Exam 13

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1 Name: Intro Astro: Stars & Cosmology: Exam 1 Instructions: There are 72 multiple-choice problems each worth 1 mark for a total of 72 marks altogether. Choose the BEST answer, completion, etc. Read all responses carefully. NOTE long detailed responses won’t depend on hidden keywords: keywords in such responses are bold-faced capitalized. This is a CLOSED-BOOK / NOTES / WEB / OUTSIDE-WORLD- ACCESS exam. NO cheat sheets allowed. NO outside sources of any kind allowed. You can use only what is inside your mind. Calculators and cell phones are permitted ONLY for calculations. Remember, it is shameful to cheat—you are trying to steal from your fellow students. The exam is out of 72 marks altogether and is a 75-minute exam. 1. “Let’s play Jeopardy ! For $100, the answer is: Stonehenge and many other prehistoric monuments suggest that the makers were doing this.” What is/are , Alex? a) special relativity calculations b) orbital physics c) simple alignment astronomy d) casting horoscopes e) receiving alien visitors from outer space 2. Stonehenge demonstrates that some prehistoric people: a) could predict eclipses. b) knew the northernmost rising location of the Sun. c) knew nothing of astronomy. d) knew more than the ancient Greeks about the universe. e) suffered from back pain. 3. The ancient Babylonians were using a sexagesimal (number) system as early as circa 1800 BCE. We do not know why, but it may well have been to save labor in division. The many whole number factors of 60 (1 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 10, 12, 15, 20, 30, and 60 for a total of 12 factors) simplifies many division problems. The sexagesimal system seems to have been used consistently only for mathematical and astronomical purposes. For everyday use, the Babylonians often or maybe mainly used other systems including the ubiquitous decimal system: counting on fingers is as old as the hills so to say. In the last centuries BCE the sexagesimal system was taken over into astronomy. Using a large base number with a lot of factors has advantages. But one needs a lot of symbols for all the numerals unless one uses some subsidiary base which is what the Babylonians did: 10. In any case 10 as a base has nothing very special to recommend it, except for the old (very old) finger exercise. As a non-finger exercise, subtract 61 43 14 ′′ from 120 41 03 ′′ . Recall that stands for arcminutes and ′′ for arcseconds. HINT: If sexagesimal subtraction seems too tricky, you can try sexagesimal addition to recover 120 41 03 ′′ . a) 182 24 17 ′′ . b) 58 57 49 ′′ . c) 58 31 14 ′′ . d) 59 51 49 ′′ . e) 58 51 14 ′′ .
2 4. The ancient Greek Presocratic philosophers: a) may have hypothesized a spherical Earth in order to explain the daily rotation of the celestial sphere. But it is equally likely that they thought that a spherical Earth was proven by the axioms of geometry. b) may have hypothesized a spherical Earth in order to explain the daily rotation of the celestial sphere. Thales of Miletus then used the spherical Earth theory to predict a solar eclipse. c) may have hypothesized a spherical Earth because they thought the Earth needed to be spherical in order to be in balance at the center of the cosmos. Aristotle (384–322) later summarized empirical arguments for the spherical Earth. These included the varying celestial locations of the stars and planets relative to the horizon as one moved north-south and the fact that the Earth’s shadow on the Moon in a lunar eclipse was always round. However, ARISTOTLE went on to affirm that Greece must be on top of the spherical Earth because the ground in Greece was nearly level. d) may have hypothesized a spherical Earth because they thought the Earth needed to be spherical in order to be in balance at the center of the cosmos. Aristotle (384–322) later summarized empirical arguments for the spherical Earth. These included the varying celestial locations of the stars and planets relative to