
ation, the one with the lowest frequency
is...
radio waves
The Earth's ionosphere partially blocks
which form of electromagnetic radiation?
radio
The two forms of electromagnetic radia-
tion that penetrate the atmosphere best
are...
visible and radio waves
The number of waves passing the ob-
server per second is...
the frequency is Hertz
The hottest objects, with temperatures
in the millions of kelvins, give off most
X-ray
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of their radiation in which part of the
electromagnetic spectrum?
X-ray telescopes are located in orbit
around the Earth because...
X-rays don't reach the surface of the
Earth
Electromagnetic radiation with a wave-
length of 700 nm would be...
red light
The visible color of electromagnetic ra-
diation that has the shortest wavelength
is...
violet
Colors appear different to us because of
their photons' different...
frequencies
There are no x-ray telescopes on Earth
because...
x-rays don't penetrate Earth's atmos-
phere
There are no radio telescopes in space
because...
radio waves penetrate Earth's atmos-
phere so there is no need to put one in
space
The radiation our eyes are most sensi-
tive to lies in the color...
yellow-green at about 550 nm
Which type of electromagnetic radiation
has the shortest wavelength?
gamma ray
Which type of radiation can be observed
well from Earth's surface?
visible
Consider this diagram. Which statement
us true?
The wavelength is 6
What is true of a blackbody?
its energy peaks at the wavelength de-
termined by its temperature
According to Wien's Law, the surface
temperature is increased by a factor of
2, its peak wavelength will...
decrease by a factor if 2
Star A has a temperature 1/2 that of star
B, but star A is 5 times bigger than star
B. Which statement below is correct?
star A is redder and brighter than star B
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Star A and star B have the same tem-
perature, but different luminosities. What
can you infer about these two stars?
Nothing can be inferred from the infor-
mation given
Star A has a temperature 1/2 that of star
B, but star A is 3 times bigger than star
B. Which statement below is correct?
star A is redder nd dimmer than star B
The total energy radiated by a blackbody
depends on...
the fourth power of its temperature
Star A and star B have the same temper-
ature, but star A is more luminous than
star A. What can you infer about these
two stars?
star B must be bigger
At which of these Kelvin temperatures
would a blackbody radiate mostly at vis-
ible wavelengths?
6000K
The wavelength at which a blackbody
radiates most depends on its...
temperature
Star A has a temperature 3 times that of
star B. Both star and star B are the same
physical size. Which statement about
star A and star B below is correct?
star A is bluer and brighter than star B
If a wave's frequency doubles, its wave-
length...
is halved
Star and star B have the same tempera-
ture, but star A is 5 times bigger than star
B. Which statement below is correct?
star A and star B have the same color,
but star A is brighter
Star A has a temperature 1/4 that of star
B. Both star A and star B are the same
physical size. Which statement below is
correct?
star A is redder and dimmer than star B
Very low temperature molecular clouds
emit most of their light in which part of
the electromagnetic spectrum?
the radio
the ultraviolet
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Very hot, young stars, like those in
Messier 2 emit most of their light in which
part of the electromagnetic spectrum?
A dim, young star like Herbig-Haro 68
emits most of its light in which part of the
electromagnetic spectrum?
the infrared
Stars like our Sun emit most of their
light in which part of the electromagnetic
spectrum?
the visible
To see the Sun's hot corona (a temper-
ature of 1,000,000 K) which part of the
electromagnetic spectrum should one
observe?
the x-ray
Increasing the temperature of a black-
body by a factor of 3 will increase its
energy by a factor of...
81
Increasing the temperature of a black-
body by a factor of 2 will increase its
energy by a factor of...
16
As the Sun evolves into a red giant in the
distant future, then according to Wien's
Law...
its peak on the Planck curve will move
into the infrared
Consider this diagram. Which statement
is true?
the amplitude is 4
Stefan's Law says...
that if the Sun's temperature were dou-
bled, it would give off 16X more energy
Per unit area (such as square centime-
ter), a B star whose surface tempera-
ture is 10,000K will put out how much
radiation compared to an O star whose
surface temperature is 30,000K?
1/81 as much
The Doppler Effect is a phenomenon
that allows one to measure an object's...
radial motion
The light from an object moving tangen-
tially (to your left or right) will exhibit...
no shift
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If a light source is approaching you at a
speed very close to the speed of light, it
will appear...
bluer than it is
If a beam, of blue light with a wavelength
of 400nm is emitted by an object moving
away from you at 1% of the speed of
light, what wavelength would you see
from this light?
396 nm
Both sound waves and electromagnetic
radiation...
transfer energy
What does the phenomenon of diffrac-
tion demonstrate?
the wave nature of light
What does the phenomenon of interfer-
ence demonstrate?
the particle nature of the photon
Which of these is constant for ALL types
of electromagnetic radiation in a vacu-
um?
velocity
T/F: Radio waves, visible light, and
x-rays are all a type of electromagnetic
radiation
true
T/F: Changing the electric field will have
no effect on the magnetic fields of a
body.
false
T/F: As they move through space, the
vibrating electrical and magnetic fields of
a light wave must move perpendicular to
each other.
true
T/F: X-rays travel at a greater speed than
radio waves.
false
T/F: Wave energy can only be transmit-
ted through a material medium
false
T/F: Observations in the X-ray portion of
the spectrum are routinely done from the
surface of the Earth.
false
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T/F: The type of radiation that is most
able to damage living cells is ultraviolet
false
T/F: In a vacuum, X-rays travel faster
than radio waves.
false
T/F: Radio waves travel at the speed of
sound; X-rays travel at the speed of light.
false
T/F: A blue star has a higher surface
temperature than a red star.
true
T/F: Wien's law relates the peak wave-
length of the blackbody to its size. The
larger the blackbody, the shorter its peak
wavelength.
false
T/F: You would perceive a change in
a visible light wave's amplitude as a
change in its color.
false
T/F: According to Wien's law, the higher
the surface temperature of a star, the
redder its color.
false
T/F: In blackbody radiation, the energy is
radiated uniformly in every region of the
spectrum, so the radiating body appears
black in color.
false
T/F: Doubling the temperature of a black-
body will double the total energy it radi-
ates.
false
T/F: As a star's temperature increases,
the frequency of peak emission also in-
creases.
true
T/F: An observer will measure the wave-
length of waves emanating from a
source that is moving away as longer
than it really is.
true
T/F: The frequency of a water wave gives
us its height.
false
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T/F: Gamma rays are a type of electro-
magnetic radiation
true
T/F: If a new wave arrives on shore every
two seconds, then its frequency is 2 Hz.
false
T/F: If a new wave arrives on shore every
half second then its frequency is 2 Hz.
true
T/F: The greater the disturbance of the
medium, the higher the amplitude of the
wave.
true
T/F: As white light passes through a
prism, the red(longer) wavelengths bend
less than the blue (shorter) wavelengths,
so forming the rainbow of colors.
true
T/F: While gravity is always attractive,
electromagnetic forces are always repul-
sive.
false
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Why do astronomers build radio tele-
scopes?
a) Radio waves give a different view of
the universe
b) Radio waves from space reach the
Earth's surface
c) Radio telescopes can detect signals
from aliens
d) Radio telescopes can be much larger
than optical telescopes
a) Radio waves give a different view of
the universe
What type of telescope is most likely
to suffer from chromatic aberration and
have a low light-gathering power?
a) a small diameter reflecting telescope
b) a large diameter reflecting telescope
c) a small diameter refracting telescope
d) a large diameter refracting telescope
c) a small diameter refracting telescope
When does chromatic aberration occur
in a telescope?
a) when different colour of light do not
focus at the same point in a reflecting
telescope
b) when different colors of light do not
focus at the same point in a refracting
telescope
c) when light of different wavelengths get
absorbed by the mirror in a reflecting
telescope
d) when light of different wavelengths get
absorbed the lens in a refracting tele-
scope
b) when different colors of light do not
focus at the same point in a refracting
telescope
What type of telescope is a radio tele-
scope?
a) reflecting
b) refracting
c) deflecting
d) retracting
a) reflecting
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What type of telescope has a lens as its
objective and contains no mirrors?
a) deflecting
b) reflecting
c) refracting
d) compound
c) refracting
How is the objective of most radio tele-
scopes similar to the objective of a re-
flecting optical telescope?
a) they are both bowl-shaped (concave)
b) they are both hill-shaped (convex)
c) they are typically the same size
d) they are both made of metal
a) they are both bowl-shaped (concave)
What type of primary is found in a reflect-
ing telescope?
a) prism
b) mirror
c) lens
d) diffraction grating
b) mirror
You point your backyard reflecting tele-
scope at the star Vega. Where does
Vega's light go?
a) from the primary mirror, to the sec-
ondary mirror, to the eyepiece
b)from the primary mirror to the eyepiece
c) through the primary lens to the sec-
ondary mirror, to the eyepiece
d) through the primary lens, through the
secondary lens, to the eyepiece
a) from the primary mirror, to the sec-
ondary mirror, to the eyepiece
Which of the following best explains the
concept of atmospheric windows?
a) holes in the earth's atmosphere allow
ultraviolet radiation to reach the North
and South Poles
b) X-ray radiation from space can see
through the atmosphere to observe ac-
tivities on the ground
c) Only certain wavelengths of electro-
c) Only certain wavelengths of electro-
magnetic radiation from space reach the
Earth's surface
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magnetic radiation from space reach the
Earth's surface
d) The Earth's atmosphere can be
"closed" or "open" to electromagnetic ra-
diation , depending on weather
What is the main reason for building
large optical telescopes?
a) It's the best way to see through clouds
and other light-absorbers in the atmos-
phere
b) It's the best way to collect as much
light as possible from faint objects
c) It's the best way to nullify the blurring
effects of the Earth's atmosphere and
thus produce higher resolution images
d) It's the best way to magnify objects
and make them brighter
b) It's the best way to collect as much
light as possible from faint objects
An astronomer takes two pictures of the
same object using the Hubble Space
Telescope. One picture is taken with red
light and one with blue light. Which one
would you expect to show finer details?
a) Blue light will show finer details
b) Red light will show finer details
c) Both should be the same
d) The amount of detail depends on the
distance to the object
a) Blue light will show finer details
Which property of a telescope deter-
mines its light-gathering power?
a) the focal length of the objective
b) the focal length of the eyepiece
c) the diameter of the objective
d) the length of the telescope tube
c) the diameter of the objective
What is the light-gathering power of a
telescope directly proportional to?
a) the diameter of the primary mirror or
lens
b) the focal length of the primary mirror
a) the diameter of the primary mirror or
lens
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or lens
c) the length of the telescope tube
d) the diameter of the eyepiece
Why can't a telescope image be magni-
fied to show any level of detail?
a) Diffraction limits the amount of detail
that is visible
b) telescopes only view a small region of
the sky
c) Magnification depends on focal length
d) Resolving power depends on wave-
length
a) Diffraction limits the amount of detail
that is visible
Which of the following has the most
light-gathering power?
a) a telescope of 5 cm diameter and focal
length of 50 cm
b) a telescope of 6 cm diameter and focal
length of 100 cm
c) a telescope of 2 cm diameter and focal
length of 100 cm
d) a telescope of 3 cm diameter and focal
length of 75 cm
b) a telescope of 6 cm diameter and focal
length of 100 cm
How is resolving power of a telescope
defined?
a) It is a measure off the minimum angu-
lar separation that can be seen with the
telescope
b) It is a measure of the amount of light
that the telescope can gather in one sec-
ond
c) It is the separation between the objec-
tive and the image
d) It is a measure of how blurry objects
appear in the telescope
a) It is a measure off the minimum angu-
lar separation that can be seen with the
telescope
What happens to a telescope's
light-gathering power and resolving pow-
er when you increase its diameter?
a) Its light-gathering power and resolving
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power both increase
b) Its light gathering power and resolving
power both decrease
c) Its light-gathering power decreases
and resolving power increases
d) Its light-gathering power increases
and resolving power decreases
a) Its light-gathering power and resolving
power both increase
What can be done to improve the re-
solving power of ground-based optical
telescopes?
a) Use them at longer wavelengths
b) Change them from reflectors to refrac-
tors
c) Equip them with an adaptive optics
system
d) increase their focal length
c) Equip them with an adaptive optics
system
The pupil of the human eye is approx.
0.8 cm in diameter when adapted to the
dark. What is the ration of the light-gath-
ering power of a 1.6 m telescope to that
of the human eye
a) 2:1
b) 20:1
c) 400:1
d) 40,000:1
d) 40,000:1
What is the ratio of the light-gathering
power of a 10m telescope to that of a 1m
telescope?
a) 10:1
b) 1:10
c) 100:1
d) 1:100
c) 100:1
The layout and light path of
a reflecting telescope of the
___________________ design
cassegrain
A(n) ______________ is used to mea-
sure the brightness and colour of stars
photometer
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300 nm light has a lower frequency than
500 nm light?
T/F
False
X-rays easily penetrate the Earth's at-
mosphere and reach the ground from
space?
T/F
False
What is the purpose of interferometry?
a) It is used to improve the resolving
power of telescopes
b) It is used to decrease the chromatic
aberration of a telescope
c) It is used to make large X-rays and
ultraviolet telescopes
d) It allows radio telescopes to be within
a few hundred feet of each other
a) It is used to improve the resolving
power of telescopes
The wavelength of a wave is
a) how strong the wave is
b) the distance between a peak of the
wave and the next trough
c) the distance between two adjacent
peaks of the wave
d) the distance between where the wave
is emitted and where its absorbed
c) the distance between two adjacent
peaks of the wave
How are wavelength, frequency and en-
ergy related for photons of light?
a) Longer wavelength means lower fre-
quency and lower energy
b) Longer wavelength means higher fre-
quency and lower energy
c) Longer wavelength means higher fre-
quency and higher energy
d) Longer wavelength means lower fre-
quency and higher energy
a) Longer wavelength means lower fre-
quency and lower energy
Which forms of light are lower in ener-
gy and frequency than the light that our
eyes can see?
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a) infrared and radio
b) ultraviolet and x-rays
c) visible light
d) infrared and ultraviolet
a) infrared and radio
When considering light as made up of
individual pieces, each characterized by
a particular amount of energy, the pieces
are called
a) photons
b) wavicles
c) gamma rays
d) frequencies
a) photons
From shortest to longest wavelength,
which of the following correctly orders
the different categories of electromag-
netic radiation?
a) gamma rays, X-rays, ultraviolet, visi-
ble light, infrared, radio
b) infrared, visible light, ultraviolet,
X-rays, gamma rays, radio
c) radio, infrared, visible light, ultraviolet,
X-rays, gamma rays
d) gamma rays, X-rays, visible light, ul-
traviolet, infrared, radio
a) gamma rays, X-rays, ultraviolet, visi-
ble light, infrared, radio
Gamma rays have a very small
a) energy
b) frequency
c) mass
d) wavelength
d) wavelength
Which form of electromagnetic radiation
travels fastest?
a) gamma rays
b) radio waves
c) all electromagnetic radiation travels at
the same speed
d) the speed of radiation depends on the
brightness of the source
c) all electromagnetic radiation travels at
the same speed
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What does the word "radiation" mean
when used by scientists?
a) invisible forms of light such as X-rays
and radio waves
b) the light emitted by black holes and
protostars
c) high-energy particles from nuclear re-
actors
d) anything that spreads out from a cen-
tral source
a) invisible forms of light such as X-rays
and radio waves
What does a nanometre measure?
a) frequency
b) mass
c) energy
d) length
d) length
In which way is a photon of blue light
identical to a photon of red light?
a) energy
b) speed
c) wavelength
d) frequency
b) speed
Which of the following types of light
has wavelengths that are loner than the
wavelengths of visible light?
a) gamma rays
b) ultraviolet
c) infrared
d) x-rays
c) infrared
What is the longest wavelength of light
that can be seen with the human eye?
a) 400nm
b) 700nm
c) 7000nm
d) 10000 nm
b) 700 nm
How does long-wavelength visible light
appear to the average human eye?
a) invisible
d) red
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b) green
c) blue
d) red
What is the relationship between colour
and wavelength for light?
a) Wavelength increases from blue light
to red light
b) Wavelength decreases from blue light
to red light
c) All colors of light have the same wave-
length
d) Wavelength depends on intensity, not
colour
a) Wavelength increases from blue light
to red light
Which of the following sequences of
electromagnetic radiation shows the or-
der of increasing energy correctly?
a) gamma rays, x-rays, infrared, radio
b) visible, ultraviolet, x-rays, gamma rays
c) visible, microwave, radio, infrared
d) infrared, visible, radio, x-rays
b) visible, ultraviolet, x-rays, gamma rays
Which of the following types of electro-
magnetic radiation has the smallest fre-
quency?
a) x-rays
b) radio waves
c) visible light
d) infrared radiaiton
b) radio waves
Which of the following types of electro-
magnetic radiation has the greatest en-
ergy per photon?
a) x-rays
b) radio waves
c) gamma rays
d) infrared radiation
c) gamma rays
Which of the following types of electro-
magnetic radiation has the lowest ener-
gy per photon?
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a) x-rays
b) ultraviolet light
c) gamma rays
d) infrared radiation
d) infrared radiation
How does the energy of a photon relate
to the other properties of light?
a) Energy is directly proportional to the
wavelength of the light
b) Energy is inversely proportional to the
wavelength of light
c) Energy depends only on the speed of
light
d) Energy is inversely proportional to the
frequency of the light
b) Energy is inversely proportional to the
wavelength of light
How do photons of blue light differ from
photons of red light?
a) Blue light photons have more energy
than photons of red light
b) Blue light photons have a lower fre-
quency than photons of red light
c) Blue light photons have a longer wave-
length than photons of red light
d) Blue light photons travel faster than
photons of red light
a) Blue light photons have more energy
than photons of red light
What statement below best describes
the refraction of light?
a) the absorption of light as it travels
through a dense, transparent material
b) the spreading out of white light ac-
cording to wavelength
c) the change in direction of a light ray as
it passes to a medium of different optical
density
d) the change in direction of a ray of light
as it reflects of a surface
c) the change in direction of a light ray as
it passes to a medium of different optical
density
What is a photon?
a) a type of electromagnetic radiation
b) a particle within the atmospheric win-
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dow
c) a particle produced when light inter-
acts with light
d) a particle of light
d) a particle of light
Which of the following types of electro-
magnetic radiation is absorbed by water
lower in the Earth's atmosphere, but can
be detected by telescopes that are on
mountaintops or are carried by aircraft?
a) infrared radiation
b) ultraviolet radiation
c) radio wave radiation
d) x-ray radiation
a) infrared radiation
Which of the following types of electro-
magnetic radiation is absorbed by ozone
in the Earth's atmosphere?
a) infrared radiation
b) ultraviolet radiation
c) x-ray radiation
d) visible light
b) ultraviolet radiation
What is a similarity between radio and
optical telescopes?
a) Both can observe from the Earth's
surface
b) Both are usually located on mountain-
tops
c) Both are usually made as refracting
telescopes
d) Both can detect radiation with
charge-coupled devices
d) Both can detect radiation with
charge-coupled devices
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AS101 - Chapter 7
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Which of the following relationships is
the key to nuclear reactions in a star's
core remaining under control?
Pressure depends on temperature
What is opacity?
a measure of the resistance to the flow
of radiation (photons) through a gas
What causes the outward gas pressure
that balances the inward pull of gravity in
a main-sequence star?
the high temperature and density of the
gas
Why is convection important in stars?
because it mixes the star's gases and
transports energy outwards
How does the temperature inside a star
determine how energy flows inside it?
The dependence of opacity on tempera-
ture makes convection happen
Which of the following is the best exam-
ple of energy transport by conduction?
Your feet are warmed when you wear
socks
What does solving equations on a com-
puter have to do with making a stellar
model?
The equations apply the laws of stellar
structure at locations within the star
What does the strong force do?
It binds protons and neutrons together to
form a nucleus
What concept explains why both fusion
and fission release energy?
nuclear binding energy
What is the name of the process by
which the Sun turns mass into energy?
nuclear fusion
Why do nuclear fusion reactions only
take place in the interior of a star (rather
than at the surface)?
The temperature and density are highest
in the centre
What is produced in the proton-proton
chain?
a helium nucleus and energy in the form
of gamma rays
What happens in the proton-proton
chain?
Four protons are fused to make a helium
nucleus
What is the term for the process that
fuses hydrogen into helium in the cores
of massive main-sequence stars?
the CNO cycle
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What happens in the carbon-nitro-
gen-oxygen (CNO) cycle?
Four hydrogen nuclei combine to form
one helium nucleus and energy
Stars with masses below a certain
threshold produce most of their energy
via the proton-proton chain. What is that
threshold?
1.1 solar masses
Which of the following is considered to
be the best explanation for the missing
solar neutrinos?
Neutrinos may oscillate between three
different flavours
How did observations at the Sudbury
Neutrino Observatory solve the solar
neutrino problem?
They showed that the "missing neutri-
nos" had changed into a different type
Why does the main sequence have a
limit at the lower end?
A minimum temperature is required for
hydrogen nuclear fusion to take place
Why is there a main sequence mass-lu-
minosity relation?
because more massive stars support
their larger weight by making more en-
ergy
What is the approximate mass of the
lowest mass object that can initiate the
thermonuclear fusion of hydrogen?
0.08 solar mass
Which of the following is most similar in
size to a brown dwarf?
the planet Jupiter
Which of the following are star-like ob-
jects that contain less than 0.08 solar
masses and will never raise their core
temperatures high enough that the pro-
ton-proton chain can begin?
brown dwarfs
What would happen if the nuclear re-
actions in a star began to produce too
much energy?
the star would expand
How much of its lifetime does the aver-
age star spend on the main sequence?
90%
The lower edge of the main-sequence
band represents the location in the
H-R diagram at which stars begin their
the zero-age main sequence
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lives as main-sequence stars. What is it
called?
The Sun has an expected main-se-
quence lifetime of about 1010 years.
What is the lifetime on the main se-
quence of a 2 solar mass star?
1.8×10^9 years
What type of star is our Sun?
low-mass star
What is the lifetime of a 10 solar mass
star on the main sequence?
3.2×10^7 years
What characteristic of a star primarily
determines its location on the main se-
quence?
mass
In which option below are the stellar
types sorted from shortest to longest
main-sequence lifetime?
O, A, K, M
Consider two stars of the same mass:
star 1 has just moved on to the main
sequence, and star 2 is about to leave it.
How are these two stars different?
Star 2 has more helium in its core and a
cooler surface
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AS101 - Assignment #7
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What are the two most important intrin-
sic properties used to classify stars?
a. mass and age
b. distance and luminosity
c. luminosity and surface temperature
d. distance and surface temperature
c
What physical property of a star does the
spectral type measure?
a. mass
b. luminosity
c. temperature
d. density
c
The most famous G type star is:
a. Betelguese
b. the Sun
c. Polaris
d. Sirius
b
Two red stars have surface temperatures
of 3000 K, but Star A's luminosity is
about 5% of the Sun's and Star B's lumi-
nosity is about 32 000 times the luminos-
ity of the Sun. How much bigger is star B
than star A?
a. Star B's radius is about 800 times
larger than star A's radius.
b. They are the same size.
c. Star B's radius is about 16 times larger
than star A's radius.
d. Star B's radius is about 640 000 times
larger than star A's radius.
a
Star A is a main sequence star of spec-
tral type F2 and star B is a white dwarf of
spectral type B4. Which statement below
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is correct?
a. Star A appears brighter than star B.
b. Star B appears brighter than star A.
c. Star A is hotter than star B.
d. Star B is hotter than star A.
d
Star A is a main sequence star of spec-
tral type G5 and star B is a red giant of
spectral type K2. Which statement below
is correct?
a. Star A is hotter than star B.
b. Star A appears brighter than star B.
c. Star B is hotter than star A.
d. Star B appears brighter than star A.
a
Stars that have masses similar to the
Sun's, and sizes similar to the Earth are:
a. red dwarfs
b. red giants
c. main sequence stars
d. white dwarfs
d
Compared to the size of the Sun, in what
range of sizes are nearly all stars found?
a. 0.5 to 50 solar radii
b. 0.5 to 2 solar radii
c. 0.1 to 100 solar radii
d. 0.01 to 100 solar radii
d
in the H-R diagram, the Sun lies:
a. at the bottom right
b. about the middle of the main se-
quence
c. at the bottom left
d. at the top left
b
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Which of the following is the most com-
mon type of star?
a. red giants
b. low mass main sequence
c. white dwarfs
d. high mass main sequence
b
The Hertzsprung-Russel Diagram plots
______ against the spectral type or tem-
perature.
a. size or density
b. brightness or apparent magnitude
c. distance
d. luminosity or absolute magnitude
d
How might the most common occurring
stars be described, based on our stellar
neighbourhood?
a. white dwarfs
b. K giants
c. G main sequence
d. M main sequence
d
On the H-R diagram, red supergiants like
Betelguese lie:
a. at the bottom left
b. at the bottom right
c. at the top left
d. at the top right
d
On the H-R diagram, white dwarfs like
Sirius B and Procyon B lie:
a. close to the Sun, near the center
b. at the top left
c. at the top right
d. at the lower left
d
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In the H-R diagram, the bright blue-white
stars that dominate the naked eye sky lie
to the:
a. top center
b. top right
c. top left
d. middle of the main sequence
c
Having nothing to do with trigonometry,
________ parallaxes use the width of
absorption lines to estimate the star's
luminosity and size and distance.
a. photometric
b. holographic
c. bolometric
d. spectroscopic
d
In general, the narrower the spectral line
of a star:
a. the hotter the star is
b. the smaller the star is
c. the denser the star is
d. the bigger the star is
d
Upon what data do measurements of
sizes of eclipsing binaries depend?
a. their masses and luminosities
b. their orbital periods and seperations
c. their temperatures and speeds
d. their Doppler shifts and durations of
stages of their eclipses
d
Which type of binary can have their sizes
measured directly by photometry?
a. eclipsing
b. visual
a
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c. virtual
d. spectroscopic
In a visual binary system with curcular
orbits, if in 20 years the two stars' posi-
tion angles have shifted by 30 degrees,
the pair's period must be:
a. 120 years
b. 60 years
c. 90 years
d. 240 years
d
In a spectroscopic binary system, the
star showing the larger blueshift is:
a. less massive and approaching us at
this moment
b. more massive and approaching us
c. cooler and receding the fastest
d. less massive of the pair and receding
slower
a
In a spectrographic binary, if a pair
shows a combined set of lines tonight,
but a maximum split two nights later, its
orbital period must be:
a. four days
b. one day
c. two days
d. eight days
d
In eclipsing binaries, in contrast to spec-
trographic binaries, we can also deter-
mine a star's:
a. temperature
b. color
c. radius
d. speed
c
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Eclipsing binaries are less common than
spectrographic binaries because:
a. their orbital planes must be nearly
edge on from our perspective
b. both stars must have the same diam-
eter
c. their orbital planes must be nearly face
on from our perspective
d. both stars must have the same mass
a
High mass stars account for most of the
______ in large regions of star forma-
tion, such as galaxies.
a. light
b. stars
c. planetary nebulae
d. mass
a
What is the single most important char-
acteristic in determining the course of a
star's evolution?
a. mass
b. distance
c. density
d. absolute brightness
a
What is the typical main sequence life-
time of a G-type star?
a. 10 million years
b. 1 billion years
c. 100 million years
d. 10 billion years
d
A star with a parallax of 1 second of arc is
at a distance of ________ by definition.
a. 100 parsec
b. 1.0 parsec
b
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c. 1.5 parsec
d. 10 parsec
A star's motion towards or away from us
is detected by the _____ of the spectral
lines.
a. Proper motion of the spectral lines
b. Ecliptic spectroscopy
c. Doppler Shift
d. Line spectroscopy
c
The _____ magnitude of a star depends
directly upon its luminosity and distance.
a. absolute
b. bolometric
c. visual
d. apparent
d
If two stars are the same size and one is
twice the temperature of the other, how
much more luminous is the hotter one?
a. 8
b. 25
c. 100
d. 16 times
d
Which of the following may be caused by
a protostellar disk?
a. Accretion of material onto the star
b. Protostellar jets
c. Protostellar winds
d. All of the above
d
For a star of 10 masses, its main se-
quence life span will be:
a. only a tenth of the Sun's
b. about the same as the Sun's
c
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c. only 1/1000th of the Sun
d. ten times longer than our Sun's
On the H-R diagram, most bright naked
eye stars would lie at the _____.
a. down left
b. top right
c. top left
d. top middle
c
Knowledge of a star's temperature and
_____ enables us to calculate its radius,
surface area, and volume from the ap-
propriate radiation law.
a. flux
b. luminosity or absolute magnitude
c. none of them
d. bolometric magnitude
b
All classes of binary stars yield the basic
information on stellar ________.
a. masses
b. period
c. radii
d. spectral type
a
In an eclipsing binary, the longer the
stages of the eclipse take, the _____ the
star.
a. faster
b. hotter
c. larger
d. massive
c
Small stars are _____ common than
large stars.
a. less
d
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b. not
c. extremely rare
d. more
What role does helium play in spectral
classification?
a. it absorbs the energy of the spectral
lines
b. it is ionized in the hottest O class stars
c. it converts into nitrogen
d. radiates in the 1420 MHz line
b
Astronomers estimate that new stars
form in our galaxy at the rate of about:
a. a few (2-3) per year
b. 1 per year
c. 10 per year
d. 20-50 per year
a
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AS101 - Assignment #10
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A Black Hole has mass MBH = 25 MSo-
lar. What is its Schwarzchild radius?
a. 76.45 km
b. 52.5 km
c. 73.74 km
d. 49.24 km
c
A Black Hole has mass MBH = 25 MSo-
lar. What is its Schwarzchild radius?
a. 44.24 km
b. 5.7 km
c. 7.5 km
d. 3.54 km
d
If the Schwarzchild radius of a Black
Hole is 132 km, what is its mass?
a. 120 Msolar
b. 44.76 Msolar
c. 63.8 Msolar
d. 35 Msolar
b
Why are black holes black?
a. Because nothing escapes
b. Because radiation does not escape
c. Because light does not escape
d. Because they do not have any energy
c
What is at the center of a black hole?
a. an X-ray source
b. the singularity point
c. another black hole
d. a little galaxy
b
What is a supermassive black hole?
a. black hole with mass similar to the sun
b. black hole with mass (thousand - bil-
b
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lion) Msolar
c. black hole with mass similar to Jupiter
d. black hole with mass similar to 3Mso-
lar
How were the Black Holes predicted?
a. with optical telescopes
b. with radio telescopes
c. mathematically using Einsteind's gen-
eral relativity theory
d. by observation
c
Hawking radiation is black body radiation
due to:
a. quantum effects
b. gravity effects
c. mechanical effects
d. electromagnetic effects
a
Where is the Hawking radiation emitted?
a. near the singularity
b. near the Schwarzchild radius
c. near the horizon
d. from particles orbiting the black hole
c
Two Black Holes have the following
masses M1 = 120 Msolar and M2 = 250
Msolar. Show that Schwarzchild radius
of the first black hole satisfies one of the
relations given below.
a. 13/64
b. 12/25
b
How might the mass of a single galaxy
be found?
a. by the main-sequence fitting method
b. by the cluster method
c
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c. by the rotation curve method
d. by the double galaxy method
What is the primary factor used in deter-
mining the classification for an elliptical
galaxy?
a. size
b. colour
c. shape
d. mass
c
What type of galaxies do astronomers
believe are the most common?
a. barred spiral
b. elliptical
c. irregular
d. spiral
b
The look-back time is numerically equal
to the distance to a galaxy in light-years.
True
False
True
The rotation curve method can only be
applied to pairs of galaxies orbiting each
other.
True
False
False
The Large and Small Megellanic clouds
are satellite galaxies of the Milky Way.
True
False
True
The Milky Way galaxy is not a radio
galaxy; it emits no radio radiation.
False
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True
False
Double-lobed radio galaxies appear to
be emitting jets of gas and radiation.
True
False
True
The rotation curve method is the most
precise method for measuring the mass
of a disk galaxy.
True
False
True
Which of the following has the largest
diameter?
a. the Milky Way galaxy
b. the Andromeda galaxy
c. the Large Magellanic Cloud
d. the Local Group
d
Observations of galaxies and clusters of
galaxies indicate that a percentage of
the matter in the universe is dark matter.
What is that percentage?
a. 95%
b. 5%
c. 35%
d. 25%
a
What is the escape velocity from the sur-
face of a black hole equal to?
a. infinite
b. zero
c. speed of light
d. equal to the speed of a shock wave
c
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Edwin Hubble measured the distance to
the Andromeda Galaxy. How did he do
that?
a. he applied the white dwarf brightness
relation
b. he measured the parallax of the An-
dromeda Galaxy
c. he estimated the number of galaxies
in the universe
d. he applied the period-luminosity rela-
tion to Cepheids
d
You observe a Cepheid variable star in
a nearby galaxy. How would you deter-
mine its distance?
a. apply the peak colour-magnitude rela-
tion
b. measure the parallax
c. apply the period-luminosity relation
d. apply the Hubble Law
c
What distance method is used to deter-
mine the distance to the most distant
galaxies?
a. supernova observations
b. parallax
c. radar echo
d. the period-luminosity relationship of
variable stars
d
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AS101 - Assignment 8
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What do we call the region of the HR
diagram that represents giant stars that
are fusing helium in their cores and then
in their shells?
a) main sequence
b) turn-on point
c) turnoff point
d) horizontal branch
d
Why are star clusters important?
a) because they are the only objects that
contain Cepheid variables
b) because the sun was once a member
of a globular cluster
c) because they allow us to test our the-
ories and models of stellar evolution
d) because all stars formed in star clus-
ters
c
What property is the same for all stars in
a star cluster?
a) mass
b) age
c) radius
d) luminosity
b
Which point indicates the location on the
H-R diagram of a one-solar-mass star
when it starts to fuse helium?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
d
Why can't the lowest mass stars become
giants?
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a) They never use up their hydrogen.
b) Their rotation is too slow.
c) They do not contain helium.
d) Their centres never get hot enough.
d
How is a giant star different from the star
it evolved from?
a) A giant is cooler and more luminous.
b) A giant is hotter and more luminous.
c) A giant is cooler and less luminous.
d) A giant is hotter and less luminous.
a
After they leave the main sequence,
what happens to stars with masses be-
tween 0.4 and 4 solar masses?
a) They produce type-II supernovae after
they exhaust their nuclear fuels.
b) They produce type-I supernovae after
they exhaust their nuclear fuels.
c) They undergo thermonuclear fusion of
hydrogen, but never get hot enough to
ignite helium.
d) They undergo thermonuclear fusion of
hydrogen and helium, but they never get
hot enough to ignite carbon.
d
About how long will a 0.5 solar mass star
spend on the main sequence?
a) 5 billion years
b) 5 million years
c) 570 million years
d) 57 billion years
d
For a star with a mass similar to that of
the Sun, what is the last stage of the
nuclear fusion?
a) silicon to iron
b) carbon to magnesium
c
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c) helium to carbon and oxygen
d) hydrogen to helium
A low mass star goes through several
stages of life from birth to death. Which
of the following lists are in correct order?
a) protostar, main sequence star, red gi-
ant, supernova, neutron star
b) protostar, main sequence star, red gi-
ant, planetary nebula, white dwarf
c) protostar, main sequence star, plane-
tary nebula, super giant, supernova
d) protostar, main sequence star, white
dwarf, red giant
b
What happens to stars that have ejected
a planetary nebula?
a) They become protostars.
b) They become white dwarfs.
c) They become brown dwarfs.
d) They become red giants.
b
After what revolutionary stage does a
star become a white dwarf?
a) giant
b) pre-main sequence
c) protostar
d) main sequence
a
What is a planetary nebula?
a) the expelled outer envelope of a medi-
um mass star
b) a nebula within which planets are
forming
c) a cloud of hot gas surrounding a plan-
et
d) a cloud of hot gas produced by super-
nova explosion
a
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What does a planetary nebula do?
a) contracts to form a star
b) contracts to form planets
c) produces an emission spectrum
d) produces an absorption spectrum
c
What is the term for a collection of 100
to 1000 young stars in a region of about
80 light-years in diameter?
a) Herbig-Haro object
b) open cluster
c) globular cluster
d) giant cluster
b
What is the term for a collection of 105
to 106 old stars in a region of 30 to 100
light-years in diameter?
a) globular cluster
b) open cluster
c) giant cluster
d) Herbig-Haro object
a
What is the defining characteristic of
stars within a cluster that are at the
turnoff point?
a) They are just entering the main se-
quence.
b) They are about to explode in super-
novae.
c) They are just becoming white dwarfs.
d) They are just leaving the main se-
quence.
d
What is the approximate age of the star
cluster in the H-R diagram? (Hint: Main
sequence stars of spectral types O and
B have a core supply of hydrogen that is
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sufficient to last about 350 million years;
types A and F, about 2 billion years; type
G about 10 billion years; types K and
M about 30 billion years. The apparent
magnitude scale means that larger num-
bers are toward the bottom of vertical
axis.)
a) 10 billion years
b) 2 billion years
c) 200 million years
d) 30 billion years
a
Refer to the H-R diagram. What type of
star do the two points above spectral
type "A" represent?
a) massive main sequence stars
b) white dwarfs with mass less than the
sun's mass
c) white dwarfs with mass greater than
twice the sun's mass
d) massive supergiant stars
b
Refer to the H-R diagram. What type of
star do the two points above spectral
type "M" represent?
a) massive main sequence stars
b) pre-main sequence stars
c) main sequence stars with luminosities
higher than the sun's luminosity
d) main sequence stars with mass less
than the sun's mass
d
Refer to the H-R diagram. How would the
H-R diagram of an older star cluster look
different?
a) The points would shift down, because
all the stars would have lower luminosi-
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ties.
b) The lower main sequence would look
the same, but turnoff would be at the
spectral type K or M.
c) The points would shift the right, be-
cause all stars would have lower temper-
atures.
b) The lower main sequence would look
the same, but turnoff would be at the
spectral type F or A.
b
Refer to the H-R diagram. How would
the H-R diagram of a more distant star
cluster look different?
a) The points would shift up, because all
the stars would have smaller apparent
magnitudes.
b) The points would shift to the left, be-
cause all the stars would appear to be
hotter.
c) The points would shift down, because
all the stars would have larger apparent
magnitudes.
d) The points would shift to the right,
because all the stars would appear to be
cooler.
c
Which nuclear fuels do a one solar mass
star use over the course of its entire
lifespan?
a) hydrogen and helium
b) hydrogen, helium, and carbon
c) hydrogen, helium, carbon, and oxy-
gen
d) hydrogen
a
Star A is a 1 solar mass white dwarf, and
star B is a 1.3 solar mass white dwarf.
How would they differ?
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a) Star B has a smaller radius.
b) Star B is supported by neutron degen-
eracy pressure.
c) Star A is hotter.
d) Star A has a smaller radius.
a
What is the source of the energy radiat-
ed by a white dwarf?
a) gravitation contraction during the
white dwarf formation phase.
b) the CNO cycle
c) gravitational contraction after becom-
ing a white dwarf
d) the proton-proton chain
a
What does the Chandrasekhar-Landau
limit tell us?
a) White dwarfs more massive than 1.4
solar masses are not stable.
b) Accretion disks can grow hot through
friction.
c) Stars with a mass less than 0.5 solar
masses will not go through helium flash.
d) Neutron stars with more than 3 solar
masses are not stable.
a
What is the ultimate fate of our sun?
a) It will explode into a nova.
b) It will become a white dwarf.
c) It will explode into a supernova.
d) It will become a neutron star.
b
What scenario is most likely to hap-
pen when the Sun enters the red giant
stage?
a) The Sun will never expand far enough
to reach Mercury or any other planets in
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the Solar System.
b) Mercury will be destroyed expanding
the Sun, but Venus and Earth will remain
intact.
c) Mercury, Venus, and Earth will be de-
stroyed by the expanding Sun.
d) The Sun will engulf and destroy all
planets in the Solar System.
c
If the stars at the turnoff point of a cluster
have a mass of 3 times the mass of the
Sun, what is the age of that cluster?
a) 3.0x10^10 years
b) 6.4x10^8 years
c) 1.6x10^11 years
d) 3.3x10^9 years
b
The polarization of light passing through
the dust grains shows that:
a) the dust grains are elongated in
shape.
b) the dust grains are aligned by a weak
interstellar magnetic field.
c) the dust grains are chiefly made of
iron.
d) Both A and B are correct.
d
Interstellar gas is composed of:
a) 90% hydrogen, 9% helium by weight
b) some hydrogen, but mainly by carbon
dioxide
c) only hydrogen
d) 10% hydrogen, 90% helium by num-
bers of atoms
a
What effects do even thin clouds of dust
have on light passing through them?
a) Its motion causes the light stars be-
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yond to twinkle.
b) It dims and reddens the light of all
more distant stars.
c) Then a little can completely block all
light, such as the Horsehead Nebula.
d) The light passes through them is
blueshifted due to the cloud's approach.
b
Due to absorption of shorter wave-
lengths by interstellar dust clouds, dis-
tant stars appear:
a) redder.
b) brighter.
c) bluer.
d) larger.
a
The spectra of interstellar gas clouds
show that they have the same basic
composition as:
a) asteroids.
b) Earth's asteroids.
c) interstellar dust.
d) stars.
d
The density of interstellar dust is very
low, yet it still blocks starlight because:
a) it is so cold it absorbs higher energy
photons.
b) the dust particles are about the same
size as the light waves they absorb.
c) the dust particles are irregular in
shape.
d) there is 100 times more opaque gas
than dust present in the ISM.
b
The overall dimming of starlight by inter-
stellar matter is called:
a) extinction.
a
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b) emission.
c) absorption.
d) reddening.
Which is the least dense?
a) the atmosphere of Earth
b) interstellar gas.
c) the atmosphere of Jupiter
d) interstellar dust
d
Most interstellar clouds are:
a) much smaller than the cloud in the
Earth's atmosphere.
b) about the size of Earth.
c) similar in size of clouds in Earth's at-
mosphere.
d) much bigger than our solar system.
d
What feature of interstellar dust is in-
ferred by the polarization of starlight?
a) its location in space.
b) its composition
c) its shape
d) its presence in molecular clouds
c
What is the primary visible color of emis-
sion nebula?
a) blue due to ionized helium atoms
b) blue from the scattering light off the
tiny molecules
c) red due to ionized hydrogen atoms
d) black, because of dust
c
The gas density in an emission nebula
is typically about how many particles per
cc?
a) hundred
a
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b) dozen
c) thousand
d) hundred thousand
Ionization of hydrogen in H II regions is
most visible at
a) 12,367 nm, the Paschen alpha line.
b) 21 cm in the radio region for the
spin-flip of its electron.
c) 121.3 nm, for the Lyman alpha ultravi-
olet line for 2-1 electron transition.
d) 656.3nm, Balmer alpha line for 3-2
electron transition.
d
In which wavelengths have the births of
new stars been best mapped recently?
a) microwave
b) infrared
c) extreme ultraviolet
d) gamma rays
b
What two things are needed to create an
emission nebula?
a) interstellar gas and dust
b) hot stars and interstellar gas, particu-
larly hydrogen
c) hydrogen fusion and helium ionization
d) cool stars and interstellar dust
b
A large gas cloud in the interstellar medi-
um that contains several type O and B
stars would appear to us as:
a) an emission nebula.
b) bright blue.
c) a dark nebula.
d) a reflection nebula.
a
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Spectra of stars often show narrow ab-
sorption lines from interstellar matter.
What type of interstellar matter produces
these?
a) ionized gas
b) molecules
c) neutral gas
d) dust
c
The diagram shows a light curve from a
supernova. How many days after maxi-
mum light did it take for the supernova
to decrease in brightness by 5 magni-
tudes?
a) 250
b) less than 50
c) 50
d) 150
b
The diagram shows a light curve from
a supernova. About how long did it take
for the supernova to reach its maximum
luminosity?
a) 200 days
b) 50 days
c) 25 days
d) 100 days
c
Why is the name pulsar a poor descrip-
tion of the object?
a) Pulsars' radio emissions are irregular
b) Pulsars vibrate rather than pulsate
c) Pulsars flash rather than pulsate
d) Pulsars are neutron stars
c
What is term for the form of electromag-
netic radiation produced by rapidly mov-
ing electrons spiralling through magnetic
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fields?
a) Lagrangian radiation
b) infrared radiation
c) ultraviolet radiation
d) synchrotron radiation
d
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Who first noticed that for Cepheid vari-
able stars there was a direct relationship
between the luminosity and the period of
the variation in their brightness?
a. Henrietta Leavitt
b. Harlow Shapley
c. Annie Cannon
d. Edwin Hubble
a
Who first calibrated the Cephied variable
stars for use in determining distance?
a. Carl Sagan
b. Henrietta Leavitt
c. Harlow Shapley
d. Edwin Hubble
c
Refer to the figure. A Type II Cephied
with a period of 10 days has been locat-
ed in a distant globular cluster. What is
the star's absolute magnitude?
a. -1
b. 0
c. -4
d. -6
a
Refer to the figure. A Type II Cephied
with a period of 30 days has been locat-
ed in a distant globular cluster. What is
the star's absolute magnitude?
a. -2
b. 0
c. -6
d. -5
a
Refer to the figure. Polaris is a Type I
Cepheid with a period of 4 days. What is
its absolute magnitude?