the horizon as one moved north-south and the fact that the Earth’s shadow on the Moon in a lunar eclipse was always round. However, PTOLEMY went on to affirm that Greece must be on top of the spherical Earth because the ground in Greece was nearly level. e) may have hypothesized a spherical Earth because they thought the Earth needed to be spherical in order to be in balance at the center of the cosmos. Aristotle (384–322) later summarized empirical arguments for the spherical Earth. These included the varying celestial locations of the stars and planets relative to the horizon as one moved north-south and the fact that the Earth’s shadow on the Moon in a lunar eclipse was always round. 5. A major obstacle that ancient Greek astronomers had in trying to determine the nature of the Solar System was: a) the eastward motion of the planets. b) the inability to measure any distances beyond Pluto. c) the inability to measure any distances beyond the Moon. d) the lack of all theoretical biases. e) the lack of geometrical skills. 6. Aristotelian cosmology: a) consisted of perfect eternal cubes rotating about the Earth. b) put the Earth at the center of the cosmos. The planets and fixed stars were located on sets of solid spheres that rotated about the Earth. The celestial phenomena were eternal exactly repeating motions. Beyond the sphere of the fixed stars was a CHAOS of primordial material in which were embedded other finite cosmoses. c) put the Earth at the center of the cosmos. The planets and fixed stars were located on sets of solid spheres that rotated about the Earth. The celestial phenomena
3 were eternal exactly repeating motions. Beyond the sphere of the fixed stars was NOTHING , not even empty space. The universe was finite. d) was DISCARDED by everyone in the medieval Islamic period. It put the Earth at the center of the cosmos. The planets and fixed stars were located on sets of solid spheres that rotated about the Earth. The celestial phenomena were eternal exactly repeating motions. Beyond the sphere of the fixed stars was NOTHING , not even empty space. The universe was finite. e) was never seriously considered again after Ptolemy’s time. 7. In modern times (which here we mean to be after circa 1450), who first proposed the heliocentric theory of the solar system? a) Nicolaus Copernicus (1473–1543). b) Thomas Digges (c. 1546–1595). c) Tycho Brahe (1546–1601). d) Galileo Galilei (1564–1642). e) Isaac Newton (1643–1727). 8. A key reason (perhaps the most important reason) that led Copernicus to propose the heliocentric Solar System was to: a) get rid of uniform circular motion. b) appease the Sun god. c) answer Galileo’s insult. d) get a prediction of the relative positions of the planets. e) prove that the universe was infinite. 9. Apparent retrograde motion is: a) the westward motion of a star on the sky. b) the westward motion of a planet on the sky. c) the eastward motion of a planet on the sky. d) the eastward motion of a star on the sky. e) the result of an inter-planetary collision. 10. If a planet has a mean distance from the Sun of 9 astronomical units, what is its orbital period in years? a) 28 years. b) 3 years. c) 9 years. d) 81 years. e) 27 years. 11. Galileo’s discovery of the moons of Jupiter: a) had no bearing on the debate over the Copernican theory. b) meant that the Earth was the center of Jupiter’s orbit. c) explained the full phases of Venus. d) meant that the Earth was not the physical center of all motion in the Solar System, and that Earth could have a moon and still be on an EPICYCLE . e) meant that the Earth was not the physical center of all motion in the Solar System, and that Earth could have a moon and still be a PLANET . 12. Could heliocentrism be proven to be physically correct in circa 1610? By physically correct we mean showing that the planets geometrically orbited the Sun AND that this structure (i.e., the structure of the Solar System) was derivable from physical law: i.e., that the planets ”physically” orbited the Sun.