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a. 0
b. +1
c. -3.5
d. -1
c
Refer to the figure. If you observe the pe-
riod of a type II Cepheid and mistakenly
think it's a type I Cephied, what incorrect
conclusion will you draw?
a. You will think the Cepheid is farther
away than it actually is
b. You will measure the wrong period
c. You will think the Cepheid is less lumi-
nous than it actually is
d. You will think the Cepheid is closer
than it actually is
a
Refer to the figure. A type I Cepheid with
a period of 20 days has been located
in a distant globular cluster. What is its
absolute magnitude?
a. 0
b. -1
c. -2
d. -5
d
Refer to the figure. Why is it more dif-
ficult to measure the distances to glob-
ular clusters (which contain RR Lyrae
stars) than the distances to open clus-
ters (which contain Cephieds)?
a. RR Lyrae stars pulsate so fast that
they can't be measured
b. RR Lyrae stars do not have a relation-
ship between period and luminosity
c. RR Lyrae stars are further away than
Cepheids
d
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d. RR Lyrae stars are dimmer and harder
to see
What happens with stars when they en-
ter the instability strip?
a. They become unstable and pulsate as
variable stars
b. They become unstable and produce
bursts of X-rays
c. They become unstable and turn into
fast rotating dwarfs
d. They become unstable and vibrate at
variable speeds
a
How did Harlow Shapley use the peri-
od-luminosity relationship of RR Lyrae
variable stars to determine the size of
the Milky Way galaxy?
a. He found the distances to globular
clusters distributed about the center of
the galaxy
b. He found the fistances to open clus-
ters found throughout the disk of the
galaxy
c. He determined the proper motion of
globular clusters in the outer disk of the
galaxy
d. He found the distances to individual
variables free-floating in the halo of the
galaxy
a
Before the twentieth century, as-
tronomers lacked knowledge of some-
thing, and this caused them to think that
the Sun was at the center of our star
system. What was that something?
a. the dimming effects of gas and dust
b. Cepheid variable stars
a
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c. galactic rotation
d. globular clusters
How did Harlow Shapley determine
where the center of the galaxy lies?
a. He plotted the distribution of open
clusters
b. He measured the amount of dust ob-
scuration in every direction of the galac-
tic disk
c. He plotted the distribution of globular
clusters
d. He made star counts in every direction
of the galactic disk
c
Which of the following can be deter-
mined using the period-luminosity rela-
tion?
a. the temperature of a star for which we
know the luminosity
b. the mass of a star for which the dis-
tance is known
c. the distance to open clusters that con-
tain Cepheid variables
d. the radius of the bulge of our galaxy
b
What part of the Milky Way contains
mostly old stars and globular clusters?
a. the nucleus
b. the spherical halo component
c. the spiral arms
d. the smooth disk component
b
What is the main component of the cen-
tral bulge of our galaxy?
a. population I stars
b. stars associated with the spherical
component of our galaxy
b
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c. gas and dust
d. stars associated with the disk compo-
nent of our galaxy
If a star with a high speed with respect
a typical disk star is found, what other
property would you expect it to have?
a. young age
b. low metal content compared to the
Sun
c. high mass
d. high luminosity
b
Which of the following is a characteristic
of the stars if the disk component of our
galaxy?
a. young stars
b. old stars
c. randomly inclined orbits
d. low metal abundance
a
What behaviour of galactic rotation
curves suggests the existence of dark
matter in an extended halo?
a. small velocities are seen at distances
close to the galactic center
b. large velocities are seen at distances
close to the galactic center
c. large velocities are seen at large dis-
tances from the galactic center
d. small velocities are seen at large dis-
tances from the galactic center
c
Our galaxy is suspected to be surround-
ed by a dark halo. What is it about the
disk of the galaxy that makes us suspect
this?
a. It rotates more slowly than expected in
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its outer region
b. It is only visible during a total eclipse
of our Sun
c. It is surrounded above, below, and well
beyond by the brightly glowing corona
d. It rotates faster than expected in its
outer region
d
Which of the following is believed to
make up most of the extended galactic
halo?
a. G, K, and M stars
b. faint brown dwarfs
c. globular clusters
d. dark matter
d
Why are O and B stars good tracers of
spiral structure?
a. They are young and luminous
b. They were formed in the galaxy's halo
c. The are old and have been part of the
galaxy for a long time
d. They are young and moving with large
radial velocites
a
If other galaxies are like the Milky Way,
which parts of them should contain lumi-
nous O and B type stars?
a. the halos
b. the bulges
c. the spiral arms
d. the globular clusters
c
Why are stars like the Sun a poor tracer
of the Milky Way's spiral structure?
a. The spiral arms do not contain any
solar-type stars
b. Stars like the Sun are extremely rare
c
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c. Stars like the Sun have moved away
from their original birthplaces
d. Stars like the Sun were formed before
the galaxy's disk
What do radio maps of the spiral arms of
our galaxy show?
a. the map the location of dense neutral
hydrogen clouds
b. they map the location of hot O and B
stars by the radio radiation the emit
c. they reveal that the Sun is currently
located in the center of a spiral arm
d. they reveal that our galaxy is a grand
design spiral
a
Which of the following are associated
with the spiral arms of a galaxy?
a. million-solar-mass black holes
b. nuclear bulges
c. metal-poor stars
d. young, massive stars
d
Why do radio maps of our galaxy show
spiral arms?
a. the gas in the spiral arms is very hot
b. the arms have larger Doppler shifts
c. the dust in spiral arms is denser
d. the gas in spiral arms is denser
d
If spiral density waves were the only
thing producing spiral arms, what result
would be expected?
a. all galaxies would have only two
smooth spiral arms
b. the Milky Way would show an irregular
pattern of short arms
c. all spiral arms would be gas-free and
a
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dust-free
d. the halo component of the Milky Way
would show spiral arms as well
Which component of the Milky Way is as-
sociated with higher metal abundance?
a. globular clusters
b. halo
c. dark halo
d. disk component
d
Where are population II stars found?
a. in the disk of the galaxy
b. in the center of the galaxy
c. in the galaxy's globular clusters
d. in the galaxy's spiral arms
c
The age of the Milky Way galaxy has
been estimated to be at least 13 billion
years. What is this estimate based on?
a. observations of globular clusters
b. 21-cm radiation from H I regions
c. observations of open clusters
d. radiation produced at the center of the
galaxy
a
Under what conditions are Type Ia su-
pernovae believed to occur?
a. when the core of a massive star col-
lapses
b. when hydrogen detonation occurs
c. when neutrinos in a massive star form
a shock wave that explodes the star
d. when a white dwarf exceed the Chan-
drasekhar-Landau limit
d
Which of the following is almost always
associated with a nova?
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a. a white dwarf in a close binary system
b. a solar-like star that has exhausted its
hydrogen and helium
c. a star undergoing helium burning
d. a very massive star
b
Why can't massive stars generate ener-
gy through iron fusion?
a. because iron fusion requires very high
density
b. because no star can get hot enough
for iron fusion
c. because both fusion and fission of iron
nuclei absorb energy
d. because massive stars go supernova
before they create an iron core
c
If the hypothesis that novae occur in
close binary systems is correct, then
which of the following should novae do?
a. They should occur in regions of star
formation
b. They should all be visual binaries
c. They should repeat after some interval
d. They should produce synchrotron ra-
diation
c
Why is the material that accretes onto
a neutron star or black hole expected to
emit X-rays?
a. hydrogen nuclei begin to fuse and emit
high energy photons
b. the material contains magnetic fields
that will produce synchrotron radiation
c. as the material slows down it converts
thermal energy to gravitational potential
energy
d
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d. the material will become hot enough
that it will radiate most strongly at X-ray
wavelengths
What is the term for the form of electro-
magnetic radiation produced by rapidly
moving electrons spiraling through mag-
netic fields?
a. infrared radiation
b. synchrotron radiation
c. Lagrangian radiation
d. ultraviolet radiotion
b
What type of object is the Crab nebula?
a. an absorption nebula
b. a planetary nebula
c. a supernova remnant
d. an open cluster
c
In the year 1054 CE. Chinese as-
tronomers observed the appearance of
a new star. What occupies that location
now?
a. a planetary nebula with a white dwarf
in the center
b. a supernova remnant with a pulsar in
the center
c. nothing
d. a molecular cloud
b
What produces synchrotron radiation?
a. high-velocity electrons moving
through a magnetic field
b. objects with temperatures below 10
000 K
c. helium burning in a massive star
d. cold hydrogen atoms in space
a
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Where is synchrotron radiation pro-
duced?
a. in the collapsing iron cores of massive
stars
b. in planetary nebulae
c. in the outer layers of red dwarfs
d. in supernova remnants
d
What does the explosion of a type II
supernova typically leave behind?
a. it leaves behind a shell of hot, expand-
ing gas with a pulsar at the center
b. nothing is ever left behind
c. it leaves behind a shell of hot, expand-
ing gas with a white dwarf at the center
d. it leaves behind a planetary nebula
a
Which of the following offered support for
the theory that the collapse of a massive
star's iron core produces neutrinos?
a. the brightening of supernovae a few
days after they are first visible
b. underground counts of solar neutrinos
c. the detection of neutrinos from the
supernova of 1987
d. laboratory measurements of the mass
of the neutrino
c
If you were to land on a neutron star, how
would your mass change compared to
your mass on the Earth?
a. it would increase a lot
b. it would decrease a lot
c. it would increase a little
d. it would remain the same
d
The disk of the Milky Way is approxi-
mately 20 000 light years in diameter
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AS101 - Assignment #9
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True
False
False
The rapid rotation of the outer disk sug-
gests that our galaxy is more massive
than previously thought
True
False
True
Old stars are poor in heavy atoms be-
cause there were very few previous gen-
erations of stars before the old stars
formed
True
False
True
The disk of the galaxy is older than the
halo
True
False
False
Spiral tracers tend to be old, luminous
stars
True
False
False
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AS101 - Chapter 9
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What is the term for a collection of 105
to 106 old stars in a region 30 to 100
light-years in diameter?
globular cluster
What is the defining characteristic of
stars within a cluster that are at the
turnoff point?
They are just leaving the main sequence
Which nuclear fuels does a one solar
mass star use over the course of its en-
tire lifespan?
hydrogen and helium
Star A is a 1 solar mass white dwarf, and
star B is a 1.3 solar mass white dwarf.
How would they differ?
Star B has a smaller radius
What is the source of the energy radiat-
ed by a white dwarf?
gravitational contraction during the white
dwarf formation phase
What does the Chandrasekhar-Landau
limit tell us?
White dwarfs more massive than 1.4 so-
lar masses are not stable
What is the ultimate fate of our Sun?
It will become a white dwarf
Which scenario is most likely to hap-
pen when the Sun enters the red giant
stage?
Mercury, Venus, and Earth will be de-
stroyed by the expanding Sun
If the stars at the turnoff point of a cluster
have a mass of 3 times the mass of the
Sun, what is the age of the cluster?
6.4×108 years
Which of the following correctly de-
scribes a relationship between pressure,
temperature, and density in degenerate
matter?
Pressure does not depend on tempera-
ture
What is a white dwarf composed of?
carbon and oxygen nuclei and degener-
ate electrons
As a white dwarf cools, its radius re-
mains the same. Why is this?
because pressure does not depend on
temperature for a white dwarf, since the
electrons are degenerate
What are the two longest stages in the
life of a one solar mass star?
main sequence, white dwarf
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Which of the following is the most impor-
tant factor that determines a life cycle of
a star (for example, why some stars have
a short life span)?
mass
What principle explains why matter flow-
ing from one star in a binary system to
its companion forms an accretion disk?
conservation of angular momentum
Suppose you discover a binary star sys-
tem with a 0.7 solar mass giant star and
a 2 solar mass main sequence star. Why
is this surprising?
The 2 solar mass star should have be-
come a giant before the 0.7 solar mass
star
When material expanding away from a
star in a binary system reaches the edge
of its Roche lobe, what happens?
The material will no longer be gravita-
tionally bound to the star
When mass is transferred toward a white
dwarf in a binary system, the material
forms a rapidly growing whirlpool of ma-
terial. What is that whirlpool called?
an accretion disk
Under what conditions are Type Ia su-
pernovae believed to occur?
when a white dwarf exceeds the Chan-
drasekhar-Landau limit
Which of the following is almost always
associated with a nova?
a solar-like star that has exhausted its
hydrogen and helium
Why can't massive stars generate ener-
gy through iron fusion?
because both fusion and fission of iron
nuclei absorb energy
If the hypothesis that novae occur in
close binary systems is correct, then
which of the following should novae do?
They should repeat after some interval
Why is the material that accretes onto
a neutron star or black hole expected to
emit X-rays?
The material will become hot enough
that it will radiate most strongly at X-ray
wavelengths
What is the term for the form of electro-
magnetic radiation produced by rapidly
moving electrons spiralling through mag-
netic fields?
synchrotron radiation
What type of object is the Crab nebula?
a supernova remnant
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In the year 1054 CE, Chinese as-
tronomers observed the appearance of
a new star. What occupies that location
now?
a supernova remnant with a pulsar in the
centre
What produces synchrotron radiation?
high-velocity electrons moving through a
magnetic field
Where is synchrotron radiation pro-
duced?
in supernova remnants
What does the explosion of a type II
supernova typically leave behind?
It leaves behind a shell of hot, expanding
gas with a pulsar at the centre
Which of the following offered support for
the theory that the collapse of a massive
star's iron core produces neutrinos?
the detection of neutrinos from the su-
pernova of 1987
If you were to land on a neutron star, how
would your mass change compared to
your mass on the Earth?
It would remain the same
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As101 Quiz and assignment 6
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The parsec is defined so that a star at
a distance of 1 parsec has a parallax of
one arcsecond. If a star has a parallax of
0.02 seconds of arc, what is its distance?
a.
2 parsecs
b.
5 parsecs
c.
20 parsecs
d.
50 parsecs
*d.
50 parsecs
The parsec is defined so that a star at
a distance of 1 parsec has a parallax of
one arcsecond. If a star has a parallax of
0.05 seconds of arc, what is its distance?
a. 2 cparsecs
b. 5 parsecs
c. 20 parsecs
d. 50 parsecs
c. 20 parsec
The parsec is defined so that a star at
a distance of 1 parsec has a parallax
of one arcsecond. If a star is located
at a distance of 10 parsecs, what is its
parallax?
a.
0.1 arcseconds
b.
0.01 arcseconds
c.
1 arcsecond
a 0.1 arcseconds
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d.
10 arcseconds
The parsec is defined so that a star at
a distance of 1 parsec has a parallax
of one arcsecond. If a star is located
at a distance of 40 parsecs, what is its
parallax?
a.
0.25 arcseconds
b.
0.025 arcseconds
c.
0.04 arcseconds
d.
0.05 arcseconds
b.
0.025 arcseconds
How do humans use their eyes to mea-
sure relative distance by parallax?
a.
By continuously focusing our eyes on
distant objects, we can determine dis-
tance.
b. Since our eyes are separated, the
brain interprets the relative look angles
of the two eyes in terms of distance to
the object viewed.
c.
Our eyes can measure the time it takes
light to travel from an object, and from
this we get distance.
B Since our eyes are separated, the
brain interprets the relative look angles
of the two eyes in terms of distance to
the object viewed.
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d.
As we move our heads from side to side,
our brain compares angles from each of
these positions to work out the distance
to the object viewed.
What would make parallax easier to
measure?
a the Earth's orbit being larger
b the stars being farther away
c the Earth moving faster along its orbit
d stars moving faster in their orbits
a the Earth's orbit being larger
If two stars are emitting the same
amount of light, how will the star that is
farther away appear?
dimmer
What is absolute visual magnitude?
a.
the luminosity of a star observed from
Earth
b.
the luminosity of a star observed from a
distance of 1000 parsecs
c.
the apparent magnitude of a star ob-
served from a distance of 10 parsecs
d.
the apparent magnitude of a star ob-
served from Earth
c.
the apparent magnitude of a star ob-
served from a distance of 10 parsecs
Absolute magnitude is defined as the
apparent magnitude that a star would
have if observed at a distance of 33
light-years. Consider a star at a distance
of 350 light-years that has an appar-
ent magnitude of +5. What would its ab-
solute magnitude be?
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a.
It would be less than +5.
b.
It would be exactly +5.
c.
It would be greater than +5.
d.
More information on the star's luminosity
would be required to answer this ques-
tion.
a
What aspect of a star is a measure of the
total energy radiated by the star in one
second?
a.
apparent visual magnitude
b.
luminosity class
c.
spectral type
d.
luminosity
D
Which stars have a large positive ab-
solute magnitude?
a.
stars of high luminosity
b.
stars of low luminosity
B
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c.
nearby stars
d.
distant stars
If you compare two stars, which one will
always have the greater luminosity?
a.
The one with the larger radius will always
have the greater luminosity.
b.
The one with the higher surface temper-
ature will always have the greater lumi-
nosity.
c.
The one with the smaller absolute mag-
nitude will always have the greater lumi-
nosity.
d.
The one with the largest distance will
always have the greater luminosity.
C
The nearest star, Proxima Centauri, is
about four light-years away and has a
luminosity about 0.001 times that of the
Sun. If Proxima Centauri were at a dis-
tance of one light-year instead of four,
how much brighter would it appear in the
sky?
a. twice as bright
b. four times as bright
c. 16 times as bright
d. 4000 times as bright
A
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How does a star's surface temperature
determine the appearance of its spec-
trum?
a.
Surface temperature affects which ele-
ments are solid, liquid, or gaseous.
b.
Surface temperature determines the lu-
minosity of the star.
c.
Surface temperature affects which ele-
ments can escape from the surface of
the star.
d.
Surface temperature determines the ve-
locity of collision rates of atoms and ions.
d
What is the most accurate way to deter-
mine the surface temperature of a star?
*a.Study the pattern of absorption lines
from various atoms.
b.
Study the relative intensities of light
measured through different photometric
filters.
c.
Study the peak wavelength of the star's
continuum blackbody spectrum.
d.
Study the pattern of emission lines on
the star's spectrum.
a
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Which of the following can the strength
of spectral lines tell you about a star?
a.
the radius
b.
the distance
c.
the temperature
d.
the visual magnitude
c
You observe medium hydrogen Balmer
lines, as well as neutral helium spectral
features, in a star. What is the most likely
spectral class of this star?
a.
G
b.
M
c.
F
d.
B
d
You observe medium hydrogen Balmer
lines, as well as neutral helium spectral
features, in a star. What is the approxi-
mate surface temperature of this star?
a.
3000 K
c
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b.
10 000 K
c.
20 000 K
d.
5500 K
What is the spectral sequence in order
of decreasing temperature?
a.
OBAFGKM
b.
OBAGFKM
c.
BAGFKMO
d.
ABFGKMO
a
1. What is the spectral sequence in order
of increasing temperature?
a.
MKFAGBO
b.
BAFGKMO
c.
MKGFABO
d.
ABFMKGO
c
2. Which of the following can we use to
determine the surface temperature of a
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star?
a.
determining if the star has a companion
star
b.
studying its line absorption spectrum
c.
measuring the star's distance
d.
measuring the star's parallax
b.
studying its line absorption spectrum
Table 1
Star Name
Spectral Type
± For F8
¿ Cet M7
³ Tri A0
¾
Per O7
The table lists the spectral types for each
of four stars. Which star in this table
would have the highest surface temper-
ature?
a. ± For
b. ¿ Cet
c. ³ Tri
d. ¾
Per
D
. The table lists the spectral types for
each of four stars. Which star in this table
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would have the lowest surface tempera-
ture?
a.
± For
*b.
¿ Cet
c.
³ Tri
d.
¾
Per
B
What properties of a star determine its
luminosity?
a.
distance and diameter
b.
temperature and distance
c.
temperature and diameter
d.
apparent magnitude and temperature
d
How do we know that giant stars are
larger in diameter than the Sun?
a.
They are more luminous but have about
the same temperature.
b.
They are less luminous but have about
the same temperature.
They are more luminous but have about
the same temperature.
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c.
They are hotter but have about the same
luminosity.
d.
They are cooler but have about the same
luminosity.
Sirius A and B are two stars at the same
distance from the Earth. In this binary
system, Sirius A is much brighter but
Sirius B is much hotter. From this infor-
mation, what can you conclude about
the two stars?
a.
Sirius B must be much smaller than Sir-
ius A.
b.
Sirius B must be much larger than Sirius
A.
c.
Sirius B must be much more massive
than Sirius A.
d.
Sirius B must be much less massive than
Sirius A.
a.
Sirius B must be much smaller than Sir-
ius A.
In a Hertzsprung-Russell diagram,
where are the stars with the smallest
radius found?
a.
in the upper left corner
b.
c.
in the lower left corner
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in the upper right corner
c.
in the lower left corner
d.
in the lower right corner
In a Hertzsprung-Russell diagram,
where are 90 percent of all the stars
found?
a.
in the giant region
b.
in the supergiant region
c.
on the dwarf sequence
d.
on the main sequence
d
The star named Sheat is of spectral type
M2 and luminosity class II. Based on this
information, how does Sheat compare to
the Sun?
A.
Sheat is cooler and larger than the Sun.
b.
Sheat is cooler and smaller than the
Sun.
c.
Sheat is hotter and more luminous than
the Sun.
A
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d.
Sheat is hotter and larger than the Sun.
The star named Sheat is of spectral type
M2 and luminosity class II. Based on this
information, how does Sheat compare to
the Sun?
a.
Sheat is cooler and larger than the Sun.
b.
Sheat is cooler and smaller than the
Sun.
c.
Sheat is hotter and more luminous than
the Sun.
d.
Sheat is hotter and larger than the Sun.
A
13. Where are red giant stars found in
the Hertzsprung-Russell diagram?
a.
above the main sequence
b.
below the main sequence
c.
on the lower main sequence
d.
on the upper main sequence
A
Table 2
Star
Parallax(sec of arc)
SpectralType
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´ CeN 0.026 B2 IV
HR 4758 0.05 G0 V
HD 39801 0.005 M2 I
9 CMa 0.4 A1 V
14. Which star in the table is the closest
to Earth?
a.
´ Cen
b.
HR 4758
c.
HD 39801
d.
9 CMa
d
Which star in the table has the highest
surface temperature?
a.
´ Cen
b.
HR 4758
c.
HD 39801
d.
9 CMa
d
Which star in the table has the largest
diameter?
a.
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´ Cen
b.
HR 4758
c.
HD 39801
d.
9 CMa
C
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AS101 Test Bank
Astronomy I Our Place in the Cosmos (Wilfrid Laurier University)
StuDocu is not sponsored or endorsed by any college or university
AS101 Test Bank
Astronomy I Our Place in the Cosmos (Wilfrid Laurier University)
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Which of the following statements about the ecliptic plane is not true?
• It is the plan of the moons orbit around earth
Which of the following statements about lunar phases is true
• It is possible to have 2 full moons during January but not during February
Which of the following celestial phenomena is the smallest
• The orbit of the moon
Suppose you lived at the Earth equator. Which of the following statements would not
be true
•
- the celestial equator goes through your sky from due east on your horizon, through
50 degrees altitude in the south, to due west on the horizon
When you observe a star for a period of a few hours, you notice that it moves across the sky.
What is responsible for this motion
- Earthʼs rotation on its axis
On the cosmic calendar (where the age of the universe in condensed into the equivalent to on
calendar year) most of recorded history takes up what portion of the “year”?
- the last few seconds of the year
The order of the planets, from the sun outward is
- mercury, venus, earth, mars, jupiter, saturn
Which of the following is the reason for the solar day being longer than a sidereal day?
- the combined effect of the rotation of the Earth and its orbit around the sun
Which of the following statements about the moon is true
-the moonʼs distance from the earth varies during its orbit
One light year is closest to what distance
- ten million million kilometres
Which of the following is the best reason for the leap years
- the combined effect of the rotation of theʼs earth axis and the precession of the
earth
The apparent visual magnitude of star A is +2 and the apparent visual magnitude of star B is +
Based on this information which statement below must be true
•
-
light output can distance cannot apparent be determined from a a stars
apparent visual magnitude alone
Which of the following would appear brightest in the night sky
- the full moon
Which of the following best describes the Milky Way Galaxy
•
-
a spiral galaxy with a disk about 100,000 light years in diameter and
containing between 100 billion and 1 trillion stars
What conditions are required for a lunar eclipse
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•
-
the phase of the moon must be ʼfull, and the nodes of moons orbit must be
aligned with SU and E
We ʼcannot detect stellar parallax with naked-eye observations. Which of the following
would make parallax easier to observe?
- increasing the sizeʼ orbit of the earth
Which statement below most accurately describes modern constellations
-there are 88 well defined regions on the celestial sphere
You are standing on the equator at midnight which way is polaris, the north star?
- on the northern horizon
Suppose the date is June 21
st
and the sun never sets, just touching your Northern horizon at
midnight. Where are you?
- the arctic circle
The size of a hockey rink is best measured in what units
- metres
If the moon is setting at midnight, the phase of the moon must be
- first quarter
Which of the following correctly describes the meridian in your sky
•
-
a half circle extending from your horizon due north through your zenith, to
your horizon due south
Which of the following statements is true?
Answer is both B and C
Statements were
•
-
both the northern and southern hemispheres receive the same amount of
sunlight on the equinoxes
•
-
The northern hemisphere receives the most direct sunlight on the summer
solstice
Which of the following best describes the tropic of Cancer
- it is a place where the sun is directly overhead at noon on the summer solstice
The sun is rising in the east and will be on your meridian in 2 hours. What time is it currently
-10 am
While in Bracebridge, ON where the latitude is 45 degrees, at the spring equinox (about Marc
21
st
) the sun follows the path where it
•
-
rises due east, crosses the meridian at an altitude of 45 degrees in the south,
and sets due west
What is an astronomical Unit
- the average distance from the earth to the sun
What conditions are required for a solar eclipse
•
-
the phase of the moon must be new, and the nodes of the moons orbit must
be nearly aligned with the earth and sun
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Which of the following is the furthest from the sun?
-Proxima Centauri
If it is midnight in waterloo it is
- daytime in sydney Australia
The lunar month is longer than the sidereal month because
•
-
the moon has to complete more than one full orbit around the earth to
complete the cycle of lunar phases
What is the ecliptic
- the ʼ
s
un apparent path along the celestial sphere
Which of the following celestial phenomena is the largest
- the milk way galaxy
How long does it take light from the surface of the sun to get to earth?
- a few minutes
Which of the following has your address in the correct order? In this question the local group
means thee local Clusters
- you, Earth, Solar system, Milky Way, Local Group, Local supercluster
The size of our galaxy in light years is closest to which of the following
numbers
-100,000
Which of the following statements about the celestial sphere is not true
- the celestial equator lies in the ecliptic plane
Which of the following is the largest?
- size of a typical galaxy
If you lived at the north pole at night the stars would
- never rise or set, but move in circles around polaris, the north star
Suppose that the Sun were to suddenly disappear from our solar system. What would happen
earths motion
It would begin traveling in a straight line heading out of the solar system
Which of the following statements about electrons is not true
Electrons are actually neutrons that have acquired an electrical charge
The Metonic Cycle is the
19 year period over which the lunar phases occur on about the same dates
Which statement about the cosmological principle is valid
It is based on two tenets involving the universality of the laws of physics and chemistry and the
belief that there is nothing special about Earth
Considering Einstein's famous equation E =mc2 which of the following is true
A small amount of mass can be turned into a large amount of energy
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Which of the following best describes the origin of the ocean tides on earth
Tides are caused by the difference in the force of gravity exerted by the moon across the sphere of
the Earth
What does temperature measure
The average kinetic energy of particles in a substance
Upon what quantities does angular momentum depend
Mass velocity radius
The amount of matter contained in an object is called its mass. Which of the following is false
If you were to go to the moon your mass would be lower than your moss on Earth because gravity is
less on the moon
Where does the energy come from that your body uses to keep you alive
Mostly it comes from the foods you eat
Without telescopes or other aid we can see the moon in the night sky because
It reflects light
The scientific method is best described by which of the following
A system of collecting analyzing data, formulating a hypothesis, testing it and reforming it as
needed
If your mass is 60 KG on earth would be on Jupiter
60 KG
The names of the 7 days of the week are based on
Seven naked eye objects that appear to move among the constellations
Which of the following is not one of nor follows kepler laws
When a planet travels slower it must be nearer to the sun and it speeds up far from the sun
Ptolemy was important in history of astronomy because he
Developed a model of the solar system that made sufficiently accurate predictions of planetary
positions to remain in use for centuries
Radiative energy is
Energy carried by light
Retrograde motion is observable for what objects
Planets located more distant from the sun than earth
The doppler shift is a wave phenomenon that
Uses change in wavelength of light to determine speed of a moving star
At which lunar phases are the tides smallest
Both first and 3
rd
When copernicus 1
st
created his sun centred model it not lead to better predictions than
ptolemaic why
Copernicus used perfect circles for the orbits of the planets
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A skater can spin faster by pulling arms closer to her body and slower by pulling out
Conservation of angular momentum
From lowest energy to highest energy electromagnetic radiation
Radio, infrared, visible, ultraviolet, x rays, gamma rays
Spectral line formed by hydrogen appears at a wavelength of 486.1 nanometres the spectrum
star sows the same hydrogen line appearing at 485.2 what can we conclude
The star is moving towards us
Which of the following is not a unit of energy
Kilowatt
The frequency of a wave is
All of the above
Spectroscopy can be used to
All of the above
Which of the following statements best describes the principle advantage of telescopes over
eyes
Telescopes can collect far more light with far better angular resolution
A green apple looks green because
It reflects green light and absorbs all other colours
The wavelength of a wave is
The distance between two adjacent peaks of the wave
Kinetic Energy is
Energy of motion
What would happen if the space shuttle were launched with greater speed then earths escape
velocity
It would travel away from the Earth into the solar system
What do astronomers mean by light pollution
Refers to light used for human activities that brightens the sky and hinders astronomical
observations
Which of the following statements is not one of Newtons laws of motion
The net force applied to an object is equal to its mass times velocity
Which of the following statements correctly describes the law of conservation of energy
The total quantity of energy in the universe constant, although we’re not sure how much
energy there really is
Which of the following statements about X rays and radio waves is not true
Neither X rays nor radio waves can penetrate the earths atmosphere
Which of the following is not an advantage of the HST over ground based telescopes
Although it orbits the Earth and is outside the atmosphere, it is closer to the stars
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When hold a rock potential energy, drop it kinetic, hits the ground what
happens
The energy goes to producing sound and to heating the ground rock, air
The trouble with refraction telescopes is that
Different colours of visible starlight get focused to different points in space making the image
blurry
Suppose the angular separation of 2 stars is smaller than the angular resolution of your eyes
will stars appear to your eyes
The 2 stars look like a single point of light
The Age of our Solar system is approximately
-4.6 billion years
As of now most known extrasolar planets have been discovered by
- Doppler technique
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the moons of the solar system
planets
- all of the eight classical planets have at least one moon
Which of the following statements about asteroids is not true
- no asteroids have been found beyond the asteroid belt
What is a comet
- the nucleus of a comet is a collection of various ices mixed with dust and tiny bits
fo rocky debris
Atmospheres formed around some terrestrial planets because
- outgassing through volcanic activity
Which of the following solar system moons were likely formed through the same
processes as our solar system
- jupiter’s so called Galilean moons
what was the ice or frost line of the solar system
- between present day rbits of mars and Jupiter
which of the following is not characteristic of the terrestrial planets
- they have more moons than the jovian plants
why haven’t we detected low mass planets close to their stars and high mass planets
far from their stars
- Both A and B above
To date about how many extrasolar planets have been discovered
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- 700
what are the main constituents of the jovian planets
- hydrogen and helium
the first small solid grans or flakes formed in our solar system by the process of
- condensation
what is an extrasolar planet
- a planet that orbits a star that is not our sun
What is an exoplanet moon
- it is an object orbiting an exoplant
at firs the suns present dat rotation seems to contradict the prediction of the
nebular theory because
- sun should have been roating fast when it formed, but the actual rotation is fairly
slow
why did the solar nebula heat up as it collapsed
- as the cloud shrank, its gravitational potential energy….
Which of the following statements about the jovian planets is not true
- outermost jovian planet Uranus….
Which one of the following is a characteristic of jovian planets
- low average density
the terrestrial planet cores contain mostly metal because
- metals condensed first in the solar nebula and the rocks then accreted around
them
based on available data what kind of objects in our solar system do most of the
known extrasolar planets resemble
- jovian planets
the planet closest in size to earth is
- venus
51 pegasi is important because
- it is the first star like our sun that was found to have a planet orbiting it
which of the following is the origin of almost all the large moons around the jovian
planets
- they were formed by condensation and accretion in disk of gas around the planet
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which type of exoplanet would you expect to cause the largest Doppler shift
- massive planet close to its star
rank the 5 worlds in order of size from large to small
- earth, venus, mars mercury moon
the asteroid belt is found where
- mars and Jupiter
according to our theory of solar system formation what is pluto
- one of the largetst Kuiper belt objects
the nebular theory of the formation of the solar system successfully predicts all but
one of the following, which one does the theory not predict
- the equal number of terrestrial and jovian planets
which fo the following statements about meteorites is true
- A. a meteorite si whats left of a meteor when it hits the earth’s surface
which detection technique has been used to find orbital distance
- Doppler technique
how much of the solar nebula consisted of elements heavier than hydron and helium
2%
which of the following statements is not an observed pattern of motion in our solar
system
- most planets orbit at the same speed
what is the origin of the atoms of hydrogen, oxygen, and sodium in the persipartion
that exits your body during this astrononoky test
- hydrogen nuclei were produced a few minutes after the big bang event 13.7 billion
years ago …..
which of the following is not a technique that could be used to discover extrasolar
planet
- direct binocular
why does the solar nebul;a theory preict that planetary systems are common
- all of the other answers
why are the inner plantes made of denser materials than the outer planets
- in the inner part of the nebula only metals and rocks were able to condense bcause
of the high temperatures whereas hydeogen compounds alghouth more abundtant
wer only able to condense in the cooler outer regions
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which of the following statements about comets is not true
- the nucleus of a comet is quite large about 100 km across
which of the following is not a characteristic of the general layout of the solar
system
- all planets rotate on their polar axes at about the same rate
according to our theory of solar system formation what is the origin of asteroids and
comets
- asteroids are the leftover planetsiamls of the inner solar system and comets are the
leftover planetsiamsl that formed beyond the freost line
Jupiter and Satrun emit
heat than absorbed from the sun due
to
More; heat left over from their formation
Which of the following statements about the rings of the 4 jovian planets is not true
All probably look much like they did when the solar system first formed
What is a Roche zone
The region near a planet where tidal forces would tear apart an object held together only by
gravity
Saturn is how far from the sun
10 AU
What mechanism is most responsible for generating the internal heat of IO that drives volcan
activity
Tidal heating
The belts and zones of jupiter are
Alternating bands of rising and falling air at different latitudes
How thick are Saturn’s rings from top to bottom
A few tens of metres
Which of the following does Jupiter not have
Crustal plates on its surface
All but one of the following statements about Mars are true. Which is false
The Martian atmosphere is fairly substantial with a composition similar to earth
Which of these moons is the most geologically active
Io
Mars is how far from the sun
1.5 AU
All but one of the following statements about mercury are true. Which is false
Mercury has a very thin atmosphere which is strange because there are still active volcanoes
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outgassing carbon dioxide and water vapour
Why are there no impact craters on the surface of Io
Io did have impact craters but they have all ben buried in lava flows
Mercury's Large core is composed of
Iron
We know about earths interior because of
Study of waves created by earthquakes
Why does Jupiter have several distinct cloud layers
Different layers represent clouds made of gases that condense at different temps
How have we been able to construct maps of surface features on the plant
venus
By using radar from spacecraft that were sent to orbit venus
Which of the following objects contains mostly nitrogen with some methane
Titan
The orbit of Venus around the sun is almost circular. What is the radius of its orbit
0.72 AU
Earthʼs atmosphere contains only small amounts of Carbon dioxide because
It dissolves in water, and most of it is now in the oceans and carbonate rocks
All but one of the following statements about Mercury are true. Which one is
false
Mercuryʼs orbit around the sun is circular, more so than any other planet
All of the following statements about Jupiter are true, which is false
The great red spot is a large storm centre, which has been observed for last 50 yrs
Planetary rings are
All of the above
A solar day on Mercury is about how long
176 Earth days
Why does Marys have more extreme seasons than Earth
Because it has a more eccentric orbit
What is the Cassini division of Saturn rings
A large gap, visible from earth, produced by an orbital resonance with moon Mimas
Why does the burning of fossil fuels increase the greenhouse effect on earth
Burning releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere
All but one of the statements about earth is true. Which is false
The poles of earthsʼs magnetic field are preciselyʼ aligned with Earth rotational axis
In what ways is Earth different from other terrestrial planets
All of the above
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What is the region around a planet called where the magnetic field is able to deflect solar win
and other charged particles
Magnetosphere
Why do astronomers believe Triton may have been a planet that was captured by neptune
It orbits neptune in the opposite direction of Neptune rotation
The origin of Earth’s only natural satellite, Moon is
A combination of the capture theory and the daughter theory called the impact theory which posits
that early a young molten earth collided with a mars like object
Which of the following statements about conjunctions and oppositions if false
Mars can have an inferior conjunction butʼs not a superior conjunction from earth perspective
All of the following about Venus are true. Which one is false
The magnetic field has about the same intensity as on Earth it appears to change directions every
100,000 years
There are no auroras on Venus because it
Lacks a strong magnetic field
Which of the following statements about Saturn is false
Saturn was first discovered by Galileo about 400 years ago
Which of the following is not a Kuiper Belt Object
Triton
Which of the following statements about Pluto is false
Pluto is one of the larger KBOs discovered to date and is actually bigger than Mercury
Which of the following statements about Charon, Plutos moon are true expect
which one
As strange as it may seem, astronomers have actually observed seasonal effects on Charon
Which of the following statements about the moons of the Jovian planets is
false
Tiania, one of the largest jovian moons, has a wrinkly surface that is often referred to as
“cantaloupe terrain”
Module 1 Notes
1 Astronomical Unit = 1 AU = 1.5 x 10
8
km = 150M km = average distance from Sun
to the Earth
Light-year (ly) = the distance light travels in one year, approx. 63,000 AU
It has been approximately 13.7B years since the Big Bang
The Moon’s distance from Earth is about 30x the Earth’s diameter = 384,000km
The
precession
of the Earth’s rotational axis points to the North Star but this will
change over time
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- The Earth rotates from west to east in front of the Sun, giving both day and night
- the Sun rises in the east and sets in the west
- What you see in the sky depends on where you are; Canadians see constellations
and stars that Australians never see
- Astronomers measure distances across the sky as angles in units of degrees, arc
minutes and arc seconds
Zenith
– point in the sky directly overhead
Nadir
– point directly below your feet
Celestial Equator
– an extension of the Earth’s equator
onto the celestial sphere
Meridian
– the line going from due north, through your
zenith and finishing due south
Arc Minutes
– angular degrees are subdivided into arc
minutes (60’ in one degree); is further divided into 60
arc seconds
Circumpolar Stars
– stars that trace out complete
circles
The Earth moves along the ecliptic path its rotational axis, on which it makes one
revolution each day, is tipped to the ecliptic plane at a constant angle of 23.5°
resulting in seasons on Earth.
Tropic of Cancer
– circle of latitude on the Earth that marks the most northerly
position at which the Sun may appear directly overhead at its zenith; occurs once
per year at the time of
June Solstice
Tropic of Capricorn
– southern hemisphere counterpart, marking the most
southerly position at which the Sun may appear directly overhead
The moon takes about a month to circle the Earth; as it circles the Earth it goes
through phases of reflected sunlight
Orbital Period
– from one full moon to the next – approximately 29.5 days
Sidereal Period
– the time for one revolution relatives to the stars – approximately
27 days
Solar Eclipse
– Moon blocks out the sunlight at high noon for a period of time
Lunar Eclipse
– Earth blocks out the Sun’s light at midnight for a period of time
Only when the moon crosses through the ecliptic plane, at points called
nodes
, is an
eclipse possible. Also, only when the Sun, Earth and Moon are all lined up is an
eclipse possible; phase of the moon must be either new or full.
Lunar Eclipse Types
– Earth is between the Sun and Moon
a)
Penumbral
- most common, Moon passes through only the penumbra (sunlight is
only partially blocked). Result is that the Moon darkens only slightly.
b)
Partial
- part of Moon passes through the umbra while the rest passes through
the penumbra. Result is the part of the Moon is darkened completely but rest only
slightly darkened with no clear demarcation between the areas
c)
Total
- Moon passes entirely through the umbra. Result is that the Moon is
completely dark during the eclipse
Solar Eclipse Types
– Moon is between the Earth and the Sun
a)
Total
– Moon is relatively close to the Earth in its orbit and the Moon’s umbra
touches a small area of the Earth’s surface; anyone within this area sees the sun
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totally blocked out
b)
Partial
– surrounding the small area of totality lies a larger area falling inside the
Moon’s penumbral shadow; anyone within this area sees the moon partially blocked
out
c)
Annular
– Moon is relatively far from Earth and the Moon’s umbra may not reach
the Earth surface at all; anyone within the small area behind the umbra will see all
of the Sun blocked out except a ring of sunlight surrounding the Moon’s disk
Five planets closest to the Earth are visible to the naked eye:
a)
Mercury
– at sunrise/sunset
b)
Venus
– closer to the horizon and bright
c)
Mars
– reddish colour
d)
Jupiter
– at night and comparatively bright
e)
Saturn
– slightly more difficult to spot
In 2002, all five planets were lined up in the Western sky. This will occur once again
in 2040.
The planets generally follow the motions of the Sun and Moon in that they move
eastward
relative to the stars. Occasionally, all planets appear to change direction
and move
westward
relative to the stars, which is a motion referred to as
retrograde
motion. This is because as the inner planets move faster in orbit and
catch up to the outer, slower-moving planets, the outer planets appear to move
backwards.
Stellar Parallax
– occurs when we look at a nearby star from two vantage points;
first when the Earth is at one extreme of its orbit around the Sun, and second when
the Earth is at the opposite extreme six months later
- the nearby star appears to shift laterally against the background of stars behind it
Stellar parallax allows us to measure distances to nearby stars AND also provides
direct evidence that the Earth really does revolved around the Sun.
Declination
– latitude, expressed in degrees, arcminutes/arcseconds north (+) or
south (-) of the celestial equator
Right Ascension
– longitude; expressed in hours (h), minutes (m), and seconds (s)
of time, from 0 to 24h
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Timekeeping by Day
Our local meridian is the imaginary line ending at the north and south celestial poles
which cuts through our zenith. The average length of time between successive
passes of the Sun across the local meridian is called a
solar day
(this time varies
slightly throughout a year which is why the word “average” is used). Another way of
determining the length of a day is to measure the time it takes for any star to make
successive passes across the local meridian which we call a
sidereal
day. A sidereal
day is about 23 hours 56 minutes, shorter than a solar day by about 4 minutes
because during a solar day the Earth has travelled along its orbit around the Sun and
the Earth needs a little more time to rotate before the Sun crosses the meridian (a
simple mathematical calculation shows that the Earth moves about 1° per day
around its orbit).
Timekeeping by Month
Timekeeping involving months comes from the lunar phase’s cycle which is about
29.5 solar days, corresponding roughly to the average month length, known as
a
synodic
month. Synodic comes from the Latin word “synod” meaning meeting –
the meeting of the Sun and the Moon at each new moon phase. If, however, we use
the stars to measure the length of the lunar cycle, a
sidereal month
, the time turns
out to be 27.3 days, shorter than a synodic month for the same reason a sidereal day
is shorter than a solar day.
Timekeeping by Year
The length of a year is clearly related to the time required for the Earth to complete
one full orbit around the Sun, about 365.25 days. Again there are two slightly
different timeframes. A
sidereal year
is the time taken for a complete orbit relative
to the stars, whereas the time between successive spring (or autumnal) equinoxes is
called a
tropical year
(or solar year) and it should come as no surprise that these
two years differ. A sidereal year is longer than a tropical year by about 20 minutes,
the difference due to the precession of the Earth’s rotation.
We use an aspect of
solar time
for timekeeping. The
apparent solar time
is
determined by the Sun’s position in the sky relative to our local meridian; when the
Sun is right on the meridian it is noon; before the Sun gets to the meridian we say
that it is
ante meridian
(
ante
meaning before), hence a.m. or am; after noon, when
the Sun has passed the meridian we say that it is
post meridian
(
post
meaning
after), hence p.m. or pm. However, each solar day differs from 24 hours by a slight
amount because the Earth’s orbit is not perfectly circular and because of the Earth’s
23.5° tilt. Thus, the
average solar day
is the more important concept and the one
used to keep track of time. Using apparent solar time would mean adjusting clocks
each day, an unnecessary complication. Clearly, apparent solar time varies with
longitude (owing to the Earth’s spin on its axis) and so everybody’s apparent solar
time will be different, unless they happen to be at precisely the same longitude. To
alleviate this problem Sandford Fleming, a Canadian, proposed a system of dividing
the Earth into 24 different time zones such that within each time zone the time
would be exactly the same. Such a system was eventually adopted universally by the
late 1800s.