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4 a) Yes. Galileo’s telescopic discoveries were proof. b) Yes. Kepler’s 3 laws of planetary motion were proof. c) Yes. Galileo and Kelper’s work combined constituted proof. d) No. Only Newton’s physics published 1687 constituted proof. e) No. Only Einstein’s general relativity published 1915 constituted proof. 13. “Let’s play Jeopardy ! For $100, the answer is: This person’s work made astronomy in a sense and to a degree an experimental science in that he/she showed that the same physics applies on Earth and in the heavens.” Who is , Alex? a) Marguerite de Navarre (1492–1549) b) Giordano Bruno (1548–1600) c) Galileo Galilei (1564–1642) d) Isaac Newton (1643–1727) e) Johann Sebastian Bach (1685–1750) 14. It is somewhat traditional or at least not unusual to begin a book or course on with a philosophical/historical/poetical statement. a) agronomy b) astronomy c) metallurgy d) proctology e) tautology 15. “Let’s play Jeopardy ! For $100, the answer is: An American astronomer of the 2nd half of the 20th century, famous for planetology and science popularization—arguably the most well known scientist of his time.” Who is , Alex? a) Albert Einstein (1879–1955) b) George Gamow (1904–1968) c) Richard Feynman (1918–1988) d) Carl Sagan (1934–1996) e) Brian Greene (1963–) 16. The scientific method can be schematically described as a/an: a) square of theorizing and experiment/observation. b) integrative process. c) reductive process. d) a cycle of theorizing and experiment/observation. e) a pointless pursuit. 17. In scientific theorizing, a rule that has come to be accepted is “Pluralitas non est ponenda sine necessitate,” i.e., “Plurality is not to be posited without necessity” which was stated by Medieval scholastic philosopher John Duns Scotus (c.1266– 1308). The rule is called Occam’s razor after another Medieval scholastic philosopher William of Occam (c.1287–1347), who said something similar. In fact the general idea was expressed by none other than Aristotle (384–322 BCE): “We may assume the superiority ceteris paribus (other things being equal) of the demonstration which derives from fewer postulates or hypotheses.” The essential idea in modern jargon is don’t introduce into theories hypotheses that: a) are needed. b) both needed and not needed. c) are not needed. d) that neither needed nor not needed. e) not purely philosophical. 18. “Let’s play Jeopardy ! For $100, the answer is: This 17TH CENTURY FRENCH scientist gave an early (and probably the first) statement of the falsifiabilty doctrine— which has been much debated, but at least with qualifications has been accepted by
5 many. His statement is as follows: To prove a hypothesis, it is not sufficient to show that all known phenomena can be derived from it. On the other hand, if the hypothesis leads to a single wrong prediction, it is false. —yours truly’s own free translation. As it stands, this statement is open to some qualifications and objections—but that’s another story.” Who is , Alex? a) Blaise Pascal (1623–1662) b) Isaac Newton (1643–1727) c) Charles Darwin (1809–1882) d) Louis Pasteur (1822–1895) e) Carl Sagan (1934–1996) 19. Physics can be briefly defined as the science of: a) human relations. b) sports and leisure. c) matter and motion. d) matter and rest. e) light. 20. “Let’s play Jeopardy ! For $100, the answer is: ‘Just so’ in physics.” What is , Alex? a) a story by Rudyard Kipling b) essential c) eternal d) fundamental e) infernal 21. Astronomy includes both and fundamental physics. a) psychology. b) applied physics. c) other than physics. d) fundamental physics. e) indifferent physics. 22. “Let’s play Jeopardy ! For $100, the answer is: In the opinion of the intstuctor, it is any important theory that applies to reality in some form. Such theories are in some sense and to some degree independent of other theories including the true fundamental theory of physics. They emerge from reality and are like Platonic ideals. Another view is that it is a theory that applies to a complex system but not to that system’s components. It emerges from the complexity. The two views arn’t all that far apart if you define complexity broadly enough.” What is a/an theory, Alex? a) convergent b) emergent c) divergent d) specious e) faux 23. Evolution by survival of the fittest is used in computer calculations to find optimum solutions to problems where the solutions are treated as breeding entities. The best known of such techniques is called the: a) genetic algorithm method. b) scientific method. c) method. d) no-name method. e) son of the method. 24. In the multiverse paradigm, it is posited that the 2nd law of thermodynamics must absolutely everythere in the multiverse—in all the pocket universes and