Calendars
The tropical year (equinox to equinox) is about 365.25 days. If we choose 365 days
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for one year (the Egyptian concept) then the seasons drift through the year by one
day in every 4 years, not a great concept. Julius Caesar introduced the idea that
every four years an extra day would be added to account for this discrepancy (hence
the leap year), a definite improvement. This is the so-called Julian calendar.
However, life is rarely this simple. The tropical year is not exactly 365.25 days but
rather about 11 minutes short of this value resulting in the spring equinox moving
backwards through the calendar by 11 minutes each year, or about 14.5
hours/lifetime of 80 yrs, or about 12 days every 1600 years. So, in 1582, Pope
Gregory XIII introduced a slight variation in the calendar, which became known as
the Gregorian calendar (the one we use today), which first set the spring equinox to
March 21 and then adjusted the leap day schedule such that each century year
(normally a leap year) would be skipped as a leap year unless that year was divisible
by 400 (i.e., year 2000 would be a leap year, but not 1900, nor 2100), making the
calendar good for thousands of years into the future and now used globally.
Module 2 Notes
Kepler
published his three laws of planetary motion in the early 1600s:
a)
Kepler’s First Law
: The orbit of each planet around the Sun is an ellipse with
the Sun at one focus
Eccentricity
was established whereby a circle has an eccentricity of zero and a
straight line has an eccentricity of 1; this is useful in determining the ellipses of
orbits
b)
Kepler’s Second Law
: As a planet moves around in its orbit, it sweeps out equal
areas in equal times
When a planet is closer to the Sun (around its
perihelion
) it moves faster along its
orbit than when close to the
aphelion
(further point from the Sun). The planet
moves from A to B (perihelion) in the same time that it takes to go from A’ to B’
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(perihelion).
c)
Kepler’s Third Law
: The squares of the periods of any two planets have the
same ratio as the cubes of their semi-major axes
p
2
= a
3
where p is the orbital period in years, and a is the avg. distance from
the Sun in AU
Galileo
introduced the telescope to the world in the early 1600s and proved the
Earth was not the centre of the universe and in fact the Sun-centred model was
correct.
Newton’s Universal Law of Gravitation:
if the mass of either object is doubled, the
force doubles
- also, if the distance between the masses doubles, the force diminishes by a factor of
4 (two squared)
Tides are a good example of this, and they are caused by the difference in
gravitational attraction from one side of the Earth to the other.
When the Sun, Moon and Earth are all lined up, the tides are highest and called
spring
tides.
During first and third quarter Moons, the tides are called
neap
tides
The Scientific Method
a)
Deductive reasoning
– process of concluding that something is true because it is
a special case of a general principle that is known to be true
- logically valid and this is the fundamental method in which mathematical facts are
shown to be true
b)
Inductive reasoning
– process of reasoning that a general principle is true
because the special cases you’ve seen are true; for example, if all the people you’ve
met from a particular town have been intelligent, you might say that “all the
residents of this town are smart”
Any model, hypothesis or theory can never be “proved” – a theory always remains a
theory until some observation discredits it.
Pseudoscience
– false science; ex. making predictions based on tarot cards, psychic
determinations
Nonscience
– predictions based on intuition, faith, political conviction and tradition
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Cosmological Principal
- there is nothing special or unique about Earth; our location in the Universe is by
chance
- the laws of physics and chemistry are valid throughout the universe
Orbital Motion
1. An object orbiting Earth, and any orbiting object, is actually falling (being
accelerated due to the gravitational force) toward Earth’s center
2. Objects orbiting each other actually revolve around their mutual center of mass
3. If you want to leave Earth and never return, you must give your spaceship a high
enough velocity so it will follow an open orbit
Momentum
– the inertia an object has
p = m v
whereby p is momentum, m is mass and v is velocity
Properties of a Wave
-
wavelength
– the length of one wave (
λ)
-
frequency
– the number of waves passing a point in space per second (f)
-
speed
– how fast the wave moves through space (c)
Speed = Frequency x wavelength
Every time light interacts with an object, at least one of the following occurs:
- absorption, transmission, or reflection
Doppler Effect
– If a sound source is moving toward an observer the waves in front
of the sound source get bunched up (closer together) so that the observer hears
more waves per second than if the sound source was not moving. Similarly, if the
sound source is moving away from the observer the waves behind the sound source
get pulled apart so that the observer hears fewer waves per second than if the sound
source was not moving.
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Light is a wave phenomenon and so the same effect is observed for light. That is,
light coming from a moving object will have its frequency shifted to a higher or
lower value depending on the motion of the source.
If we are looking at light from a star and we see the traditional hydrogen spectral
line pattern (say the Lyman series) but it is shifted towards the red end of the visible
spectrum then we know that the star is moving away from us. Furthermore, by
measuring the amount the spectrum is shifted, we can determine the radial velocity
of the star. Conversely, if the spectrum is "blue-shifted" then the star is moving
toward us.
Heat is transferred from one body to another body by three unique
mechanisms:
-
conduction
– when the atoms in one part of the substance vibrate faster than at
another part of the substance (lower temperature) causing energy to be transferred
-
convection
– liquids and gas distribute heat with an actual transfer of mass
-
radiation
– makes use of a form of energy to remove/transport heat from one
place to another
•
Conduction
— heat flows from the
hot solid core to the inner mantle (red
part) and from the top of the mantle into
the lithosphere (the outside crust).
•
Convection
— as described above
conduction cells form in the mantle.
•
Radiation
— at the surface of the
planet energy is radiated into space in
the form of light of various frequencies.
Types of Electromagnetic Radiation and their Sources
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Type of
Radiation
Wavelength Range
(nm)
Object
Temperature
Typical Sources
Gamma Rays
Less than 0.01
More than 108 K
Nuclear reactions
X-rays
0.01 - 20
106 - 108 K
Supernova remnants
and solar corona
Ultraviolet
20 - 400
104 - 106 K
Very hot stars
Visible
400 - 700
103 - 104 K
Stars
Infrared
1000 - 1,000,000
10 - 103 K
Cool clouds of dust,
planets, satellites
Radio
More than
1,000,000
Less than 10 K
No astronomical
objects are this cold
Types of Telescopes
a)
Refractive
– similar to human eye, takes light in through a lens (A)
b)
Reflective
– more common, use one optical surface to collect light, a spherical
mirror surface, which focuses the light at a point in front of the mirror (B)
Module 3 Notes
Comparative Planetology
– seeking to understand the similarities and the
differences between and among the planets
Solar Nebular Theory
– main theory of formation of our solar system
- imagines that some cataclysmic event initiated the collapse of a nebula that caused
material falling inward to some centre converting gravitational potential energy into
kinetic energy making the centre, or core, hotter and hotter
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Terrestrial Planets
– four inner planets - Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars
- small, dense, rocky worlds with little or no atmosphere
Jovian Planets
– four outer planets – Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune
- large, low-density worlds with thick atmospheres and liquid or ice interiors
Planetary Characteristics:
•
all planets orbit the Sun in the same direction – counter clockwise (ccw)(as
viewed from above North Pole)
•
all orbits lie in nearly the same plane
•
almost all planets have nearly circular orbits (Mercury is a minor exception)
•
most planets rotate ccw (Venus and Uranus are exceptions) including the Sun
•
most moons orbit their planet in same direction as the planet's rotation and
orbit in their planet's equatorial plane
Mercury and Venus have no moons; Earth has one and Mars has two very small
asteroid-like moons. The Jovian planets, by contrast, have many. Jupiter is listed as
having 6 but it actually has over 60; Saturn has almost as many and Uranus and
Neptune have 40 between them.
All Jovian planets have ring systems. Saturn’s rings are made of ice particles. The
rings of Jupiter, Uranus and Neptune are made of dark rocky particles. Terrestrial
planets have no rings.
Asteroids
lie primarily between Mars and Jupiter and a fairly broad belt in the same
plane as planetary orbits.
Comets
follow either elliptical orbits or parabolic/hyperbolic orbits passing close to
the Sun once. They are made largely of ices mixed with rocky dust, no bigger than a
few km across. They come from two major sources – the Kuiper belt (a doughnut
shaped region starting around Neptune and extending out into space) and the Oort
Cloud (a spherical region completely surrounding the solar system and extending
out some 50,000 AU). As a comet gets close to the Sun it generates a
coma
(an
atmosphere of escaping gases and dust) around its
nucleus
and two tails:
a
plasma
tail of ionized gas swept away by the solar wind, and a
dust
tail of small
solid particles created by the escaping atmosphere (escapes from the comet because
of its weak gravity). When we see a comet in the sky we don’t actually see its core
but rather the lengthy beautiful tail emanating from the core. This tail always points
away from the Sun.
During each pass of the Sun, comets lose material through sublimation and tail
formation.
Meteoroids, Meteors and Meteorites
are found around Earth. Meteors are actually
small bits of rock and/or metal falling into Earth’s atmosphere that heat up due to
friction with the air. We see them as “shooting stars” (of course, they are not stars at
all). A meteoroid is what the rocky object is called before it hits the atmosphere and
becomes a meteor. If the meteoroid is massive enough to have any part of it left
before it hits the Earth’s surface it then becomes a meteorite.
Kuiper Belt
– begins at about orbit of Neptune and extends out to about 100 AU
- this doughnut-shaped belt lies mainly in the planetary or ecliptic plane
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Oort Cloud
– a spherical cloud surrounding solar system, centred on Sun, and
comets from this region come into solar system from all directions; extends from the
outer part of the Kuiper belt to about halfway to nearest stars
Half-Life
– the time it takes for half of the atoms to decay in a radioactive element
- it appears that our solar system formed about 4.6 billion years ago
Summary
Planet
Orbital Radius
(AU)
Mercury
0.39
Venus
0.72
Earth
1.0
Mars
1.52
Jupiter
5.2
Saturn
9.54
Uranus
19.2
Neptune
30.1
Galactic Recycling Process
– when stars die, the spew out their mass into the
universe and the next generation of stars contains some of these heavier elements
and, in the process of formation, make some new ones of their own
As the nebula started to contract around its centre, collapsing under its own gravity
to something around 200 AU in diameter,
three
things occurred:
1.
Temperature Increased
2.
Nebular Rotation Rate Increased
3.
Nebular Sphere Flattens to Disk
Eventually as we move away from the Sun, the temperature drops to the freezing
point for water (273K) signifying a special point known as the
ice
or
frost line
.
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Beyond the frost line, gaseous compounds such as ammonia and methane can
condense to form ice flakes that formed the basis for the Jovian planets.
Condensation
– adding one atom or molecule at a time
Accretion
– small flakes of metal and rocks stick together by being closer to each
other
•
in the inner solar system, where only metal and rocks and silicates could
condense, planetesimals were made of rocks and metals and formed the
terrestrial planets — furthermore, as only rocks and metals could condense
the terrestrial planets were rich in these materials.
•
in the outer solar system where ices could condense (it was cold enough)
planetesimals were built of ices and metals and rocks but because ice
derivatives (H, He, methane, ammonia, etc) were more abundant the
planetesimals were based on these materials and collected more material,
becoming larger, forming the Jovian planets.
•
Solar Wind
Once the protosun formed into the Sun that it is today, it generated a continuous
emission of energetic charged particles (electrons, protons, ions) spewing out in all
directions from the Sun.
The formation of the eight planets continued as all of them were bombarded by
asteroids, meteors and comets. The large Jovian planets experienced asteroid
bombardment, but because of their atmospheres, no evidence remains. The
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asteroids in the “belt” between Mars and Jupiter are likely a collection of leftover
planetesimals that never quite made it as another planet.
Planetesimals were likely of two types:
(1) rocky and metallic (much like the inner planets)
(2) ice and hard snow embedded with small amounts of rock/metal (much like core
of the Jovians)
Our Moon may have formed as a result of a collision between Earth and a large,
leftover planetesimal, possibly as big as Mars. The smaller mass results in its
inability to retain any atmosphere.
Two main techniques are used to measure the motion of a star back-and-forth, or
side-to-side, which hare caused by the gravitational tugs of one
or more planets.
a)
The Astrometric Technique
- the use of sensitive
telescopes
b)
Doppler Technique
– the light coming from the star is
tracked using the gravitational tug it exerts on the star
c)
Transit
– as the planet moves in front of its star, the star’s
luminosity dips, and
then returns to its former level when the
transit is complete
Very few planets orbit their parent star with a
greater radius than 5 AU. Many orbits are
quite elliptical.
Planetary Migration
– a scenario which
allows the formation of Jovian planets at
expected distances from the star (beyond the frost line) followed by a migration into
an orbit which brings the planet closer to the home star
Encounters and Resonances
– a situation where a planet interacts gravitationally
with other planets, essentially a re-arrangement of the solar system objects
Mars has 2 small moons and Jupiter has over 60.
Module 4 Notes
a) Mercury
- moderately high orbital eccentricity (0.206) meaning its orbit is observably elliptic
- orbital inclination is also high (7 degrees), greater than all others except Pluto
- rotational axis tilt is 0 degrees; no seasons on Mercury
- orbital period: 88 days, synodic period of 116 days (time between successive conjunctions
with Earth)
- solar day of 176 Earth days
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The two
elongations
, eastern and western, are the greatest
angular positions the inner planet ever has with respect to
Earth. The two
conjunctions
, superior and inferior, refer
to when Mercury is lined up with the Earth and the Sun.
When the order is Earth-Sun-Mercury, we have a superior
conjunction and when Mercury is between the Sun and
Earth, we have an inferior conjunction. We might see a
solar transit during an inferior conjunction.
- not tidally locked to the Sun; rotates one and a half times
during each orbit
- a solar day on Mercury (sun rise to sun rise) is 176 Earth days long (rotates very slowly)
- about 61% iron and has an iron core about 75% of the radius of the planet
- surface has craters everywhere
- very thin atmosphere, too small to retain any gas
- the iron core makes up about 42% of its volume, magnetic field is similar to Earth’s in
shape but only about 1% as strong
- Mariner 10 visited Mercury in the 70s, but it is very difficult to explore due to high
temperatures
b) Venus
- orbital eccentricity of 0.0068, almost a perfect circle; greatest elongation is 47 degrees
away from Sun
- brightest object in sky other than Sun and Moon; 16x brighter than any star because it is
close to the Sun, close to Earth, relatively large (about same as Earth), and its albedo is 0.59
- during an inferior conjunction, it is possible to have a solar transit of Venus
- Venus’ rotation is retrograde; it rotates backwards very slowly
- sidereal day that is 243 Earth days, orbital period 224.7 days, and solar day of 117 Earth
days
- axial tilt is 177.4 degrees; north pole points downward; rotational axis of 2.6 degrees (no
seasons)
- 740 K - dry, hot, uninhabitable desert, two large highland features: Ishtar Terra and
Aphrodite Terra
- no tectonic activity, evidence of volcanic activity, erosion, no current bombardment
- atmosphere is 90 times as dense as Earths, lots of CO
2
and water vapour in atmosphere
- greenhouse effect causes there to be no water
- no magnetic field due to slow rotation; no protection from solar wind generates thick
atmosphere
c) Earth
- orbit is almost circular (e = 0.017)
- average distance from Sun is 1 AU, takes 365.25 days to orbit the Sun
- rotational axis inclined at 23.5 degrees causing seasons
- slightly bigger than Venus, radius of almost 6400km
- average surface temperature is 9 degrees Celsius; range is 60 to -90 degrees Celsius
- one natural satellite, the Moon, which orbits Earth in 29.5 days (solar period)
- atmosphere of nitrogen and has a magnetic field
- core is surrounded by a molten shell, thick mantle, and a thin crust
- lithosphere is about 100km thick, covered with liquid water (75%) and solid land mass
(25%)
- two main seismic waves are p-waves (primary) which are pressure waves and s-waves
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(secondary) which are shear waves; solid inner core of radius 1300km surrounded by
3500km molten outer core
- centre is around 6,000K, rich in nickel and iron
- crust consists of granite and rocks, upper mantle largely iron-magnesium-silicate mixture
- changing surface due to volcanic activity, plate tectonics and erosion
- melting point within the mantle is well above the actual temperature, so mantle is solid
- continental drifts causes plates to move slowly forming mountains, ocean ridges, new land
- atmosphere is unique, 77% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 1% argon, some water and carbon
dioxide
- temperature is cool enough to allow water vapour to condense as rain
- CO
2
dissolves in water so oceans hold some of it and rainfall carries minerals from
rocks/land into the ocean which react with dissolved CO
2
to form carbonate minerals which
fall to ocean floor
- oxygen originally built up in atmosphere when only planets existed and few animals used
it up
- very strong magnetic field resulting “magnetosphere” extending beyond the atmosphere
- at 3000 and 20,000km above Earth’s surface are two zones of trapped, charged, high-
energy particles called the
Van Allen belts
surrounding the Earth centred on the magnetic
equator; particles are from solar wind and these belts protect life on Earth from the harmful
effects of the solar wind particles
- aurora borealis in the North and aurora australis in the South are caused by these particles
d) The Moon
- average distance from Earth to Moon is 384,400 km
- sidereal period is 27.3 days, but takes 29.53 days to move through phases due to Earth’s
orbit
- tipped at 6.7 degrees, size is 0.27 of Earth
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- large dark areas on the surface are called
maria
, and lighter-coloured regions are called
highlands
- the lunar highlands are covered with hundreds of craters
- large water ice deposits near both poles have been detected, which likely came from
meteoroids
- largest crater in Solar System discovered on far side of the moon, 2500km wide, Aitken
Basin
- Neil Armstrong set foot on the Moon on July 20, 1969
- virtually no atmosphere, low escape speed so any gas molecules eventually leave
- no erosion and no tectonic action so surface changes very, very slowly
- no global magnetic field
-
large impact hypothesis
theory imagines a collision between a very young, molten Earth
and a large, Mars-like object where debris particles in a ring began to accelerate into larger
bodies
- plans exist to establish human colonies on the Moon for further exploration, mining, and
scientific research
e) Mars
- average orbital radius of about 1.5 AU with a relatively large eccentricity
- fairly bright but less than Venus due to smaller size, distance from Sun and lower albedo of
0.15
- rotation is similar to Earth’s, around 24.6 hours, and tipped at about 24 degrees resulting
in seasons
- radius about 50% of Earth and mass about 10% but with a density 70% of Earth
- polar ice caps made of CO
2
or dry ice, NOT water, although water ice below surface of poles
- huge volcanoes (largest in solar system), deep canyons, huge dune fields
- lava flows in the north, Tharsis bulge contains volcanoes, Valles Marinis canyon rises
10km high than any other part of planet, Olympus Mons (largest volcanoe) is 600km in
diameter and rises 21km
- no tectonic activity, volcanoes are inactive
- the Vallex Marineris canyon was formed when the planet’s surface bulged out under the
forces of crustal formation, is about 4000 km long, 120km across at widest point, 7km deep
in some areas
- the canyon was NOT created by water flow or tectonics but rather by heat conduction
forces
- two Mars rovers called Spirit and Opportunity (which is still functioning)
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- significant evidence of previous presence of water on Mars
- very thin atmosphere with a pressure of about 1/150 that of Earth consisting of mostly
carbon
dioxide (95.3%) and other gases
- "Mars apparently was once a world with pleasant
temperatures and streams, rain, glaciers, lakes and
possibly oceans. It had all the necessities for life as we
know it. But the once hospitable planet turned into a
frozen and barren desert at least 3 billion years ago, and
it is unlikely that Mars will ever be warm enough for its
frozen water to flow again. If life once existed on Mars,
it is either extinct or hidden away in a few choice
locations, such as hot springs around not-quite-dormant
volcanoes. As we think about the possibility of future
climate change on Earth, Mars presents us with an
ominous example of how much things can change."
- no magnetic field although there likely was once a field generated by moving, liquid, iron
core
- Mars has two small moons: Phobos and Deimos; only few km across and gravity too low
for them to by spherical (Phobos orbits in 7 hours and 39 minutes and Deimos around three
days)
- Mars radius is about 3400km, Phobos orbits 9378km from center and Deimos 22460km
- the moons may be captured asteroids or have formed from interplanetary debris during
formation
f) Jovian Planets – Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune
- Jupiter, the largest, could hold 1400 Earths, Neptune, the smallest, could hold 50 Earths
- they all have rings, they have many moons (Jupiter over 60), composition of H and He (gas
and liquid)
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- they have huge atmospheres surrounding relatively small rocky cores
- not perfectly spherical but flattened somewhat at poles due to fast rotation
- Obliquity, the inclination of a planet’s equator to its orbital plane, is minimal for Jupiter (3
degrees) resulting in no seasons; tilt for Uranus is 98 degrees means it rotates backwards
- generate more radiation than they receive from the Sun
- temperature increases rapidly along with the
pressure and density as one descends into Jupiter
which quickly becomes liquid H and then an even
more compact form becoming metallic H (a
conductor), which when combined with Jupiter’s
rapid rotation generates a large magnetic field
- central core is a mixture of hydrogen, rock and
metals
- more mass would make Jupiter smaller as it
results in a greater gravitational field
- Saturn is almost as big but only 1/3 the mass and
low density such that it would float in water
- cores are all about 10 Earth masses
Jupiter’s Atmosphere
- 75% H, 24% He, 1% Hydrogen compounds (which make the planet visible)
- cloud layers have different compositions which create alternating zones and belts
resulting in
Jupiter’s colourful appearance
- the bands of rising air are zones and appear white because of ammonia clouds
- the adjacent bands of falling air are belts which are transparent
- the rising zones and falling belts result from pressure differences between regions
- Great Red Spot is a long-lived high-pressure storm wider than two Earths
Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune’s Atmosphere
- Saturn’s more subdued yellows, reds and tans come from the same compounds on Jupiter;
however, a lower temperature and deeper cloud layers result in a “washing out” of distinct
colour variations
- Uranus and Neptune are distinctly blue from the methane (20x more than on
Jupiter/Saturn) which form in icy flakes in the upper clouds
- all Jovian planets have weather patterns with storms and winds; greatest speeds on Saturn
- Neptune has one high-pressure storm seen as the Great Dark Spot
Magnetic Fields
- all Jovian planets have substantial magnetic fields and magnetospheres
- Jupiter’s magnetic field is about 20,000 times stronger than Earth’s so its magnetosphere
deflects the solar wind 3M km before it even reaches Jupiter
- other planetary magnetospheres are smaller with Saturn's generated by its thinner layer
of metallic hydrogen, and Uranus' and Neptune's magnetic fields generated by their cores as
they have no metallic hydrogen layers
Jovian Moons and Rings
- more than 150 moons orbit the four Jovian planets
- classified as small (<300km in diameter), medium (300-1500km) and large (>1500km)
- most are categorized as small and are irregular in shape because gravity is too small to
force them into a spherical shape; many also have unusual orbits and some even revolve
backwards
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- most medium/large moons are spherical and some have atmospheres, hot interiors,
magnetic fields
- impact cratering has occurred on most moons, volcanism is present on some along with
tectonics
Galilean Moons of Jupiter
a) Io – most volcanically active object in the solar system with 300 active volcanoes
continually repaving the surface; a 400,000 volt potential exists across the surface resulting
in a 5M amp current
b) Europa – the smoothest body in the solar system, completely covered by water ice a few
km thick
- lines covering the surface are fractures in the ice surface caused by tidal forces of
Jupiter/other moons
c) Ganymede – largest moon in the solar system, similar in appearance to Callisto having
impact craters
- both reveal the effect of tectonic action early in its formation; covered with an icy shield
Moons of Saturn
a) Titan - atmosphere is 90% N (only world besides Earth where N is the dominant gas)
- almost as large as Mars; hydrocarbon gases result in a greenhouse effect, cold -180
degrees C
- few craters on surface, evidence for ice volcanoes, seasonal variations with wind speeds
- wide variety of hydrocarbon molecules in the upper atmosphere
b) Enceladus – active geologically; energy, organics, liquid water are present
- unknown if life forms are contained in the deep oceans of water under the icy surface
Moons of Uranus
- small and numerous; largest are likely composed of ice and rock
- Miranda is heavily cratered but unlike any other moon with its ridges, cliffs and valleys
Moons of Neptune
- Triton has a retrograde orbit inclined at 20 degrees
- surface temperature of 37 K and a surface of water ice
Total Moons: Earth – 1, Mars – 2, Jupiter – 67, Saturn – 62, Uranus – 27, Neptune – 13
Jovian Moons and Rings
- rings of Saturn: A ring, B ring, C ring; small cap near edge of A ring is called Encke gap
- particles making up rings vary in size from mere dust to boulder-sized water ice chunks
- any ring particles that stray from circular orbits get nudged or pushed back into orbit by
adjacent ring objects to maintain the ring structure
- rings begin at about 10,000 km from Saturn’s surface out to 420,000 km
- rings are no thicker than 100 meters
- critical distance inside which the moon is broken apart is known as the
tidal stability limit
or
Roche
limit; Roche limit is about 2.4 times the radius of the planet
- ring particles are constantly falling into the parent planet as the upper atmosphere
extends into the ring system; rings get replenished with new particles
Some rings are so well-defined in space because of the influence of small moons that orbit
on either side of it and are known as Shepherd moons.
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g) Pluto
- if classified as a planet, it is the smallest, lightest, and furthest from the Sun
- widely accepted as a Kuiper Belt Object (KBO), one of the biggest and closest to Sun as a
KBO
- orbit is highly eccentric and event spends 20 out of 250 year orbit inside orbit of Neptune
- Pluto’s moon, Charon, is about half the size of Pluto
- Charon’s orbit is fairly close to Pluto, <20,000km
- rotates backwards
- surface of Pluto is methane ice w/ CO and nitrogen ice
- thin atmosphere of nitrogen, surface temperature
decreases to less than 40 K when it moves far from Sun
causing nitrogen to freeze out on Pluto’s surface
Other Kuiper Belt Objects Including Eris
- Eris has a planet size of about
2700km in diameter with a
composition similar to Pluto
- distance from Sun is 97AU and
has a moon
- many KBOs have orbits close to
Neptune’s orbit; known objects in
the Kuiper belt are shown in the
picture below with a gap at the
bottom due to obscuration by the
band of the Milky Way
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1
0 / 1 point
Which of the following statements is
not
an observed pattern of motion in our solar system?
Most planets orbit at the same speed.
All planets orbit the Sun in the same direction.
Most planetary orbits lie nearly in the same plane.
Almost all moons orbit their planet in the same direction as the
planet's rotation.
Most planets rotate in the same direction in which they orbit.
Question 2
0 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about the Jovian planets is
not
true?
The outermost Jovian planet, Uranus, is also the least massive.
The largest Jovian planet is Jupiter.
Together, Jupiter and Saturn have over 100 moons.
All the Jovian planets have ring systems.
Saturn is the least dense planet, having a density less than
water.
Question 3
1 / 1 point
Rank the following planets in order of size from the smallest to the largest.
Mars, Mercury, Earth, Saturn, Uranus
Mars, Mercury, Earth, Saturn, Uranus
Uranus, Mars, Mercury, Earth, Saturn
Mercury, Mars, Earth, Uranus, Saturn
Mercury, Mars, Uranus, Saturn, Earth
Question 4
0 / 1 point
According to our theory of solar system formation, what is the origin of asteroids and comets?
Asteroids and comets are both leftover planetesimals that
formed between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.
Asteroids are the leftover planetesimals of the inner solar
system, and comets are the leftover planetesimals that formed
beyond the frost line.
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Asteroids are chunks of pure metal that condensed in the solar
nebula, and comets are chunks of pure rock that condensed in
the solar nebula.
Asteroids are the remains of a terrestrial planet that shattered,
and comets are the remains of a jovian planet that shattered.
Asteroids and comets represent material from interstellar space
that was captured in the solar nebula by gravity.
Question 5
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about the moons of the solar system is
false
?
Earth has one moon, named Moon, and no rings that we know
of.
All planets have moons except Mercury.
Moons vary in size from quite small to the largest, Ganymede,
which is just over 2600 km in radius.
Jupiter has the most moons in our solar system.
Mars has two small moons which are irregularly-shaped (not
round).
Question 6
0 / 1 point
Which of the following characteristics of the Jovian planets is (are) correct?
A)
They have varying sizes; Jupiter is one size, Neptune about
half as big and Mercury is quite small.
B)
They are relatively large, low density objects with solid
surfaces.
C)
They are closer to the Sun than the terrestrial planets; that's
why we can see them at night.
D)
Both A and B are correct.
E)
None of A, B or C are correct.
Question 7
1 / 1 point
What is the origin of the atoms of hydrogen, oxygen and sodium in the perspiration that exits your
body during this astronomy test?
The hydrogen nuclei were produced a few minutes after the big
bang event 13.8 billion years ago; the oxygen and sodium nuclei
were synthesized inside stars more than 4.6 billion years ago.
They were synthesized during the early stages of the Sun's
formation and spewed out from the Sun through the solar wind
and our planet, Earth, simply intercepted them.
All of these elements were produced in the first few minutes
after the big bang event.
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They were all fused deep inside Earth.
All of these elements were synthesized inside stars more than
4.6 billion years ago.
Question 8
1 / 1 point
Which of the following is
not
characteristic of the terrestrial planets?
They are relatively smaller than the jovian planets.
They all have solid surfaces.
They have higher densities than the jovian planets
They have more moons than the jovian planets.
They are more closely spaced together than the jovian planets.
Question 9
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about meteorites is
true
?
A meteorite is the same thing as an asteroid.
Meteorites are often called "shooting stars" when they are seen
as flashes of light across the sky at night.
A meteorite becomes a meteoroid once it hits the Earth's
surface.
A meteorite is what's left of a meteor when it hits the Earth's
surface.
A meteorite is the same thing as a meteoroid.
Question 10
1 / 1 point
Ring systems around planets are:
fairly rare; just Saturn has rings.
quite common; all planets have them.
fairly rare; just Venus and Saturn have them.
quite common among terrestrial planets.
quite common among the large, gas planets; all Jovian planets
have them.
Question 11
1 / 1 point
We have determined the age of the solar system through:
A)
taking measurements of tree rings.
B)
radioactive dating.
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C)
the study of rocks and the determination of their
composition.
D)
the analysis of the sand on various beaches around the
Earth.
E)
all of A, B, C and D.
Question 12
1 / 1 point
What is a comet?
It's a brand of bathroom cleanser!
It's just an asteroid that has come too close to the Sun.
The nucleus of a comet is a collection of various ices mixed
with dust and tiny bits of rocky debris.
It has no core but has two beautiful wispy tails which always
point to the Sun as it goes through the inner solar system.
It's an asteroid that has been shot out from the Asteroid Belt
because of the influences of Jupiter.
Question 13
1 / 1 point
When we examine of the types of planets making up the solar system we notice the following:
there seems to be no general category of planets; each is unique and there
are very few similarities among them.
all planets making up the solar system are like Pluto.
there are two types of planets: terrestrial and Jovian.
there is just one type of planet: round, small and rocky.
there are three types of planets: terrestrial, Jovian and small snowballs.
Group B
14
0 / 1 point
The terrestrial planets and the giant Jovian planets have different compositions because
the terrestrial planets are closer to the Sun.
the Jovians are much larger.
the terrestrial planets have few moons.
the giant Jovian planets are made mostly of solids.
the Jovian planets are closer to the Sun.
Question 15
1 / 1 point
About how much of the solar nebula consisted of elements heavier than hydrogen and helium?
10% by mass.
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50% by mass.
98% by mass.
2% by mass.
25% by mass.
Question 16
1 / 1 point
What constitutes the solar wind?
A)
It's very similar to the wind here on Earth which is merely
the moving around of atmospheric gases.
B)
It is the continuous stream of hot air being released by the
fusion process deep inside the Sun.
C)
It's the continuous emission of charged particles (electrons,
protons, etc.) from the solar surface.
D)
The solar wind in not constant but happens in spurts
especially during the time of coronal mass ejections from
sunspots.
E)
It is a combination of both A and B.
Question 17
0 / 1 point
How were the moons of the Jovian planets most likely formed?
Probably through the same process as the planets themselves
formed.
Most likely by gravitationally attracting asteroids as a
protoplanet might form.
Most of the solar system's moons initially formed around
Jupiter which were then ejected by Jupiter toward other planets
which eventually captured them.
Early in their formation the planets spun wildly and flung off
chunks of themselves which coalesced as moons.
They were all formed in the Asteroid Belt between Venus and
Jupiter and through BB (Belt Benevolence) they got distributed
among the Jovian planets.
Question 18
0 / 1 point
The sticking together of small but solid particles is an important feature of the solar nebular theory.
What is this process known as?
Gluons
Gravitational collapse.
Condensation
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Differentiation
Accretion
Question 19
1 / 1 point
What was the frost line of the solar system?
the distance from the Sun beyond which temperatures were
low enough for hydrogen compounds and methane to condense
into ices, between the present-day orbits of Mars and Jupiter
the distance from the Sun beyond which temperatures were
low enough for rocks to condense, between the present-day
orbits of Mercury and Venus
the distance from the Sun beyond which temperatures were
low enough for metals to condense, between the Sun and the
present-day orbit of Mercury
the distance from the Sun beyond which temperatures were
low enough for asteroids to form, between the present-day
orbits of Venus and Earth
the distance from the Sun beyond which temperatures were
low enough for hydrogen and helium to condense, between the
present-day orbits of Jupiter and Saturn
Question 20
0 / 1 point
What is differentiation in planetary geology?
any process by which one part of a planet's surface evolves
differently from another part of the same planet's surface
the process by which gravity separates materials according to
density
any process by which a planet's surface evolves differently
from another planet's surface
any process by which a planet evolves differently from its
moons
the process by which different types of minerals form a
conglomerate rock
Question 21
1 / 1 point
According to our theory of solar system formation, why does the Sun rotate slowly today?
The Sun once rotated much faster, but it transferred angular
momentum to charged particles caught in its magnetic field
and then blew the particles away with its strong solar wind.
The Sun once rotated much faster, but it lost angular
momentum because everything slows down with time.
The Sun once rotated much faster, but it lost angular
momentum due to internal friction.
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The Sun once rotated much faster, but it transferred angular
momentum to planets and other objects during close
encounters.
The Sun was born rotating slowly because the solar nebula had
very little angular momentum.
Question 22
0 / 1 point
The first solid grains or flakes formed in our solar system by the process of ________ , the addition
of material to an object an atom or molecule at a time.
Hydration
Vapourization
Condensation
Accretion
Sublimation
Question 23
1 / 1 point
The nebular theory of formation of the solar system successfully predict ts all but one of the
following. Which one does the theory
not
predict?
Asteroids, Kuiper-belt objects and comets.
The compositional differences between terrestrial and Jovian
planets.
The craters on the Moon.
The equal number of terrestrial and Jovian planets.
Planets orbit around the Sun in nearly circular orbits in a
flattened disk.
Question 24
1 / 1 point
Which of the following is most likely to describe a comet, but not an asteroid?
Comets reside with similar bodies in a sparsely populated belt.
Comets are partially but not totally composed of rocks and
metals.
Comets are mainly composed of ice and snow with some dust
and rocky bits.
Comets are leftover planetesimals from the time when the
planets were formed.
There really is no difference between a comet and an asteroid.
Question 25
0 / 1 point
What is a planetesimal?
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An object that is in orbit around a planet.
One of the larger planets in the solar system.
A rogue planet moving around in the solar system not attached
to any particular planet.
A smaller building block of planets.
A smaller building block of a protostar.
Question 26
1 / 1 point
Atmospheres formed around some terrestrial planets because
A)
outgassing through volcanic activity plus a strong enough
gravity kept the gas from escaping into space
B)
their gravity was great enough to capture atoms and
molecules floating around in the solar nebula
C)
radioactivity from surface rocks produced oxygen and
carbon dioxide in sufficient quantities to build up an
atmosphere
D)
human activity produces carbon dioxide and plants produce
oxygen which are the main constituents of an atmosphere
E)
all of A, B, C and D.
Question 27
1 / 1 point
What is meant by the period of heavy bombardment?
During the second world war London, England was heavily bombed by the
German Airforce.
During the 500-700 million years of the solar system existence there were
plenty of larger objects roaming around in the solar disk. These larger
objects constantly bombarded the terrestrial objects building up their
surfaces and often leaving large craters that still exist today.
Throughout the solar system's existence the Jovian planets especially have
been bombarded with rogue asteroids leaving scars on their surfaces.
It refers to a particularly interesting period about 65 millions years ago
when so many asteroid hit Earth that many animal species, including the
dinosaurs, were wiped out.
It refers to a period of human history known as the Dark Ages when many
people died from being hit by the constant rain of meteors from the Kuiper
Belt.
Group C
28
1 / 1 point
What is so special about a star known as 51 Pegasi?
It was the first star found with a planet orbiting it that is known
to support intelligent life.
It is the largest known white dwarf star.
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It was the first star found with multiple planets orbiting it.
It is the first main sequence star (stars like our Sun) found to
have a planet orbiting it.
It is a pulsar with planets orbiting around it.
Question 29
0 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about exoplanets is true?
The large majority of confirmed exoplanets orbit their stars at
radii less than 5 AU.
No planets have been found orbiting their stars at radii less
than Mercury's orbital radius.
A considerable number of exoplanets seem to have orbits that
are quite elliptical.
All of A, B and C are true.
Only A and C are true.
Question 30
0 / 1 point
Which statement best describes the astrometric technique for finding exoplanets?
Observing the slight shifting of the frequency of the light as the
star wobbles back and forth in space due to an exoplanet
orbiting it.
Observing the slight dip in the brightness of a star as the
planet moves across it's face.
Observing the slight side-to-side movement of the star in space
caused by an exoplanet orbiting it.
Observing the gravitational effects the orbiting exoplanet has
on other nearby stars.
Actually seeing the exoplanet orbiting the star through our
more powerful telescopes.
Question 31
0 / 1 point
Which statement best describes the direct detection technique for finding exoplanets?
Observing the slight shifting of the frequency of the light as the
star wobbles back and forth in space due to an exoplanet
orbiting it.
Actually seeing the exoplanet orbiting the star through our
more powerful telescopes.
Observing the slight side-to-side movement of the star in space
caused by an exoplanet orbiting it.
Observing the slight dip in the brightness of a star as the
planet moves across it's face.
Observing the gravitational effects the orbiting exoplanet has
on other nearby stars.
Question 32
1 / 1 point
What is an exoplanet moon?
It is an object orbiting a Kuiper Belt object.
It is an object orbiting an exostar.
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It is an object orbiting an exoplanet just as our Moon orbits
Earth.
It is an object orbiting an object other than Earth in our own
solar system.
So far we have not detected any exoplanet moons so they
don't exist.
Question 33
1 / 1 point
Which statement best describes the transit method of discovering exoplanets?
Measuring the size of the star around which the exoplanet is
orbiting.
Measuring the Doppler shift of a star as it orbits its combined
centre of mass with an exoplanet.
Measuring the distance a star wobbles on the sky as it is
tugged in its orbit by an exoplanet.
Taking a photograph of planets around a star through a
telescope that can block the light of the star.
Measuring the periodic dimming of light as an exoplanet
crosses in front of the star.
Question 34
1 / 1 point
Which statement best describes the Doppler technique for finding exoplanets?
Actually seeing the exoplanet orbiting the star through our
more powerful telescopes.
Observing the slight dip in the brightness of a star as the
planet moves across it's face.
Observing the slight side-to-side movement of the star in space
caused by an exoplanet orbiting it.
Observing the gravitational effects the orbiting exoplanet has
on other nearby stars.
Observing the slight shifting of the frequency of the light as the
star wobbles back and forth in space due to an exoplanet
orbiting it.
Question 35
1 / 1 point
What is an extrasolar planet?
A planet that is considered an "extra" in that it was not needed
for the formation of its solar system.
A planet that is larger than the Sun.
A planet that is found orbiting another planet outside our solar
system.
A planet that is extra large compared to what we would expect.
A planet that orbits a star that is not our Sun.
Question 36
1 / 1 point
Which of the following space telescope missions was dedicated entirely to discovering exoplanets?
Casinni.
Spitzer.
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Hubble.
Apollo.
Kepler.
Question 37
1 / 1 point
Why would a star continuously wobble back-and-forth in space?
Because of air currents in the atmosphere surrounding it
Because it is undergoing precession
Because the nebula it formed out of collided with a supernova
shockwave
Because it had too much to drink
Because it is revolving around a common centre of mass with
other planets
Question 38
1 / 1 point
What is the name of the exoplanet that has been found that is closest to our solar system?
Fomalhaut b
Alpha Centauri Bb
Rigel
Kepler 56c
Sirius
Question 39
1 / 1 point
What does the exoplanet descriptor "hot Jupiter" mean?
It's an exoplanet jult like Jupiter but orbiting much closer to its
sun than 5 AU.
It's an exoplanet the same size as Jupiter but with an extensive
ring system.
It's the latest fast car made by Toyota having Jupiter as its
model name.
It's an exoplanet just like Jupiter but orbiting much further
away from its sun than 5 AU.
It's any exoplanet orbiting around a much bigger star than our
Sun.
Question 40
0 / 1 point
Which of the following techniques has so far yielded the fewest detections of an exoplanet?
Transit method.
Astrometric method.
Direct Detection.
Doppler technique
Gravitational lensing.
1
1 / 1 point
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Rank the following planets in order of size from the smallest to the largest.
Mars, Mercury, Earth, Saturn, Uranus
Mercury, Mars, Uranus, Saturn, Earth
Mercury, Mars, Earth, Uranus, Saturn
Uranus, Mars, Mercury, Earth, Saturn
Mars, Mercury, Earth, Saturn, Uranus
Question 2
1 / 1 point
According to our theory of solar system formation, what is the origin of asteroids and comets?
Asteroids are chunks of pure metal that condensed in the solar
nebula, and comets are chunks of pure rock that condensed in
the solar nebula.
Asteroids are the leftover planetesimals of the inner solar
system, and comets are the leftover planetesimals that formed
beyond the frost line.
Asteroids are the remains of a terrestrial planet that shattered,
and comets are the remains of a jovian planet that shattered.
Asteroids and comets represent material from interstellar space
that was captured in the solar nebula by gravity.
Asteroids and comets are both leftover planetesimals that
formed between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.
Question 3
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about the moons of the solar system is
false
?
Jupiter has the most moons in our solar system.
All planets have moons except Mercury.
Mars has two small moons which are irregularly-shaped (not
round).
Earth has one moon, named Moon, and no rings that we know
of.
Moons vary in size from quite small to the largest, Ganymede,
which is just over 2600 km in radius.
Question 4
1 / 1 point
The age of our solar system is approximately
10,000 years.
13.8 billion years.
4.6 billion years.
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4.6 million years.
13.8 million years.
Question 5
0 / 1 point
The rotation (daily spin) of the planets are:
All in the same direction (with the exception of Venus and
Neptune)
All in the same direction (with the exception of Mercury)
All in the same direction (counter clockwise as seen from above
the system)
All in the same direction (clockwise as seen from above the
system)
All in the same direction (with the exception of Venus and
Uranus)
Question 6
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about comets is
true
?
We are not really sure what they are made of because we can't
get close enough to one, even with unmanned spacecraft, to
determine their makeup.
Comets have a relatively small nucleus (normally less than 10
km in diameter) that develop debris tails as they get close to the
Sun.
Comets have a relatively small nucleus and never visit the inner
solar system more than once because they burn out completely
as they get close to the Sun (Halley's comet is an exception)
Comets have a small nucleus with tails that always exist, even
when they are at home in the Kuiper Belt.
Comets have a relatively small nucleus (normally larger than
100 km wide) that develop just one debris tail as they get into
the inner part of the solar system.
Question 7
1 / 1 point
Ring systems around planets are:
fairly rare; just Saturn has rings.
quite common among the large, gas planets; all Jovian planets
have them.
quite common among terrestrial planets.
quite common; all planets have them.
fairly rare; just Venus and Saturn have them.
Question 8
1 / 1 point
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Which of the following is
not
characteristic of the terrestrial planets?
They are more closely spaced together than the jovian planets.
They all have solid surfaces.
They have higher densities than the jovian planets
They are relatively smaller than the jovian planets.
They have more moons than the jovian planets.
Question 9
1 / 1 point
Which of the following characteristics of the Jovian planets is (are) correct?
A)
They have varying sizes; Jupiter is one size, Neptune about
half as big and Mercury is quite small.
B)
They are relatively large, low density objects with solid
surfaces.
C)
They are closer to the Sun than the terrestrial planets;
that's why we can see them at night.
D)
Both A and B are correct.
E)
None of A, B or C are correct.
Question 10
1 / 1 point
When we examine of the types of planets making up the solar system we notice the following:
there seems to be no general category of planets; each is
unique and there are very few similarities among them.
there are two types of planets: terrestrial and Jovian.
there is just one type of planet: round, small and rocky.
there are three types of planets: terrestrial, Jovian and small
snowballs.
all planets making up the solar system are like Pluto.
Question 11
0 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about meteorites is
true
?
Meteorites are often called "shooting stars" when they are seen
as flashes of light across the sky at night.
A meteorite is the same thing as an asteroid.
A meteorite becomes a meteoroid once it hits the Earth's
surface.
A meteorite is what's left of a meteor when it hits the Earth's
surface.
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A meteorite is the same thing as a meteoroid.