6 all the regions between them—even though the multiverse outside our pocket universe may have different physics in most respects from our pocket universe. a) hold b) not hold c) be impossible d) be infernal e) be notorious 25. In the broadest sense, is the study of all extraterrestrial phenomena and also terrestrial phenomena that fall into the same categories as extraterrestrial phenomena. a) agronomy b) antimony c) astronomy d) antiquity e) antigone 26. Although one can quibble, most would agree that astronomy is the best candidate for being: a) the oldest empirical science. b) the newest empirical science. c) of little interest. d) the same as astrology. e) the queen of the sciences. 27. “Let’s play Jeopardy ! For $100, the answer is: It is a notation in which one expresses a number by a prefix number (usually in the range 1 to 10, but not including 10) multiplied explicitly by 10 to the appropriate power.” What is , Alex? a) British notation b) scientific notation c) metric notation d) tensy notation e) Irish notation 28. The quantity 2 . 9979 × 10 10 cm / s is the same as: a) 29979000 cm / s. b) 29979000000 cm / s. c) 2 . 9979 × 10 10 km / s. d) the speed of sound. e) 2 . 9979 cm / s. 29. The metric or SI unit prefix symbols M- and m- stand for: a) mega (factor of 10 6 ) and milli (factor of 10 6 ). b) mega (factor of 10 6 ) and milli (factor of 10 3 ). c) kilo (factor of 10 6 ) and milli (factor of 10 3 ). d) kilo (factor of 10 6 ) and milli (factor of 10 6 ). e) merger (factor of 10 9 ) and melba (factor of 10 6 ). 30. Ex-planet Pluto’s mean distance from the Sun is about: a) 0.387 AU. b) 1.0 AU. c) 39.54 AU. d) 67.781 AU. e) 700 AU. 31. The lookback time to an object 300 light-years away is: a) 3 years. b) 10 years. c) 30 years. d) 100 years. e) 300 years. 32. “Let’s play Jeopardy ! For $100, the answer is: The approximate length of a standard university lecture as pointed out by Nobel-prize-winning physicist Enrico Fermi.” What , Alex? a) is a century b) seems like a century c) is a centi-century d) is a micro-century e) is a milli-century 33. “Let’s play Jeopardy ! For $100, the answer is: It is a matter of point of view that this
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7 temperature state can actually be reached. A small enough sample can be put in the state, but some say if it is small enough to be put in the state, then it is too small to be considered to have a temperature since temperature is an average property of matter. In any case, where the state is is exactly known from limiting processes. What is , Alex? a) absolute zero b) the freezing point of water c) the boiling point of water d) the triple point of water e) absolute hot 34. Two simple math formulae that everyone should know are for the amount A accumulated at constant rate R in time t and the inverse formula for the time t to accumulate amount A at constant rate R . The formulae are, respectively: a) t = A/R and A = Rt . b) t = AR and A = R/t . c) A = R/t and t = AR . d) A = Rt 2 and t = A/R 2 . e) A = Rt and t = A/R . 35. Pluto is about 40 astronomical units from the Sun. One astronomical unit is about 1 . 5 × 10 13 cm. The speed of light is 3 . 00 × 10 10 cm / s. The light travel time from the Sun to Pluto is: a) 2 × 10 3 s or about half an hour. b) 2 × 10 3 s or about 5.5 hours. c) 3 . 6 × 10 3 s or one hour. d) 2 × 10 4 s or about 5.5 hours. e) 2 × 10 4 s or about 8 hours. 36. The Moon’s orbital period (i.e, the sidereal month) is 27.321661547 days (J2000). What is the Moon’s orbital angular velocity relative to the observable universe (i.e., the fixed stars in the traditional expression)? a) 12 . 19 / day. b) 12 . 50 / day. c) 13 . 18 / day. d) 15 . 19 / day. e) 27 . 32 / day. 37. A curve on a linear plot that decreases as 1 over the square of the horizontal axis coordinate represents a/an function. a) linear b) inverse-square c) quadratic d) logarithmic e) perpendicular 38. An inertial frame is a reference frame with respect to which all laws of physics are referenced (at least in any ordinary sense), except general relativity which tells us what an exact inertial frame is. What the simplest exact inertial frame is is a/an that is NOT rotating with respect to the observable universe (i.e., the bulk mass-energy of the observable universe). a) accelerating frame b) rotating frame c) free-fall frame d) non-rotating e) oscillating frame 39. The orbits of the planets are best described as: a) highly elongated ellipses. b) perfect circles. c) ellipses, most of them very nearly circular. d) triangles. e) 36-sided polygons.
8 40. “Let’s play Jeopardy ! For $100, the answer is: This condition of astro-bodies means that they show no parallax to unaided-eye observations for any movements about the Earth’s surface.” What is their , Alex? a) closeness relative to the size of the Earth b) remoteness relative to the size of the Earth c) spherical nature d) reflectivity e) sensitivity 41. The celestial sphere is: a) an imaginary remote sphere (centered on the EARTH ) on which all the celestial bodies are located. b) a solid sphere (centered on the Earth) on which all the celestial bodies are located. c) an imaginary remote sphere (centered on the SUN ) on which all the celestial bodies are located. d) the path of the Sun on the sky. e) cause of eclipses. 42. “Let’s play Jeopardy ! For $100, the answer is: They are the extensions of the Earth’s axis out to the celestial sphere.” What are , Alex? a) zenith and nadir b) horizon and nadir c) the north and south celestial poles (NCP and SCP) d) the celestial equator and the eliptic e) the ecliptic pole and the celestial axis 43. What is zenith? What is nadir? a) The point directly to the east; the point directly below. b) The point directly above; the point directly below. c) A kind of television; a kind of refrigerator. d) The point directly above; the point directly west. e) The name of the spring equinox point; the name of the fall equinox point. 44. Polaris is on the horizon. You are: a) near the equator. b) in New York City. c) in Las Vegas. d) near the north pole. e) over the rainbow. 45. Three astonomical location methods are by using modern constellations, horizontal coordinates, and: a) Cartesian coordinates. b) polar coordinates. c) equatorial coordinates. d) vertical coordinates. e) miscellaneous coordinates. 46. What does “to transit the meridian” mean? It means that an object: a) passes through the zenith. b) crosses the meridian of GREENWICH due to the rotation of the Earth. c) crosses the meridian (i.e., the LOCAL MERIDIAN ) due to the rotation of the Earth. d) is in conjunction with the Sun.
9 e) is in opposition (to the Sun). 47. What is right ascension (RA)? a) The point directly below. b) The point directly above. c) The angular position of an object measured north or south from the celestial equator. d) The angular position of an object measured east or west from the celestial equator. e) The azimuthal angular position of an object measured east from the vernal (or spring) equinox. 48. In the summer of the northern hemisphere: a) the northern hemisphere day side is tilted toward the Sun. b) the northern hemisphere day side is tilted away from the Sun. c) the southern hemisphere day side is tilted toward the Sun d) the Earth is nearest the Sun. e) the Earth is at 0.7 astronomical units from the Sun. 49. Retrograde motion (or in modern astro-jargon apparent retrograde motion) is when a planet moves on the celestial sphere. a) westward b) eastward c) northward d) southward e) outward with the expansion of the universe 50. Sometime circa 1650 BCE, the ancient Babylonian astronomers discovered the Venus cycle. Their record of this is called (by moderns) the Venus Tablet of Ammisaduqa : King Ammisaduqa was Hammurabi’s grandson. The Venus cycle is just a result of the synodic period of Venus being about 583.92 days and the Earth’s orbital period being about 365.25 days (a Julian year). The synodic period is the time for the planet to return to the same position in the sky relative to the Sun. Five synodic periods is 2919.60 days and 8 Julian years is 2922.00 days. These times are nearly equal. So 8 years from any day, Venus will be back where it was on that day relative to the Sun (because 8 years is 5 synodic periods) and relative to the fixed stars (because the Sun comes back to the same position relative to the fixed stars every year). It is now easy to predict Venus’ position approximately to the past or future from 8 years of observations. A lot of ancient astronomical prediction skill comes down to using approximate cycles like the Venus cycle. It’s not rocket science. If Venus is nearly in same place relative to the Sun every 8 years, where is it relative to the fixed stars at the same intervals? a) Far off the ecliptic. b) 30 farther east on the ecliptic every Venus cycle period. c) 30 farther west on the ecliptic every Venus cycle period. d) It’s unpredictable. e) Nearly the same place. 