Question 12
1 / 1 point
Where are most of the known asteroids found?
between Mars and Jupiter.
in the Oort Cloud.
in the Kuiper Belt.
between Jupiter and Saturn.
between Mercury and Venus.
Question 13
1 / 1 point
We have determined the age of the solar system through:
A)
taking measurements of tree rings.
B)
radioactive dating.
C)
the study of rocks and the determination of their composition.
D)
the analysis of the sand on various beaches around the Earth.
E)
all of A, B, C and D.
Group B
14
0 / 1 point
The first solid grains or flakes formed in our solar system by the process of ________ , the addition
of material to an object an atom or molecule at a time.
Vapourization
Sublimation
Hydration
Accretion
Condensation
Question 15
0 / 1 point
According to our theory of solar system formation, what is Pluto?
Pluto is a terrestrial planet that was shot out from the inner
solar system to its present location as the most distant planet.
Pluto is simply an oddball planet, and thus represents one of
the "exceptions" that the nebular theory cannot explain.
Pluto is one of the largest of the Kuiper belt objects.
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Pluto is a terrestrial planet that happened to form at a large
distance from the Sun.
Pluto is a very small jovian planet.
Question 16
1 / 1 point
According to our theory of solar system formation, why does the Sun rotate slowly today?
The Sun was born rotating slowly because the solar nebula had
very little angular momentum.
The Sun once rotated much faster, but it transferred angular
momentum to planets and other objects during close
encounters.
The Sun once rotated much faster, but it transferred angular
momentum to charged particles caught in its magnetic field
and then blew the particles away with its strong solar wind.
The Sun once rotated much faster, but it lost angular
momentum due to internal friction.
The Sun once rotated much faster, but it lost angular
momentum because everything slows down with time.
Question 17
1 / 1 point
Which of the following solar system moons likely formed through the same processes as our solar
system?
A)
The moons of Mars, Phobos and Deimos.
B)
Venus's small moon, Dactyl.
C)
Jupiter's so-called Galilean moons.
D)
Uranus's moon, Triton
E)
All of A, C and D.
Question 18
0 / 1 point
How were the moons of the Jovian planets most likely formed?
They were all formed in the Asteroid Belt between Venus and
Jupiter and through BB (Belt Benevolence) they got distributed
among the Jovian planets.
Most of the solar system's moons initially formed around
Jupiter which were then ejected by Jupiter toward other planets
which eventually captured them.
Most likely by gravitationally attracting asteroids as a
protoplanet might form.
Probably through the same process as the planets themselves
formed.
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Early in their formation the planets spun wildly and flung off
chunks of themselves which coalesced as moons.
Question 19
1 / 1 point
About how much of the solar nebula consisted of elements heavier than hydrogen and helium?
50% by mass.
10% by mass.
2% by mass.
25% by mass.
98% by mass.
Question 20
1 / 1 point
Which of the following is most likely to describe a comet, but not an asteroid?
There really is no difference between a comet and an asteroid.
Comets are mainly composed of ice and snow with some dust
and rocky bits.
Comets reside with similar bodies in a sparsely populated belt.
Comets are leftover planetesimals from the time when the
planets were formed.
Comets are partially but not totally composed of rocks and
metals.
Question 21
1 / 1 point
What is a planetesimal?
A rogue planet moving around in the solar system not attached
to any particular planet.
One of the larger planets in the solar system.
An object that is in orbit around a planet.
A smaller building block of a protostar.
A smaller building block of planets.
Question 22
1 / 1 point
Why did the solar nebula heat up as it collapsed?
Radiation from other nearby stars that had formed earlier
heated the nebula.
Collisions among planetesimals generated friction and heat.
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As the cloud shrank, its gravitational potential energy was
converted to kinetic energy and then into thermal energy.
Nuclear fusion occurring in the core of the protosun produced
energy that heated the nebula.
The shock wave from a nearby supernova heated the gas.
Question 23
1 / 1 point
What was the frost line of the solar system?
the distance from the Sun beyond which temperatures were
low enough for rocks to condense, between the present-day
orbits of Mercury and Venus
the distance from the Sun beyond which temperatures were
low enough for hydrogen compounds and methane to condense
into ices, between the present-day orbits of Mars and Jupiter
the distance from the Sun beyond which temperatures were
low enough for hydrogen and helium to condense, between the
present-day orbits of Jupiter and Saturn
the distance from the Sun beyond which temperatures were
low enough for metals to condense, between the Sun and the
present-day orbit of Mercury
the distance from the Sun beyond which temperatures were
low enough for asteroids to form, between the present-day
orbits of Venus and Earth
Question 24
0 / 1 point
Protoplanets grow into planetesimals by which processes?
A)
Colliding with other protoplanets.
B)
Gravitationally pulling in other protoplanets
C)
Attracting other planetesimals with the same charge.
D)
A combination of A and B.
E)
A combination of A, B and C.
Question 25
1 / 1 point
Why are the inner planets made of denser materials than the outer planets?
In the inner part of the nebula only metals and rocks were able
to condense because of the high temperatures, whereas
hydrogen compounds, although more abundant, were only able
to condense in the cooler outer regions.
The Sun's gravity pulled denser materials toward the inner part
of the solar nebula, while lighter gases escaped more easily.
When the solar nebula formed a disk, materials naturally
segregated into bands, and in our particular solar system the
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denser materials settled nearer the Sun while lighter materials
are found in the outer part.
In the beginning, when the protoplanetary disk was spinning
faster, centrifugal forces flung the lighter materials toward the
outer parts of the solar nebula.
Denser materials were heavier and sank to the centre of the
nebula.
Question 26
1 / 1 point
What is differentiation in planetary geology?
any process by which a planet's surface evolves differently
from another planet's surface
the process by which different types of minerals form a
conglomerate rock
any process by which a planet evolves differently from its
moons
any process by which one part of a planet's surface evolves
differently from another part of the same planet's surface
the process by which gravity separates materials according to
density
Question 27
0 / 1 point
The nebular theory of formation of the solar system successfully predict ts all but one of the
following. Which one does the theory
not
predict?
The compositional differences between terrestrial and Jovian planets.
Asteroids, Kuiper-belt objects and comets.
The equal number of terrestrial and Jovian planets.
Planets orbit around the Sun in nearly circular orbits in a flattened disk.
The craters on the Moon.
Group C
28
0 / 1 point
Which statement best describes the Doppler technique for finding exoplanets?
Observing the gravitational effects the orbiting exoplanet has
on other nearby stars.
Observing the slight side-to-side movement of the star in space
caused by an exoplanet orbiting it.
Observing the slight shifting of the frequency of the light as the
star wobbles back and forth in space due to an exoplanet
orbiting it.
Actually seeing the exoplanet orbiting the star through our
more powerful telescopes.
Observing the slight dip in the brightness of a star as the
planet moves across it's face.
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Question 29
1 / 1 point
Which statement best describes the transit method of discovering exoplanets?
Measuring the size of the star around which the exoplanet is
orbiting.
Measuring the periodic dimming of light as an exoplanet
crosses in front of the star.
Taking a photograph of planets around a star through a
telescope that can block the light of the star.
Measuring the distance a star wobbles on the sky as it is
tugged in its orbit by an exoplanet.
Measuring the Doppler shift of a star as it orbits its combined
centre of mass with an exoplanet.
Question 30
0 / 1 point
What type of exoplanet would you expect to cause the largest Doppler shift in the spectrum of its
star?
A massive planet that is far from its sun.
A massive planet that is close to its sun.
A low-mass planet that is far from its sun.
An average-mass planet that is at an average distance from its
sun.
A low-mass planet that is close to its sun.
Question 31
1 / 1 point
So far, about how many exoplanets have been discovered?
about 4000
around 75
150
700
over 1500
Question 32
1 / 1 point
What is an exoplanet moon?
It is an object orbiting a Kuiper Belt object.
It is an object orbiting an exostar.
It is an object orbiting an object other than Earth in our own
solar system.
So far we have not detected any exoplanet moons so they
don't exist.
It is an object orbiting an exoplanet just as our Moon orbits
Earth.
Question 33
0 / 1 point
Which statement best describes the astrometric technique for finding exoplanets?
Actually seeing the exoplanet orbiting the star through our
more powerful telescopes.
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Observing the slight side-to-side movement of the star in space
caused by an exoplanet orbiting it.
Observing the slight dip in the brightness of a star as the
planet moves across it's face.
Observing the slight shifting of the frequency of the light as the
star wobbles back and forth in space due to an exoplanet
orbiting it.
Observing the gravitational effects the orbiting exoplanet has
on other nearby stars.
Question 34
0 / 1 point
Which of the following techniques has so far yielded the fewest detections of an exoplanet?
Doppler technique
Transit method.
Gravitational lensing.
Astrometric method.
Direct Detection.
Question 35
0 / 1 point
Thinking about our own solar system, which planet will have the greatest effect on the Sun's
movement about the solar system's centre of mass?
Saturn, because of its large ring structure.
Earth, because we live here.
Mars, because it's the red planet.
Mercury, because it is closest to the Sun.
Jupiter, because of its huge mass.
Question 36
1 / 1 point
Why would a star continuously wobble back-and-forth in space?
Because it is revolving around a common centre of mass with
other planets
Because it is undergoing precession
Because it had too much to drink
Because the nebula it formed out of collided with a supernova
shockwave
Because of air currents in the atmosphere surrounding it
Question 37
1 / 1 point
What is an extrasolar planet?
A planet that is larger than the Sun.
A planet that is found orbiting another planet outside our solar
system.
A planet that orbits a star that is not our Sun.
A planet that is extra large compared to what we would expect.
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A planet that is considered an "extra" in that it was not needed
for the formation of its solar system.
Question 38
1 / 1 point
What is the name of the exoplanet that has been found that is closest to our solar system?
Alpha Centauri Bb
Rigel
Fomalhaut b
Sirius
Kepler 56c
Question 39
0 / 1 point
Why is it easier to find exoplanets that are much more massive than the Earth?
Because the solar nebula theory predicts more massive
exoplanets should exist
Because massive exoplanets orbit more slowly
Because they are mainly found around dimmer stars
Because their transits and tugging on their stars are easier to
detect
Because there aren't any exoplanets with masses lower than
Earth
Question 40
1 / 1 point
Which statement best describes the transit technique for finding exoplanets?
Actually seeing the exoplanet orbiting the star through our more powerful
telescopes.
Observing the slight dip in the brightness of a star as the planet moves
across it's face.
Observing the gravitational effects the orbiting exoplanet has on other
nearby stars.
Observing the slight side-to-side movement of the star in space caused by
an exoplanet orbiting it.
Observing the slight shifting of the frequency of the light as the star
wobbles back and forth in space due to an exoplanet orbiting it.
1
0 / 1 point
Where are most of the known asteroids found?
between Jupiter and Saturn.
in the Kuiper Belt.
between Mars and Jupiter.
between Mercury and Venus.
in the Oort Cloud.
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Question 2
1 / 1 point
We have determined the age of the solar system through:
A)
taking measurements of tree rings.
B)
radioactive dating.
C)
the study of rocks and the determination of their
composition.
D)
the analysis of the sand on various beaches around the
Earth.
E)
all of A, B, C and D.
Question 3
1 / 1 point
The age of our solar system is approximately
10,000 years.
4.6 billion years.
13.8 million years.
13.8 billion years.
4.6 million years.
Question 4
1 / 1 point
Ring systems around planets are:
fairly rare; just Venus and Saturn have them.
quite common; all planets have them.
quite common among terrestrial planets.
quite common among the large, gas planets; all Jovian planets
have them.
fairly rare; just Saturn has rings.
Question 5
1 / 1 point
What is the origin of the atoms of hydrogen, oxygen and sodium in the perspiration that exits your
body during this astronomy test?
They were all fused deep inside Earth.
All of these elements were produced in the first few minutes
after the big bang event.
They were synthesized during the early stages of the Sun's
formation and spewed out from the Sun through the solar wind
and our planet, Earth, simply intercepted them.
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The hydrogen nuclei were produced a few minutes after the big
bang event 13.8 billion years ago; the oxygen and sodium nuclei
were synthesized inside stars more than 4.6 billion years ago.
All of these elements were synthesized inside stars more than
4.6 billion years ago.
Question 6
1 / 1 point
Which of the following characteristics of the terrestrial planets is (are) correct?
A)
They are relatively small, low density bodies with solid
surfaces on which to walk.
B)
They are relatively small, high density objects with solid
surfaces on which to walk.
C)
They have varying sizes; Earth is one size but large Jupiter is
also terrestrial and you can walk on its surface.
D)
They are all closer to the Sun than the Jovian planets but
their densities are quite varied with one being less dense
than water.
E)
All of A, B, C and D are correct.
Question 7
1 / 1 point
The rotation (daily spin) of the planets are:
All in the same direction (with the exception of Mercury)
All in the same direction (with the exception of Venus and
Uranus)
All in the same direction (clockwise as seen from above the
system)
All in the same direction (with the exception of Venus and
Neptune)
All in the same direction (counter clockwise as seen from above
the system)
Question 8
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about asteroids is
false
?
An asteroid is just a failed comet.
Asteroids have been found outside the asteroid belt.
Most asteroids have congregated in the asteroid belt between
Mars and Jupiter.
Sometime asteroids enter Earth's atmosphere but most burn up
before they reach Earth's surface.
Some asteroids seem to have originated on Mars.
Question 9
1 / 1 point
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According to our theory of solar system formation, what is the origin of asteroids and comets?
Asteroids are the remains of a terrestrial planet that shattered,
and comets are the remains of a jovian planet that shattered.
Asteroids are the leftover planetesimals of the inner solar
system, and comets are the leftover planetesimals that formed
beyond the frost line.
Asteroids and comets are both leftover planetesimals that
formed between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.
Asteroids are chunks of pure metal that condensed in the solar
nebula, and comets are chunks of pure rock that condensed in
the solar nebula.
Asteroids and comets represent material from interstellar space
that was captured in the solar nebula by gravity.
Question 10
0 / 1 point
Which of the following characteristics of the Jovian planets is (are) correct?
A)
They have varying sizes; Jupiter is one size, Neptune about
half as big and Mercury is quite small.
B)
They are relatively large, low density objects with solid
surfaces.
C)
They are closer to the Sun than the terrestrial planets;
that's why we can see them at night.
D)
Both A and B are correct.
E)
None of A, B or C are correct.
Question 11
1 / 1 point
Which of the following is
not
characteristic of the terrestrial planets?
They have more moons than the jovian planets.
They have higher densities than the jovian planets
They are relatively smaller than the jovian planets.
They all have solid surfaces.
They are more closely spaced together than the jovian planets.
Question 12
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about the moons of the solar system is
false
?
All planets have moons except Mercury.
Jupiter has the most moons in our solar system.
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Earth has one moon, named Moon, and no rings that we know
of.
Mars has two small moons which are irregularly-shaped (not
round).
Moons vary in size from quite small to the largest, Ganymede,
which is just over 2600 km in radius.
Question 13
0 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about comets is
true
?
Comets have a relatively small nucleus and never visit the inner solar
system more than once because they burn out completely as they get close
to the Sun (Halley's comet is an exception)
We are not really sure what they are made of because we can't get close
enough to one, even with unmanned spacecraft, to determine their makeup.
Comets have a relatively small nucleus (normally larger than 100 km wide)
that develop just one debris tail as they get into the inner part of the solar
system.
Comets have a relatively small nucleus (normally less than 10 km in
diameter) that develop debris tails as they get close to the Sun.
Comets have a small nucleus with tails that always exist, even when they
are at home in the Kuiper Belt.
Group B
14
1 / 1 point
What is meant by the period of heavy bombardment?
During the 500-700 million years of the solar system existence
there were plenty of larger objects roaming around in the solar
disk. These larger objects constantly bombarded the terrestrial
objects building up their surfaces and often leaving large
craters that still exist today.
It refers to a particularly interesting period about 65 millions
years ago when so many asteroid hit Earth that many animal
species, including the dinosaurs, were wiped out.
It refers to a period of human history known as the Dark Ages
when many people died from being hit by the constant rain of
meteors from the Kuiper Belt.
Throughout the solar system's existence the Jovian planets
especially have been bombarded with rogue asteroids leaving
scars on their surfaces.
During the second world war London, England was heavily
bombed by the German Airforce.
Question 15
1 / 1 point
Protoplanets grow into planetesimals by which processes?
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A)
Colliding with other protoplanets.
B)
Gravitationally pulling in other protoplanets
C)
Attracting other planetesimals with the same charge.
D)
A combination of A and B.
E)
A combination of A, B and C.
Question 16
1 / 1 point
Which of the following is most likely to describe a comet, but not an asteroid?
Comets are leftover planetesimals from the time when the
planets were formed.
Comets are partially but not totally composed of rocks and
metals.
Comets are mainly composed of ice and snow with some dust
and rocky bits.
Comets reside with similar bodies in a sparsely populated belt.
There really is no difference between a comet and an asteroid.
Question 17
1 / 1 point
The terrestrial planet cores contain mostly metal because
convection carried the metals to the core.
the entire planets are made mostly of metal.
only metals condensed closest to the Sun in the solar nebula
and the rocks then accreted around them as the protoplanets
cooled.
radioactivity created metals in the core from the decay of
uranium.
metals sank to the centre during a time when the interiors
were molten throughout.
Question 18
1 / 1 point
Atmospheres formed around some terrestrial planets because
A)
outgassing through volcanic activity plus a strong enough
gravity kept the gas from escaping into space
B)
their gravity was great enough to capture atoms and
molecules floating around in the solar nebula
C)
radioactivity from surface rocks produced oxygen and
carbon dioxide in sufficient quantities to build up an
atmosphere
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D)
human activity produces carbon dioxide and plants produce
oxygen which are the main constituents of an atmosphere
E)
all of A, B, C and D.
Question 19
1 / 1 point
Why are the inner planets made of denser materials than the outer planets?
In the inner part of the nebula only metals and rocks were able
to condense because of the high temperatures, whereas
hydrogen compounds, although more abundant, were only able
to condense in the cooler outer regions.
Denser materials were heavier and sank to the centre of the
nebula.
When the solar nebula formed a disk, materials naturally
segregated into bands, and in our particular solar system the
denser materials settled nearer the Sun while lighter materials
are found in the outer part.
In the beginning, when the protoplanetary disk was spinning
faster, centrifugal forces flung the lighter materials toward the
outer parts of the solar nebula.
The Sun's gravity pulled denser materials toward the inner part
of the solar nebula, while lighter gases escaped more easily.
Question 20
1 / 1 point
Which of the following solar system moons likely formed through the same processes as our solar
system?
A)
The moons of Mars, Phobos and Deimos.
B)
Venus's small moon, Dactyl.
C)
Jupiter's so-called Galilean moons.
D)
Uranus's moon, Triton
E)
All of A, C and D.
Question 21
1 / 1 point
About how much of the solar nebula consisted of elements heavier than hydrogen and helium?
2% by mass.
25% by mass.
98% by mass.
50% by mass.
10% by mass.
Question 22
1 / 1 point
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How were the moons of the Jovian planets most likely formed?
Probably through the same process as the planets themselves
formed.
Most likely by gravitationally attracting asteroids as a
protoplanet might form.
Most of the solar system's moons initially formed around
Jupiter which were then ejected by Jupiter toward other planets
which eventually captured them.
They were all formed in the Asteroid Belt between Venus and
Jupiter and through BB (Belt Benevolence) they got distributed
among the Jovian planets.
Early in their formation the planets spun wildly and flung off
chunks of themselves which coalesced as moons.
Question 23
1 / 1 point
What constitutes the solar wind?
A)
It's very similar to the wind here on Earth which is merely
the moving around of atmospheric gases.
B)
It is the continuous stream of hot air being released by the
fusion process deep inside the Sun.
C)
It's the continuous emission of charged particles (electrons,
protons, etc.) from the solar surface.
D)
The solar wind in not constant but happens in spurts
especially during the time of coronal mass ejections from
sunspots.
E)
It is a combination of both A and B.
Question 24
1 / 1 point
According to our theory of solar system formation, what is Pluto?
Pluto is simply an oddball planet, and thus represents one of
the "exceptions" that the nebular theory cannot explain.
Pluto is one of the largest of the Kuiper belt objects.
Pluto is a very small jovian planet.
Pluto is a terrestrial planet that was shot out from the inner
solar system to its present location as the most distant planet.
Pluto is a terrestrial planet that happened to form at a large
distance from the Sun.
Question 25
1 / 1 point
What was the frost line of the solar system?
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the distance from the Sun beyond which temperatures were
low enough for rocks to condense, between the present-day
orbits of Mercury and Venus
the distance from the Sun beyond which temperatures were
low enough for hydrogen and helium to condense, between the
present-day orbits of Jupiter and Saturn
the distance from the Sun beyond which temperatures were
low enough for metals to condense, between the Sun and the
present-day orbit of Mercury
the distance from the Sun beyond which temperatures were
low enough for asteroids to form, between the present-day
orbits of Venus and Earth
the distance from the Sun beyond which temperatures were
low enough for hydrogen compounds and methane to condense
into ices, between the present-day orbits of Mars and Jupiter
Question 26
1 / 1 point
What is a planetesimal?
A smaller building block of a protostar.
A smaller building block of planets.
A rogue planet moving around in the solar system not attached
to any particular planet.
One of the larger planets in the solar system.
An object that is in orbit around a planet.
Question 27
0 / 1 point
According to our theory of solar system formation, why does the Sun rotate slowly today?
The Sun once rotated much faster, but it lost angular momentum because
everything slows down with time.
The Sun once rotated much faster, but it transferred angular momentum to
planets and other objects during close encounters.
The Sun once rotated much faster, but it lost angular momentum due to
internal friction.
The Sun once rotated much faster, but it transferred angular momentum to
charged particles caught in its magnetic field and then blew the particles
away with its strong solar wind.
The Sun was born rotating slowly because the solar nebula had very little
angular momentum.
Group C
28
1 / 1 point
Why would a star continuously wobble back-and-forth in space?
Because the nebula it formed out of collided with a supernova
shockwave
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Because it is undergoing precession
Because of air currents in the atmosphere surrounding it
Because it had too much to drink
Because it is revolving around a common centre of mass with
other planets
Question 29
0 / 1 point
Which of the following techniques has so far yielded the fewest detections of an exoplanet?
Transit method.
Astrometric method.
Direct Detection.
Doppler technique
Gravitational lensing.
Question 30
1 / 1 point
Which statement best describes the transit technique for finding exoplanets?
Observing the slight shifting of the frequency of the light as the
star wobbles back and forth in space due to an exoplanet
orbiting it.
Observing the gravitational effects the orbiting exoplanet has
on other nearby stars.
Actually seeing the exoplanet orbiting the star through our
more powerful telescopes.
Observing the slight dip in the brightness of a star as the
planet moves across it's face.
Observing the slight side-to-side movement of the star in space
caused by an exoplanet orbiting it.
Question 31
1 / 1 point
So far, about how many exoplanets have been discovered?
150
over 1500
about 4000
around 75
700
Question 32
0 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about exoplanets is true?
The large majority of confirmed exoplanets orbit their stars at
radii less than 5 AU.
No planets have been found orbiting their stars at radii less
than Mercury's orbital radius.
A considerable number of exoplanets seem to have orbits that
are quite elliptical.
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All of A, B and C are true.
Only A and C are true.
Question 33
1 / 1 point
Which statement best describes the direct detection technique for finding exoplanets?
Observing the gravitational effects the orbiting exoplanet has
on other nearby stars.
Actually seeing the exoplanet orbiting the star through our
more powerful telescopes.
Observing the slight dip in the brightness of a star as the
planet moves across it's face.
Observing the slight shifting of the frequency of the light as the
star wobbles back and forth in space due to an exoplanet
orbiting it.
Observing the slight side-to-side movement of the star in space
caused by an exoplanet orbiting it.
Question 34
0 / 1 point
Which of the following three factors would affect the size of a star's Doppler shift caused by an
exoplanet?
The planet's mass
The size of the planet's orbit
The planet's composition
Only A and B
All of A, B and C
Question 35
1 / 1 point
Which statement best describes the transit method of discovering exoplanets?
Measuring the Doppler shift of a star as it orbits its combined
centre of mass with an exoplanet.
Taking a photograph of planets around a star through a
telescope that can block the light of the star.
Measuring the size of the star around which the exoplanet is
orbiting.
Measuring the periodic dimming of light as an exoplanet
crosses in front of the star.
Measuring the distance a star wobbles on the sky as it is
tugged in its orbit by an exoplanet.
Question 36
1 / 1 point
What does the exoplanet descriptor "hot Jupiter" mean?
It's the latest fast car made by Toyota having Jupiter as its
model name.
It's an exoplanet the same size as Jupiter but with an extensive
ring system.
It's an exoplanet just like Jupiter but orbiting much further
away from its sun than 5 AU.
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It's any exoplanet orbiting around a much bigger star than our
Sun.
It's an exoplanet jult like Jupiter but orbiting much closer to its
sun than 5 AU.
Question 37
1 / 1 point
What is so special about a star known as 51 Pegasi?
It is a pulsar with planets orbiting around it.
It is the largest known white dwarf star.
It was the first star found with multiple planets orbiting it.
It is the first main sequence star (stars like our Sun) found to
have a planet orbiting it.
It was the first star found with a planet orbiting it that is known
to support intelligent life.
Question 38
0 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about exoplanets is false?
The information about exoplanets we have been able to
determine so far seem to indicate that most of them are similar
to our own solar system component.
A considerable number of exoplanets seem to have orbits that
are quite elliptical.
The large majority of confirmed exoplanets orbit their stars at
radii less than 5 AU.
No planets have been found orbiting their stars at radii less
than Mercury's orbital radius.
The masses of the large majority of confirmed exoplanets that
we have been able to measure with any degree of certainty are
larger than Earth's mass.
Question 39
1 / 1 point
Thinking about our own solar system, which planet will have the greatest effect on the Sun's
movement about the solar system's centre of mass?
Mercury, because it is closest to the Sun.
Jupiter, because of its huge mass.
Mars, because it's the red planet.
Earth, because we live here.
Saturn, because of its large ring structure.
Question 40
1 / 1 point
What is an extrasolar planet?
A planet that is extra large compared to what we would expect.
A planet that is considered an "extra" in that it was not needed for the
formation of its solar system.
A planet that is found orbiting another planet outside our solar system.
A planet that is larger than the Sun.
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A planet that orbits a star that is not our Sun.
Q) Without telescope of other aid, we can see the moon in the night sky because it
A) Reflects visible lighm,l
,\
00000000000 coming from the sun
Q) Which of the following statements about x-rays and radio waves is not true?
A) Neither x-rays nor radio waves can penetrate the earth’s atmosphere
Q) Galileo was a very important figure in astronomy. Which of the following
statements about Galileo’s accomplishments is false?
A) Galileo looked at the moon through his telescope and observed rivers,
mountains, and lakes filled with liquid
Q) the scientific method is best described by which of the following?
A) a system of collecting and analyzing data, formulating a hypothesis, testing
the hypothesis and reformulating the hypothesis as needed
Q) which statement about the cosmological principle is valid?
A) it is based on two tenets involving the universality of the laws of physics
and chemistry and the belief that there is nothing special about the earth
Q) Galileo observed that venus had phases very similar to the phases out moon goes
through. From this he concluded that
A) Venus therefore must orbit the sun and not the earth
Q) Suppose a planet is discovered orbiting a star in a highly elliptical orbit. While the
planet is close to the star it _______, but while it is far away it _________
A) moves faster, moves slower
Q) which of the following is not an example of “pseudoscience”?
A) astronomy
Q) Who built Stonehenge?
A) Nobody really knows for sure
Q) Galileo observed that Jupiter had moons. From this info you may conclude that
A) some things do not orbit the earth
Q) Kapler’s 3
rd
law of planetary motion states that
A) the cube of the semi-major axis of a planets orbit is directly proportional
to the square of its period of motion around the sun
Q) Which of the following best describes the origin of ocean tides on earth?
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A) tides are caused by the difference in the force of gravity exerted by the
moon across the sphere of the earth
Q) spring tides occur
A) at any time of the year when the moon is full
Q) which of the following is not part of newtons universal law of gravitation
A) the gravitational attraction between 2 objects depends directly on the
distance between their centres of mass
Q) Ptolemy was important in the history of astronomy because he
A) developed a model of the solar system that made sufficiently accurate
predictions of planetary positions to remain in use for many centuries
Q) which one of the following in not one of, nor follows directly from, Kepler’s law?
A) when a planet travels at slower speeds it must be nearer the sun and
when it speeds up it must be as far from the sun as it can get
Q) a skater can spin faster by pulling in her arms closer to her body or spin slower
by spreading her arms out from her body. This is due to
A) the conservation of angular momentum
Q) what is acceleration?
A) it is the rate of change of velocity with change
Q) which of the following is not regarded as a heat transfer mechanism?
A) segregation
Q) Radiative (or radiant) energy is
A) light energy
Q) upon what quantities does angular momentum depend?
A) three quantities – an objects mass, its rotational speed, and its radius of
distance from the rotational centre
Q) which of the following statements about orbital motion is not true?
A) an elliptical orbit is an example of an open orbit
Q) which of the following statements correctly describes the law of conservation of
energy?
A) the total quantity of energy in the universe never changes
Q) what does temperature measure?
A) the average kinetic energy of particles of substance
Q) which of the following is not a unit of speed?
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A) centimetres/light years
Q) if your mass is 75 kg on earth, what would your mass be on Saturn which is about
95 times as massive as the earth?
A) about the same, 75kg
Q) the amount of matter contained in an object is called its mass. Which of the
following statements about mass is false?
A) the average human mass is about 150 pounds
Q) when a rock is held above the ground, we say it has some potential energy. When
we let it go, it falls and we say the potential energy to kinetic energy when it hits the
ground. What has happened to the energy?
A) the energy goes to producing sound and to heating the ground, rock, and
surrounding air
Q) at which lunar phase(s) are the tides most pronounced? (the highest tide levels)
A) both new and full moons
Q) suppose there are 2 monochromatic light beams. Beam 1 has half the wavelength
of beam 2. How do their frequencies compare?
A) beam 1 has 2x the frequency of beam 2
Q) from lowest energy to highest energy, which of the following correctly orders the
different categories of electromagnetic radiation?
A) radio, infrared, visible light, ultraviolet, x-ray, gamma rays
Q) Suppose the angular separation of 2 stars is smaller than the angular resolution
of your eyes. How will the stars appear to your eyes?
A) the 2 stars will look like a single point of light
Q) which of the following is not an advantage of the hubble space telescope over
ground based telescopes?
A) although it orbits the earth and is outside the atmosphere, it is, after all,
closer to the stars
Q) the larger the size of the telescope, the greater the what?
A) light gathering ability
Q) which of the following statements best describes the pricinple advantage of
telescopes over eyes?
A) telescopes can collect far more light with far better angular resolution
Q) the trouble with refraction telescopes is that
A) different colours of visible starlight get focused to different points in space
making the image blurry
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Q) the Doppler shift is a wave phenomenon that
A) uses the change in wavelength of light to determine the speed of a moving
star
Q) a hot star emits primarily what colour of visible light
A) blue
Q) most of everything we know from outside earth we know because of our use of
what?
A) light
Q) the wavelength of a wave is
A) the distance between 2 adjacent peaks of the wave
n 1
0 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about conjunctions and opposition is
false?
Mercury and Venus both have superior and inferior conjunctions
because they are closer to the Sun than Earth.
Mercury can never be in opposition from Earth's perspective.
Jupiter can never appear in an inferior conjunction position from
Earth's perspective.
Mar can have an inferior conjunction but not a superior
conjunction from Earth's perspective.
Conjunction and opposition are orbital mechanics terms.
Question 2
1 / 1 point
Which component of our atmosphere has steadily increased in the last 100 years and has led to
warming temperatures?
Argon
Carbon Dioxide
Oxygen
Nitrogen
Water Vapour
Question 3
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about Earth is
false?
The Earth's atmosphere is mostly nitrogen and oxygen.
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The poles of the Earth's magnetic field are precisely aligned with
Earth's rotational axis.
It appears as if the average temperature on the surface of the
Earth has been increasing regularly over the past 100 years.
A liquid shell of molten iron surrounds a solid core of iron.
the Van Allen belts surround the Earth's equator and contain
charged particles from the solar wind.
Question 4
0 / 1 point
How would you describe Venus's retrograde rotation?
It rotates in the opposite direction to Earth's spin and at the
same rate so that a day on Venus is the same 24 hours.
It rotates very slowly in a direction opposite to its revolution.
Its rate of rotation matches its rate of revolution.
It appears to make a loop on the celestial sphere over many
months as Earth "overtakes" it.
Its axis of rotation is tilted 90 degrees from the ecliptic.
Question 5
0 / 1 point
Why does the burning of fossil fuels increase the greenhouse effect on Earth?
Burning fuel warms the planet.
Burning releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.
Burning depletes the amount of ozone, thereby warming the
planet.
Burning produces infrared light, which is then trapped by
existing greenhouse gases.
All of the above are true.
Question 6
1 / 1 point
All but one of the following statements about Mercury are true. Which one is
false
?
Mercury is now geologically dead.
Mercury has a very thin atmosphere which is strange because
there are still active volcanoes outgassing carbon dioxide and
water vapour.
Despite the fact that the surface temperature is over 700 K there
may well be water ice hidden below the surface of Mercury.
Mercury's surface is covered with craters revealing a battered
past.
Mercury has a magnetic field, although it is only 1% as strong as
Earth's.
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Question 7
1 / 1 point
How have we been able to construct maps of surface features on the planet Venus?
by using radar from spacecraft that were sent to orbit Venus
by making computer models of geological processes on Venus
by studying Venus with powerful telescopes on spacecraft that
were sent to orbit Venus
by studying Venus from Earth with powerful telescopes
by landing spacecraft on the surface for close-up study
Question 8
1 / 1 point
Earth's atmosphere contains only small amounts of carbon dioxide because
Earth doesn't have as strong a greenhouse effect as is present
on Venus.
carbon dioxide dissolves in water, and most of it is now
contained in the oceans and carbonate rocks.
chemical reactions with other gases destroyed the carbon
dioxide and replaced it with the nitrogen that is in the
atmosphere now.
most of the carbon dioxide was lost during the age of
bombardment.
the Earth's volcanoes did not outgas as much carbon dioxide as
those on Venus and Mars.
Question 9
1 / 1 point
All but one of the following statements about Venus are true. Which one is
false?
The atmospheric pressure on Venus is significantly greater than
on Earth, about 9 times as great.
Past volcanic activity is responsible for the greenhouse gases in
the atmosphere.
Venus' significant greenhouse effect results in a surface
temperature over 700 K.
One elevated landmass, Aphrodite Terra, is about as large as
the African continent.
Venus' atmosphere has sulphuric acid that absorbs uv radiation
from the Sun.
Question 10
1 / 1 point
What function does the ozone layer provide on the Earth?
It is a by-product of the process of photosynthesis involving
plant life.
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It absorbs and re-radiates infrared radiation from the Sun,
which helps keep the Earth warm.
It is dissolved in water and reacts with nutrients to form
limestone.
It shields us from ultraviolet radiation that is harmful to life.
None of the above.
Question 11
1 / 1 point
The origin of Earth's only natural satellite, Moon, is
Earth - it was formed when a huge comet hit Earth, some 4.5
billion years ago, and the land mass that existed where the
current Pacific Ocean is became the Moon.
the same nebula from which the Earth formed - both the Earth
and the Moon formed at about the same time and since the
Earth was bigger the Moon began circling it.
a combination of the "capture" theory and the "daughter"
theory, sometimes called the impact theory which posits that
early in the solar system history the formative years. a young,
molten Earth collided with a Mars-like object in a sort of
glancing blow.
outer space, beyond our solar system - a small, dead star
careening through the Milky Way Galaxy became attracted by
our Sun and somehow wound up orbiting Earth through chance
orbital mechanics.
a planet that once orbited the Sun somewhere between Mars
and Jupiter about where the asteroid belt is. which collided with
the largest asteroid, Ceres, sending it toward Earth which then
captured it with its large gravitational force.
Question 12
1 / 1 point
There are no auroras on Venus because it
is too hot.
lacks atmospheric oxygen.
lacks strong winds.
lacks an ionosphere.
lacks a strong magnetic field.
Question 13
0 / 1 point
All of the following statements about Venus are true but one. Which one is
false?
Although there are no water oceans on Venus there are two fairly large,
raised landforms, Ishtar Terra and Aphrodite Terra.
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The magnetic field on Venus has about the same intensity as on Earth,
although it appears to change directions every 100,000 years or so.
Venus' rotation is retrograde, a fact discovered only within the past 50
years.
The temperature on the surface of Venus is a hot 740 K approx...
Venus orbits the Sun in about 225 days and has a day that is about 117
Earth days long.
Group B
14
0 / 1 point
Jupiter and Saturn emit ________ heat than absorbed from the Sun due to ___________ .
1)
more; heat left over from their formation
2)
more; nuclear reactions in their liquid metallic hydrogen
cores.
3)
less; nuclear fusion of hydrogen in their cores.
4)
less: heat left over from their formation
5)
about the same: a balance of heat absorbed and heat
generated by various processes.
Question 15
1 / 1 point
Why does Jupiter have several distinct cloud layers?
1)
Clouds form randomly, so on average there are always
several layers.
2)
Different layers represent clouds made of gases that
condense at different temperatures.
3)
Different layers represent the various regions where the
temperature is cool enough for liquid water to condense.
4)
Different gases are present at different altitudes in Jupiter's
atmosphere.
5)
Winds prevent clouds from forming at some altitudes, so we
see clouds only at the other altitudes.
Question 16
0 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about Saturn is false?
1)
Saturn was first discovered by Galileo about 400 years ago.
2)
Saturn's density is less tha the density of water, meaning
that it would float in your cottage lake it would have to be a
big lake!..
3)
Saturn is the second most massive planet in our solar
system.
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4)
Saturn has one big moon, Titan, and lots of small ones.
5)
Saturn takes about 29.5 years to orbit the Sun once.
Question 17
1 / 1 point
All of the following statements about Jupiter are true but one. Which one is false?
1)
The Great Red Spot is a large storm centre that has been
observed for only the last 75 years.
2)
Of the four Jovian planets Jupiter is the only one that
doesn't have seasons.
3)
Jupiter is the largest planet in the solar system.
4)
Jupiter has the shortest rotational period of all the planets.
5)
Jupiter has a solid core that is more massive than the Earth.
Question 18
0 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about Uranus is false?
1)
Uranus has the Great Red Spot on its surface that has been
visible for the last 400 years.
2)
Uranus appears blue in telescopes resulting from lots of
methane in its upper atmosphere.
3)
Uranus appears to "roll" along in its orbit because its
equatorial inclination is close to 90 degrees.
4)
Uranus is the least massive of the Jovian planets.
5)
Uranus's average distance from the Sun is about 19.2 AU.
Question 19
1 / 1 point
How does the atmospheric pressure on Mars compare to that on Earth and Venus?
1)
Greater than on both Earth and Venus.
2)
Lower than on Earth but greater than on Venus.
3)
Greater than on Earth but lower than on Venus.
4)
Lower than on both Earth and Venus.
5)
Greater than on Venus but lower than on Earth.
Question 20
1 / 1 point
Which of the following do the Jovian planets not have in common?
1)
They all have comparatively large hydrogen and helium
atmospheres surrounding relatively small rock and metal
cores.
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2)
They are all less dense than water.
3)
They all rotate faster than the Earth.
4)
They are all many times more massive than terrestrial
planets.
5)
They all have ring systems and dozens of satellites.
Question 21
1 / 1 point
Which of the following does Jupiter not have?
1)
a hot interior
2)
crustal plates on its surface
3)
convection occurring in the atmosphere
4)
any rings
5)
a dynamo effect
Question 22
1 / 1 point
All of the following statements about Jupiter are true but one. Which one is false?
1)
Jupiter is the largest planet in the solar system.
2)
Of the four jovian planets Jupiter is the only one that
doesn't have seasons.
3)
Jupiter has the smallest rotational rate of all the planets.
4)
Jupiter has a solid core that is bigger than Earth.
5)
The density of Jupiter is greater than that of air but less
than that for water.
Question 23
1 / 1 point
What is a Roche zone?
1)
the region within a planet's magnetic field where charged
particles accumulate
2)
a bright layer of gas on Jupiter
3)
a region where gravitational resonances clear a gap in a
planet's rings
4)
the region surrounding a planet where it may have large
moons
5)
the region near a planet where tidal forces would tear apart
an object held together only by gravity
Question 24
1 / 1 point
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Exploration on Mars has been accomplished by orbiters, lander and rovers. Which of the following
statements about Martian exploration is false?
1)
We are fairly certain that water was once abundant on the
Martian surface.
2)
As you take this test, a rover named
Curiosity
is exploring
the Martian surface in a place known as the Gale Crater.
3)
Early exporation began in the 1970s with
NASA's
Viking
program.
4)
Two very successful Martian rovers have
been
Spirit
and
Opportunity.
5)
The remains of some type of life form have been found
near
Olympus Mons,
the largest volcano on Mars.
Question 25
1 / 1 point
About how far from the Sun, on average, is Saturn?
1)
10 AU
2)
20 AU
3)
5 AU
4)
15 AU
5)
1 AU
Question 26
0 / 1 point
Why does Mars have more extreme seasons than Earth?
1)
because it is farther from the Sun
2)
because it has a larger axis tilt
3)
because it has a more eccentric orbit
4)
because it has more carbon dioxide in its atmosphere
5)
all of the above
Question 27
1 / 1 point
Saturn is how far from the Sun, on average?
1)
5 AU
2)
20 AU
3)
10 AU
4)
15 AU
5)
1 AU
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Group C
28
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about the rings of the four jovian planets is
not
true?
All are made of individual particles of rock or ice that orbit in
accord with Kepler's laws: inner ring particles orbiting faster,
and outer ring particles orbiting slower.
All rings lie within their planet's Roche zone.
All probably look much like they did when the solar system first
formed.
All have gaps and ringlets, probably due to gap moons,
shepherd moons, and orbital resonances.
All the particle orbits are fairly circular, near their planet's
equatorial plane.
Question 29
1 / 1 point
Why is Triton referred to as Neptune's "backward" moon?
It orbits Neptune in the expected prograde direction but it spins
backward.
It orbits in the opposite direction of its revoluation.
It has different surface features on its leading and trailing
hemispheres
It continually pulls backward on Neptune, causing Neptune to
slow down.
It is named after a mythological figure known for speaking
backwards.
Question 30
1 / 1 point
Where do the majority of confirmed dwarf planets in the solar system reside?
The iCloud
The Oort Cloud
The Kuiper Belt
Between Mars and Jupiter
In orbit around Neptune
Question 31
1 / 1 point
All of the following statements about Charon, Pluto's moon, are true except which one?
Charon is half the size of Pluto, but 1/10th the mass.
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As strange as it may seem, astronomers have actually
observed seasonal effects on Charon.
The discovery of Charon allowed astronomers to determine that
Pluto's rotation is retrograde.
Charon's orbit around Pluto is fairly close to Pluto's surface
20,000 km..
The orbital period of Charon is equal to the rotation period of
Pluto.
Question 32
0 / 1 point
Why do astronomers believe Triton may have been a planet that was captured by Neptune?
It is too large to have been formed in the outer portion of the
nebula that formed Neptune.
It has an atmosphere and a measurable greenhouse effect.
It is colder than any other moon or planet.
It undergoes seasonal changes.
It orbits Neptune in the opposite direction of Neptune's
rotation.
Question 33
1 / 1 point
Why isn't there a planet where the asteroid belt is located?
Gravitational tugs from Jupiter prevented material from
collecting together to form a planet.
There was not enough material in this part of the solar nebula
to form a planet.
There was too much rocky material to form a terrestrial planet,
but not enough gaseous material to form a jovian planet.
The temperature in this portion of the solar nebula was just
right to prevent rock from sticking together.
A planet once formed here, but it was broken apart by a
catastrophic collision.
Question 34
0 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about the moons of the Jovian planets is
false
?
Galileo discovered the four largest moons of Jupiter in 1610.
Io, one of the Galilean moons of Jupiter, is the most
volcanically active object in the solar system.
Mimas, a small moon of Saturn, is responsible for the existence
of the Cassini division.
Titania, one of the largest jovian moons, has a wrinkly surface
that is often referred to as "cantaloupe terrain".
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Europa, a larger moon of Jupiter, has the smoothest surface in
the solar system.
Question 35
0 / 1 point
What is the Cassini division of Saturn's rings?
the imaginary circle marking the halfway point of Saturn's rings
the widest ring of Saturn, located between two large ring gaps
the most opaque ring of Saturn, made of highly reflective ice
particles
a dark ring, visible from Earth, composed of dark, dusty
particles
a large gap, visible from Earth, produced by an orbital
resonance with the moon Mimas
Question 36
1 / 1 point
What mechanism is most responsible for generating the internal heat of Io that drives the volcanic
activity?
tidal heating
bombardment
differentiation
accretion
radioactive decay
Question 37
1 / 1 point
Which of these moons is the most geologically active?
Leo
Enceladus
Europa
Callisto
Io
Question 38
1 / 1 point
Why are there no impact craters on the surface of Io?
Jupiter's strong gravity attracted the planetesimals more
strongly than Io and thus none landed on its surface.