51. The stars in a constellation are: a) in orbit about the Earth. b) all about the same age. c) at about the same distance from the Earth. d) usually unrelated, except that they are
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10 close in angular position as seen from the Earth. e) members of the Solar System. 52. All historical cultures eventually arrived independently at the same set of constellations. a) Yes. b) For short periods of time. c) Every other Thursday. d) No. They all started with the same set of constellations, but as time passed they varied them to arrive at very different sets. e) No. 53. “Let’s play Jeopardy ! For $100, the answer is: This person was the first to understand the planetary motions using a physical theory that very adequately accounted for terrestrial motions.” a) Ptolemy (circa 100–175 CE). b) Nicolaus Copernicus (1473–1543). c) Isaac Newton (1642/3–1727). d) Richard Feynman (1918–1988). e) Stephen Hawking (1942–2018). 54. What is the difference between speed and velocity? a) Velocity is the rate of change of speed. b) There is no difference. c) The difference is merely theoretical, not practical. d) Both measure the rate of change of position with time: velocity specifies direction as well as magnitude of the rate of change; speed specifies only magnitude. e) Both measure the rate of change of position with time: velocity specifies acceleration as well as magnitude of the rate of change of position; speed specifies only magnitude of rate of change of position. 55. Newton’s force law for gravitation for the magnitude of the force is F = GM 1 M 2 r 2 . a) The force is ALWAYS ATTRACTIVE and is felt only by the mass designated M 2 . The distance between the centers of the two masses is 2 r . This force law strictly holds for CUBICAL BODIES . b) The force is USUALLY ATTRACTIVE and is felt by both masses M 1 and M 2 . The distance between the centers of the two masses is r . Because r 2 appears in the denominator, the force law is an INVERSE-CUBE LAW . This force law strictly holds only for POINT MASSES : a TOTALLY DIFFERENT FORCE LAW applies to SPHERICALLY SYMMETRIC BODIES . c) The force is ALWAYS ATTRACTIVE and is felt by both masses M 1 and M 2 . The distance between the centers of the two masses is r . Because r 2 appears in the denominator, the force law is an INVERSE-SQUARE LAW . This force law strictly holds only for POINT MASSES : a TOTALLY DIFFERENT FORCE LAW applies to SPHERICALLY SYMMETRIC BODIES . d) The force is ALWAYS ATTRACTIVE and is felt by both masses M 1 and M 2 . The distance between the centers of the two masses is r . Because r 2 appears in the denominator, the force law is an INVERSE-SQUARE LAW . This force law applies to all POINT MASSES and also to SPHERICALLY
11 SYMMETRIC BODIES . For nonspherically symmetric bodies, the force of gravitation VANISHES . e) The force is ALWAYS ATTRACTIVE and is felt by both masses M 1 and M 2 . The distance between the centers of the two masses is r . Because r 2 appears in the denominator, the force law is an INVERSE- SQUARE LAW . This force law applies to all POINT MASSES and also to SPHERICALLY SYMMETRIC BODIES outside of those bodies. For two NONSPHERICALLY SYMMETRIC BODIES , the force of gravitation can be calculated by finding the force between each pair of small parts (one of the pair from each of the two bodies) using the point-mass force law in its vector formulation. The forces between all the pairs can be added up vectorially to get the net force between the bodies. 