Any craters that existed have been eroded through the strong
winds on Io's surface.
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Io did have impact craters but they have all been buried in lava
flows.
Io's thick atmosphere obscures the view of the craters.
It is too small to have been bombarded by planetesimals in the
early solar system.
Question 39
1 / 1 point
What did the Huygens probe discover about Saturn's moon, Titan?
An atmosphere that consists of about 90% oxygen.
Methane rains onto the surface, evaporates, and rains again
cyclically.
A system of caverns and tunnels that appear to run throughout
the interior of the satellite.
A plume of water vapour erupting from a geothermal vent.
An atmosphere that is about 10 times that on Earth.
Question 40
1 / 1 point
Which of the following is
not
classified as a dwarf planet?
Ceres
Triton
Makemake
Eris
Pluto
Question 1
1 / 1 point
Mercury's large core is composed of
iron
carbon dioxide ice
rock
water ice
silicon
Question 2
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about Earth is
false?
It appears as if the average temperature on the surface of the
Earth has been increasing regularly over the past 100 years.
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A liquid shell of molten iron surrounds a solid core of iron.
The Earth's atmosphere is mostly nitrogen and oxygen.
the Van Allen belts surround the Earth's equator and contain
charged particles from the solar wind.
The poles of the Earth's magnetic field are precisely aligned with
Earth's rotational axis.
Question 3
0 / 1 point
The origin of Earth's only natural satellite, Moon, is
a planet that once orbited the Sun somewhere between Mars
and Jupiter about where the asteroid belt is. which collided with
the largest asteroid, Ceres, sending it toward Earth which then
captured it with its large gravitational force.
the same nebula from which the Earth formed - both the Earth
and the Moon formed at about the same time and since the
Earth was bigger the Moon began circling it.
Earth - it was formed when a huge comet hit Earth, some 4.5
billion years ago, and the land mass that existed where the
current Pacific Ocean is became the Moon.
outer space, beyond our solar system - a small, dead star
careening through the Milky Way Galaxy became attracted by
our Sun and somehow wound up orbiting Earth through chance
orbital mechanics.
a combination of the "capture" theory and the "daughter" theory,
sometimes called the impact theory which posits that early in the
solar system history the formative years. a young, molten Earth
collided with a Mars-like object in a sort of glancing blow.
Question 4
1 / 1 point
What function does the ozone layer provide on the Earth?
It is a by-product of the process of photosynthesis involving
plant life.
It absorbs and re-radiates infrared radiation from the Sun, which
helps keep the Earth warm.
It is dissolved in water and reacts with nutrients to form
limestone.
It shields us from ultraviolet radiation that is harmful to life.
None of the above.
Question 5
1 / 1 point
A solar day on Mercury is about how long?
176 Earth days
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Earth day
57 Earth days
365.25 Earth days
17 Earth days
Question 6
1 / 1 point
At what special time in Venus's orbit might we be able to see a solar transit?
greatest western elongation
July 1
superior conjunction
greatest eastern elongation
inferior conjunction
Question 7
1 / 1 point
There are no auroras on Venus because it
is too hot.
lacks strong winds.
lacks an ionosphere.
lacks atmospheric oxygen.
lacks a strong magnetic field.
Question 8
1 / 1 point
The orbit of Venus around the Sun is almost circular. What is the radius of its orbit?
1.72 AU
0.72 AU
0.39 AU
1.0 AU
1.42 AU
Question 9
0 / 1 point
All but one of the following statements about Mercury are true. Which one is
false?
Mercury's orbit about the Sun is almost circular, more so than
any other planet in the solar system.
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Mercury orbits close to the Sun and is best viewed during dawn
or dusk.
Mercury's interior is about 60% iron.
A solar day on Mercury is very long, 176 Earth days, due to its
slow rotation.
Mercury has been visited by one spacecraft in the mid-
1970s,
Mariner
10
, and now MESSENGER, which has now
settled into orbit around Mercury.
Question 10
1 / 1 point
What is the Moon's average orbital distance from the Sun?
1.5 AU
0.9 AU
2.0 AU
1.0 AU
0.5 AU
Question 11
1 / 1 point
How have we been able to construct maps of surface features on the planet Venus?
by using radar from spacecraft that were sent to orbit Venus
by studying Venus from Earth with powerful telescopes
by making computer models of geological processes on Venus
by landing spacecraft on the surface for close-up study
by studying Venus with powerful telescopes on spacecraft that
were sent to orbit Venus
Question 12
1 / 1 point
How would you describe Venus's retrograde rotation?
It appears to make a loop on the celestial sphere over many
months as Earth "overtakes" it.
It rotates very slowly in a direction opposite to its revolution.
Its axis of rotation is tilted 90 degrees from the ecliptic.
Its rate of rotation matches its rate of revolution.
It rotates in the opposite direction to Earth's spin and at the
same rate so that a day on Venus is the same 24 hours.
Question 13
1 / 1 point
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Which component of our atmosphere has steadily increased in the last 100 years and has led to
warming temperatures?
Water Vapour
Nitrogen
Oxygen
Carbon Dioxide
Argon
Group B
14
1 / 1 point
Which of the following planets was found using Newton's laws after discrepancies were observed in
another planet's orbit?
1)
Saturn
2)
Pluto
3)
Uranus
4)
Neptune
5)
Jupiter
Question 15
0 / 1 point
Jupiter and Saturn emit ________ heat than absorbed from the Sun due to ___________ .
1)
about the same: a balance of heat absorbed and heat
generated by various processes.
2)
more; nuclear reactions in their liquid metallic hydrogen
cores.
3)
less: heat left over from their formation
4)
more; heat left over from their formation
5)
less; nuclear fusion of hydrogen in their cores.
Question 16
1 / 1 point
Why does Mars have more extreme seasons than Earth?
1)
because it is farther from the Sun
2)
because it has a larger axis tilt
3)
because it has a more eccentric orbit
4)
because it has more carbon dioxide in its atmosphere
5)
all of the above
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Question 17
1 / 1 point
Why does Jupiter have several distinct cloud layers?
1)
Different layers represent clouds made of gases that
condense at different temperatures.
2)
Clouds form randomly, so on average there are always
several layers.
3)
Different layers represent the various regions where the
temperature is cool enough for liquid water to condense.
4)
Different gases are present at different altitudes in Jupiter's
atmosphere.
5)
Winds prevent clouds from forming at some altitudes, so we
see clouds only at the other altitudes.
Question 18
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about Neptune is true?
1)
Neptune has very few moons; only four have been
observed.
2)
Neptune is distinctly green in colour.
3)
Neptune's largest surface feature is the Great Dark Spot
that is about the size of Earth and is probably a storm of
some sort.
4)
Neptune is different from the other Jovian planets in that it
doesn't appear to have a rocky, metallic core.
5)
Neptune is located in between Saturn and Uranus.
Question 19
1 / 1 point
Which of the following do the Jovian planets not have in common?
1)
They all rotate faster than the Earth.
2)
They are all less dense than water.
3)
They are all many times more massive than terrestrial
planets.
4)
They all have comparatively large hydrogen and helium
atmospheres surrounding relatively small rock and metal
cores.
5)
They all have ring systems and dozens of satellites.
Question 20
1 / 1 point
How does the atmospheric pressure on Mars compare to that on Earth and Venus?
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1)
Greater than on Venus but lower than on Earth.
2)
Lower than on both Earth and Venus.
3)
Lower than on Earth but greater than on Venus.
4)
Greater than on Earth but lower than on Venus.
5)
Greater than on both Earth and Venus.
Question 21
0 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about Uranus is false?
1)
Uranus is the least massive of the Jovian planets.
2)
Uranus's average distance from the Sun is about 19.2 AU.
3)
Uranus appears to "roll" along in its orbit because its
equatorial inclination is close to 90 degrees.
4)
Uranus appears blue in telescopes resulting from lots of
methane in its upper atmosphere.
5)
Uranus has the Great Red Spot on its surface that has been
visible for the last 400 years.
Question 22
0 / 1 point
Exploration on Mars has been accomplished by orbiters, lander and rovers. Which of the following
statements about Martian exploration is false?
1)
We are fairly certain that water was once abundant on the
Martian surface.
2)
Two very successful Martian rovers have
been
Spirit
and
Opportunity.
3)
Early exporation began in the 1970s with
NASA's
Viking
program.
4)
The remains of some type of life form have been found
near
Olympus Mons,
the largest volcano on Mars.
5)
As you take this test, a rover named
Curiosity
is exploring
the Martian surface in a place known as the Gale Crater.
Question 23
1 / 1 point
Saturn is how far from the Sun, on average?
1)
15 AU
2)
10 AU
3)
5 AU
4)
1 AU
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5)
20 AU
Question 24
1 / 1 point
What is the region around a planet called where the magnetic field is able to deflect the solar wind
and other charged particles?
1)
Aurora
2)
Hydrosphere
3)
Ice line
4)
Corona
5)
Magnetosphere
Question 25
1 / 1 point
The belts and zones of Jupiter are
1)
alternating bands of rising and falling air at different
latitudes.
2)
alternating regions of charged particles in Jupiter's magnetic
field.
3)
names for different cloud layers on Jupiter.
4)
material that is left over from the once expansive rings of
Jupiter.
5)
cyclonic and anti-cyclonic storms.
Question 26
1 / 1 point
About how far from the Sun, on average, is Saturn?
1)
10 AU
2)
20 AU
3)
15 AU
4)
1 AU
5)
5 AU
Question 27
1 / 1 point
What is a Roche zone?
1)
a region where gravitational resonances clear a gap in a planet's rings
2)
a bright layer of gas on Jupiter
3)
the region near a planet where tidal forces would tear apart an object
held together only by gravity
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4)
the region within a planet's magnetic field where charged particles
accumulate
5)
the region surrounding a planet where it may have large moons
Group C
28
1 / 1 point
This satellite's interior has probably warmed enough by tidal stressing to have a liquid water ocean
below an icy crust.
Charon
Ariel
Titan
Io
Europa
Question 29
0 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about Jovian moons is false?
Many of the moons of Uranus have been named after sprites
and spirits in Shakespearean plays.
Neptune's largest moon, Triton, has a wrinkly surface often
called "cantaloupe terrain".
Volcanic plumes containing water vapour, nitrogen, methane
and other hydrocarbons have been observed on Enceladus, a
moon of Saturn.
All of the Jovian moons orbit their planet in the same direction,
counter-clockwise as seem from above the solar system.
The Galilean moons of Jupiter from smallest to largest are
Europa, Io, Callisto and Ganymede.
Question 30
1 / 1 point
Why is Triton referred to as Neptune's "backward" moon?
It continually pulls backward on Neptune, causing Neptune to
slow down.
It is named after a mythological figure known for speaking
backwards.
It orbits in the opposite direction of its revoluation.
It orbits Neptune in the expected prograde direction but it spins
backward.
It has different surface features on its leading and trailing
hemispheres
Question 31
1 / 1 point
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What is the Cassini division of Saturn's rings?
the most opaque ring of Saturn, made of highly reflective ice
particles
a dark ring, visible from Earth, composed of dark, dusty
particles
a large gap, visible from Earth, produced by an orbital
resonance with the moon Mimas
the widest ring of Saturn, located between two large ring gaps
the imaginary circle marking the halfway point of Saturn's rings
Question 32
1 / 1 point
Why isn't there a planet where the asteroid belt is located?
A planet once formed here, but it was broken apart by a
catastrophic collision.
Gravitational tugs from Jupiter prevented material from
collecting together to form a planet.
The temperature in this portion of the solar nebula was just
right to prevent rock from sticking together.
There was not enough material in this part of the solar nebula
to form a planet.
There was too much rocky material to form a terrestrial planet,
but not enough gaseous material to form a jovian planet.
Question 33
0 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about the moons of the Jovian planets is
false
?
Io, one of the Galilean moons of Jupiter, is the most
volcanically active object in the solar system.
Titania, one of the largest jovian moons, has a wrinkly surface
that is often referred to as "cantaloupe terrain".
Mimas, a small moon of Saturn, is responsible for the existence
of the Cassini division.
Europa, a larger moon of Jupiter, has the smoothest surface in
the solar system.
Galileo discovered the four largest moons of Jupiter in 1610.
Question 34
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about Pluto is
false
?
Pluto is one of the larger Kuiper Belt Objects discovered to date
and is actually bigger than Mercury.
Plluto has one large moon, Charon, and a few other smaller
ones
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Pluto has a fairly eccentric orbit but it spends about 20 years of
its 248-year orbit around the Sun inside the orbit of Neptune.
Pluto was discovered by Clyde Tombaugh around 1930 after
years of searching.
We don't know very much about the surface features of Pluto
because it is too far away and too small to view even with the
Hubble Space Telescope.
Question 35
1 / 1 point
Which of these moons is the most geologically active?
Leo
Callisto
Enceladus
Europa
Io
Question 36
0 / 1 point
All of the following statements about Charon, Pluto's moon, are true except which one?
Charon is half the size of Pluto, but 1/10th the mass.
The discovery of Charon allowed astronomers to determine that
Pluto's rotation is retrograde.
The orbital period of Charon is equal to the rotation period of
Pluto.
As strange as it may seem, astronomers have actually
observed seasonal effects on Charon.
Charon's orbit around Pluto is fairly close to Pluto's surface
20,000 km..
Question 37
1 / 1 point
Why do astronomers believe Triton may have been a planet that was captured by Neptune?
It is too large to have been formed in the outer portion of the
nebula that formed Neptune.
It orbits Neptune in the opposite direction of Neptune's
rotation.
It has an atmosphere and a measurable greenhouse effect.
It undergoes seasonal changes.
It is colder than any other moon or planet.
Question 38
1 / 1 point
How thick are Saturn's rings from top to bottom?
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a few hundred kilometers
a few tens of meters
a few kilometers
a few million kilometers
a few tens of thousands of kilometers
Question 39
0 / 1 point
Why was Pluto's status was changed to that of "dwarf planet" by the IAU?
A)
Because it is too small.
B)
Because it is not round.
C)
Because it has not cleared its orbital region of other
objects.
D)
Because it has the wrong name.
E)
All of A, B, C and D.
Question 40
1 / 1 point
Where do the majority of confirmed dwarf planets in the solar system reside?
The iCloud
The Oort Cloud
In orbit around Neptune
The Kuiper Belt
Between Mars and Jupiter
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Suppose that the sun were to suddenly disappear from our solar system. What would happen to
earth’s motion.
It would begin travelling in a straight line heading out of the solar system
Which of the following statements about electrons is not true.
Electrons are actually neutrons that have acquired an electrical charge
The Metonic Cycle is the
19 year period over which the lunar phases occur on about the same dates
Which statement about the cosmological principle is valid
It is based on two tenents involving the universality of the laws of physics and chemistry and the belief
that there is nothing special about earth
Considering einsten’s famous equation E=MC2 which of the following is true
A small amount of mass can be turned into a large amount of energy
Which of the following best describes the origin of the ocean tides on earth
Tides are caused by the difference in the force of gravity exerted by the moon across the sphere of the
earth
What does temperature measure
The average kinetic energy of particles in a substance
Upon what quantities does angular momentum depend
3 quanitities – an objects mass, its rotational speed, etc
The amount of matter contained in an object is called its mass. Which of the following is false.
The average adult human mass is about 160 pounds
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Where does the energy come from that your body uses to keep you alive
Mostly it comes from the foods you each
Without telescopes or other aid we can see the moon in the night sky because
It reflects light
The scientific method is best described by which of the following
A system collecting analyzing data, formulating a hypothesis, testing it and forming it as needed
If your mass is 60kg on earth would would it be on Jupiter
60kg
The names of the 7 days of the week are based on
Seven naked eye objects that appear to move among constellations
Which of the following is not one of nor followings Kepler’s law
When a planet travels slower it must be nearer to the sun and it speeds up far from the sun
Ptolemy was important in history of astronomy because he
Developed a model of the solar system that made sufficiently accurate predictions of planetary positions
to remain in use of centuries
Radioactive energy is
Energy carried by light
Retrograde motion is observable for what objects
Planets located more distant from the sun than earth
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The doppler shift is a wave phenomenon that
Uses change in wavelength of light to determine speed of a moving star
At which lunar phases are tides smallest
Both first and 3
rd
When Copernicus 1
st
created his sun centred model it not lead to better predictions than Ptolemaic
why
Copernicus used perfect circles for the orbits of the planets
A skater can spin faster by pulling arms closer to her body and slower by pulling out
Conservation of angular momentum
From lowest energy to highest energy electromagnetic radiation
Radio, infrared, visible, ultraviolet, x rays, gamma rays
Spectral line formed by hydrogen appears at a wavelength of 486.1 nanometres the spectrum of a star
sows the same hydrogen line appearing at 4.85 what can we conclude
The star is moving towards us
Which of the following is not a unit of energy
Kilowat
The frequency of a wave is
All of the other answers are true
Spectroscopy can be used to
All of the above
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Which of the following statements best describes the principle advantage of telescopes over eyes
Telescopes can collect far more light with far beter angular resolution
A green apple looks green because
It reflects green light and absorbs all other colours
The wavelength of a wave is
The distance between two adjacent peaks of the wave
Kinetic energy
Energy of motion
What would happen if the space shuttle were launched with greater speed then earths escape velocity
It would travel away from the earth into the solar system
What do astronomers mean by light pollution
Refers to light used for human activities that brightens the sky and hinders astronomical observations
Which of the following statements it not one of newton’s laws of motion
The net force applied to an object is equal to its mass times velocity
Which of the following statements correctly described the law of conservation of energy
The total quantity of energy in the universe never changes
Which of the following statements about x rays and is not true
Nether x rays nor radio waves can penetrate the earth’s atmosphere
Which of the following is not an advantage of the HST over ground based telescopes
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Although it orbits the earth and is outside the atmosphere, it is closer to the stars
When hold a rock potential energy, drop it kinetic, hits the ground what happens
The energy goes to producing sound and to heating the ground rock, air
The trouble with refraction telescopes is that
Different colours of visible starlight get focused to different points in space making the image blurry
Suppose the angular separation of 2 stars is smaller than the angular resolution of your eyes how will
stars appear to your eyes
The 2 stars look like a single point of light
Galileo observed that venus had phases very similar to the phases our moon goes through. From this
he concluded that
Venus must, therefore, orbit the sun and not earth
Using Kepler’s third law of planetary motion…
11.8 years
Which statement best describes the difference between your mass and your weight
Your mass is a measure of the amount of mater you contain and your weight is a measure of the
amount of gravitational pull on your body
How did kepler’s first law of planetary motion alter the Copernican system?
It changed the perfect circles to ellipses
Galileo was a very important figure in the development of astronomy. Which of the following
statements about Galileo’s accomplishments is false?
Galileo looked at the moon through his telescope and observed rivers flowing with some kind of liquid….
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Which of the following is not an example of a “pseudoscience”
Astronomy
Where is Stonehenge located
In England, west of London
Ptolemy was important in the history of astronomy because he
Developed a model of the solar system that made sufficiently accurate predictions of planetary positons
to remain in use for many centuries
Galileo observed that Jupiter has moons. From this information you may conclude that
There are so-called heavenly objects that do not orbit the earth and although its clear that the moon
orbits earth there is, then, no reason why the earth-moon combination cannot orbit the sun
What determines the date for easter
The Sunday following the first full moon following the spring equinox
At which lunar phases are the tides most pronounced?
Both new and full moons
Which of the following is not regarded as a heat transfer mechanisms
Segregation
Which of the following are systems for measuring temperature
Only A, B, and D
Betelgeuse and Rigel are two bright stars in the constellation Orion. Betelgeuse emits primarily red
light while rigel appears a blue colour. What can you determine from this observation
Riel is hoter than Betelgeuse
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Which of the following statements about Isaac newton is not true
Newton grew up in Germany
Consider a loaded dump truck and you in your smartcar driving along the 401 highway. Which of the
following statements about linear momentum is true
As long as you follow the truck, both travelling at the same speed, your combined momentum or total
momentum, is conserved
A neap tide is when the rides are least pronounced, during which lunar phrase do neap tides occur?
Both first and third quarter moons
The two basic types of telescopes are what?
Reflection and refraction
What is the main problem that ground-based telescopes have to deal with
All A, B, and C
Spectroscopy can be used to
All of A, B, C, and D
Most of everything we know from outside earth we know because of our use of what?
Light
Which of the following objects would not be considered an optical device
Your bedroom window
What is the main advantage of the hubble space telescope
It orbits above the earth’s atmosphere
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Which of the following statements about orbital motion is not true
An elliptical orbit is an example of an open orbit
Whose model of the universe was supported by Galileo’s observations of the phases of venus
Nicolaus Copernicus’s model
From laboratory measurements we know that a particular spectral line formed by hydrogen appears at
a wavelength of 486.1 nanometers. The spectrum of a particular star shows the same hydrogen line
appearing at a wavelength of 496.1 nm. What can we conclude?
The star is moving away from us
Which of the following is not an advantage of the Hubble Space Telescope over ground-based
telescopes?
Although it orbits the Earth and
it outside Earth’s atmosphere, it is, after all, closer to the stars
What type of energy is visible light energy?
Radiative energy
Johanes Kepler and Galileo Galelei lived pretty much at the same time. When was that timeframe?
1550-1650
Suppose a planet is discovered orbiting a star in a highly elliptical orbit. While the planet is close to the
star it ______, but while it is far away it ______.
Moves faster, moves slower
Why is understanding the concept and principles of light so important to astronomers?
Prety much everything we know about our solar system, about our galaxy and even about our
universe… not typing the rest
A hot star emits primarily what colour of visible light?
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Blue
According to the Copernican model, which of the following statements describes how plants move
when they are close to the sun?
They move faster
When a rock is held above the ground, we say it has some potential energy. When we let go of it, it
falls and we say the potential energy is converted to kinetic energy. Finally the rock hits the ground.
What happened to the energy?
The energy goes to producing sounds and to heating the ground, rock, and surrounding air.
An object is able to stay in orbit around another object because
It has just the right tangential speed
What is acceleration?
It is the rate of change of velocity with time
Which of the following statements is not one of Newton's laws of motion
The net force applied to an object is equal to its mass times the length of time that the force is applied
Which of the following statements about Isaac Newton is not true?
Newton grew up in Germany
which of the following is not a unit of speed?
Kilometres/light-year
Suppose the sun were to suddenly disappear from our solar system. What would happen to Earth’s
motion?
It would begin travelling in a straight line heading out of the solar system
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Early Greek philosophers who influences the development of scientific thought included
Aristotle, Socrates, Plato and Ptolemy
The Metonic cycle recognizes what?
The cycle of lunar phases hat repeats every 19 years
When a spaceship or satellite is in orbit around Earth or any other object what actions must take place
on-board the satellite to keep it in orbit?
Nothing! Once it’s in orbit it will stay there forever
Kepler’s third law of planetary motion states that
The cube of the semi-major axis of planet’s orbit is directly proportional to the square of its period of
motion around the sun
The light gathering power of a 5-cm telescope is ______ that of a 10-cm telescope
Less than
The 29.5 day lunar month results in full moon dates that slowly change from month to month…
This cycle repeats every 19 years when the lunar phases occur again on the same dates
Who built Stonehenge?
Nobody really knows for sure
Which of the following statements about the Hubble Space Telescope is false?
It was designed by a famous astronomer named Edwin Hubble
The visible part of the electromagnetic spectrum can be divided into seven colour bands…A single
proton of which of the following colours has the greatest amount of energy?
Violet
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Which of the following is not a part of Newton's law of gravitation?
The gravitational atraction between two objects depends directly on the distance between their centres
of mass
Suppose you read on a newspaper website that a new planet has been found having
From Keplers second law we infer that a planet must move fastest when it is closest….
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The Age of our Solar system is approximately
-4.6 billion years
As of now most known extrasolar planets have been discovered by
- Doppler technique
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the moons of the solar system
planets
- all of the eight classical planets have at least one moon
Which of the following statements about asteroids is not true
- no asteroids have been found beyond the asteroid belt
What is a comet
- the nucleus of a comet is a collection of various ices mixed with dust and tiny bits
of rocky debris
Atmospheres formed around some terrestrial planets because
- outgassing through volcanic activity
Which of the following solar system moons were likely formed through the same
processes as our solar system
- Jupiter’s so-called Galilean moons
what was the ice or frost line of the solar system
- between present day orbits of mars and Jupiter
which of the following is not characteristic of the terrestrial planets
- they have more moons than the Jovian plants
why haven’t we detected low mass planets close to their stars and high mass planets
far from their stars
- Both A and B above
To date about how many extrasolar planets have been discovered
- 700
what are the main constituents of the Jovian planets
- hydrogen and helium
the first small solid grans or flakes formed in our solar system by the process of
- condensation
what is an extrasolar planet
- a planet that orbits a star that is not our sun
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What is an exoplanet moon?
- it is an object orbiting an exoplanet
at firs the suns present day rotation seems to contradict the prediction of the
nebular theory because
- sun should have been rotating fast when it formed, but the actual rotation is fairly
slow
why did the solar nebula heat up as it collapsed
- as the cloud shrank, its gravitational potential energy….
Which of the following statements about the Jovian planets is not true
- outermost Jovian planet Uranus….
Which one of the following is a characteristic of Jovian planets
- low average density
the terrestrial planet cores contain mostly metal because
- metals condensed first in the solar nebula and the rocks then accreted around
them
based on available data what kind of objects in our solar system do most of the
known extrasolar planets resemble
- Jovian planets
the planet closest in size to earth is
- Venus
51 pegasi is important because
- it is the first star like our sun that was found to have a planet orbiting it
which of the following is the origin of almost all the large moons around the jovian
planets
- they were formed by condensation and accretion in disk of gas around the planet
which type of exoplanet would you expect to cause the largest Doppler shift
- massive planet close to its star
rank the 5 worlds in order of size from large to small
- earth, venus, mars mercury moon
the asteroid belt is found where
- mars and Jupiter
according to our theory of solar system formation what is pluto
- one of the largest Kuiper belt objects
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the nebular theory of the formation of the solar system successfully predicts all but
one of the following, which one does the theory not predict
- the equal number of terrestrial and jovian planets
which fo the following statements about meteorites is true
- A. a meteorite is what’s left of a meteor when it hits the earth’s surface
which detection technique has been used to find orbital distance
- Doppler technique
how much of the solar nebula consisted of elements heavier than hydron and helium
2%
which of the following statements is not an observed pattern of motion in our solar
system
- most planets orbit at the same speed
what is the origin of the atoms of hydrogen, oxygen, and sodium in the perspiration
that exits your body during this astronomy test
- hydrogen nuclei were produced a few minutes after the big bang event 13.7 billion
years ago …..
which of the following is not a technique that could be used to discover extrasolar
planet
- direct binocular
why does the solar nebula theory predict that planetary systems are common
- all of the other answers
why are the inner plants made of denser materials than the outer planets
- in the inner part of the nebula only metals and rocks were able to condense
because of the high temperatures whereas hydrogen compounds although more
abundant were only able to condense in the cooler outer regions
which of the following statements about comets is not true?
- the nucleus of a comet is quite large about 100 km across
which of the following is not a characteristic of the general layout of the solar
system?
- all planets rotate on their polar axes at about the same rate
according to our theory of solar system formation what is the origin of asteroids and
comets
- asteroids are the leftover planetesimals of the inner solar system and comets are
the leftover planetesimals that formed beyond the freest line
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1.
Which of the following relationships is the key to nuclear reactions in a star’s core
remaining under control?
a.
Luminosity depends on mass.
*b.
Pressure depends on temperature.
c.
Density depends on mass.
d.
Weight depends on temperature.
2.
What is opacity?
a.
the balance between the pressure and force of gravity inside a star
b.
the force that binds protons and neutrons together to form a nucleus
c.
the temperature and density at which a gas will undergo thermonuclear fusion
*d.
a measure of the resistance to the flow of radiation (photons) through a gas
3.
What causes the outward gas pressure that balances the inward pull of gravity in a
main-sequence star?
a.
the rapid outward flow of gas
b.
the rapid inward flow of gas
*c.
the high temperature and density of the gas
d.
the low mass of helium nuclei
4.
Why is convection important in stars?
a.
because it mixes the star’s gases and increases the temperature of the star
*b.
because it mixes the star’s gases and transports energy outwards
c.
because it carries energy toward the core of the star
d.
because it carries the neutrinos to the surface of the star where they can
escape
5.
How does the temperature inside a star determine how energy flows inside it?
a.
The radiation rate depends on temperature.
*b.
The dependence of opacity on temperature makes convection happen.
c.
The dependence of opacity on temperature makes conduction happen.
d.
The temperature determines how much energy is produced at each layer.
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6.
Which of the following is the best example of energy transport by conduction?
a.
Your feet are warmed when you hold them in front of a fire.
b.
Your feet are warmed when you wear socks.
*c.
Your feet get cold when you stand on a cold floor.
d.
Your feet get cold when you hold them over a cool air vent.
ANSWER:
7.
What does solving equations on a computer have to do with making a stellar model?
*a.
The equations apply the laws of stellar structure at locations within the star.
b.
Equations can describe the H-R diagram and a star’s location on it.
c.
The mass-luminosity equation tells you how to find a star’s luminosity given its mass.
d.
Equations are used to model the nuclear reactions inside a star.
8.
What does the strong force do?
a.
It binds electrons to the nucleus in an atom.
b.
It holds the Moon in orbit around the Earth.
c.
It creates the magnetic field associated with sunspots.
*d.
It binds protons and neutrons together to form a nucleus.
9.
What concept explains why both fusion and fission release energy?
a.
proton-proton chain energy
b.
Coulomb barrier energy
c.
strong force energy
*d.
nuclear binding energy
10.
What is the name of the process by which the Sun turns mass into energy?
a.
nuclear fission
*b.
nuclear fusion
c.
convection
d.
radiation
11.
While on the main sequence, what is a star’s primary energy source?
*a.
nuclear fusion
b.
nuclear fission
c.
gravitational potential energy
d.
magnetic fields
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13.
Why do nuclear fusion reactions only take place in the interior of a star (rather than at
the surface)?
a.
The magnetic fields are strongest there.
*b.
The temperature and density are highest in the centre.
c.
The core is the only place where hydrogen is found.
d.
The strong nuclear force is only active in the centers of stars.
14.
What is produced in the proton-proton chain?
a.
two hydrogen nuclei, a single helium nucleus, and energy in the form of
visible light
b.
four hydrogen nuclei and energy in the form of gamma rays
*c.
a helium nucleus and energy in the form of gamma rays
d.
two hydrogen nuclei and energy in the form of visible light
15.
What happens in the proton-proton chain?
a.
Two protons are fused to make a helium nucleus.
b.
Three protons are fused to make a lithium nucleus.
c.
A helium nucleus is split into four protons.
*d.
Four protons are fused to make a helium nucleus.
What is the term for the process that fuses hydrogen into helium in the cores of massive
main-sequence stars?
*a.
the CNO cycle
b.
the proton-proton chain
c.
hydrostatic equilibrium
d.
the neutrino process
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What happens in the carbon-nitrogen-oxygen (CNO) cycle?
a.
Carbon nuclei are split 3 ways to make helium nuclei.
b.
Carbon and oxygen combine to form nitrogen, which produces energy.
c.
Carbon and nitrogen combine to form oxygen and energy.
*d.
Four hydrogen nuclei combine to form one helium nucleus and energy.
1.
As a star exhausts the hydrogen in its core, what happens?
a.
It becomes hotter and more luminous.
b.
It becomes hotter and less luminous.
c.
It becomes cooler and less luminous.
*d. It becomes cooler and more luminous.
2.
When does a star experience helium fusion?
a.
just before it enters the main sequence
b.
after it has become a red giant star
*c. when it is on the horizontal branch
d. before it leaves the main sequence
3.
Why are giant and supergiant stars rare?
*a. The giant and supergiant stages are very short.
b.
The star blows up before the giant or supergiant stage is reached.
c.
They do not form as often as main sequence stars.
d.
The giant or supergiant stage is very long.
4.
Which of the following statements best describes why stars eventually die?
a.
Their lifespan is limited.
*b. They exhaust all their fuel.
c.
Their cores become hotter.
d. They become less luminous.
5.
Which of the following occurs during the giant stage?
*a. helium fusion in the core and hydrogen fusion in the surrounding shell
b.
hydrogen fusion in the core and helium fusion in the surrounding shell
c.
hydrogen and helium fusion in the core
d. hydrogen flash
6.
In what way are giants and supergiants similar?
a.
They are the main sequence stars.
b.
They undergo a helium flash stage as they enter the main sequence.
*c. They are very luminous.
d.
Their cores expand rapidly to reach giant sizes.
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1. What is the term for a collection of 105 to 106 old stars in a region 30 to 100 light-
years in diameter?
a.
Herbig-Haro object
*b.
globular cluster
c.
open cluster
d.
giant cluster
2. What is the defining characteristic of stars within a cluster that are at the turnoff point?
*a.
They are just leaving the main sequence.
b.
They are just becoming white dwarfs.
c.
They are just entering the main sequence.
d.
They are about to explode in supernovae.
Cluster
3. What is the approximate age of the star cluster in the H-R diagram? (Hint: Main
sequence stars of spectral types O and B have a core supply of hydrogen that is sufficient
to last about 250 million years; types A and F, about 2 billion years; type G about 10
billion years; types K and M about 30 billion years. The apparent magnitude scale means
that larger numbers are toward the bottom of the vertical axis.)
a.
200 million years
b.
2 billion years
*c.
10 billion years
d.
30 billion years
4. Refer to the H-R diagram. What type of star do the two data points above spectral type
“A” represent?
a.
massive main sequence stars
b.
massive supergiant stars
*c.
white dwarfs with mass less than the sun’s mass
d.
white dwarfs with mass greater than twice the sun’s mass
5. Refer to the H-R diagram. What type of star do the data points above spectral type “M”
represent?
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a.
massive main sequence stars
*b.
main sequence stars with mass less than the sun’s mass
c.
main sequence stars with luminosities higher than the sun’s luminosity
d.
pre-main sequence stars
6. Refer to the H-R diagram. How would the H-R diagram of an older star cluster look
different?
a.
The points would shift to the right, because all of the stars would have lower
temperatures.
*b.
The lower main sequence would look the same, but the turnoff would be at
spectral type K or M.
c.
The points would shift down, because all of the stars would have lower
luminosities.
d.
The lower main sequence would look the same, but the turnoff would be at
spectral type F or A.
7. Refer to the H-R diagram. How would the H-R diagram of a more distant star cluster
look different?
*a.
The points would shift down, because all of the stars would have larger apparent
magnitudes.
b.
The points would shift to the right, because all of the stars would appear to be
cooler.
c.
The points would shift up, because all of the stars would have smaller apparent
magnitudes.
d.
The points would shift to the left, because all of the stars would appear to be
hotter.
8. Which nuclear fuels does a one solar mass star use over the course of its entire
lifespan?
a.
hydrogen
*b.
hydrogen and helium
c.
hydrogen, helium, and carbon
d.
hydrogen, helium, carbon, and oxygen
9. Star A is a 1 solar mass white dwarf, and star B is a 1.3 solar mass white dwarf. How
would they differ?
a.
Star A has a smaller radius.
*b.
Star B has a smaller radius.
c.
Star B is supported by neutron degeneracy pressure.
d.
Star A is hotter.
10. What is the source of the energy radiated by a white dwarf?
a.
the proton-proton chain
b.
the CNO cycle
c.
gravitational contraction after becoming a white dwarf
*d.
gravitational contraction during the white dwarf formation phase
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11. What does the Chandrasekhar-Landau limit tell us?
a.
Accretion disks can grow hot through friction.
b.
Neutron stars of more than 3 solar masses are not stable.
*c.
White dwarfs more massive than 1.4 solar masses are not stable.
d.
Stars with a mass less than 0.5 solar masses will not go through helium flash.
12. What is the ultimate fate of our Sun?
a.
It will become a neutron star.
b.
It will explode in a supernova.
*c.
It will become a white dwarf.
d.
It will explode in a nova.
13. Which scenario is most likely to happen when the Sun enters the red giant stage?
*a.
Mercury, Venus, and Earth will be destroyed by the expanding Sun.
b.
Mercury will be destroyed by the expanding Sun, but Venus and Earth will remain
intact.
c.
The Sun will engulf and destroy all planets in the Solar System.
d.
The Sun will never expand far enough to reach Mercury or any other planets in
the Soar System.
14. If the stars at the turnoff point of a cluster have a mass of 3 times the mass of the Sun,
what is the age of the cluster?
*a.
6.4×108 years
b.
3.3×109 years
c.
3.0×1010 years
d.
1.6×1011 years
15. Which of the following correctly describes a relationship between pressure,
temperature, and density in degenerate matter?
a.
Pressure depends only on the temperature.
*b.
Pressure does not depend on temperature.
c.
Temperature depends only on density.
d.
Pressure does not depend on density.
16. What is a white dwarf composed of?
a.
hydrogen nuclei and degenerate electrons
b.
helium nuclei and normal electrons
*c.
carbon and oxygen nuclei and degenerate electrons
d.
degenerate iron nuclei
17. As a white dwarf cools, its radius remains the same. Why is this?
a.
because pressure due to nuclear reactions in a shell just below the surface keeps it
from collapsing
*b.
because pressure does not depend on temperature for a white dwarf, since the
electrons are degenerate
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c.
because pressure does not depend on temperature, since the star has exhausted all
its nuclear fuels
d.
because material accreting onto it from a companion maintains a constant radius
18. What are the two longest stages in the life of a one solar mass star?
a.
protostar, pre–main sequence
b.
protostar, white dwarf
c.
protostar, main sequence
*d.
main sequence, white dwarf
19. Which of the following is the most important factor that determines a life cycle of a
star (for example, why some stars have a short life span)?
*a.
mass
b.
temperature
c.
luminosity
d.
radius
1.
The parsec is defined so that a star at a distance of 1 parsec has a parallax of one
arcsecond. If a star has a parallax of 0.02 seconds of arc, what is its distance?
a. 2 parsecs
b. 5 parsecs
c. 20 parsecs
*d. 50 parsecs
2.
The parsec is defined so that a star at a distance of 1 parsec has a parallax of one
arcsecond. If a star has a parallax of 0.05 seconds of arc, what is its distance?
a. 2 parsecs
b. 5 parsecs
*c. 20 parsecs
d. 50 parsecs
3.
The parsec is defined so that a star at a distance of 1 parsec has a parallax of one
arcsecond. If a star is located at a distance of 10 parsecs, what is its parallax?
*a. 0.1 arcseconds
b. 0.01 arcseconds
c. 1 arcsecond
d. 10 arcseconds
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4.
The parsec is defined so that a star at a distance of 1 parsec has a parallax of one
arcsecond. If a star is located at a distance of 40 parsecs, what is its parallax?
a. 0.25 arcseconds
*b. 0.025 arcseconds
c. 0.04 arcseconds
d. 0.05 arcseconds
5.
How do humans use their eyes to measure relative distance by parallax?
a
.
By continuously focusing our eyes on distant objects, we can determine distance.
*
.
b. Since our eyes are separated, the brain interprets the relative look angles of the
two eyes in terms of distance to the object viewed.
c
.
Our eyes can measure the time it takes light to travel from an object, and from
this we get distance.
d
.
As we move our heads from side to side, our brain compares angles from each of
these positions to work out the distance to the object viewed.
7.
What would make parallax easier to measure?
*a. the Earth's orbit being larger
b. the stars being farther away
c.
the Earth moving faster along its orbit
d. stars moving faster in their orbits
8.
If two stars are emitting the same amount of light, how will the star that is farther away
appear?
a. brighter
*b. dimmer
c. redder
d. bluer
9.
What is absolute visual magnitude?
a.
the luminosity of a star observed from Earth
b.
the luminosity of a star observed from a distance of 1000 parsecs
*c. the apparent magnitude of a star observed from a distance of 10 parsecs
d.
the apparent magnitude of a star observed from Earth
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10.
Absolute magnitude is defined as the apparent magnitude that a star would have if
observed at a distance of 33 light-years. Consider a star at a distance of 350 light-years
that has an apparent magnitude of +5. What would its absolute magnitude be?
*a. It would be less than +5.
b. It would be exactly +5.
c. It would be greater than +5.
d. More information on the star’s luminosity would be required to answer this
question.
11.
What aspect of a star is a measure of the total energy radiated by the star in one
second?
a. apparent visual magnitude
b. luminosity class
c. spectral type
*d. luminosity
12.
Which stars have a large positive absolute magnitude?
a.
stars of high luminosity
*b. stars of low luminosity
c. nearby stars
d. distant stars
13.
If you compare two stars, which one will always have the greater luminosity?
a. The one with the larger radius will always have the greater luminosity.
b. The one with the higher surface temperature will always have the greater
luminosity.
*c. The one with the smaller absolute magnitude will always have the greater
luminosity.
d. The one with the largest distance will always have the greater luminosity.
14.
The nearest star, Proxima Centauri, is about four light-years away and has a
luminosity about 0.001 times that of the Sun. If Proxima Centauri were at a distance of
one light-year instead of four, how much brighter would it appear in the sky?
*a. twice as bright
b. four times as bright
c. 16 times as bright
d. 4000 times as bright
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15.
How does a star’s surface temperature determine the appearance of its spectrum?
a.
Surface temperature affects which elements are solid, liquid, or gaseous.
b. Surface temperature determines the luminosity of the star.
c.
Surface temperature affects which elements can escape from the surface of
the star.
*d. Surface temperature determines the velocity of collision rates of atoms and
ions.
16.
What is the most accurate way to determine the surface temperature of a star?
*a. Study the pattern of absorption lines from various atoms.
b. Study the relative intensities of light measured through different photometric
filters.
c. Study the peak wavelength of the star's continuum blackbody spectrum.
d. Study the pattern of emission lines on the star's spectrum.
17.
Which of the following can the strength of spectral lines tell you about a star?
a. the radius
b. the distance
*c. the temperature
d. the visual magnitude
18.
You observe medium hydrogen Balmer lines, as well as neutral helium spectral
features, in a star. What is the most likely spectral class of this star?
a. G
b. M
c. F
*d. B
19.
You observe medium hydrogen Balmer lines, as well as neutral helium spectral
features, in a star. What is the approximate surface temperature of this star?
a. 3000 K
b. 10 000 K
*c. 20 000 K
d. 5500 K
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20.
What is the spectral sequence in order of decreasing temperature?
*a. OBAFGKM
b. OBAGFKM
c. BAGFKMO
d. ABFGKMO
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AS101 Test Bank
Astronomy I Our Place in the Cosmos (Wilfrid Laurier University)
StuDocu is not sponsored or endorsed by any college or university
AS101 Test Bank
Astronomy I Our Place in the Cosmos (Wilfrid Laurier University)
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Which of the following statements about the ecliptic plane is not true?
• It is the plan of the moons orbit around earth
Which of the following statements about lunar phases is true
• It is possible to have 2 full moons during January but not during February
Which of the following celestial phenomena is the smallest
• The orbit of the moon
Suppose you lived at the Earth equator. Which of the following statements would not
be true
•
- the celestial equator goes through your sky from due east on your horizon, through
50 degrees altitude in the south, to due west on the horizon
When you observe a star for a period of a few hours, you notice that it moves across the sky.
What is responsible for this motion
- Earthʼs rotation on its axis
On the cosmic calendar (where the age of the universe in condensed into the equivalent to on
calendar year) most of recorded history takes up what portion of the “year”?
- the last few seconds of the year
The order of the planets, from the sun outward is
- mercury, venus, earth, mars, jupiter, saturn
Which of the following is the reason for the solar day being longer than a sidereal day?
- the combined effect of the rotation of the Earth and its orbit around the sun
Which of the following statements about the moon is true
-the moonʼs distance from the earth varies during its orbit
One light year is closest to what distance
- ten million million kilometres
Which of the following is the best reason for the leap years
- the combined effect of the rotation of theʼs earth axis and the precession of the
earth
The apparent visual magnitude of star A is +2 and the apparent visual magnitude of star B is +
Based on this information which statement below must be true
•
-
light output can distance cannot apparent be determined from a a stars
apparent visual magnitude alone
Which of the following would appear brightest in the night sky
- the full moon
Which of the following best describes the Milky Way Galaxy
•
-
a spiral galaxy with a disk about 100,000 light years in diameter and
containing between 100 billion and 1 trillion stars
What conditions are required for a lunar eclipse
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•
-
the phase of the moon must be ʼfull, and the nodes of moons orbit must be
aligned with SU and E
We ʼcannot detect stellar parallax with naked-eye observations. Which of the following
would make parallax easier to observe?
- increasing the sizeʼ orbit of the earth
Which statement below most accurately describes modern constellations
-there are 88 well defined regions on the celestial sphere
You are standing on the equator at midnight which way is polaris, the north star?
- on the northern horizon
Suppose the date is June 21
st
and the sun never sets, just touching your Northern horizon at
midnight. Where are you?
- the arctic circle
The size of a hockey rink is best measured in what units
- metres
If the moon is setting at midnight, the phase of the moon must be
- first quarter
Which of the following correctly describes the meridian in your sky
•
-
a half circle extending from your horizon due north through your zenith, to
your horizon due south
Which of the following statements is true?