56. The force of gravity between two bodies is proportional to the inverse square of the distance between the centers of the two bodies either exactly or approximately depending on nature of the bodies. At 10 Earth radii, the Earth’s gravity force is times its gravity force on its surface. a) 1 / 10 b) 1 / 20 c) 20 d) 1 / 100 e) zero 57. Astronauts in orbit about the Earth are weightless because: a) gravity vanishes in space. b) gravity becomes repellent in space. c) they are in free fall. They are perpetually falling away from the Earth. d) they are in free fall. They are perpetually falling toward the Earth, but keep missing it. e) they are in free fall. But they reach terminal speed due to air resistance and this hides any effects of acceleration. 58. The formula for kinetic energy is KE = 1 2 mv 2 , where m is mass and v is velocity. If velocity is doubled, kinetic energy changes by a multiplicative factor of: a) 2. b) 4. c) 1 / 2. d) 1 / 4. e) 1 (i.e., it is unchanged). 59. An everyday example of the 2nd law of thermodynamics is that: a) heat flows from HOT TO COLD BODIES (at least at the macroscopic level) provided there is no refrigeration process or absolute thermal isolation in effect. b) heat cannot flow at all. c) heat flows from COLD TO HOT BODIES (at least at the macroscopic level) provided there is no refrigeration process or absolute thermal isolation in effect. d) heat and coolness are both fluids. e) heat is a fluid and coolness is relative absence of that fluid. 60. The mean lunar month is 29.53059 days. How many days are there in a year of 12 mean lunar months and approximately how many years on a lunisolar calendar before you need to insert a 13th lunar month in a year (an intercalary month) in order to keep
12 the lunisolar calendar roughly consistent with the solar year (i.e., keep the months in the seasons they are supposed to be in)? a) 29.53059 days and every twelfth of a year. b) 365.25 days and every 3 solar years. c) 354.367 days and every 3 SOLAR YEARS . Note you won’t get perfect consistency with an every-3-solar-year insertion since your luni-solar calendar will be short about 33 DAYS after 3 solar years and a mean lunar month is only 29.53059 days. d) 365.25 days and every 300 years. e) 354.367 days and every 4 SOLAR YEARS . Note you won’t get perfect consistency with an every-4-solar-year insertion since your luni-solar calendar will be short about 33 DAYS after 4 solar years and a mean lunar month is only 29.53059 days 61. The Earth is at: a) the geometrical center of the Moon’s ELLIPTICAL orbit. b) the geometrical center of the Moon’s ECLIPTICAL orbit. c) both foci (i.e., focuses) of the Moon’s elliptical orbit. d) the perigee of the Moon’s orbit. e) one of the foci (i.e., focuses) of the Moon’s elliptical orbit. 62. “Let’s play Jeopardy ! For $100, the answer is: A lunar time period that is 27.321661 days long.” What is the , Alex? a) lunar month b) lunar sidereal month c) lunar anomalistic month d) lunar draconitic month e) lunar pathetic month 63. The mean lunar month is 29.53059 days. The ANGULAR VELOCITY of the Moon relative to the Sun ( NOT relative to the fixed stars) is a) 12 . 19 per day. b) 13 . 18 per day. c) 29 . 531 per day. d) 360 per day. e) 12 . 19 . 64. The standard lunar phases in time sequence are: new moon, waxing crescent, , waxing gibbous, full, waning gibbous, 3rd quarter, . a) quarter lit; waning crescent b) quarter full; morning crescent c) 1st quarter; waning crescent d) half lit; morning crescent e) quartic; Mornington Crescent 65. At sunrise, you see the Moon in the eastern sky. It is: a) partially eclipsed. b) a waxing crescent. c) a full moon. d) a gibbous moon. e) a waning crescent. 66. The Sun is setting; the Moon is 180 away from the Sun on the sky. The Moon is: a) setting too. b) half-full. c) a crescent. d) being eclipsed. e) rising and it is full.