Answer is both B and C
Statements were
•
-
both the northern and southern hemispheres receive the same amount of
sunlight on the equinoxes
•
-
The northern hemisphere receives the most direct sunlight on the summer
solstice
Which of the following best describes the tropic of Cancer
- it is a place where the sun is directly overhead at noon on the summer solstice
The sun is rising in the east and will be on your meridian in 2 hours. What time is it currently
-10 am
While in Bracebridge, ON where the latitude is 45 degrees, at the spring equinox (about Marc
21
st
) the sun follows the path where it
•
-
rises due east, crosses the meridian at an altitude of 45 degrees in the south,
and sets due west
What is an astronomical Unit
- the average distance from the earth to the sun
What conditions are required for a solar eclipse
•
-
the phase of the moon must be new, and the nodes of the moons orbit must
be nearly aligned with the earth and sun
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Which of the following is the furthest from the sun?
-Proxima Centauri
If it is midnight in waterloo it is
- daytime in sydney Australia
The lunar month is longer than the sidereal month because
•
-
the moon has to complete more than one full orbit around the earth to
complete the cycle of lunar phases
What is the ecliptic
- the ʼ
s
un apparent path along the celestial sphere
Which of the following celestial phenomena is the largest
- the milk way galaxy
How long does it take light from the surface of the sun to get to earth?
- a few minutes
Which of the following has your address in the correct order? In this question the local group
means thee local Clusters
- you, Earth, Solar system, Milky Way, Local Group, Local supercluster
The size of our galaxy in light years is closest to which of the following
numbers
-100,000
Which of the following statements about the celestial sphere is not true
- the celestial equator lies in the ecliptic plane
Which of the following is the largest?
- size of a typical galaxy
If you lived at the north pole at night the stars would
- never rise or set, but move in circles around polaris, the north star
Suppose that the Sun were to suddenly disappear from our solar system. What would happen
earths motion
It would begin traveling in a straight line heading out of the solar system
Which of the following statements about electrons is not true
Electrons are actually neutrons that have acquired an electrical charge
The Metonic Cycle is the
19 year period over which the lunar phases occur on about the same dates
Which statement about the cosmological principle is valid
It is based on two tenets involving the universality of the laws of physics and chemistry and the
belief that there is nothing special about Earth
Considering Einstein's famous equation E =mc2 which of the following is true
A small amount of mass can be turned into a large amount of energy
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Which of the following best describes the origin of the ocean tides on earth
Tides are caused by the difference in the force of gravity exerted by the moon across the sphere of
the Earth
What does temperature measure
The average kinetic energy of particles in a substance
Upon what quantities does angular momentum depend
Mass velocity radius
The amount of matter contained in an object is called its mass. Which of the following is false
If you were to go to the moon your mass would be lower than your moss on Earth because gravity is
less on the moon
Where does the energy come from that your body uses to keep you alive
Mostly it comes from the foods you eat
Without telescopes or other aid we can see the moon in the night sky because
It reflects light
The scientific method is best described by which of the following
A system of collecting analyzing data, formulating a hypothesis, testing it and reforming it as
needed
If your mass is 60 KG on earth would be on Jupiter
60 KG
The names of the 7 days of the week are based on
Seven naked eye objects that appear to move among the constellations
Which of the following is not one of nor follows kepler laws
When a planet travels slower it must be nearer to the sun and it speeds up far from the sun
Ptolemy was important in history of astronomy because he
Developed a model of the solar system that made sufficiently accurate predictions of planetary
positions to remain in use for centuries
Radiative energy is
Energy carried by light
Retrograde motion is observable for what objects
Planets located more distant from the sun than earth
The doppler shift is a wave phenomenon that
Uses change in wavelength of light to determine speed of a moving star
At which lunar phases are the tides smallest
Both first and 3
rd
When copernicus 1
st
created his sun centred model it not lead to better predictions than
ptolemaic why
Copernicus used perfect circles for the orbits of the planets
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A skater can spin faster by pulling arms closer to her body and slower by pulling out
Conservation of angular momentum
From lowest energy to highest energy electromagnetic radiation
Radio, infrared, visible, ultraviolet, x rays, gamma rays
Spectral line formed by hydrogen appears at a wavelength of 486.1 nanometres the spectrum
star sows the same hydrogen line appearing at 485.2 what can we conclude
The star is moving towards us
Which of the following is not a unit of energy
Kilowatt
The frequency of a wave is
All of the above
Spectroscopy can be used to
All of the above
Which of the following statements best describes the principle advantage of telescopes over
eyes
Telescopes can collect far more light with far better angular resolution
A green apple looks green because
It reflects green light and absorbs all other colours
The wavelength of a wave is
The distance between two adjacent peaks of the wave
Kinetic Energy is
Energy of motion
What would happen if the space shuttle were launched with greater speed then earths escape
velocity
It would travel away from the Earth into the solar system
What do astronomers mean by light pollution
Refers to light used for human activities that brightens the sky and hinders astronomical
observations
Which of the following statements is not one of Newtons laws of motion
The net force applied to an object is equal to its mass times velocity
Which of the following statements correctly describes the law of conservation of energy
The total quantity of energy in the universe constant, although we’re not sure how much
energy there really is
Which of the following statements about X rays and radio waves is not true
Neither X rays nor radio waves can penetrate the earths atmosphere
Which of the following is not an advantage of the HST over ground based telescopes
Although it orbits the Earth and is outside the atmosphere, it is closer to the stars
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When hold a rock potential energy, drop it kinetic, hits the ground what
happens
The energy goes to producing sound and to heating the ground rock, air
The trouble with refraction telescopes is that
Different colours of visible starlight get focused to different points in space making the image
blurry
Suppose the angular separation of 2 stars is smaller than the angular resolution of your eyes
will stars appear to your eyes
The 2 stars look like a single point of light
The Age of our Solar system is approximately
-4.6 billion years
As of now most known extrasolar planets have been discovered by
- Doppler technique
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the moons of the solar system
planets
- all of the eight classical planets have at least one moon
Which of the following statements about asteroids is not true
- no asteroids have been found beyond the asteroid belt
What is a comet
- the nucleus of a comet is a collection of various ices mixed with dust and tiny bits
fo rocky debris
Atmospheres formed around some terrestrial planets because
- outgassing through volcanic activity
Which of the following solar system moons were likely formed through the same
processes as our solar system
- jupiter’s so called Galilean moons
what was the ice or frost line of the solar system
- between present day rbits of mars and Jupiter
which of the following is not characteristic of the terrestrial planets
- they have more moons than the jovian plants
why haven’t we detected low mass planets close to their stars and high mass planets
far from their stars
- Both A and B above
To date about how many extrasolar planets have been discovered
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- 700
what are the main constituents of the jovian planets
- hydrogen and helium
the first small solid grans or flakes formed in our solar system by the process of
- condensation
what is an extrasolar planet
- a planet that orbits a star that is not our sun
What is an exoplanet moon
- it is an object orbiting an exoplant
at firs the suns present dat rotation seems to contradict the prediction of the
nebular theory because
- sun should have been roating fast when it formed, but the actual rotation is fairly
slow
why did the solar nebula heat up as it collapsed
- as the cloud shrank, its gravitational potential energy….
Which of the following statements about the jovian planets is not true
- outermost jovian planet Uranus….
Which one of the following is a characteristic of jovian planets
- low average density
the terrestrial planet cores contain mostly metal because
- metals condensed first in the solar nebula and the rocks then accreted around
them
based on available data what kind of objects in our solar system do most of the
known extrasolar planets resemble
- jovian planets
the planet closest in size to earth is
- venus
51 pegasi is important because
- it is the first star like our sun that was found to have a planet orbiting it
which of the following is the origin of almost all the large moons around the jovian
planets
- they were formed by condensation and accretion in disk of gas around the planet
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which type of exoplanet would you expect to cause the largest Doppler shift
- massive planet close to its star
rank the 5 worlds in order of size from large to small
- earth, venus, mars mercury moon
the asteroid belt is found where
- mars and Jupiter
according to our theory of solar system formation what is pluto
- one of the largetst Kuiper belt objects
the nebular theory of the formation of the solar system successfully predicts all but
one of the following, which one does the theory not predict
- the equal number of terrestrial and jovian planets
which fo the following statements about meteorites is true
- A. a meteorite si whats left of a meteor when it hits the earth’s surface
which detection technique has been used to find orbital distance
- Doppler technique
how much of the solar nebula consisted of elements heavier than hydron and helium
2%
which of the following statements is not an observed pattern of motion in our solar
system
- most planets orbit at the same speed
what is the origin of the atoms of hydrogen, oxygen, and sodium in the persipartion
that exits your body during this astrononoky test
- hydrogen nuclei were produced a few minutes after the big bang event 13.7 billion
years ago …..
which of the following is not a technique that could be used to discover extrasolar
planet
- direct binocular
why does the solar nebul;a theory preict that planetary systems are common
- all of the other answers
why are the inner plantes made of denser materials than the outer planets
- in the inner part of the nebula only metals and rocks were able to condense bcause
of the high temperatures whereas hydeogen compounds alghouth more abundtant
wer only able to condense in the cooler outer regions
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which of the following statements about comets is not true
- the nucleus of a comet is quite large about 100 km across
which of the following is not a characteristic of the general layout of the solar
system
- all planets rotate on their polar axes at about the same rate
according to our theory of solar system formation what is the origin of asteroids and
comets
- asteroids are the leftover planetsiamls of the inner solar system and comets are the
leftover planetsiamsl that formed beyond the freost line
Jupiter and Satrun emit
heat than absorbed from the sun due
to
More; heat left over from their formation
Which of the following statements about the rings of the 4 jovian planets is not true
All probably look much like they did when the solar system first formed
What is a Roche zone
The region near a planet where tidal forces would tear apart an object held together only by
gravity
Saturn is how far from the sun
10 AU
What mechanism is most responsible for generating the internal heat of IO that drives volcan
activity
Tidal heating
The belts and zones of jupiter are
Alternating bands of rising and falling air at different latitudes
How thick are Saturn’s rings from top to bottom
A few tens of metres
Which of the following does Jupiter not have
Crustal plates on its surface
All but one of the following statements about Mars are true. Which is false
The Martian atmosphere is fairly substantial with a composition similar to earth
Which of these moons is the most geologically active
Io
Mars is how far from the sun
1.5 AU
All but one of the following statements about mercury are true. Which is false
Mercury has a very thin atmosphere which is strange because there are still active volcanoes
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outgassing carbon dioxide and water vapour
Why are there no impact craters on the surface of Io
Io did have impact craters but they have all ben buried in lava flows
Mercury's Large core is composed of
Iron
We know about earths interior because of
Study of waves created by earthquakes
Why does Jupiter have several distinct cloud layers
Different layers represent clouds made of gases that condense at different temps
How have we been able to construct maps of surface features on the plant
venus
By using radar from spacecraft that were sent to orbit venus
Which of the following objects contains mostly nitrogen with some methane
Titan
The orbit of Venus around the sun is almost circular. What is the radius of its orbit
0.72 AU
Earthʼs atmosphere contains only small amounts of Carbon dioxide because
It dissolves in water, and most of it is now in the oceans and carbonate rocks
All but one of the following statements about Mercury are true. Which one is
false
Mercuryʼs orbit around the sun is circular, more so than any other planet
All of the following statements about Jupiter are true, which is false
The great red spot is a large storm centre, which has been observed for last 50 yrs
Planetary rings are
All of the above
A solar day on Mercury is about how long
176 Earth days
Why does Marys have more extreme seasons than Earth
Because it has a more eccentric orbit
What is the Cassini division of Saturn rings
A large gap, visible from earth, produced by an orbital resonance with moon Mimas
Why does the burning of fossil fuels increase the greenhouse effect on earth
Burning releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere
All but one of the statements about earth is true. Which is false
The poles of earthsʼs magnetic field are preciselyʼ aligned with Earth rotational axis
In what ways is Earth different from other terrestrial planets
All of the above
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What is the region around a planet called where the magnetic field is able to deflect solar win
and other charged particles
Magnetosphere
Why do astronomers believe Triton may have been a planet that was captured by neptune
It orbits neptune in the opposite direction of Neptune rotation
The origin of Earth’s only natural satellite, Moon is
A combination of the capture theory and the daughter theory called the impact theory which posits
that early a young molten earth collided with a mars like object
Which of the following statements about conjunctions and oppositions if false
Mars can have an inferior conjunction butʼs not a superior conjunction from earth perspective
All of the following about Venus are true. Which one is false
The magnetic field has about the same intensity as on Earth it appears to change directions every
100,000 years
There are no auroras on Venus because it
Lacks a strong magnetic field
Which of the following statements about Saturn is false
Saturn was first discovered by Galileo about 400 years ago
Which of the following is not a Kuiper Belt Object
Triton
Which of the following statements about Pluto is false
Pluto is one of the larger KBOs discovered to date and is actually bigger than Mercury
Which of the following statements about Charon, Plutos moon are true expect
which one
As strange as it may seem, astronomers have actually observed seasonal effects on Charon
Which of the following statements about the moons of the Jovian planets is
false
Tiania, one of the largest jovian moons, has a wrinkly surface that is often referred to as
“cantaloupe terrain”
Module 1 Notes
1 Astronomical Unit = 1 AU = 1.5 x 10
8
km = 150M km = average distance from Sun
to the Earth
Light-year (ly) = the distance light travels in one year, approx. 63,000 AU
It has been approximately 13.7B years since the Big Bang
The Moon’s distance from Earth is about 30x the Earth’s diameter = 384,000km
The
precession
of the Earth’s rotational axis points to the North Star but this will
change over time
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- The Earth rotates from west to east in front of the Sun, giving both day and night
- the Sun rises in the east and sets in the west
- What you see in the sky depends on where you are; Canadians see constellations
and stars that Australians never see
- Astronomers measure distances across the sky as angles in units of degrees, arc
minutes and arc seconds
Zenith
– point in the sky directly overhead
Nadir
– point directly below your feet
Celestial Equator
– an extension of the Earth’s equator
onto the celestial sphere
Meridian
– the line going from due north, through your
zenith and finishing due south
Arc Minutes
– angular degrees are subdivided into arc
minutes (60’ in one degree); is further divided into 60
arc seconds
Circumpolar Stars
– stars that trace out complete
circles
The Earth moves along the ecliptic path its rotational axis, on which it makes one
revolution each day, is tipped to the ecliptic plane at a constant angle of 23.5°
resulting in seasons on Earth.
Tropic of Cancer
– circle of latitude on the Earth that marks the most northerly
position at which the Sun may appear directly overhead at its zenith; occurs once
per year at the time of
June Solstice
Tropic of Capricorn
– southern hemisphere counterpart, marking the most
southerly position at which the Sun may appear directly overhead
The moon takes about a month to circle the Earth; as it circles the Earth it goes
through phases of reflected sunlight
Orbital Period
– from one full moon to the next – approximately 29.5 days
Sidereal Period
– the time for one revolution relatives to the stars – approximately
27 days
Solar Eclipse
– Moon blocks out the sunlight at high noon for a period of time
Lunar Eclipse
– Earth blocks out the Sun’s light at midnight for a period of time
Only when the moon crosses through the ecliptic plane, at points called
nodes
, is an
eclipse possible. Also, only when the Sun, Earth and Moon are all lined up is an
eclipse possible; phase of the moon must be either new or full.
Lunar Eclipse Types
– Earth is between the Sun and Moon
a)
Penumbral
- most common, Moon passes through only the penumbra (sunlight is
only partially blocked). Result is that the Moon darkens only slightly.
b)
Partial
- part of Moon passes through the umbra while the rest passes through
the penumbra. Result is the part of the Moon is darkened completely but rest only
slightly darkened with no clear demarcation between the areas
c)
Total
- Moon passes entirely through the umbra. Result is that the Moon is
completely dark during the eclipse
Solar Eclipse Types
– Moon is between the Earth and the Sun
a)
Total
– Moon is relatively close to the Earth in its orbit and the Moon’s umbra
touches a small area of the Earth’s surface; anyone within this area sees the sun
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totally blocked out
b)
Partial
– surrounding the small area of totality lies a larger area falling inside the
Moon’s penumbral shadow; anyone within this area sees the moon partially blocked
out
c)
Annular
– Moon is relatively far from Earth and the Moon’s umbra may not reach
the Earth surface at all; anyone within the small area behind the umbra will see all
of the Sun blocked out except a ring of sunlight surrounding the Moon’s disk
Five planets closest to the Earth are visible to the naked eye:
a)
Mercury
– at sunrise/sunset
b)
Venus
– closer to the horizon and bright
c)
Mars
– reddish colour
d)
Jupiter
– at night and comparatively bright
e)
Saturn
– slightly more difficult to spot
In 2002, all five planets were lined up in the Western sky. This will occur once again
in 2040.
The planets generally follow the motions of the Sun and Moon in that they move
eastward
relative to the stars. Occasionally, all planets appear to change direction
and move
westward
relative to the stars, which is a motion referred to as
retrograde
motion. This is because as the inner planets move faster in orbit and
catch up to the outer, slower-moving planets, the outer planets appear to move
backwards.
Stellar Parallax
– occurs when we look at a nearby star from two vantage points;
first when the Earth is at one extreme of its orbit around the Sun, and second when
the Earth is at the opposite extreme six months later
- the nearby star appears to shift laterally against the background of stars behind it
Stellar parallax allows us to measure distances to nearby stars AND also provides
direct evidence that the Earth really does revolved around the Sun.
Declination
– latitude, expressed in degrees, arcminutes/arcseconds north (+) or
south (-) of the celestial equator
Right Ascension
– longitude; expressed in hours (h), minutes (m), and seconds (s)
of time, from 0 to 24h
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Timekeeping by Day
Our local meridian is the imaginary line ending at the north and south celestial poles
which cuts through our zenith. The average length of time between successive
passes of the Sun across the local meridian is called a
solar day
(this time varies
slightly throughout a year which is why the word “average” is used). Another way of
determining the length of a day is to measure the time it takes for any star to make
successive passes across the local meridian which we call a
sidereal
day. A sidereal
day is about 23 hours 56 minutes, shorter than a solar day by about 4 minutes
because during a solar day the Earth has travelled along its orbit around the Sun and
the Earth needs a little more time to rotate before the Sun crosses the meridian (a
simple mathematical calculation shows that the Earth moves about 1° per day
around its orbit).
Timekeeping by Month
Timekeeping involving months comes from the lunar phase’s cycle which is about
29.5 solar days, corresponding roughly to the average month length, known as
a
synodic
month. Synodic comes from the Latin word “synod” meaning meeting –
the meeting of the Sun and the Moon at each new moon phase. If, however, we use
the stars to measure the length of the lunar cycle, a
sidereal month
, the time turns
out to be 27.3 days, shorter than a synodic month for the same reason a sidereal day
is shorter than a solar day.
Timekeeping by Year
The length of a year is clearly related to the time required for the Earth to complete
one full orbit around the Sun, about 365.25 days. Again there are two slightly
different timeframes. A
sidereal year
is the time taken for a complete orbit relative
to the stars, whereas the time between successive spring (or autumnal) equinoxes is
called a
tropical year
(or solar year) and it should come as no surprise that these
two years differ. A sidereal year is longer than a tropical year by about 20 minutes,
the difference due to the precession of the Earth’s rotation.
We use an aspect of
solar time
for timekeeping. The
apparent solar time
is
determined by the Sun’s position in the sky relative to our local meridian; when the
Sun is right on the meridian it is noon; before the Sun gets to the meridian we say
that it is
ante meridian
(
ante
meaning before), hence a.m. or am; after noon, when
the Sun has passed the meridian we say that it is
post meridian
(
post
meaning
after), hence p.m. or pm. However, each solar day differs from 24 hours by a slight
amount because the Earth’s orbit is not perfectly circular and because of the Earth’s
23.5° tilt. Thus, the
average solar day
is the more important concept and the one
used to keep track of time. Using apparent solar time would mean adjusting clocks
each day, an unnecessary complication. Clearly, apparent solar time varies with
longitude (owing to the Earth’s spin on its axis) and so everybody’s apparent solar
time will be different, unless they happen to be at precisely the same longitude. To
alleviate this problem Sandford Fleming, a Canadian, proposed a system of dividing
the Earth into 24 different time zones such that within each time zone the time
would be exactly the same. Such a system was eventually adopted universally by the
late 1800s.
Calendars
The tropical year (equinox to equinox) is about 365.25 days. If we choose 365 days
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for one year (the Egyptian concept) then the seasons drift through the year by one
day in every 4 years, not a great concept. Julius Caesar introduced the idea that
every four years an extra day would be added to account for this discrepancy (hence
the leap year), a definite improvement. This is the so-called Julian calendar.
However, life is rarely this simple. The tropical year is not exactly 365.25 days but
rather about 11 minutes short of this value resulting in the spring equinox moving
backwards through the calendar by 11 minutes each year, or about 14.5
hours/lifetime of 80 yrs, or about 12 days every 1600 years. So, in 1582, Pope
Gregory XIII introduced a slight variation in the calendar, which became known as
the Gregorian calendar (the one we use today), which first set the spring equinox to
March 21 and then adjusted the leap day schedule such that each century year
(normally a leap year) would be skipped as a leap year unless that year was divisible
by 400 (i.e., year 2000 would be a leap year, but not 1900, nor 2100), making the
calendar good for thousands of years into the future and now used globally.
Module 2 Notes
Kepler
published his three laws of planetary motion in the early 1600s:
a)
Kepler’s First Law
: The orbit of each planet around the Sun is an ellipse with
the Sun at one focus
Eccentricity
was established whereby a circle has an eccentricity of zero and a
straight line has an eccentricity of 1; this is useful in determining the ellipses of
orbits
b)
Kepler’s Second Law
: As a planet moves around in its orbit, it sweeps out equal
areas in equal times
When a planet is closer to the Sun (around its
perihelion
) it moves faster along its
orbit than when close to the
aphelion
(further point from the Sun). The planet
moves from A to B (perihelion) in the same time that it takes to go from A’ to B’
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(perihelion).
c)
Kepler’s Third Law
: The squares of the periods of any two planets have the
same ratio as the cubes of their semi-major axes
p
2
= a
3
where p is the orbital period in years, and a is the avg. distance from
the Sun in AU
Galileo
introduced the telescope to the world in the early 1600s and proved the
Earth was not the centre of the universe and in fact the Sun-centred model was
correct.
Newton’s Universal Law of Gravitation:
if the mass of either object is doubled, the
force doubles
- also, if the distance between the masses doubles, the force diminishes by a factor of
4 (two squared)
Tides are a good example of this, and they are caused by the difference in
gravitational attraction from one side of the Earth to the other.
When the Sun, Moon and Earth are all lined up, the tides are highest and called
spring
tides.
During first and third quarter Moons, the tides are called
neap
tides
The Scientific Method
a)
Deductive reasoning
– process of concluding that something is true because it is
a special case of a general principle that is known to be true
- logically valid and this is the fundamental method in which mathematical facts are
shown to be true
b)
Inductive reasoning
– process of reasoning that a general principle is true
because the special cases you’ve seen are true; for example, if all the people you’ve
met from a particular town have been intelligent, you might say that “all the
residents of this town are smart”
Any model, hypothesis or theory can never be “proved” – a theory always remains a
theory until some observation discredits it.
Pseudoscience
– false science; ex. making predictions based on tarot cards, psychic
determinations
Nonscience
– predictions based on intuition, faith, political conviction and tradition
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Cosmological Principal
- there is nothing special or unique about Earth; our location in the Universe is by
chance
- the laws of physics and chemistry are valid throughout the universe
Orbital Motion
1. An object orbiting Earth, and any orbiting object, is actually falling (being
accelerated due to the gravitational force) toward Earth’s center
2. Objects orbiting each other actually revolve around their mutual center of mass
3. If you want to leave Earth and never return, you must give your spaceship a high
enough velocity so it will follow an open orbit
Momentum
– the inertia an object has
p = m v
whereby p is momentum, m is mass and v is velocity
Properties of a Wave
-
wavelength
– the length of one wave (
λ)
-
frequency
– the number of waves passing a point in space per second (f)
-
speed
– how fast the wave moves through space (c)
Speed = Frequency x wavelength
Every time light interacts with an object, at least one of the following occurs:
- absorption, transmission, or reflection
Doppler Effect
– If a sound source is moving toward an observer the waves in front
of the sound source get bunched up (closer together) so that the observer hears
more waves per second than if the sound source was not moving. Similarly, if the
sound source is moving away from the observer the waves behind the sound source
get pulled apart so that the observer hears fewer waves per second than if the sound
source was not moving.
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Light is a wave phenomenon and so the same effect is observed for light. That is,
light coming from a moving object will have its frequency shifted to a higher or
lower value depending on the motion of the source.
If we are looking at light from a star and we see the traditional hydrogen spectral
line pattern (say the Lyman series) but it is shifted towards the red end of the visible
spectrum then we know that the star is moving away from us. Furthermore, by
measuring the amount the spectrum is shifted, we can determine the radial velocity
of the star. Conversely, if the spectrum is "blue-shifted" then the star is moving
toward us.
Heat is transferred from one body to another body by three unique
mechanisms:
-
conduction
– when the atoms in one part of the substance vibrate faster than at
another part of the substance (lower temperature) causing energy to be transferred
-
convection
– liquids and gas distribute heat with an actual transfer of mass
-
radiation
– makes use of a form of energy to remove/transport heat from one
place to another
•
Conduction
— heat flows from the
hot solid core to the inner mantle (red
part) and from the top of the mantle into
the lithosphere (the outside crust).
•
Convection
— as described above
conduction cells form in the mantle.
•
Radiation
— at the surface of the
planet energy is radiated into space in
the form of light of various frequencies.
Types of Electromagnetic Radiation and their Sources
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Type of
Radiation
Wavelength Range
(nm)
Object
Temperature
Typical Sources
Gamma Rays
Less than 0.01
More than 108 K
Nuclear reactions
X-rays
0.01 - 20
106 - 108 K
Supernova remnants
and solar corona
Ultraviolet
20 - 400
104 - 106 K
Very hot stars
Visible
400 - 700
103 - 104 K
Stars
Infrared
1000 - 1,000,000
10 - 103 K
Cool clouds of dust,
planets, satellites
Radio
More than
1,000,000
Less than 10 K
No astronomical
objects are this cold
Types of Telescopes
a)
Refractive
– similar to human eye, takes light in through a lens (A)
b)
Reflective
– more common, use one optical surface to collect light, a spherical
mirror surface, which focuses the light at a point in front of the mirror (B)
Module 3 Notes
Comparative Planetology
– seeking to understand the similarities and the
differences between and among the planets
Solar Nebular Theory
– main theory of formation of our solar system
- imagines that some cataclysmic event initiated the collapse of a nebula that caused
material falling inward to some centre converting gravitational potential energy into
kinetic energy making the centre, or core, hotter and hotter
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Terrestrial Planets
– four inner planets - Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars
- small, dense, rocky worlds with little or no atmosphere
Jovian Planets
– four outer planets – Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune
- large, low-density worlds with thick atmospheres and liquid or ice interiors
Planetary Characteristics:
•
all planets orbit the Sun in the same direction – counter clockwise (ccw)(as
viewed from above North Pole)
•
all orbits lie in nearly the same plane
•
almost all planets have nearly circular orbits (Mercury is a minor exception)
•
most planets rotate ccw (Venus and Uranus are exceptions) including the Sun
•
most moons orbit their planet in same direction as the planet's rotation and
orbit in their planet's equatorial plane
Mercury and Venus have no moons; Earth has one and Mars has two very small
asteroid-like moons. The Jovian planets, by contrast, have many. Jupiter is listed as
having 6 but it actually has over 60; Saturn has almost as many and Uranus and
Neptune have 40 between them.
All Jovian planets have ring systems. Saturn’s rings are made of ice particles. The
rings of Jupiter, Uranus and Neptune are made of dark rocky particles. Terrestrial
planets have no rings.
Asteroids
lie primarily between Mars and Jupiter and a fairly broad belt in the same
plane as planetary orbits.
Comets
follow either elliptical orbits or parabolic/hyperbolic orbits passing close to
the Sun once. They are made largely of ices mixed with rocky dust, no bigger than a
few km across. They come from two major sources – the Kuiper belt (a doughnut
shaped region starting around Neptune and extending out into space) and the Oort
Cloud (a spherical region completely surrounding the solar system and extending
out some 50,000 AU). As a comet gets close to the Sun it generates a
coma
(an
atmosphere of escaping gases and dust) around its
nucleus
and two tails:
a
plasma
tail of ionized gas swept away by the solar wind, and a
dust
tail of small
solid particles created by the escaping atmosphere (escapes from the comet because
of its weak gravity). When we see a comet in the sky we don’t actually see its core
but rather the lengthy beautiful tail emanating from the core. This tail always points
away from the Sun.
During each pass of the Sun, comets lose material through sublimation and tail
formation.
Meteoroids, Meteors and Meteorites
are found around Earth. Meteors are actually
small bits of rock and/or metal falling into Earth’s atmosphere that heat up due to
friction with the air. We see them as “shooting stars” (of course, they are not stars at
all). A meteoroid is what the rocky object is called before it hits the atmosphere and
becomes a meteor. If the meteoroid is massive enough to have any part of it left
before it hits the Earth’s surface it then becomes a meteorite.
Kuiper Belt
– begins at about orbit of Neptune and extends out to about 100 AU
- this doughnut-shaped belt lies mainly in the planetary or ecliptic plane
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Oort Cloud
– a spherical cloud surrounding solar system, centred on Sun, and
comets from this region come into solar system from all directions; extends from the
outer part of the Kuiper belt to about halfway to nearest stars
Half-Life
– the time it takes for half of the atoms to decay in a radioactive element
- it appears that our solar system formed about 4.6 billion years ago
Summary
Planet
Orbital Radius
(AU)
Mercury
0.39
Venus
0.72
Earth
1.0
Mars
1.52
Jupiter
5.2
Saturn
9.54
Uranus
19.2
Neptune
30.1
Galactic Recycling Process
– when stars die, the spew out their mass into the
universe and the next generation of stars contains some of these heavier elements
and, in the process of formation, make some new ones of their own
As the nebula started to contract around its centre, collapsing under its own gravity
to something around 200 AU in diameter,
three
things occurred:
1.
Temperature Increased
2.
Nebular Rotation Rate Increased
3.
Nebular Sphere Flattens to Disk
Eventually as we move away from the Sun, the temperature drops to the freezing
point for water (273K) signifying a special point known as the
ice
or
frost line
.
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Beyond the frost line, gaseous compounds such as ammonia and methane can
condense to form ice flakes that formed the basis for the Jovian planets.
Condensation
– adding one atom or molecule at a time
Accretion
– small flakes of metal and rocks stick together by being closer to each
other
•
in the inner solar system, where only metal and rocks and silicates could
condense, planetesimals were made of rocks and metals and formed the
terrestrial planets — furthermore, as only rocks and metals could condense
the terrestrial planets were rich in these materials.
•
in the outer solar system where ices could condense (it was cold enough)
planetesimals were built of ices and metals and rocks but because ice
derivatives (H, He, methane, ammonia, etc) were more abundant the
planetesimals were based on these materials and collected more material,
becoming larger, forming the Jovian planets.
•
Solar Wind
Once the protosun formed into the Sun that it is today, it generated a continuous
emission of energetic charged particles (electrons, protons, ions) spewing out in all
directions from the Sun.
The formation of the eight planets continued as all of them were bombarded by
asteroids, meteors and comets. The large Jovian planets experienced asteroid
bombardment, but because of their atmospheres, no evidence remains. The
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asteroids in the “belt” between Mars and Jupiter are likely a collection of leftover
planetesimals that never quite made it as another planet.
Planetesimals were likely of two types:
(1) rocky and metallic (much like the inner planets)
(2) ice and hard snow embedded with small amounts of rock/metal (much like core
of the Jovians)
Our Moon may have formed as a result of a collision between Earth and a large,
leftover planetesimal, possibly as big as Mars. The smaller mass results in its
inability to retain any atmosphere.
Two main techniques are used to measure the motion of a star back-and-forth, or
side-to-side, which hare caused by the gravitational tugs of one
or more planets.
a)
The Astrometric Technique
- the use of sensitive
telescopes
b)
Doppler Technique
– the light coming from the star is
tracked using the gravitational tug it exerts on the star
c)
Transit
– as the planet moves in front of its star, the star’s
luminosity dips, and
then returns to its former level when the
transit is complete
Very few planets orbit their parent star with a
greater radius than 5 AU. Many orbits are
quite elliptical.
Planetary Migration
– a scenario which
allows the formation of Jovian planets at
expected distances from the star (beyond the frost line) followed by a migration into
an orbit which brings the planet closer to the home star
Encounters and Resonances
– a situation where a planet interacts gravitationally
with other planets, essentially a re-arrangement of the solar system objects
Mars has 2 small moons and Jupiter has over 60.
Module 4 Notes
a) Mercury
- moderately high orbital eccentricity (0.206) meaning its orbit is observably elliptic
- orbital inclination is also high (7 degrees), greater than all others except Pluto
- rotational axis tilt is 0 degrees; no seasons on Mercury
- orbital period: 88 days, synodic period of 116 days (time between successive conjunctions
with Earth)
- solar day of 176 Earth days
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The two
elongations
, eastern and western, are the greatest
angular positions the inner planet ever has with respect to
Earth. The two
conjunctions
, superior and inferior, refer
to when Mercury is lined up with the Earth and the Sun.
When the order is Earth-Sun-Mercury, we have a superior
conjunction and when Mercury is between the Sun and
Earth, we have an inferior conjunction. We might see a
solar transit during an inferior conjunction.
- not tidally locked to the Sun; rotates one and a half times
during each orbit
- a solar day on Mercury (sun rise to sun rise) is 176 Earth days long (rotates very slowly)
- about 61% iron and has an iron core about 75% of the radius of the planet
- surface has craters everywhere
- very thin atmosphere, too small to retain any gas
- the iron core makes up about 42% of its volume, magnetic field is similar to Earth’s in
shape but only about 1% as strong
- Mariner 10 visited Mercury in the 70s, but it is very difficult to explore due to high
temperatures
b) Venus
- orbital eccentricity of 0.0068, almost a perfect circle; greatest elongation is 47 degrees
away from Sun
- brightest object in sky other than Sun and Moon; 16x brighter than any star because it is
close to the Sun, close to Earth, relatively large (about same as Earth), and its albedo is 0.59
- during an inferior conjunction, it is possible to have a solar transit of Venus
- Venus’ rotation is retrograde; it rotates backwards very slowly
- sidereal day that is 243 Earth days, orbital period 224.7 days, and solar day of 117 Earth
days
- axial tilt is 177.4 degrees; north pole points downward; rotational axis of 2.6 degrees (no
seasons)
- 740 K - dry, hot, uninhabitable desert, two large highland features: Ishtar Terra and
Aphrodite Terra
- no tectonic activity, evidence of volcanic activity, erosion, no current bombardment
- atmosphere is 90 times as dense as Earths, lots of CO
2
and water vapour in atmosphere
- greenhouse effect causes there to be no water
- no magnetic field due to slow rotation; no protection from solar wind generates thick
atmosphere
c) Earth
- orbit is almost circular (e = 0.017)
- average distance from Sun is 1 AU, takes 365.25 days to orbit the Sun
- rotational axis inclined at 23.5 degrees causing seasons
- slightly bigger than Venus, radius of almost 6400km
- average surface temperature is 9 degrees Celsius; range is 60 to -90 degrees Celsius
- one natural satellite, the Moon, which orbits Earth in 29.5 days (solar period)
- atmosphere of nitrogen and has a magnetic field
- core is surrounded by a molten shell, thick mantle, and a thin crust
- lithosphere is about 100km thick, covered with liquid water (75%) and solid land mass
(25%)
- two main seismic waves are p-waves (primary) which are pressure waves and s-waves
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(secondary) which are shear waves; solid inner core of radius 1300km surrounded by
3500km molten outer core
- centre is around 6,000K, rich in nickel and iron
- crust consists of granite and rocks, upper mantle largely iron-magnesium-silicate mixture
- changing surface due to volcanic activity, plate tectonics and erosion
- melting point within the mantle is well above the actual temperature, so mantle is solid
- continental drifts causes plates to move slowly forming mountains, ocean ridges, new land
- atmosphere is unique, 77% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 1% argon, some water and carbon
dioxide
- temperature is cool enough to allow water vapour to condense as rain
- CO
2
dissolves in water so oceans hold some of it and rainfall carries minerals from
rocks/land into the ocean which react with dissolved CO
2
to form carbonate minerals which
fall to ocean floor
- oxygen originally built up in atmosphere when only planets existed and few animals used
it up
- very strong magnetic field resulting “magnetosphere” extending beyond the atmosphere
- at 3000 and 20,000km above Earth’s surface are two zones of trapped, charged, high-
energy particles called the
Van Allen belts
surrounding the Earth centred on the magnetic
equator; particles are from solar wind and these belts protect life on Earth from the harmful
effects of the solar wind particles
- aurora borealis in the North and aurora australis in the South are caused by these particles
d) The Moon
- average distance from Earth to Moon is 384,400 km
- sidereal period is 27.3 days, but takes 29.53 days to move through phases due to Earth’s
orbit
- tipped at 6.7 degrees, size is 0.27 of Earth
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- large dark areas on the surface are called
maria
, and lighter-coloured regions are called
highlands
- the lunar highlands are covered with hundreds of craters
- large water ice deposits near both poles have been detected, which likely came from
meteoroids
- largest crater in Solar System discovered on far side of the moon, 2500km wide, Aitken
Basin
- Neil Armstrong set foot on the Moon on July 20, 1969
- virtually no atmosphere, low escape speed so any gas molecules eventually leave
- no erosion and no tectonic action so surface changes very, very slowly
- no global magnetic field
-
large impact hypothesis
theory imagines a collision between a very young, molten Earth
and a large, Mars-like object where debris particles in a ring began to accelerate into larger
bodies
- plans exist to establish human colonies on the Moon for further exploration, mining, and
scientific research
e) Mars
- average orbital radius of about 1.5 AU with a relatively large eccentricity
- fairly bright but less than Venus due to smaller size, distance from Sun and lower albedo of
0.15
- rotation is similar to Earth’s, around 24.6 hours, and tipped at about 24 degrees resulting
in seasons
- radius about 50% of Earth and mass about 10% but with a density 70% of Earth
- polar ice caps made of CO
2
or dry ice, NOT water, although water ice below surface of poles
- huge volcanoes (largest in solar system), deep canyons, huge dune fields
- lava flows in the north, Tharsis bulge contains volcanoes, Valles Marinis canyon rises
10km high than any other part of planet, Olympus Mons (largest volcanoe) is 600km in
diameter and rises 21km
- no tectonic activity, volcanoes are inactive
- the Vallex Marineris canyon was formed when the planet’s surface bulged out under the
forces of crustal formation, is about 4000 km long, 120km across at widest point, 7km deep
in some areas
- the canyon was NOT created by water flow or tectonics but rather by heat conduction
forces
- two Mars rovers called Spirit and Opportunity (which is still functioning)
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- significant evidence of previous presence of water on Mars
- very thin atmosphere with a pressure of about 1/150 that of Earth consisting of mostly
carbon
dioxide (95.3%) and other gases
- "Mars apparently was once a world with pleasant
temperatures and streams, rain, glaciers, lakes and
possibly oceans. It had all the necessities for life as we
know it. But the once hospitable planet turned into a
frozen and barren desert at least 3 billion years ago, and
it is unlikely that Mars will ever be warm enough for its
frozen water to flow again. If life once existed on Mars,
it is either extinct or hidden away in a few choice
locations, such as hot springs around not-quite-dormant
volcanoes. As we think about the possibility of future
climate change on Earth, Mars presents us with an
ominous example of how much things can change."
- no magnetic field although there likely was once a field generated by moving, liquid, iron
core
- Mars has two small moons: Phobos and Deimos; only few km across and gravity too low
for them to by spherical (Phobos orbits in 7 hours and 39 minutes and Deimos around three
days)
- Mars radius is about 3400km, Phobos orbits 9378km from center and Deimos 22460km
- the moons may be captured asteroids or have formed from interplanetary debris during
formation
f) Jovian Planets – Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune
- Jupiter, the largest, could hold 1400 Earths, Neptune, the smallest, could hold 50 Earths
- they all have rings, they have many moons (Jupiter over 60), composition of H and He (gas
and liquid)
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- they have huge atmospheres surrounding relatively small rocky cores
- not perfectly spherical but flattened somewhat at poles due to fast rotation
- Obliquity, the inclination of a planet’s equator to its orbital plane, is minimal for Jupiter (3
degrees) resulting in no seasons; tilt for Uranus is 98 degrees means it rotates backwards
- generate more radiation than they receive from the Sun
- temperature increases rapidly along with the
pressure and density as one descends into Jupiter
which quickly becomes liquid H and then an even
more compact form becoming metallic H (a
conductor), which when combined with Jupiter’s
rapid rotation generates a large magnetic field
- central core is a mixture of hydrogen, rock and
metals
- more mass would make Jupiter smaller as it
results in a greater gravitational field
- Saturn is almost as big but only 1/3 the mass and
low density such that it would float in water
- cores are all about 10 Earth masses
Jupiter’s Atmosphere
- 75% H, 24% He, 1% Hydrogen compounds (which make the planet visible)
- cloud layers have different compositions which create alternating zones and belts
resulting in
Jupiter’s colourful appearance
- the bands of rising air are zones and appear white because of ammonia clouds
- the adjacent bands of falling air are belts which are transparent
- the rising zones and falling belts result from pressure differences between regions
- Great Red Spot is a long-lived high-pressure storm wider than two Earths
Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune’s Atmosphere
- Saturn’s more subdued yellows, reds and tans come from the same compounds on Jupiter;
however, a lower temperature and deeper cloud layers result in a “washing out” of distinct
colour variations
- Uranus and Neptune are distinctly blue from the methane (20x more than on
Jupiter/Saturn) which form in icy flakes in the upper clouds
- all Jovian planets have weather patterns with storms and winds; greatest speeds on Saturn
- Neptune has one high-pressure storm seen as the Great Dark Spot
Magnetic Fields
- all Jovian planets have substantial magnetic fields and magnetospheres
- Jupiter’s magnetic field is about 20,000 times stronger than Earth’s so its magnetosphere
deflects the solar wind 3M km before it even reaches Jupiter
- other planetary magnetospheres are smaller with Saturn's generated by its thinner layer
of metallic hydrogen, and Uranus' and Neptune's magnetic fields generated by their cores as
they have no metallic hydrogen layers
Jovian Moons and Rings
- more than 150 moons orbit the four Jovian planets
- classified as small (<300km in diameter), medium (300-1500km) and large (>1500km)
- most are categorized as small and are irregular in shape because gravity is too small to
force them into a spherical shape; many also have unusual orbits and some even revolve
backwards
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- most medium/large moons are spherical and some have atmospheres, hot interiors,
magnetic fields
- impact cratering has occurred on most moons, volcanism is present on some along with
tectonics
Galilean Moons of Jupiter
a) Io – most volcanically active object in the solar system with 300 active volcanoes
continually repaving the surface; a 400,000 volt potential exists across the surface resulting
in a 5M amp current
b) Europa – the smoothest body in the solar system, completely covered by water ice a few
km thick
- lines covering the surface are fractures in the ice surface caused by tidal forces of
Jupiter/other moons
c) Ganymede – largest moon in the solar system, similar in appearance to Callisto having
impact craters
- both reveal the effect of tectonic action early in its formation; covered with an icy shield
Moons of Saturn
a) Titan - atmosphere is 90% N (only world besides Earth where N is the dominant gas)
- almost as large as Mars; hydrocarbon gases result in a greenhouse effect, cold -180
degrees C
- few craters on surface, evidence for ice volcanoes, seasonal variations with wind speeds
- wide variety of hydrocarbon molecules in the upper atmosphere
b) Enceladus – active geologically; energy, organics, liquid water are present
- unknown if life forms are contained in the deep oceans of water under the icy surface
Moons of Uranus
- small and numerous; largest are likely composed of ice and rock
- Miranda is heavily cratered but unlike any other moon with its ridges, cliffs and valleys
Moons of Neptune
- Triton has a retrograde orbit inclined at 20 degrees
- surface temperature of 37 K and a surface of water ice
Total Moons: Earth – 1, Mars – 2, Jupiter – 67, Saturn – 62, Uranus – 27, Neptune – 13
Jovian Moons and Rings
- rings of Saturn: A ring, B ring, C ring; small cap near edge of A ring is called Encke gap
- particles making up rings vary in size from mere dust to boulder-sized water ice chunks
- any ring particles that stray from circular orbits get nudged or pushed back into orbit by
adjacent ring objects to maintain the ring structure
- rings begin at about 10,000 km from Saturn’s surface out to 420,000 km
- rings are no thicker than 100 meters
- critical distance inside which the moon is broken apart is known as the
tidal stability limit
or
Roche
limit; Roche limit is about 2.4 times the radius of the planet
- ring particles are constantly falling into the parent planet as the upper atmosphere
extends into the ring system; rings get replenished with new particles
Some rings are so well-defined in space because of the influence of small moons that orbit
on either side of it and are known as Shepherd moons.
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g) Pluto
- if classified as a planet, it is the smallest, lightest, and furthest from the Sun
- widely accepted as a Kuiper Belt Object (KBO), one of the biggest and closest to Sun as a
KBO
- orbit is highly eccentric and event spends 20 out of 250 year orbit inside orbit of Neptune
- Pluto’s moon, Charon, is about half the size of Pluto
- Charon’s orbit is fairly close to Pluto, <20,000km
- rotates backwards
- surface of Pluto is methane ice w/ CO and nitrogen ice
- thin atmosphere of nitrogen, surface temperature
decreases to less than 40 K when it moves far from Sun
causing nitrogen to freeze out on Pluto’s surface
Other Kuiper Belt Objects Including Eris
- Eris has a planet size of about
2700km in diameter with a
composition similar to Pluto
- distance from Sun is 97AU and
has a moon
- many KBOs have orbits close to
Neptune’s orbit; known objects in
the Kuiper belt are shown in the
picture below with a gap at the
bottom due to obscuration by the
band of the Milky Way
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1
0 / 1 point
Which of the following statements is
not
an observed pattern of motion in our solar system?
Most planets orbit at the same speed.
All planets orbit the Sun in the same direction.
Most planetary orbits lie nearly in the same plane.
Almost all moons orbit their planet in the same direction as the
planet's rotation.
Most planets rotate in the same direction in which they orbit.
Question 2
0 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about the Jovian planets is
not
true?
The outermost Jovian planet, Uranus, is also the least massive.
The largest Jovian planet is Jupiter.
Together, Jupiter and Saturn have over 100 moons.
All the Jovian planets have ring systems.
Saturn is the least dense planet, having a density less than
water.
Question 3
1 / 1 point
Rank the following planets in order of size from the smallest to the largest.
Mars, Mercury, Earth, Saturn, Uranus
Mars, Mercury, Earth, Saturn, Uranus
Uranus, Mars, Mercury, Earth, Saturn
Mercury, Mars, Earth, Uranus, Saturn
Mercury, Mars, Uranus, Saturn, Earth
Question 4
0 / 1 point
According to our theory of solar system formation, what is the origin of asteroids and comets?
Asteroids and comets are both leftover planetesimals that
formed between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.
Asteroids are the leftover planetesimals of the inner solar
system, and comets are the leftover planetesimals that formed
beyond the frost line.
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Asteroids are chunks of pure metal that condensed in the solar
nebula, and comets are chunks of pure rock that condensed in
the solar nebula.
Asteroids are the remains of a terrestrial planet that shattered,
and comets are the remains of a jovian planet that shattered.
Asteroids and comets represent material from interstellar space
that was captured in the solar nebula by gravity.
Question 5
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about the moons of the solar system is
false
?
Earth has one moon, named Moon, and no rings that we know
of.
All planets have moons except Mercury.
Moons vary in size from quite small to the largest, Ganymede,
which is just over 2600 km in radius.
Jupiter has the most moons in our solar system.
Mars has two small moons which are irregularly-shaped (not
round).
Question 6
0 / 1 point
Which of the following characteristics of the Jovian planets is (are) correct?
A)
They have varying sizes; Jupiter is one size, Neptune about
half as big and Mercury is quite small.
B)
They are relatively large, low density objects with solid
surfaces.
C)
They are closer to the Sun than the terrestrial planets; that's
why we can see them at night.
D)
Both A and B are correct.
E)
None of A, B or C are correct.
Question 7
1 / 1 point
What is the origin of the atoms of hydrogen, oxygen and sodium in the perspiration that exits your
body during this astronomy test?
The hydrogen nuclei were produced a few minutes after the big
bang event 13.8 billion years ago; the oxygen and sodium nuclei
were synthesized inside stars more than 4.6 billion years ago.
They were synthesized during the early stages of the Sun's
formation and spewed out from the Sun through the solar wind
and our planet, Earth, simply intercepted them.
All of these elements were produced in the first few minutes
after the big bang event.
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They were all fused deep inside Earth.
All of these elements were synthesized inside stars more than
4.6 billion years ago.
Question 8
1 / 1 point
Which of the following is
not
characteristic of the terrestrial planets?
They are relatively smaller than the jovian planets.
They all have solid surfaces.
They have higher densities than the jovian planets
They have more moons than the jovian planets.
They are more closely spaced together than the jovian planets.
Question 9
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about meteorites is
true
?
A meteorite is the same thing as an asteroid.
Meteorites are often called "shooting stars" when they are seen
as flashes of light across the sky at night.
A meteorite becomes a meteoroid once it hits the Earth's
surface.
A meteorite is what's left of a meteor when it hits the Earth's
surface.
A meteorite is the same thing as a meteoroid.
Question 10
1 / 1 point
Ring systems around planets are:
fairly rare; just Saturn has rings.
quite common; all planets have them.
fairly rare; just Venus and Saturn have them.
quite common among terrestrial planets.
quite common among the large, gas planets; all Jovian planets
have them.
Question 11
1 / 1 point
We have determined the age of the solar system through:
A)
taking measurements of tree rings.
B)
radioactive dating.
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C)
the study of rocks and the determination of their
composition.
D)
the analysis of the sand on various beaches around the
Earth.
E)
all of A, B, C and D.
Question 12
1 / 1 point
What is a comet?
It's a brand of bathroom cleanser!
It's just an asteroid that has come too close to the Sun.
The nucleus of a comet is a collection of various ices mixed
with dust and tiny bits of rocky debris.
It has no core but has two beautiful wispy tails which always
point to the Sun as it goes through the inner solar system.
It's an asteroid that has been shot out from the Asteroid Belt
because of the influences of Jupiter.
Question 13
1 / 1 point
When we examine of the types of planets making up the solar system we notice the following:
there seems to be no general category of planets; each is unique and there
are very few similarities among them.
all planets making up the solar system are like Pluto.
there are two types of planets: terrestrial and Jovian.
there is just one type of planet: round, small and rocky.
there are three types of planets: terrestrial, Jovian and small snowballs.
Group B
14
0 / 1 point
The terrestrial planets and the giant Jovian planets have different compositions because
the terrestrial planets are closer to the Sun.
the Jovians are much larger.
the terrestrial planets have few moons.
the giant Jovian planets are made mostly of solids.
the Jovian planets are closer to the Sun.
Question 15
1 / 1 point
About how much of the solar nebula consisted of elements heavier than hydrogen and helium?
10% by mass.
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50% by mass.
98% by mass.
2% by mass.
25% by mass.
Question 16
1 / 1 point
What constitutes the solar wind?
A)
It's very similar to the wind here on Earth which is merely
the moving around of atmospheric gases.
B)
It is the continuous stream of hot air being released by the
fusion process deep inside the Sun.
C)
It's the continuous emission of charged particles (electrons,
protons, etc.) from the solar surface.
D)
The solar wind in not constant but happens in spurts
especially during the time of coronal mass ejections from
sunspots.
E)
It is a combination of both A and B.
Question 17
0 / 1 point
How were the moons of the Jovian planets most likely formed?
Probably through the same process as the planets themselves
formed.
Most likely by gravitationally attracting asteroids as a
protoplanet might form.
Most of the solar system's moons initially formed around
Jupiter which were then ejected by Jupiter toward other planets
which eventually captured them.
Early in their formation the planets spun wildly and flung off
chunks of themselves which coalesced as moons.
They were all formed in the Asteroid Belt between Venus and
Jupiter and through BB (Belt Benevolence) they got distributed
among the Jovian planets.
Question 18
0 / 1 point
The sticking together of small but solid particles is an important feature of the solar nebular theory.
What is this process known as?
Gluons
Gravitational collapse.
Condensation
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Differentiation
Accretion
Question 19
1 / 1 point
What was the frost line of the solar system?
the distance from the Sun beyond which temperatures were
low enough for hydrogen compounds and methane to condense
into ices, between the present-day orbits of Mars and Jupiter
the distance from the Sun beyond which temperatures were
low enough for rocks to condense, between the present-day
orbits of Mercury and Venus
the distance from the Sun beyond which temperatures were
low enough for metals to condense, between the Sun and the
present-day orbit of Mercury
the distance from the Sun beyond which temperatures were
low enough for asteroids to form, between the present-day
orbits of Venus and Earth
the distance from the Sun beyond which temperatures were
low enough for hydrogen and helium to condense, between the
present-day orbits of Jupiter and Saturn
Question 20
0 / 1 point
What is differentiation in planetary geology?
any process by which one part of a planet's surface evolves
differently from another part of the same planet's surface
the process by which gravity separates materials according to
density
any process by which a planet's surface evolves differently
from another planet's surface
any process by which a planet evolves differently from its
moons
the process by which different types of minerals form a
conglomerate rock
Question 21
1 / 1 point
According to our theory of solar system formation, why does the Sun rotate slowly today?
The Sun once rotated much faster, but it transferred angular
momentum to charged particles caught in its magnetic field
and then blew the particles away with its strong solar wind.
The Sun once rotated much faster, but it lost angular
momentum because everything slows down with time.
The Sun once rotated much faster, but it lost angular
momentum due to internal friction.
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The Sun once rotated much faster, but it transferred angular
momentum to planets and other objects during close
encounters.
The Sun was born rotating slowly because the solar nebula had
very little angular momentum.
Question 22
0 / 1 point
The first solid grains or flakes formed in our solar system by the process of ________ , the addition
of material to an object an atom or molecule at a time.
Hydration
Vapourization
Condensation
Accretion
Sublimation
Question 23
1 / 1 point
The nebular theory of formation of the solar system successfully predict ts all but one of the
following. Which one does the theory
not
predict?
Asteroids, Kuiper-belt objects and comets.
The compositional differences between terrestrial and Jovian
planets.
The craters on the Moon.
The equal number of terrestrial and Jovian planets.
Planets orbit around the Sun in nearly circular orbits in a
flattened disk.
Question 24
1 / 1 point
Which of the following is most likely to describe a comet, but not an asteroid?
Comets reside with similar bodies in a sparsely populated belt.
Comets are partially but not totally composed of rocks and
metals.
Comets are mainly composed of ice and snow with some dust
and rocky bits.
Comets are leftover planetesimals from the time when the
planets were formed.
There really is no difference between a comet and an asteroid.
Question 25
0 / 1 point
What is a planetesimal?
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An object that is in orbit around a planet.
One of the larger planets in the solar system.
A rogue planet moving around in the solar system not attached
to any particular planet.
A smaller building block of planets.
A smaller building block of a protostar.
Question 26
1 / 1 point
Atmospheres formed around some terrestrial planets because
A)
outgassing through volcanic activity plus a strong enough
gravity kept the gas from escaping into space
B)
their gravity was great enough to capture atoms and
molecules floating around in the solar nebula
C)
radioactivity from surface rocks produced oxygen and
carbon dioxide in sufficient quantities to build up an
atmosphere
D)
human activity produces carbon dioxide and plants produce
oxygen which are the main constituents of an atmosphere
E)
all of A, B, C and D.
Question 27
1 / 1 point
What is meant by the period of heavy bombardment?
During the second world war London, England was heavily bombed by the
German Airforce.
During the 500-700 million years of the solar system existence there were
plenty of larger objects roaming around in the solar disk. These larger
objects constantly bombarded the terrestrial objects building up their
surfaces and often leaving large craters that still exist today.
Throughout the solar system's existence the Jovian planets especially have
been bombarded with rogue asteroids leaving scars on their surfaces.
It refers to a particularly interesting period about 65 millions years ago
when so many asteroid hit Earth that many animal species, including the
dinosaurs, were wiped out.
It refers to a period of human history known as the Dark Ages when many
people died from being hit by the constant rain of meteors from the Kuiper
Belt.
Group C
28
1 / 1 point
What is so special about a star known as 51 Pegasi?
It was the first star found with a planet orbiting it that is known
to support intelligent life.
It is the largest known white dwarf star.
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It was the first star found with multiple planets orbiting it.
It is the first main sequence star (stars like our Sun) found to
have a planet orbiting it.
It is a pulsar with planets orbiting around it.
Question 29
0 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about exoplanets is true?
The large majority of confirmed exoplanets orbit their stars at
radii less than 5 AU.
No planets have been found orbiting their stars at radii less
than Mercury's orbital radius.
A considerable number of exoplanets seem to have orbits that
are quite elliptical.
All of A, B and C are true.
Only A and C are true.
Question 30
0 / 1 point
Which statement best describes the astrometric technique for finding exoplanets?
Observing the slight shifting of the frequency of the light as the
star wobbles back and forth in space due to an exoplanet
orbiting it.
Observing the slight dip in the brightness of a star as the
planet moves across it's face.
Observing the slight side-to-side movement of the star in space
caused by an exoplanet orbiting it.
Observing the gravitational effects the orbiting exoplanet has
on other nearby stars.
Actually seeing the exoplanet orbiting the star through our
more powerful telescopes.
Question 31
0 / 1 point
Which statement best describes the direct detection technique for finding exoplanets?
Observing the slight shifting of the frequency of the light as the
star wobbles back and forth in space due to an exoplanet
orbiting it.
Actually seeing the exoplanet orbiting the star through our
more powerful telescopes.
Observing the slight side-to-side movement of the star in space
caused by an exoplanet orbiting it.
Observing the slight dip in the brightness of a star as the
planet moves across it's face.
Observing the gravitational effects the orbiting exoplanet has
on other nearby stars.
Question 32
1 / 1 point
What is an exoplanet moon?
It is an object orbiting a Kuiper Belt object.
It is an object orbiting an exostar.
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It is an object orbiting an exoplanet just as our Moon orbits
Earth.
It is an object orbiting an object other than Earth in our own
solar system.
So far we have not detected any exoplanet moons so they
don't exist.
Question 33
1 / 1 point
Which statement best describes the transit method of discovering exoplanets?
Measuring the size of the star around which the exoplanet is
orbiting.
Measuring the Doppler shift of a star as it orbits its combined
centre of mass with an exoplanet.
Measuring the distance a star wobbles on the sky as it is
tugged in its orbit by an exoplanet.
Taking a photograph of planets around a star through a
telescope that can block the light of the star.
Measuring the periodic dimming of light as an exoplanet
crosses in front of the star.
Question 34
1 / 1 point
Which statement best describes the Doppler technique for finding exoplanets?
Actually seeing the exoplanet orbiting the star through our
more powerful telescopes.
Observing the slight dip in the brightness of a star as the
planet moves across it's face.
Observing the slight side-to-side movement of the star in space
caused by an exoplanet orbiting it.
Observing the gravitational effects the orbiting exoplanet has
on other nearby stars.
Observing the slight shifting of the frequency of the light as the
star wobbles back and forth in space due to an exoplanet
orbiting it.
Question 35
1 / 1 point
What is an extrasolar planet?
A planet that is considered an "extra" in that it was not needed
for the formation of its solar system.
A planet that is larger than the Sun.
A planet that is found orbiting another planet outside our solar
system.
A planet that is extra large compared to what we would expect.
A planet that orbits a star that is not our Sun.
Question 36
1 / 1 point
Which of the following space telescope missions was dedicated entirely to discovering exoplanets?
Casinni.
Spitzer.
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Hubble.
Apollo.
Kepler.
Question 37
1 / 1 point
Why would a star continuously wobble back-and-forth in space?
Because of air currents in the atmosphere surrounding it
Because it is undergoing precession
Because the nebula it formed out of collided with a supernova
shockwave
Because it had too much to drink
Because it is revolving around a common centre of mass with
other planets
Question 38
1 / 1 point
What is the name of the exoplanet that has been found that is closest to our solar system?
Fomalhaut b
Alpha Centauri Bb
Rigel
Kepler 56c
Sirius
Question 39
1 / 1 point
What does the exoplanet descriptor "hot Jupiter" mean?
It's an exoplanet jult like Jupiter but orbiting much closer to its
sun than 5 AU.
It's an exoplanet the same size as Jupiter but with an extensive
ring system.
It's the latest fast car made by Toyota having Jupiter as its
model name.
It's an exoplanet just like Jupiter but orbiting much further
away from its sun than 5 AU.
It's any exoplanet orbiting around a much bigger star than our
Sun.
Question 40
0 / 1 point
Which of the following techniques has so far yielded the fewest detections of an exoplanet?
Transit method.
Astrometric method.
Direct Detection.
Doppler technique
Gravitational lensing.
1
1 / 1 point
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Rank the following planets in order of size from the smallest to the largest.
Mars, Mercury, Earth, Saturn, Uranus
Mercury, Mars, Uranus, Saturn, Earth
Mercury, Mars, Earth, Uranus, Saturn
Uranus, Mars, Mercury, Earth, Saturn
Mars, Mercury, Earth, Saturn, Uranus
Question 2
1 / 1 point
According to our theory of solar system formation, what is the origin of asteroids and comets?
Asteroids are chunks of pure metal that condensed in the solar
nebula, and comets are chunks of pure rock that condensed in
the solar nebula.
Asteroids are the leftover planetesimals of the inner solar
system, and comets are the leftover planetesimals that formed
beyond the frost line.
Asteroids are the remains of a terrestrial planet that shattered,
and comets are the remains of a jovian planet that shattered.
Asteroids and comets represent material from interstellar space
that was captured in the solar nebula by gravity.
Asteroids and comets are both leftover planetesimals that
formed between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.
Question 3
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about the moons of the solar system is
false
?
Jupiter has the most moons in our solar system.
All planets have moons except Mercury.
Mars has two small moons which are irregularly-shaped (not
round).
Earth has one moon, named Moon, and no rings that we know
of.
Moons vary in size from quite small to the largest, Ganymede,
which is just over 2600 km in radius.
Question 4
1 / 1 point
The age of our solar system is approximately
10,000 years.
13.8 billion years.
4.6 billion years.
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4.6 million years.
13.8 million years.
Question 5
0 / 1 point
The rotation (daily spin) of the planets are:
All in the same direction (with the exception of Venus and
Neptune)
All in the same direction (with the exception of Mercury)
All in the same direction (counter clockwise as seen from above
the system)
All in the same direction (clockwise as seen from above the
system)
All in the same direction (with the exception of Venus and
Uranus)
Question 6
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about comets is
true
?
We are not really sure what they are made of because we can't
get close enough to one, even with unmanned spacecraft, to
determine their makeup.
Comets have a relatively small nucleus (normally less than 10
km in diameter) that develop debris tails as they get close to the
Sun.
Comets have a relatively small nucleus and never visit the inner
solar system more than once because they burn out completely
as they get close to the Sun (Halley's comet is an exception)
Comets have a small nucleus with tails that always exist, even
when they are at home in the Kuiper Belt.
Comets have a relatively small nucleus (normally larger than
100 km wide) that develop just one debris tail as they get into
the inner part of the solar system.
Question 7
1 / 1 point
Ring systems around planets are:
fairly rare; just Saturn has rings.
quite common among the large, gas planets; all Jovian planets
have them.
quite common among terrestrial planets.
quite common; all planets have them.
fairly rare; just Venus and Saturn have them.
Question 8
1 / 1 point
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Which of the following is
not
characteristic of the terrestrial planets?
They are more closely spaced together than the jovian planets.
They all have solid surfaces.
They have higher densities than the jovian planets
They are relatively smaller than the jovian planets.
They have more moons than the jovian planets.
Question 9
1 / 1 point
Which of the following characteristics of the Jovian planets is (are) correct?
A)
They have varying sizes; Jupiter is one size, Neptune about
half as big and Mercury is quite small.
B)
They are relatively large, low density objects with solid
surfaces.
C)
They are closer to the Sun than the terrestrial planets;
that's why we can see them at night.
D)
Both A and B are correct.
E)
None of A, B or C are correct.
Question 10
1 / 1 point
When we examine of the types of planets making up the solar system we notice the following:
there seems to be no general category of planets; each is
unique and there are very few similarities among them.
there are two types of planets: terrestrial and Jovian.
there is just one type of planet: round, small and rocky.
there are three types of planets: terrestrial, Jovian and small
snowballs.
all planets making up the solar system are like Pluto.
Question 11
0 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about meteorites is
true
?
Meteorites are often called "shooting stars" when they are seen
as flashes of light across the sky at night.
A meteorite is the same thing as an asteroid.
A meteorite becomes a meteoroid once it hits the Earth's
surface.
A meteorite is what's left of a meteor when it hits the Earth's
surface.
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A meteorite is the same thing as a meteoroid.
Question 12
1 / 1 point
Where are most of the known asteroids found?
between Mars and Jupiter.
in the Oort Cloud.
in the Kuiper Belt.
between Jupiter and Saturn.
between Mercury and Venus.
Question 13
1 / 1 point
We have determined the age of the solar system through:
A)
taking measurements of tree rings.
B)
radioactive dating.
C)
the study of rocks and the determination of their composition.
D)
the analysis of the sand on various beaches around the Earth.
E)
all of A, B, C and D.
Group B
14
0 / 1 point
The first solid grains or flakes formed in our solar system by the process of ________ , the addition
of material to an object an atom or molecule at a time.
Vapourization
Sublimation
Hydration
Accretion
Condensation
Question 15
0 / 1 point
According to our theory of solar system formation, what is Pluto?
Pluto is a terrestrial planet that was shot out from the inner
solar system to its present location as the most distant planet.
Pluto is simply an oddball planet, and thus represents one of
the "exceptions" that the nebular theory cannot explain.
Pluto is one of the largest of the Kuiper belt objects.
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Pluto is a terrestrial planet that happened to form at a large
distance from the Sun.
Pluto is a very small jovian planet.
Question 16
1 / 1 point
According to our theory of solar system formation, why does the Sun rotate slowly today?
The Sun was born rotating slowly because the solar nebula had
very little angular momentum.
The Sun once rotated much faster, but it transferred angular
momentum to planets and other objects during close
encounters.
The Sun once rotated much faster, but it transferred angular
momentum to charged particles caught in its magnetic field
and then blew the particles away with its strong solar wind.
The Sun once rotated much faster, but it lost angular
momentum due to internal friction.
The Sun once rotated much faster, but it lost angular
momentum because everything slows down with time.
Question 17
1 / 1 point
Which of the following solar system moons likely formed through the same processes as our solar
system?
A)
The moons of Mars, Phobos and Deimos.
B)
Venus's small moon, Dactyl.
C)
Jupiter's so-called Galilean moons.
D)
Uranus's moon, Triton
E)
All of A, C and D.
Question 18
0 / 1 point
How were the moons of the Jovian planets most likely formed?
They were all formed in the Asteroid Belt between Venus and
Jupiter and through BB (Belt Benevolence) they got distributed
among the Jovian planets.
Most of the solar system's moons initially formed around
Jupiter which were then ejected by Jupiter toward other planets
which eventually captured them.
Most likely by gravitationally attracting asteroids as a
protoplanet might form.
Probably through the same process as the planets themselves
formed.
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Early in their formation the planets spun wildly and flung off
chunks of themselves which coalesced as moons.
Question 19
1 / 1 point
About how much of the solar nebula consisted of elements heavier than hydrogen and helium?
50% by mass.
10% by mass.
2% by mass.
25% by mass.
98% by mass.
Question 20
1 / 1 point
Which of the following is most likely to describe a comet, but not an asteroid?
There really is no difference between a comet and an asteroid.
Comets are mainly composed of ice and snow with some dust
and rocky bits.
Comets reside with similar bodies in a sparsely populated belt.
Comets are leftover planetesimals from the time when the
planets were formed.
Comets are partially but not totally composed of rocks and
metals.
Question 21
1 / 1 point
What is a planetesimal?
A rogue planet moving around in the solar system not attached
to any particular planet.
One of the larger planets in the solar system.
An object that is in orbit around a planet.
A smaller building block of a protostar.
A smaller building block of planets.
Question 22
1 / 1 point
Why did the solar nebula heat up as it collapsed?
Radiation from other nearby stars that had formed earlier
heated the nebula.
Collisions among planetesimals generated friction and heat.
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As the cloud shrank, its gravitational potential energy was
converted to kinetic energy and then into thermal energy.
Nuclear fusion occurring in the core of the protosun produced
energy that heated the nebula.
The shock wave from a nearby supernova heated the gas.
Question 23
1 / 1 point
What was the frost line of the solar system?
the distance from the Sun beyond which temperatures were
low enough for rocks to condense, between the present-day
orbits of Mercury and Venus
the distance from the Sun beyond which temperatures were
low enough for hydrogen compounds and methane to condense
into ices, between the present-day orbits of Mars and Jupiter
the distance from the Sun beyond which temperatures were
low enough for hydrogen and helium to condense, between the
present-day orbits of Jupiter and Saturn
the distance from the Sun beyond which temperatures were
low enough for metals to condense, between the Sun and the
present-day orbit of Mercury
the distance from the Sun beyond which temperatures were
low enough for asteroids to form, between the present-day
orbits of Venus and Earth
Question 24
0 / 1 point
Protoplanets grow into planetesimals by which processes?
A)
Colliding with other protoplanets.
B)
Gravitationally pulling in other protoplanets
C)
Attracting other planetesimals with the same charge.
D)
A combination of A and B.
E)
A combination of A, B and C.
Question 25
1 / 1 point
Why are the inner planets made of denser materials than the outer planets?
In the inner part of the nebula only metals and rocks were able
to condense because of the high temperatures, whereas
hydrogen compounds, although more abundant, were only able
to condense in the cooler outer regions.
The Sun's gravity pulled denser materials toward the inner part
of the solar nebula, while lighter gases escaped more easily.
When the solar nebula formed a disk, materials naturally
segregated into bands, and in our particular solar system the
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denser materials settled nearer the Sun while lighter materials
are found in the outer part.
In the beginning, when the protoplanetary disk was spinning
faster, centrifugal forces flung the lighter materials toward the
outer parts of the solar nebula.
Denser materials were heavier and sank to the centre of the
nebula.
Question 26
1 / 1 point
What is differentiation in planetary geology?
any process by which a planet's surface evolves differently
from another planet's surface
the process by which different types of minerals form a
conglomerate rock
any process by which a planet evolves differently from its
moons
any process by which one part of a planet's surface evolves
differently from another part of the same planet's surface
the process by which gravity separates materials according to
density
Question 27
0 / 1 point
The nebular theory of formation of the solar system successfully predict ts all but one of the
following. Which one does the theory
not
predict?
The compositional differences between terrestrial and Jovian planets.
Asteroids, Kuiper-belt objects and comets.
The equal number of terrestrial and Jovian planets.
Planets orbit around the Sun in nearly circular orbits in a flattened disk.
The craters on the Moon.
Group C
28
0 / 1 point
Which statement best describes the Doppler technique for finding exoplanets?
Observing the gravitational effects the orbiting exoplanet has
on other nearby stars.
Observing the slight side-to-side movement of the star in space
caused by an exoplanet orbiting it.
Observing the slight shifting of the frequency of the light as the
star wobbles back and forth in space due to an exoplanet
orbiting it.
Actually seeing the exoplanet orbiting the star through our
more powerful telescopes.
Observing the slight dip in the brightness of a star as the
planet moves across it's face.
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Question 29
1 / 1 point
Which statement best describes the transit method of discovering exoplanets?
Measuring the size of the star around which the exoplanet is
orbiting.
Measuring the periodic dimming of light as an exoplanet
crosses in front of the star.
Taking a photograph of planets around a star through a
telescope that can block the light of the star.
Measuring the distance a star wobbles on the sky as it is
tugged in its orbit by an exoplanet.
Measuring the Doppler shift of a star as it orbits its combined
centre of mass with an exoplanet.
Question 30
0 / 1 point
What type of exoplanet would you expect to cause the largest Doppler shift in the spectrum of its
star?
A massive planet that is far from its sun.
A massive planet that is close to its sun.
A low-mass planet that is far from its sun.
An average-mass planet that is at an average distance from its
sun.
A low-mass planet that is close to its sun.
Question 31
1 / 1 point
So far, about how many exoplanets have been discovered?
about 4000
around 75
150
700
over 1500
Question 32
1 / 1 point
What is an exoplanet moon?
It is an object orbiting a Kuiper Belt object.
It is an object orbiting an exostar.
It is an object orbiting an object other than Earth in our own
solar system.
So far we have not detected any exoplanet moons so they
don't exist.
It is an object orbiting an exoplanet just as our Moon orbits
Earth.
Question 33
0 / 1 point
Which statement best describes the astrometric technique for finding exoplanets?
Actually seeing the exoplanet orbiting the star through our
more powerful telescopes.
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Observing the slight side-to-side movement of the star in space
caused by an exoplanet orbiting it.
Observing the slight dip in the brightness of a star as the
planet moves across it's face.
Observing the slight shifting of the frequency of the light as the
star wobbles back and forth in space due to an exoplanet
orbiting it.
Observing the gravitational effects the orbiting exoplanet has
on other nearby stars.
Question 34
0 / 1 point
Which of the following techniques has so far yielded the fewest detections of an exoplanet?
Doppler technique
Transit method.
Gravitational lensing.
Astrometric method.
Direct Detection.
Question 35
0 / 1 point
Thinking about our own solar system, which planet will have the greatest effect on the Sun's
movement about the solar system's centre of mass?
Saturn, because of its large ring structure.
Earth, because we live here.
Mars, because it's the red planet.
Mercury, because it is closest to the Sun.
Jupiter, because of its huge mass.
Question 36
1 / 1 point
Why would a star continuously wobble back-and-forth in space?
Because it is revolving around a common centre of mass with
other planets
Because it is undergoing precession
Because it had too much to drink
Because the nebula it formed out of collided with a supernova
shockwave
Because of air currents in the atmosphere surrounding it
Question 37
1 / 1 point
What is an extrasolar planet?
A planet that is larger than the Sun.
A planet that is found orbiting another planet outside our solar
system.
A planet that orbits a star that is not our Sun.
A planet that is extra large compared to what we would expect.
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A planet that is considered an "extra" in that it was not needed
for the formation of its solar system.
Question 38
1 / 1 point
What is the name of the exoplanet that has been found that is closest to our solar system?
Alpha Centauri Bb
Rigel
Fomalhaut b
Sirius
Kepler 56c
Question 39
0 / 1 point
Why is it easier to find exoplanets that are much more massive than the Earth?
Because the solar nebula theory predicts more massive
exoplanets should exist
Because massive exoplanets orbit more slowly
Because they are mainly found around dimmer stars
Because their transits and tugging on their stars are easier to
detect
Because there aren't any exoplanets with masses lower than
Earth
Question 40
1 / 1 point
Which statement best describes the transit technique for finding exoplanets?
Actually seeing the exoplanet orbiting the star through our more powerful
telescopes.
Observing the slight dip in the brightness of a star as the planet moves
across it's face.
Observing the gravitational effects the orbiting exoplanet has on other
nearby stars.
Observing the slight side-to-side movement of the star in space caused by
an exoplanet orbiting it.
Observing the slight shifting of the frequency of the light as the star
wobbles back and forth in space due to an exoplanet orbiting it.
1
0 / 1 point
Where are most of the known asteroids found?
between Jupiter and Saturn.
in the Kuiper Belt.
between Mars and Jupiter.
between Mercury and Venus.
in the Oort Cloud.
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Question 2
1 / 1 point
We have determined the age of the solar system through:
A)
taking measurements of tree rings.
B)
radioactive dating.
C)
the study of rocks and the determination of their
composition.
D)
the analysis of the sand on various beaches around the
Earth.
E)
all of A, B, C and D.
Question 3
1 / 1 point
The age of our solar system is approximately
10,000 years.
4.6 billion years.
13.8 million years.
13.8 billion years.
4.6 million years.
Question 4
1 / 1 point
Ring systems around planets are:
fairly rare; just Venus and Saturn have them.
quite common; all planets have them.
quite common among terrestrial planets.
quite common among the large, gas planets; all Jovian planets
have them.
fairly rare; just Saturn has rings.
Question 5
1 / 1 point
What is the origin of the atoms of hydrogen, oxygen and sodium in the perspiration that exits your
body during this astronomy test?
They were all fused deep inside Earth.
All of these elements were produced in the first few minutes
after the big bang event.
They were synthesized during the early stages of the Sun's
formation and spewed out from the Sun through the solar wind
and our planet, Earth, simply intercepted them.
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The hydrogen nuclei were produced a few minutes after the big
bang event 13.8 billion years ago; the oxygen and sodium nuclei
were synthesized inside stars more than 4.6 billion years ago.
All of these elements were synthesized inside stars more than
4.6 billion years ago.
Question 6
1 / 1 point
Which of the following characteristics of the terrestrial planets is (are) correct?
A)
They are relatively small, low density bodies with solid
surfaces on which to walk.
B)
They are relatively small, high density objects with solid
surfaces on which to walk.
C)
They have varying sizes; Earth is one size but large Jupiter is
also terrestrial and you can walk on its surface.
D)
They are all closer to the Sun than the Jovian planets but
their densities are quite varied with one being less dense
than water.
E)
All of A, B, C and D are correct.
Question 7
1 / 1 point
The rotation (daily spin) of the planets are:
All in the same direction (with the exception of Mercury)
All in the same direction (with the exception of Venus and
Uranus)
All in the same direction (clockwise as seen from above the
system)
All in the same direction (with the exception of Venus and
Neptune)
All in the same direction (counter clockwise as seen from above
the system)
Question 8
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about asteroids is
false
?
An asteroid is just a failed comet.
Asteroids have been found outside the asteroid belt.
Most asteroids have congregated in the asteroid belt between
Mars and Jupiter.
Sometime asteroids enter Earth's atmosphere but most burn up
before they reach Earth's surface.
Some asteroids seem to have originated on Mars.
Question 9
1 / 1 point
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According to our theory of solar system formation, what is the origin of asteroids and comets?
Asteroids are the remains of a terrestrial planet that shattered,
and comets are the remains of a jovian planet that shattered.
Asteroids are the leftover planetesimals of the inner solar
system, and comets are the leftover planetesimals that formed
beyond the frost line.
Asteroids and comets are both leftover planetesimals that
formed between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.
Asteroids are chunks of pure metal that condensed in the solar
nebula, and comets are chunks of pure rock that condensed in
the solar nebula.
Asteroids and comets represent material from interstellar space
that was captured in the solar nebula by gravity.
Question 10
0 / 1 point
Which of the following characteristics of the Jovian planets is (are) correct?
A)
They have varying sizes; Jupiter is one size, Neptune about
half as big and Mercury is quite small.
B)
They are relatively large, low density objects with solid
surfaces.
C)
They are closer to the Sun than the terrestrial planets;
that's why we can see them at night.
D)
Both A and B are correct.
E)
None of A, B or C are correct.
Question 11
1 / 1 point
Which of the following is
not
characteristic of the terrestrial planets?
They have more moons than the jovian planets.
They have higher densities than the jovian planets
They are relatively smaller than the jovian planets.
They all have solid surfaces.
They are more closely spaced together than the jovian planets.
Question 12
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about the moons of the solar system is
false
?
All planets have moons except Mercury.
Jupiter has the most moons in our solar system.
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Earth has one moon, named Moon, and no rings that we know
of.
Mars has two small moons which are irregularly-shaped (not
round).
Moons vary in size from quite small to the largest, Ganymede,
which is just over 2600 km in radius.
Question 13
0 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about comets is
true
?
Comets have a relatively small nucleus and never visit the inner solar
system more than once because they burn out completely as they get close
to the Sun (Halley's comet is an exception)
We are not really sure what they are made of because we can't get close
enough to one, even with unmanned spacecraft, to determine their makeup.
Comets have a relatively small nucleus (normally larger than 100 km wide)
that develop just one debris tail as they get into the inner part of the solar
system.
Comets have a relatively small nucleus (normally less than 10 km in
diameter) that develop debris tails as they get close to the Sun.
Comets have a small nucleus with tails that always exist, even when they
are at home in the Kuiper Belt.
Group B
14
1 / 1 point
What is meant by the period of heavy bombardment?
During the 500-700 million years of the solar system existence
there were plenty of larger objects roaming around in the solar
disk. These larger objects constantly bombarded the terrestrial
objects building up their surfaces and often leaving large
craters that still exist today.
It refers to a particularly interesting period about 65 millions
years ago when so many asteroid hit Earth that many animal
species, including the dinosaurs, were wiped out.
It refers to a period of human history known as the Dark Ages
when many people died from being hit by the constant rain of
meteors from the Kuiper Belt.
Throughout the solar system's existence the Jovian planets
especially have been bombarded with rogue asteroids leaving
scars on their surfaces.
During the second world war London, England was heavily
bombed by the German Airforce.
Question 15
1 / 1 point
Protoplanets grow into planetesimals by which processes?
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A)
Colliding with other protoplanets.
B)
Gravitationally pulling in other protoplanets
C)
Attracting other planetesimals with the same charge.
D)
A combination of A and B.
E)
A combination of A, B and C.
Question 16
1 / 1 point
Which of the following is most likely to describe a comet, but not an asteroid?
Comets are leftover planetesimals from the time when the
planets were formed.
Comets are partially but not totally composed of rocks and
metals.
Comets are mainly composed of ice and snow with some dust
and rocky bits.
Comets reside with similar bodies in a sparsely populated belt.
There really is no difference between a comet and an asteroid.
Question 17
1 / 1 point
The terrestrial planet cores contain mostly metal because
convection carried the metals to the core.
the entire planets are made mostly of metal.
only metals condensed closest to the Sun in the solar nebula
and the rocks then accreted around them as the protoplanets
cooled.
radioactivity created metals in the core from the decay of
uranium.
metals sank to the centre during a time when the interiors
were molten throughout.
Question 18
1 / 1 point
Atmospheres formed around some terrestrial planets because
A)
outgassing through volcanic activity plus a strong enough
gravity kept the gas from escaping into space
B)
their gravity was great enough to capture atoms and
molecules floating around in the solar nebula
C)
radioactivity from surface rocks produced oxygen and
carbon dioxide in sufficient quantities to build up an
atmosphere
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D)
human activity produces carbon dioxide and plants produce
oxygen which are the main constituents of an atmosphere
E)
all of A, B, C and D.
Question 19
1 / 1 point
Why are the inner planets made of denser materials than the outer planets?
In the inner part of the nebula only metals and rocks were able
to condense because of the high temperatures, whereas
hydrogen compounds, although more abundant, were only able
to condense in the cooler outer regions.
Denser materials were heavier and sank to the centre of the
nebula.
When the solar nebula formed a disk, materials naturally
segregated into bands, and in our particular solar system the
denser materials settled nearer the Sun while lighter materials
are found in the outer part.
In the beginning, when the protoplanetary disk was spinning
faster, centrifugal forces flung the lighter materials toward the
outer parts of the solar nebula.
The Sun's gravity pulled denser materials toward the inner part
of the solar nebula, while lighter gases escaped more easily.
Question 20
1 / 1 point
Which of the following solar system moons likely formed through the same processes as our solar
system?
A)
The moons of Mars, Phobos and Deimos.
B)
Venus's small moon, Dactyl.
C)
Jupiter's so-called Galilean moons.
D)
Uranus's moon, Triton
E)
All of A, C and D.
Question 21
1 / 1 point
About how much of the solar nebula consisted of elements heavier than hydrogen and helium?
2% by mass.
25% by mass.
98% by mass.
50% by mass.
10% by mass.
Question 22
1 / 1 point
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How were the moons of the Jovian planets most likely formed?
Probably through the same process as the planets themselves
formed.
Most likely by gravitationally attracting asteroids as a
protoplanet might form.
Most of the solar system's moons initially formed around
Jupiter which were then ejected by Jupiter toward other planets
which eventually captured them.
They were all formed in the Asteroid Belt between Venus and
Jupiter and through BB (Belt Benevolence) they got distributed
among the Jovian planets.
Early in their formation the planets spun wildly and flung off
chunks of themselves which coalesced as moons.
Question 23
1 / 1 point
What constitutes the solar wind?
A)
It's very similar to the wind here on Earth which is merely
the moving around of atmospheric gases.
B)
It is the continuous stream of hot air being released by the
fusion process deep inside the Sun.
C)
It's the continuous emission of charged particles (electrons,
protons, etc.) from the solar surface.
D)
The solar wind in not constant but happens in spurts
especially during the time of coronal mass ejections from
sunspots.
E)
It is a combination of both A and B.
Question 24
1 / 1 point
According to our theory of solar system formation, what is Pluto?
Pluto is simply an oddball planet, and thus represents one of
the "exceptions" that the nebular theory cannot explain.
Pluto is one of the largest of the Kuiper belt objects.
Pluto is a very small jovian planet.
Pluto is a terrestrial planet that was shot out from the inner
solar system to its present location as the most distant planet.
Pluto is a terrestrial planet that happened to form at a large
distance from the Sun.
Question 25
1 / 1 point
What was the frost line of the solar system?
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the distance from the Sun beyond which temperatures were
low enough for rocks to condense, between the present-day
orbits of Mercury and Venus
the distance from the Sun beyond which temperatures were
low enough for hydrogen and helium to condense, between the
present-day orbits of Jupiter and Saturn
the distance from the Sun beyond which temperatures were
low enough for metals to condense, between the Sun and the
present-day orbit of Mercury
the distance from the Sun beyond which temperatures were
low enough for asteroids to form, between the present-day
orbits of Venus and Earth
the distance from the Sun beyond which temperatures were
low enough for hydrogen compounds and methane to condense
into ices, between the present-day orbits of Mars and Jupiter
Question 26
1 / 1 point
What is a planetesimal?
A smaller building block of a protostar.
A smaller building block of planets.
A rogue planet moving around in the solar system not attached
to any particular planet.
One of the larger planets in the solar system.
An object that is in orbit around a planet.
Question 27
0 / 1 point
According to our theory of solar system formation, why does the Sun rotate slowly today?
The Sun once rotated much faster, but it lost angular momentum because
everything slows down with time.
The Sun once rotated much faster, but it transferred angular momentum to
planets and other objects during close encounters.
The Sun once rotated much faster, but it lost angular momentum due to
internal friction.
The Sun once rotated much faster, but it transferred angular momentum to
charged particles caught in its magnetic field and then blew the particles
away with its strong solar wind.
The Sun was born rotating slowly because the solar nebula had very little
angular momentum.
Group C
28
1 / 1 point
Why would a star continuously wobble back-and-forth in space?
Because the nebula it formed out of collided with a supernova
shockwave
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Because it is undergoing precession
Because of air currents in the atmosphere surrounding it
Because it had too much to drink
Because it is revolving around a common centre of mass with
other planets
Question 29
0 / 1 point
Which of the following techniques has so far yielded the fewest detections of an exoplanet?
Transit method.
Astrometric method.
Direct Detection.
Doppler technique
Gravitational lensing.
Question 30
1 / 1 point
Which statement best describes the transit technique for finding exoplanets?
Observing the slight shifting of the frequency of the light as the
star wobbles back and forth in space due to an exoplanet
orbiting it.
Observing the gravitational effects the orbiting exoplanet has
on other nearby stars.
Actually seeing the exoplanet orbiting the star through our
more powerful telescopes.
Observing the slight dip in the brightness of a star as the
planet moves across it's face.
Observing the slight side-to-side movement of the star in space
caused by an exoplanet orbiting it.
Question 31
1 / 1 point
So far, about how many exoplanets have been discovered?
150
over 1500
about 4000
around 75
700
Question 32
0 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about exoplanets is true?
The large majority of confirmed exoplanets orbit their stars at
radii less than 5 AU.
No planets have been found orbiting their stars at radii less
than Mercury's orbital radius.
A considerable number of exoplanets seem to have orbits that
are quite elliptical.
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All of A, B and C are true.
Only A and C are true.
Question 33
1 / 1 point
Which statement best describes the direct detection technique for finding exoplanets?
Observing the gravitational effects the orbiting exoplanet has
on other nearby stars.
Actually seeing the exoplanet orbiting the star through our
more powerful telescopes.
Observing the slight dip in the brightness of a star as the
planet moves across it's face.
Observing the slight shifting of the frequency of the light as the
star wobbles back and forth in space due to an exoplanet
orbiting it.
Observing the slight side-to-side movement of the star in space
caused by an exoplanet orbiting it.
Question 34
0 / 1 point
Which of the following three factors would affect the size of a star's Doppler shift caused by an
exoplanet?
The planet's mass
The size of the planet's orbit
The planet's composition
Only A and B
All of A, B and C
Question 35
1 / 1 point
Which statement best describes the transit method of discovering exoplanets?
Measuring the Doppler shift of a star as it orbits its combined
centre of mass with an exoplanet.
Taking a photograph of planets around a star through a
telescope that can block the light of the star.
Measuring the size of the star around which the exoplanet is
orbiting.
Measuring the periodic dimming of light as an exoplanet
crosses in front of the star.
Measuring the distance a star wobbles on the sky as it is
tugged in its orbit by an exoplanet.
Question 36
1 / 1 point
What does the exoplanet descriptor "hot Jupiter" mean?
It's the latest fast car made by Toyota having Jupiter as its
model name.
It's an exoplanet the same size as Jupiter but with an extensive
ring system.
It's an exoplanet just like Jupiter but orbiting much further
away from its sun than 5 AU.
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It's any exoplanet orbiting around a much bigger star than our
Sun.
It's an exoplanet jult like Jupiter but orbiting much closer to its
sun than 5 AU.
Question 37
1 / 1 point
What is so special about a star known as 51 Pegasi?
It is a pulsar with planets orbiting around it.
It is the largest known white dwarf star.
It was the first star found with multiple planets orbiting it.
It is the first main sequence star (stars like our Sun) found to
have a planet orbiting it.
It was the first star found with a planet orbiting it that is known
to support intelligent life.
Question 38
0 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about exoplanets is false?
The information about exoplanets we have been able to
determine so far seem to indicate that most of them are similar
to our own solar system component.