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13 67. The Moon is a crescent—the horned Moon. Which way, in a rough sense, do the horns point relative to the Sun? a) Toward the Sun. b) Away from the Sun. c) They can have any orientation depending on the time of year. d) They can have any orientation depending on the time of day. e) Perpendicular to the line from the Moon to the Sun. 68. Currently the tidal locking effect of the Moon on the Earth is increasing the length of the Earth’s solar day by 1 . 70 × 10 3 seconds per century. This rate is probably not constant due to many perturbations. However, assuming it is constant, how long until the solar day is 1 second longer than at present? centuries. a) 160 b) 454 c) 588 d) 674 e) 1012 69. For lunar eclipses (any of partial, total, annular, or penumbral) to occur, the Moon’s orbital nodes do NOT have to be exactly on the Earth-Sun line: i.e., the line drawn through the centers of Earth and Sun. This is because the light-emitting body, the eclipsing body, and the eclipsed body all have finite sizes. The eclipse season is the period during which nodes are sufficiently close to an exact nodal alignment that an eclipse is possible. The eclipse season for the Moon (for partial and total eclipses, and NOT including penumbral eclipses) is about 24 days: 12 days before exact nodal alignment and 12 days after. Why is there NOT a partial or total lunar eclipse during every lunar eclipse season? a) Lunar eclipses can only happen very near exact FULL MOON . If the Moon is just past an eclipsable FULLISH MOON when a lunar eclipse season begins, it will only get back to an eclipsable FULLISH MOON only somewhat less than 29.5 DAYS later and so miss the eclipse season. Consequently, there doesn’t have to be either of a total or partial lunar eclipse in every lunar eclipse season albeit usually there IS . b) Lunar eclipses can only happen very near exact NEW MOON . If the Moon is just past an eclipsable NEWISH MOON when a lunar eclipse season begins, it will only get back to an eclipsable NEWISH MOON only somewhat less than 29.5 DAYS later and so miss the eclipse season. Consequently, there doesn’t have to be either of a total or partial lunar eclipse in every lunar eclipse season, and, in fact, there usually IS NOT . c) Lunar eclipses can only happen very near exact NEW MOON . If the Moon is just past an eclipsable NEWISH MOON when a lunar eclipse season begins, it will only get back to an eclipsable NEWISH MOON only somewhat less than 22 DAYS later and so miss the eclipse season. Consequently, there doesn’t have to be either of a total or partial lunar eclipse in every lunar eclipse season albeit usually there IS . d) Lunar eclipses can only happen very exact FULL MOON . If the Moon is just past an eclipsable FULLISH MOON when a lunar eclipse season begins, it will only get back to an eclipsable FULLISH MOON only somewhat less than 29.5 DAYS later and so miss the eclipse season. Consequently, there doesn’t have to be a either of a total or partial lunar eclipse in every lunar eclipse season, and, in fact, there usually IS NOT . e) The Bos Domesticus effect in which the Sun sort of dodges the Earth happens
14 frequently near nodal alignment. This often prevents lunar eclipses. 70. In a partial eclipse of the Sun (as defined by EARTHLINGS ), an Earthling in a partially eclipsed part of the Earth sees the photosphere of the Sun with a bite out of it. In a partial eclipse of the Moon (as defined by EARTHLINGS ), how does the Sun appear to a Moon-dweller (i.e., a Lunarian, Selenite, or even Subvolvan) on the Earth-facing side of the Moon? a) A disk with a bite out of it in ALL cases. b) A disk with a bite out of it OR it could be totally eclipsed. It depends on the location of the Selenite on the Moon. c) The Sun is totally eclipsed ALWAYS . d) It will look exactly like the Earth. e) It would be nighttime on the Moon and the Selenite wouldn’t see the Sun in any case. 71. Why is the corona visible to the unaided eye only during a total solar eclipse? a) It is behind the photosphere of the Sun ordinarily, and thus cannot be seen ordinarily. b) The Moon’s shadow usually hides it. c) Only during total eclipses is it compacted by magnetic fields. d) It is too faint to be seen when any significant part of the photosphere of the Sun is visible. e) Only a total solar eclipse is long enough to let it stand out. 72. The Saros cycle is an approximate cycle of: a) ALL eclipse phenomena with a period of 6585 days which equals EXACTLY 18 Julian years plus 9 days. b) ALL eclipse phenomena with a period of 6585.3213 days which equals about 18 Julian years plus 11 days. c) SOLAR eclipse phenomena with a period of 6585.3213 days which equals about 18 Julian years plus 11 days. d) SOLAR eclipse phenomena with a period of 6585 days which equals EXACTLY 18 Julian years plus 9 days. e) SOLAR eclipse phenomena with a period of 6585 days which equals EXACTLY 18 Julian years plus 9 days that was discovered by Thales (c. 624–c. 546 BCE).