A considerable number of exoplanets seem to have orbits that
are quite elliptical.
The large majority of confirmed exoplanets orbit their stars at
radii less than 5 AU.
No planets have been found orbiting their stars at radii less
than Mercury's orbital radius.
The masses of the large majority of confirmed exoplanets that
we have been able to measure with any degree of certainty are
larger than Earth's mass.
Question 39
1 / 1 point
Thinking about our own solar system, which planet will have the greatest effect on the Sun's
movement about the solar system's centre of mass?
Mercury, because it is closest to the Sun.
Jupiter, because of its huge mass.
Mars, because it's the red planet.
Earth, because we live here.
Saturn, because of its large ring structure.
Question 40
1 / 1 point
What is an extrasolar planet?
A planet that is extra large compared to what we would expect.
A planet that is considered an "extra" in that it was not needed for the
formation of its solar system.
A planet that is found orbiting another planet outside our solar system.
A planet that is larger than the Sun.
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A planet that orbits a star that is not our Sun.
Q) Without telescope of other aid, we can see the moon in the night sky because it
A) Reflects visible lighm,l
,\
00000000000 coming from the sun
Q) Which of the following statements about x-rays and radio waves is not true?
A) Neither x-rays nor radio waves can penetrate the earth’s atmosphere
Q) Galileo was a very important figure in astronomy. Which of the following
statements about Galileo’s accomplishments is false?
A) Galileo looked at the moon through his telescope and observed rivers,
mountains, and lakes filled with liquid
Q) the scientific method is best described by which of the following?
A) a system of collecting and analyzing data, formulating a hypothesis, testing
the hypothesis and reformulating the hypothesis as needed
Q) which statement about the cosmological principle is valid?
A) it is based on two tenets involving the universality of the laws of physics
and chemistry and the belief that there is nothing special about the earth
Q) Galileo observed that venus had phases very similar to the phases out moon goes
through. From this he concluded that
A) Venus therefore must orbit the sun and not the earth
Q) Suppose a planet is discovered orbiting a star in a highly elliptical orbit. While the
planet is close to the star it _______, but while it is far away it _________
A) moves faster, moves slower
Q) which of the following is not an example of “pseudoscience”?
A) astronomy
Q) Who built Stonehenge?
A) Nobody really knows for sure
Q) Galileo observed that Jupiter had moons. From this info you may conclude that
A) some things do not orbit the earth
Q) Kapler’s 3
rd
law of planetary motion states that
A) the cube of the semi-major axis of a planets orbit is directly proportional
to the square of its period of motion around the sun
Q) Which of the following best describes the origin of ocean tides on earth?
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A) tides are caused by the difference in the force of gravity exerted by the
moon across the sphere of the earth
Q) spring tides occur
A) at any time of the year when the moon is full
Q) which of the following is not part of newtons universal law of gravitation
A) the gravitational attraction between 2 objects depends directly on the
distance between their centres of mass
Q) Ptolemy was important in the history of astronomy because he
A) developed a model of the solar system that made sufficiently accurate
predictions of planetary positions to remain in use for many centuries
Q) which one of the following in not one of, nor follows directly from, Kepler’s law?
A) when a planet travels at slower speeds it must be nearer the sun and
when it speeds up it must be as far from the sun as it can get
Q) a skater can spin faster by pulling in her arms closer to her body or spin slower
by spreading her arms out from her body. This is due to
A) the conservation of angular momentum
Q) what is acceleration?
A) it is the rate of change of velocity with change
Q) which of the following is not regarded as a heat transfer mechanism?
A) segregation
Q) Radiative (or radiant) energy is
A) light energy
Q) upon what quantities does angular momentum depend?
A) three quantities – an objects mass, its rotational speed, and its radius of
distance from the rotational centre
Q) which of the following statements about orbital motion is not true?
A) an elliptical orbit is an example of an open orbit
Q) which of the following statements correctly describes the law of conservation of
energy?
A) the total quantity of energy in the universe never changes
Q) what does temperature measure?
A) the average kinetic energy of particles of substance
Q) which of the following is not a unit of speed?
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A) centimetres/light years
Q) if your mass is 75 kg on earth, what would your mass be on Saturn which is about
95 times as massive as the earth?
A) about the same, 75kg
Q) the amount of matter contained in an object is called its mass. Which of the
following statements about mass is false?
A) the average human mass is about 150 pounds
Q) when a rock is held above the ground, we say it has some potential energy. When
we let it go, it falls and we say the potential energy to kinetic energy when it hits the
ground. What has happened to the energy?
A) the energy goes to producing sound and to heating the ground, rock, and
surrounding air
Q) at which lunar phase(s) are the tides most pronounced? (the highest tide levels)
A) both new and full moons
Q) suppose there are 2 monochromatic light beams. Beam 1 has half the wavelength
of beam 2. How do their frequencies compare?
A) beam 1 has 2x the frequency of beam 2
Q) from lowest energy to highest energy, which of the following correctly orders the
different categories of electromagnetic radiation?
A) radio, infrared, visible light, ultraviolet, x-ray, gamma rays
Q) Suppose the angular separation of 2 stars is smaller than the angular resolution
of your eyes. How will the stars appear to your eyes?
A) the 2 stars will look like a single point of light
Q) which of the following is not an advantage of the hubble space telescope over
ground based telescopes?
A) although it orbits the earth and is outside the atmosphere, it is, after all,
closer to the stars
Q) the larger the size of the telescope, the greater the what?
A) light gathering ability
Q) which of the following statements best describes the pricinple advantage of
telescopes over eyes?
A) telescopes can collect far more light with far better angular resolution
Q) the trouble with refraction telescopes is that
A) different colours of visible starlight get focused to different points in space
making the image blurry
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Q) the Doppler shift is a wave phenomenon that
A) uses the change in wavelength of light to determine the speed of a moving
star
Q) a hot star emits primarily what colour of visible light
A) blue
Q) most of everything we know from outside earth we know because of our use of
what?
A) light
Q) the wavelength of a wave is
A) the distance between 2 adjacent peaks of the wave
n 1
0 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about conjunctions and opposition is
false?
Mercury and Venus both have superior and inferior conjunctions
because they are closer to the Sun than Earth.
Mercury can never be in opposition from Earth's perspective.
Jupiter can never appear in an inferior conjunction position from
Earth's perspective.
Mar can have an inferior conjunction but not a superior
conjunction from Earth's perspective.
Conjunction and opposition are orbital mechanics terms.
Question 2
1 / 1 point
Which component of our atmosphere has steadily increased in the last 100 years and has led to
warming temperatures?
Argon
Carbon Dioxide
Oxygen
Nitrogen
Water Vapour
Question 3
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about Earth is
false?
The Earth's atmosphere is mostly nitrogen and oxygen.
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The poles of the Earth's magnetic field are precisely aligned with
Earth's rotational axis.
It appears as if the average temperature on the surface of the
Earth has been increasing regularly over the past 100 years.
A liquid shell of molten iron surrounds a solid core of iron.
the Van Allen belts surround the Earth's equator and contain
charged particles from the solar wind.
Question 4
0 / 1 point
How would you describe Venus's retrograde rotation?
It rotates in the opposite direction to Earth's spin and at the
same rate so that a day on Venus is the same 24 hours.
It rotates very slowly in a direction opposite to its revolution.
Its rate of rotation matches its rate of revolution.
It appears to make a loop on the celestial sphere over many
months as Earth "overtakes" it.
Its axis of rotation is tilted 90 degrees from the ecliptic.
Question 5
0 / 1 point
Why does the burning of fossil fuels increase the greenhouse effect on Earth?
Burning fuel warms the planet.
Burning releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.
Burning depletes the amount of ozone, thereby warming the
planet.
Burning produces infrared light, which is then trapped by
existing greenhouse gases.
All of the above are true.
Question 6
1 / 1 point
All but one of the following statements about Mercury are true. Which one is
false
?
Mercury is now geologically dead.
Mercury has a very thin atmosphere which is strange because
there are still active volcanoes outgassing carbon dioxide and
water vapour.
Despite the fact that the surface temperature is over 700 K there
may well be water ice hidden below the surface of Mercury.
Mercury's surface is covered with craters revealing a battered
past.
Mercury has a magnetic field, although it is only 1% as strong as
Earth's.
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Question 7
1 / 1 point
How have we been able to construct maps of surface features on the planet Venus?
by using radar from spacecraft that were sent to orbit Venus
by making computer models of geological processes on Venus
by studying Venus with powerful telescopes on spacecraft that
were sent to orbit Venus
by studying Venus from Earth with powerful telescopes
by landing spacecraft on the surface for close-up study
Question 8
1 / 1 point
Earth's atmosphere contains only small amounts of carbon dioxide because
Earth doesn't have as strong a greenhouse effect as is present
on Venus.
carbon dioxide dissolves in water, and most of it is now
contained in the oceans and carbonate rocks.
chemical reactions with other gases destroyed the carbon
dioxide and replaced it with the nitrogen that is in the
atmosphere now.
most of the carbon dioxide was lost during the age of
bombardment.
the Earth's volcanoes did not outgas as much carbon dioxide as
those on Venus and Mars.
Question 9
1 / 1 point
All but one of the following statements about Venus are true. Which one is
false?
The atmospheric pressure on Venus is significantly greater than
on Earth, about 9 times as great.
Past volcanic activity is responsible for the greenhouse gases in
the atmosphere.
Venus' significant greenhouse effect results in a surface
temperature over 700 K.
One elevated landmass, Aphrodite Terra, is about as large as
the African continent.
Venus' atmosphere has sulphuric acid that absorbs uv radiation
from the Sun.
Question 10
1 / 1 point
What function does the ozone layer provide on the Earth?
It is a by-product of the process of photosynthesis involving
plant life.
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It absorbs and re-radiates infrared radiation from the Sun,
which helps keep the Earth warm.
It is dissolved in water and reacts with nutrients to form
limestone.
It shields us from ultraviolet radiation that is harmful to life.
None of the above.
Question 11
1 / 1 point
The origin of Earth's only natural satellite, Moon, is
Earth - it was formed when a huge comet hit Earth, some 4.5
billion years ago, and the land mass that existed where the
current Pacific Ocean is became the Moon.
the same nebula from which the Earth formed - both the Earth
and the Moon formed at about the same time and since the
Earth was bigger the Moon began circling it.
a combination of the "capture" theory and the "daughter"
theory, sometimes called the impact theory which posits that
early in the solar system history the formative years. a young,
molten Earth collided with a Mars-like object in a sort of
glancing blow.
outer space, beyond our solar system - a small, dead star
careening through the Milky Way Galaxy became attracted by
our Sun and somehow wound up orbiting Earth through chance
orbital mechanics.
a planet that once orbited the Sun somewhere between Mars
and Jupiter about where the asteroid belt is. which collided with
the largest asteroid, Ceres, sending it toward Earth which then
captured it with its large gravitational force.
Question 12
1 / 1 point
There are no auroras on Venus because it
is too hot.
lacks atmospheric oxygen.
lacks strong winds.
lacks an ionosphere.
lacks a strong magnetic field.
Question 13
0 / 1 point
All of the following statements about Venus are true but one. Which one is
false?
Although there are no water oceans on Venus there are two fairly large,
raised landforms, Ishtar Terra and Aphrodite Terra.
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The magnetic field on Venus has about the same intensity as on Earth,
although it appears to change directions every 100,000 years or so.
Venus' rotation is retrograde, a fact discovered only within the past 50
years.
The temperature on the surface of Venus is a hot 740 K approx...
Venus orbits the Sun in about 225 days and has a day that is about 117
Earth days long.
Group B
14
0 / 1 point
Jupiter and Saturn emit ________ heat than absorbed from the Sun due to ___________ .
1)
more; heat left over from their formation
2)
more; nuclear reactions in their liquid metallic hydrogen
cores.
3)
less; nuclear fusion of hydrogen in their cores.
4)
less: heat left over from their formation
5)
about the same: a balance of heat absorbed and heat
generated by various processes.
Question 15
1 / 1 point
Why does Jupiter have several distinct cloud layers?
1)
Clouds form randomly, so on average there are always
several layers.
2)
Different layers represent clouds made of gases that
condense at different temperatures.
3)
Different layers represent the various regions where the
temperature is cool enough for liquid water to condense.
4)
Different gases are present at different altitudes in Jupiter's
atmosphere.
5)
Winds prevent clouds from forming at some altitudes, so we
see clouds only at the other altitudes.
Question 16
0 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about Saturn is false?
1)
Saturn was first discovered by Galileo about 400 years ago.
2)
Saturn's density is less tha the density of water, meaning
that it would float in your cottage lake it would have to be a
big lake!..
3)
Saturn is the second most massive planet in our solar
system.
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4)
Saturn has one big moon, Titan, and lots of small ones.
5)
Saturn takes about 29.5 years to orbit the Sun once.
Question 17
1 / 1 point
All of the following statements about Jupiter are true but one. Which one is false?
1)
The Great Red Spot is a large storm centre that has been
observed for only the last 75 years.
2)
Of the four Jovian planets Jupiter is the only one that
doesn't have seasons.
3)
Jupiter is the largest planet in the solar system.
4)
Jupiter has the shortest rotational period of all the planets.
5)
Jupiter has a solid core that is more massive than the Earth.
Question 18
0 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about Uranus is false?
1)
Uranus has the Great Red Spot on its surface that has been
visible for the last 400 years.
2)
Uranus appears blue in telescopes resulting from lots of
methane in its upper atmosphere.
3)
Uranus appears to "roll" along in its orbit because its
equatorial inclination is close to 90 degrees.
4)
Uranus is the least massive of the Jovian planets.
5)
Uranus's average distance from the Sun is about 19.2 AU.
Question 19
1 / 1 point
How does the atmospheric pressure on Mars compare to that on Earth and Venus?
1)
Greater than on both Earth and Venus.
2)
Lower than on Earth but greater than on Venus.
3)
Greater than on Earth but lower than on Venus.
4)
Lower than on both Earth and Venus.
5)
Greater than on Venus but lower than on Earth.
Question 20
1 / 1 point
Which of the following do the Jovian planets not have in common?
1)
They all have comparatively large hydrogen and helium
atmospheres surrounding relatively small rock and metal
cores.
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2)
They are all less dense than water.
3)
They all rotate faster than the Earth.
4)
They are all many times more massive than terrestrial
planets.
5)
They all have ring systems and dozens of satellites.
Question 21
1 / 1 point
Which of the following does Jupiter not have?
1)
a hot interior
2)
crustal plates on its surface
3)
convection occurring in the atmosphere
4)
any rings
5)
a dynamo effect
Question 22
1 / 1 point
All of the following statements about Jupiter are true but one. Which one is false?
1)
Jupiter is the largest planet in the solar system.
2)
Of the four jovian planets Jupiter is the only one that
doesn't have seasons.
3)
Jupiter has the smallest rotational rate of all the planets.
4)
Jupiter has a solid core that is bigger than Earth.
5)
The density of Jupiter is greater than that of air but less
than that for water.
Question 23
1 / 1 point
What is a Roche zone?
1)
the region within a planet's magnetic field where charged
particles accumulate
2)
a bright layer of gas on Jupiter
3)
a region where gravitational resonances clear a gap in a
planet's rings
4)
the region surrounding a planet where it may have large
moons
5)
the region near a planet where tidal forces would tear apart
an object held together only by gravity
Question 24
1 / 1 point
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Exploration on Mars has been accomplished by orbiters, lander and rovers. Which of the following
statements about Martian exploration is false?
1)
We are fairly certain that water was once abundant on the
Martian surface.
2)
As you take this test, a rover named
Curiosity
is exploring
the Martian surface in a place known as the Gale Crater.
3)
Early exporation began in the 1970s with
NASA's
Viking
program.
4)
Two very successful Martian rovers have
been
Spirit
and
Opportunity.
5)
The remains of some type of life form have been found
near
Olympus Mons,
the largest volcano on Mars.
Question 25
1 / 1 point
About how far from the Sun, on average, is Saturn?
1)
10 AU
2)
20 AU
3)
5 AU
4)
15 AU
5)
1 AU
Question 26
0 / 1 point
Why does Mars have more extreme seasons than Earth?
1)
because it is farther from the Sun
2)
because it has a larger axis tilt
3)
because it has a more eccentric orbit
4)
because it has more carbon dioxide in its atmosphere
5)
all of the above
Question 27
1 / 1 point
Saturn is how far from the Sun, on average?
1)
5 AU
2)
20 AU
3)
10 AU
4)
15 AU
5)
1 AU
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Group C
28
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about the rings of the four jovian planets is
not
true?
All are made of individual particles of rock or ice that orbit in
accord with Kepler's laws: inner ring particles orbiting faster,
and outer ring particles orbiting slower.
All rings lie within their planet's Roche zone.
All probably look much like they did when the solar system first
formed.
All have gaps and ringlets, probably due to gap moons,
shepherd moons, and orbital resonances.
All the particle orbits are fairly circular, near their planet's
equatorial plane.
Question 29
1 / 1 point
Why is Triton referred to as Neptune's "backward" moon?
It orbits Neptune in the expected prograde direction but it spins
backward.
It orbits in the opposite direction of its revoluation.
It has different surface features on its leading and trailing
hemispheres
It continually pulls backward on Neptune, causing Neptune to
slow down.
It is named after a mythological figure known for speaking
backwards.
Question 30
1 / 1 point
Where do the majority of confirmed dwarf planets in the solar system reside?
The iCloud
The Oort Cloud
The Kuiper Belt
Between Mars and Jupiter
In orbit around Neptune
Question 31
1 / 1 point
All of the following statements about Charon, Pluto's moon, are true except which one?
Charon is half the size of Pluto, but 1/10th the mass.
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As strange as it may seem, astronomers have actually
observed seasonal effects on Charon.
The discovery of Charon allowed astronomers to determine that
Pluto's rotation is retrograde.
Charon's orbit around Pluto is fairly close to Pluto's surface
20,000 km..
The orbital period of Charon is equal to the rotation period of
Pluto.
Question 32
0 / 1 point
Why do astronomers believe Triton may have been a planet that was captured by Neptune?
It is too large to have been formed in the outer portion of the
nebula that formed Neptune.
It has an atmosphere and a measurable greenhouse effect.
It is colder than any other moon or planet.
It undergoes seasonal changes.
It orbits Neptune in the opposite direction of Neptune's
rotation.
Question 33
1 / 1 point
Why isn't there a planet where the asteroid belt is located?
Gravitational tugs from Jupiter prevented material from
collecting together to form a planet.
There was not enough material in this part of the solar nebula
to form a planet.
There was too much rocky material to form a terrestrial planet,
but not enough gaseous material to form a jovian planet.
The temperature in this portion of the solar nebula was just
right to prevent rock from sticking together.
A planet once formed here, but it was broken apart by a
catastrophic collision.
Question 34
0 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about the moons of the Jovian planets is
false
?
Galileo discovered the four largest moons of Jupiter in 1610.
Io, one of the Galilean moons of Jupiter, is the most
volcanically active object in the solar system.
Mimas, a small moon of Saturn, is responsible for the existence
of the Cassini division.
Titania, one of the largest jovian moons, has a wrinkly surface
that is often referred to as "cantaloupe terrain".
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Europa, a larger moon of Jupiter, has the smoothest surface in
the solar system.
Question 35
0 / 1 point
What is the Cassini division of Saturn's rings?
the imaginary circle marking the halfway point of Saturn's rings
the widest ring of Saturn, located between two large ring gaps
the most opaque ring of Saturn, made of highly reflective ice
particles
a dark ring, visible from Earth, composed of dark, dusty
particles
a large gap, visible from Earth, produced by an orbital
resonance with the moon Mimas
Question 36
1 / 1 point
What mechanism is most responsible for generating the internal heat of Io that drives the volcanic
activity?
tidal heating
bombardment
differentiation
accretion
radioactive decay
Question 37
1 / 1 point
Which of these moons is the most geologically active?
Leo
Enceladus
Europa
Callisto
Io
Question 38
1 / 1 point
Why are there no impact craters on the surface of Io?
Jupiter's strong gravity attracted the planetesimals more
strongly than Io and thus none landed on its surface.
Any craters that existed have been eroded through the strong
winds on Io's surface.
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Io did have impact craters but they have all been buried in lava
flows.
Io's thick atmosphere obscures the view of the craters.
It is too small to have been bombarded by planetesimals in the
early solar system.
Question 39
1 / 1 point
What did the Huygens probe discover about Saturn's moon, Titan?
An atmosphere that consists of about 90% oxygen.
Methane rains onto the surface, evaporates, and rains again
cyclically.
A system of caverns and tunnels that appear to run throughout
the interior of the satellite.
A plume of water vapour erupting from a geothermal vent.
An atmosphere that is about 10 times that on Earth.
Question 40
1 / 1 point
Which of the following is
not
classified as a dwarf planet?
Ceres
Triton
Makemake
Eris
Pluto
Question 1
1 / 1 point
Mercury's large core is composed of
iron
carbon dioxide ice
rock
water ice
silicon
Question 2
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about Earth is
false?
It appears as if the average temperature on the surface of the
Earth has been increasing regularly over the past 100 years.
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A liquid shell of molten iron surrounds a solid core of iron.
The Earth's atmosphere is mostly nitrogen and oxygen.
the Van Allen belts surround the Earth's equator and contain
charged particles from the solar wind.
The poles of the Earth's magnetic field are precisely aligned with
Earth's rotational axis.
Question 3
0 / 1 point
The origin of Earth's only natural satellite, Moon, is
a planet that once orbited the Sun somewhere between Mars
and Jupiter about where the asteroid belt is. which collided with
the largest asteroid, Ceres, sending it toward Earth which then
captured it with its large gravitational force.
the same nebula from which the Earth formed - both the Earth
and the Moon formed at about the same time and since the
Earth was bigger the Moon began circling it.
Earth - it was formed when a huge comet hit Earth, some 4.5
billion years ago, and the land mass that existed where the
current Pacific Ocean is became the Moon.
outer space, beyond our solar system - a small, dead star
careening through the Milky Way Galaxy became attracted by
our Sun and somehow wound up orbiting Earth through chance
orbital mechanics.
a combination of the "capture" theory and the "daughter" theory,
sometimes called the impact theory which posits that early in the
solar system history the formative years. a young, molten Earth
collided with a Mars-like object in a sort of glancing blow.
Question 4
1 / 1 point
What function does the ozone layer provide on the Earth?
It is a by-product of the process of photosynthesis involving
plant life.
It absorbs and re-radiates infrared radiation from the Sun, which
helps keep the Earth warm.
It is dissolved in water and reacts with nutrients to form
limestone.
It shields us from ultraviolet radiation that is harmful to life.
None of the above.
Question 5
1 / 1 point
A solar day on Mercury is about how long?
176 Earth days
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Earth day
57 Earth days
365.25 Earth days
17 Earth days
Question 6
1 / 1 point
At what special time in Venus's orbit might we be able to see a solar transit?
greatest western elongation
July 1
superior conjunction
greatest eastern elongation
inferior conjunction
Question 7
1 / 1 point
There are no auroras on Venus because it
is too hot.
lacks strong winds.
lacks an ionosphere.
lacks atmospheric oxygen.
lacks a strong magnetic field.
Question 8
1 / 1 point
The orbit of Venus around the Sun is almost circular. What is the radius of its orbit?
1.72 AU
0.72 AU
0.39 AU
1.0 AU
1.42 AU
Question 9
0 / 1 point
All but one of the following statements about Mercury are true. Which one is
false?
Mercury's orbit about the Sun is almost circular, more so than
any other planet in the solar system.
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Mercury orbits close to the Sun and is best viewed during dawn
or dusk.
Mercury's interior is about 60% iron.
A solar day on Mercury is very long, 176 Earth days, due to its
slow rotation.
Mercury has been visited by one spacecraft in the mid-
1970s,
Mariner
10
, and now MESSENGER, which has now
settled into orbit around Mercury.
Question 10
1 / 1 point
What is the Moon's average orbital distance from the Sun?
1.5 AU
0.9 AU
2.0 AU
1.0 AU
0.5 AU
Question 11
1 / 1 point
How have we been able to construct maps of surface features on the planet Venus?
by using radar from spacecraft that were sent to orbit Venus
by studying Venus from Earth with powerful telescopes
by making computer models of geological processes on Venus
by landing spacecraft on the surface for close-up study
by studying Venus with powerful telescopes on spacecraft that
were sent to orbit Venus
Question 12
1 / 1 point
How would you describe Venus's retrograde rotation?
It appears to make a loop on the celestial sphere over many
months as Earth "overtakes" it.
It rotates very slowly in a direction opposite to its revolution.
Its axis of rotation is tilted 90 degrees from the ecliptic.
Its rate of rotation matches its rate of revolution.
It rotates in the opposite direction to Earth's spin and at the
same rate so that a day on Venus is the same 24 hours.
Question 13
1 / 1 point
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Which component of our atmosphere has steadily increased in the last 100 years and has led to
warming temperatures?
Water Vapour
Nitrogen
Oxygen
Carbon Dioxide
Argon
Group B
14
1 / 1 point
Which of the following planets was found using Newton's laws after discrepancies were observed in
another planet's orbit?
1)
Saturn
2)
Pluto
3)
Uranus
4)
Neptune
5)
Jupiter
Question 15
0 / 1 point
Jupiter and Saturn emit ________ heat than absorbed from the Sun due to ___________ .
1)
about the same: a balance of heat absorbed and heat
generated by various processes.
2)
more; nuclear reactions in their liquid metallic hydrogen
cores.
3)
less: heat left over from their formation
4)
more; heat left over from their formation
5)
less; nuclear fusion of hydrogen in their cores.
Question 16
1 / 1 point
Why does Mars have more extreme seasons than Earth?
1)
because it is farther from the Sun
2)
because it has a larger axis tilt
3)
because it has a more eccentric orbit
4)
because it has more carbon dioxide in its atmosphere
5)
all of the above
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Question 17
1 / 1 point
Why does Jupiter have several distinct cloud layers?
1)
Different layers represent clouds made of gases that
condense at different temperatures.
2)
Clouds form randomly, so on average there are always
several layers.
3)
Different layers represent the various regions where the
temperature is cool enough for liquid water to condense.
4)
Different gases are present at different altitudes in Jupiter's
atmosphere.
5)
Winds prevent clouds from forming at some altitudes, so we
see clouds only at the other altitudes.
Question 18
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about Neptune is true?
1)
Neptune has very few moons; only four have been
observed.
2)
Neptune is distinctly green in colour.
3)
Neptune's largest surface feature is the Great Dark Spot
that is about the size of Earth and is probably a storm of
some sort.
4)
Neptune is different from the other Jovian planets in that it
doesn't appear to have a rocky, metallic core.
5)
Neptune is located in between Saturn and Uranus.
Question 19
1 / 1 point
Which of the following do the Jovian planets not have in common?
1)
They all rotate faster than the Earth.
2)
They are all less dense than water.
3)
They are all many times more massive than terrestrial
planets.
4)
They all have comparatively large hydrogen and helium
atmospheres surrounding relatively small rock and metal
cores.
5)
They all have ring systems and dozens of satellites.
Question 20
1 / 1 point
How does the atmospheric pressure on Mars compare to that on Earth and Venus?
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1)
Greater than on Venus but lower than on Earth.
2)
Lower than on both Earth and Venus.
3)
Lower than on Earth but greater than on Venus.
4)
Greater than on Earth but lower than on Venus.
5)
Greater than on both Earth and Venus.
Question 21
0 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about Uranus is false?
1)
Uranus is the least massive of the Jovian planets.
2)
Uranus's average distance from the Sun is about 19.2 AU.
3)
Uranus appears to "roll" along in its orbit because its
equatorial inclination is close to 90 degrees.
4)
Uranus appears blue in telescopes resulting from lots of
methane in its upper atmosphere.
5)
Uranus has the Great Red Spot on its surface that has been
visible for the last 400 years.
Question 22
0 / 1 point
Exploration on Mars has been accomplished by orbiters, lander and rovers. Which of the following
statements about Martian exploration is false?
1)
We are fairly certain that water was once abundant on the
Martian surface.
2)
Two very successful Martian rovers have
been
Spirit
and
Opportunity.
3)
Early exporation began in the 1970s with
NASA's
Viking
program.
4)
The remains of some type of life form have been found
near
Olympus Mons,
the largest volcano on Mars.
5)
As you take this test, a rover named
Curiosity
is exploring
the Martian surface in a place known as the Gale Crater.
Question 23
1 / 1 point
Saturn is how far from the Sun, on average?
1)
15 AU
2)
10 AU
3)
5 AU
4)
1 AU
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5)
20 AU
Question 24
1 / 1 point
What is the region around a planet called where the magnetic field is able to deflect the solar wind
and other charged particles?
1)
Aurora
2)
Hydrosphere
3)
Ice line
4)
Corona
5)
Magnetosphere
Question 25
1 / 1 point
The belts and zones of Jupiter are
1)
alternating bands of rising and falling air at different
latitudes.
2)
alternating regions of charged particles in Jupiter's magnetic
field.
3)
names for different cloud layers on Jupiter.
4)
material that is left over from the once expansive rings of
Jupiter.
5)
cyclonic and anti-cyclonic storms.
Question 26
1 / 1 point
About how far from the Sun, on average, is Saturn?
1)
10 AU
2)
20 AU
3)
15 AU
4)
1 AU
5)
5 AU
Question 27
1 / 1 point
What is a Roche zone?
1)
a region where gravitational resonances clear a gap in a planet's rings
2)
a bright layer of gas on Jupiter
3)
the region near a planet where tidal forces would tear apart an object
held together only by gravity
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4)
the region within a planet's magnetic field where charged particles
accumulate
5)
the region surrounding a planet where it may have large moons
Group C
28
1 / 1 point
This satellite's interior has probably warmed enough by tidal stressing to have a liquid water ocean
below an icy crust.
Charon
Ariel
Titan
Io
Europa
Question 29
0 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about Jovian moons is false?
Many of the moons of Uranus have been named after sprites
and spirits in Shakespearean plays.
Neptune's largest moon, Triton, has a wrinkly surface often
called "cantaloupe terrain".
Volcanic plumes containing water vapour, nitrogen, methane
and other hydrocarbons have been observed on Enceladus, a
moon of Saturn.
All of the Jovian moons orbit their planet in the same direction,
counter-clockwise as seem from above the solar system.
The Galilean moons of Jupiter from smallest to largest are
Europa, Io, Callisto and Ganymede.
Question 30
1 / 1 point
Why is Triton referred to as Neptune's "backward" moon?
It continually pulls backward on Neptune, causing Neptune to
slow down.
It is named after a mythological figure known for speaking
backwards.
It orbits in the opposite direction of its revoluation.
It orbits Neptune in the expected prograde direction but it spins
backward.
It has different surface features on its leading and trailing
hemispheres
Question 31
1 / 1 point
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What is the Cassini division of Saturn's rings?
the most opaque ring of Saturn, made of highly reflective ice
particles
a dark ring, visible from Earth, composed of dark, dusty
particles
a large gap, visible from Earth, produced by an orbital
resonance with the moon Mimas
the widest ring of Saturn, located between two large ring gaps
the imaginary circle marking the halfway point of Saturn's rings
Question 32
1 / 1 point
Why isn't there a planet where the asteroid belt is located?
A planet once formed here, but it was broken apart by a
catastrophic collision.
Gravitational tugs from Jupiter prevented material from
collecting together to form a planet.
The temperature in this portion of the solar nebula was just
right to prevent rock from sticking together.
There was not enough material in this part of the solar nebula
to form a planet.
There was too much rocky material to form a terrestrial planet,
but not enough gaseous material to form a jovian planet.
Question 33
0 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about the moons of the Jovian planets is
false
?
Io, one of the Galilean moons of Jupiter, is the most
volcanically active object in the solar system.
Titania, one of the largest jovian moons, has a wrinkly surface
that is often referred to as "cantaloupe terrain".
Mimas, a small moon of Saturn, is responsible for the existence
of the Cassini division.
Europa, a larger moon of Jupiter, has the smoothest surface in
the solar system.
Galileo discovered the four largest moons of Jupiter in 1610.
Question 34
1 / 1 point
Which of the following statements about Pluto is
false
?
Pluto is one of the larger Kuiper Belt Objects discovered to date
and is actually bigger than Mercury.
Plluto has one large moon, Charon, and a few other smaller
ones
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Pluto has a fairly eccentric orbit but it spends about 20 years of
its 248-year orbit around the Sun inside the orbit of Neptune.
Pluto was discovered by Clyde Tombaugh around 1930 after
years of searching.
We don't know very much about the surface features of Pluto
because it is too far away and too small to view even with the
Hubble Space Telescope.
Question 35
1 / 1 point
Which of these moons is the most geologically active?
Leo
Callisto
Enceladus
Europa
Io
Question 36
0 / 1 point
All of the following statements about Charon, Pluto's moon, are true except which one?
Charon is half the size of Pluto, but 1/10th the mass.
The discovery of Charon allowed astronomers to determine that
Pluto's rotation is retrograde.
The orbital period of Charon is equal to the rotation period of
Pluto.
As strange as it may seem, astronomers have actually
observed seasonal effects on Charon.
Charon's orbit around Pluto is fairly close to Pluto's surface
20,000 km..
Question 37
1 / 1 point
Why do astronomers believe Triton may have been a planet that was captured by Neptune?
It is too large to have been formed in the outer portion of the
nebula that formed Neptune.
It orbits Neptune in the opposite direction of Neptune's
rotation.
It has an atmosphere and a measurable greenhouse effect.
It undergoes seasonal changes.
It is colder than any other moon or planet.
Question 38
1 / 1 point
How thick are Saturn's rings from top to bottom?
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a few hundred kilometers
a few tens of meters
a few kilometers
a few million kilometers
a few tens of thousands of kilometers
Question 39
0 / 1 point
Why was Pluto's status was changed to that of "dwarf planet" by the IAU?
A)
Because it is too small.
B)
Because it is not round.
C)
Because it has not cleared its orbital region of other
objects.
D)
Because it has the wrong name.
E)
All of A, B, C and D.
Question 40
1 / 1 point
Where do the majority of confirmed dwarf planets in the solar system reside?
The iCloud
The Oort Cloud
In orbit around Neptune
The Kuiper Belt
Between Mars and Jupiter
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On the Cosmic Calendar all of
recorded
history occurred beginning when?
December 30 around noon
December 1
December 25
December 31 within the last minute of this last day of the year.
December 31 around noon
Which of the following objects within our solar system is the smallest?
Mercury
Neptune
Moon
Mars
Earth
What is a light-year?
The time is takes light to get to the nearest star, Proxima Centauri.
The time for light to travel to Earth from the Andromeda galaxy.
The average distance between the Sun and the Earth.
The time is takes light to travel across the Milky Way galaxy.
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The distance light travels in one year.
On the Cosmic Calendar about when did the solar system begin to form?
Around the summer solstice – June 21
Around the spring equinox – March 21
About mid-November
Sometime around Labour Day – September 1
January 1
Which of the following statements does
not
use the term
light-year
in an appropriate way?
A light-year is about 10 trillion kilometres.
The Milky Way Galaxy is about 100,000 light-years in diameter.
It's about 4 light-years from here to Alpha Centauri.
It will take the Voyager spacecraft about 20,000 years to travel just 1 light-year.
It will take me light-years to complete this homework assignment.
Which of the following is largest?
1 Astronomical Unit
size of Pluto's orbit
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size of a typical galaxy
1 light-year
distance to the nearest star (other than our Sun)
Which of the following is closest to the Sun?
a comet in the Oort cloud
Pluto.
Earth.
Saturn.
Mercury.
On the Cosmic Calendar when did the big bang occur?
September 1
March 21
December 25
January 1
December 31
The order of the planets beyond Earth, away from the Sun, is
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Mars, Venus, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune, Pluto
Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune, Pluto
Venus, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune, Pluto
Mars, Jupiter, Uranus, Saturn, Neptune, Pluto
Mars, Saturn, Jupiter, Uranus, Neptune, Pluto
What is an Astronomical Unit (AU)?
The average distance between the Sun and the Earth.
150 million kilometres
1.5 x 10
11
metres
1.5 x 10
8
kilometres (km).
All of the above
How long does it take light from the Sun to get to Earth?
several days
a few hours
a few minutes
a few seconds
a half hour
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Which of the following has your "address" in the correct order?
you, Earth, solar system, Milky Way, Local Group, Local Supercluster
you, Earth, Local Group, Local Supercluster, solar system, Milky Way
you, Earth, solar system, Milky Way, Local Supercluster, Local Group
you, Earth, solar system, Local Group, Milky Way, Local Supercluster
you, Earth, solar system, Local Group, Local Supercluster, Milky Way
Which of the following best describes the Milky Way Galaxy?
a spherically shaped collection of stars including our solar system and about a dozen other solar systems,
stretching about 4 light-years in diameter
a spiral galaxy with a disk about a billion kilometres in diameter and containing between 100 million and 1
billion stars
a spiral galaxy with a disk about 80,000 light-years in diameter and containing about 100,000 stars
a spiral galaxy with a disk about 80,000 light-years in diameter and containing between 100 billion and 1
trillion stars
a spherically shaped collection of about 1 million stars that is about 100 light-years in diameter
Which of the following statements about the Celestial Sphere is
not
true?
The Celestial Equator lies in the Ecliptic Plane.
The Celestial Sphere does not take into account the fact that stellar distances from Earth vary.
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The Celestial Sphere is an imaginary sphere surrounding the Earth with all the stars fixed on it.
The Celestial Sphere is completely divided up into 88 surface areas with one constellation in each area.
The North and South Celestial poles are coincident with the Earth’s North and South Poles.
On the summer solstice in June, the Sun will be directly above ______________ and all locations north of
________________ will experience daylight all day.
The Tropic of Cancer: the Arctic Circle
The Tropic of Capricorn: the Antarctic Circle
The Tropic of Cancer; the Antarctic Circle
The Equator; Edmonton
The Tropic of Capricorn; the Arctic Circle
Which of the following statements about sidereal and solar days is not true?
A solar day is 4 minutes longer than a sidereal day.
A solar day represents more than 360 degrees of rotation for the Earth.
The time it takes for a star to make one circuit of our sky is one sidereal day.
The time it takes for the Sun to make one circuit of our sky is one solar day.
The time it takes for the Moon to make one circuit of our sky is one solar day.
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If the Moon is setting at 6 A.M., the phase of the Moon must be
full.
waning crescent.
third quarter.
new.
first quarter.
Patterns of stars in constellations hardly change in appearance over times of even a few thousand years. Why?
Stars are fixed and never move.
Stars within a constellation move together as a group, which tends to hide their actual motion and prevent
the pattern from changing.
Although most stars move through the sky, the brightest stars do not, and these are the ones that trace the
patterns we see in the constellations.
The stars in our sky actually move rapidly relative to us thousands of kilometres per hour but are so far away
that it takes a long time for this motion to make a noticeable change in the patterns in the sky.
Stars move, but they move very slowly only a few kilometres in a thousand years.
What conditions are required for a solar eclipse?
The phase of the Moon must be new, and the nodes of the Moon's orbit must be nearly aligned with the
Earth and the Sun.
The phase of the Moon must be full, and the Moon's orbital plane must lie in the ecliptic.
The phase of the Moon must be full, and the nodes of the Moon's orbit must be nearly aligned with the Earth
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and the Sun.
The phase of the Moon can be new or full, and the nodes of the Moon's orbit must be nearly aligned with the
Earth and the Sun.
The phase of the Moon must be new, and the Moon's orbital plane must lie in the ecliptic.
What happens during the apparent retrograde motion of a planet?
The planet moves backward in its orbit around the Sun.
The planet moves through constellations that are not part of the zodiac.
The planet rises in the west and sets in the east.
The planet appears to move westward with respect to the stars over a period of many nights.
The planet moves backward through the sky.
We can't detect stellar parallax with naked-eye observations. Which of the following would make parallax easier
to observe?
slowing down the Earth's orbital motion
getting away from streetlights
speeding up the Earth's orbital motion
increasing the size of the Earth's orbit
speeding up the precession of the Earth's axis
Suppose you live on the Moon. How long is a day (i.e., from sunrise to sunrise)?
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23 hours, 56 minutes
24 hours
a lunar month
about 18 years
a year
Which of the following statements about the ecliptic plane is
not
true?
The nodes of the Moon's orbit lie in the ecliptic plane.
It is the plane of the Moon's orbit around the Earth.
During a solar eclipse, the Moon lies in the ecliptic plane.
It is the plane of the Earth's orbit around the Sun.
During a lunar eclipse, the Moon lies in the ecliptic plane.
Which of the following statements
is
true?
A) Both the Northern and Southern hemispheres receive the same amount of sunlight on the equinoxes.
B)
Both the Northern and Southern hemispheres receive the same amount of sunlight on the solstices.
C)
The Northern Hemisphere receives the most direct sunlight on the summer solstice.
D)
The Southern Hemisphere receives the most direct sunlight on the summer solstice.
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E)
Both A and C are true.
You are standing on the Earth's equator at midnight. Which way is Polaris, the North star?
23.5 degrees above the North Pole, along the meridian.
on the northern horizon
30 degrees up, due West
directly overhead
The answer depends on whether its winter or summer.
What conditions are required for a lunar eclipse?
The phase of the Moon can be new or full, and the nodes of the Moon's orbit must be nearly aligned with the
Earth and the Sun.
The phase of the Moon must be full, and the Moon's orbital plane must lie in the ecliptic.
The phase of the Moon must be full, and the nodes of the Moon's orbit must be nearly aligned with the Earth
and the Sun.
The phase of the Moon must be new, and the Moon's orbital plane must lie in the ecliptic.
The phase of the Moon must be new, and the nodes of the Moon's orbit must be nearly aligned with the
Earth and the Sun.
Each cycle of the Earth’s precession takes about
2,600 years
2,600 light-years
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26,000 years
26,000 light-years
None of the above
The number of days in a month is associated with
Earth’s rotation around the Moon
Solar phases
Lunar phases
Various annual holidays
The motion of Jupiter around the Sun
On the vernal and autumnal equinoxes,
A)
every place on Earth has 12 hours of daylight and 12 hours of darkness
B)
the Sun rises due east and sets due west
C)
the Sun’s path is coincident with the celestial equator
D)
all of A, B and C
E)
none of A, B or C
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While in Bracebridge, ON where the latitude is 45°, at the spring equinox (about March 21), the Sun follows the
path where it
rises due north-east, crosses the meridian at the zenith, and sets due north-west.
rises due east, crosses the meridian at the zenith, and sets due west.
rises due east, crosses the meridian at an altitude of 45° in the north, and sets due west.
rises due north-east, crosses the meridian at an altitude of 45° in the south, and sets due north-west.
rises due east, crosses the meridian at an altitude of 45° in the south, and sets due west.
The lunar month is longer than the sidereal month because
the Moon completes the cycle of lunar phases before it completes a full orbit around the Earth.
the Moon has to complete more than one full orbit around the Earth to complete the cycle of lunar phases.
the Moon orbits the Earth faster than the Earth rotates.
the lunar month is based on the Moon's orbit, while the sidereal month is based on the Earth's orbit.
the Moon orbits the Earth faster than the Earth orbits the Sun.
Right ascension is expressed in
Metres
Hours, minutes and seconds from 0 to 24 hours
Degrees from 0 to 360
Hours per day
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Light-years
Latitude in stellar coordinates is known as
Right Declination
Declination
Declination Ascension
Longitude
Right Ascension
Which of the following is the best reason for the leap years?
the non-circular orbit of the Earth around the Sun
the combined effect of the rotation of the Earth and the precession of the Earth’s axis
the Earth year being a non-integer number of Earth days
precession of the Earth's axis
the tilt of the Earth's axis
Which of the following best describes the tropic of Cancer?
It is a place where the Sun is directly overhead at noon on the spring equinox.
It is any place where it is always very warm.
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It is another name for the equator.
It is a place where the Sun appears to remain stationary in the sky.
It is a place where the Sun is directly overhead at noon on the summer solstice.
Suppose you lived at the Earth's equator. Which of the following statements would
not
be true?
The celestial equator goes through your sky from due east on your horizon, through 50 degree altitude in the
south, to due west on the horizon.
The south celestial pole is directly on your horizon, due south.
No stars are circumpolar.
The north celestial pole is directly on your horizon, due north (with Polaris quite nearby).
Every day of the year, the Sun is above your horizon for 12 hours and below it for 12 hours.
The calendar we use now is called the
Solstice after a model of the Pontiac car
Fleming after Alexander Fleming, a great Canadian
Galilean after Galileo
Julian calendar after Julius Caesar
Gregorian after Pope Gregory
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Which of the following is the reason for the solar day being longer than a sidereal day?
the tilt of the Earth's axis
the Earth year being a non-integer number of Earth days
the combined effect of the rotation of the Earth and its orbit about the Sun
the non-circular orbit of the Earth around the Sun
precession of the Earth's axis
Suppose the date is June 21 and the Sun never sets, just touching your northern horizon at midnight. Where are
you?
the Arctic Circle
the Antarctic Circle
the tropic of Capricorn
the equator
the tropic of Cancer
Day and night are caused by
the tilt of the Earth on its axis
a combination of the rotation of the Moon around the Earth and the Earth around the Sun
the rotation of the Earth on its axis
the revolution of the Moon around the Earth
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the revolution of the Earth around the Sun
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