NS2750 Prelim2 2016 Answer Key
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NS/ANTH 2750: Human Biology & Evolution
Prelim Exam #2, 11/4 10:10 – 11:00 am
Name:___________________________
Section 1 (max = 30)
________________
________________
Section 3 (max = 40)
________________
Section #1 (30 points) _______________
Section #2 (20 points) _______________
Section #3 (30 points) _______________
Section #4 (20 points) _______________
Total (Max = 100)
_______________
Print your name in LARGE letters on the BACK OF THE LAST PAGE of the exam.
Your TA (please circle one)
Yiping Wang
Yiqin Wang
Cem Atillasoy
Nicole Calautti
Shuo Chen
Megan Fitzgerald
Deborah Modlin
Print your name in LARGE letters on the BACK OF THE LAST PAGE of the exam.
There are four sections to this exam:
Section 1: Multiple Choice questions.
You should
answer 10
of the 11 questions.
Each question is worth 3 points, for a maximum total of 30 points. If you answer
a question but then decide you don't want it graded, put an
X
through your
answer. The same for the other sections.
Section 2: True/False questions
. You should
answer 10
of the 11 questions. Each
question is worth 2 points, for a maximum total of 20 points.
Section 3: Short Answer Questions I
. You should
answer 5
of the 6 questions.
Each question is worth 6 points, for a total maximum of 30 points.
Section 4: Short Answer Questions II
. You should
answer BOTH
questions. Each
question is worth 10 points, for a total maximum of 20 points.
Each student in this course is expected to abide by the Cornell University Code
1
NS/ANTH 2750: Human Biology & Evolution
Prelim Exam #2, 11/4 10:10 – 11:00 am
Name:___________________________
SECTION 1: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (30 points)
Answer any
10 of the following 11 multiple choice questions.
If you answer more,
only the first 10 will be graded. (3 points each for 30 points). There is only one
correct answer for each question.
1.
Which of the following types of transposable elements does not go through an
intermediate RNA phase during transposition?
A. LINEs
B. SINEs
C. DNA transposons (Correct)
D. Retroviruses and retrovirus-like LTR
2.
Which of the following populations has the lowest levels of linkage disequilibrium?
A. Africans (Correct)
B. Asians
C. Europeans
D. Native Americans
3.
Which of the following dog populations went through more population bottlenecks?
A. Village dogs
B. Purebred dogs (Correct)
C. All dog populations went through the same number of bottlenecks.
D. Wolves
4.
Which of the following is a limitation of GWAS?
A. Many disease-associated genetic variants are not causal
B. There is a large environmental impact that GWAS does not address
C. GWAS focuses on common variations
D. All of the above (Correct)
5.
Which population has the highest level of genetic variation?
A. Africans (Correct)
B. Asians
C. Europeans
D. Native Americans
6.
Which of the following are true about complex disorders?
A. Multiple genetic and environmental causes
B. Aggregate in families
C. Do not segregate as described by Mendelian genetics
D. All of the above (Correct)
NS/ANTH 2750: Human Biology & Evolution
Prelim Exam #2, 11/4 10:10 – 11:00 am
Name:___________________________
7.
If two genes that diverged following a speciation event they are:
A. Homologous
B. Orthologous (Correct)
C. Paralogous
D. Analogous
8.
Assume that a population has a large effective population size, and no admixture with
other populations, which of the following allele will be most likely to become fixed in this
population?
A. An allele under positive selection (Correct)
B. An allele under negative selection
C. An allele under balancing selection
D. An allele under genetic drift
9.
A population will become more genetically variable for neutral alleles when effective
population size is ____ and the mutation rate is _____.
A.
smaller, smaller
B.
bigger, smaller
C.
smaller, larger
D.
bigger, larger (Correct)
10.
Which one of the followings is not a finding of HapMap Project:
a.
Confirmed African population has shorter haplotype length.
b.
Over 90% of all SNPs on the map have highly statistically significant correlated with
one or more neighbors.
c.
The density of common SNPs can be reduced by 75%-90% with essentially no loss
of information.
d.
Discovered a lot of SNPs with allele frequency less than 0.1%.(Correct)
11.
The emergence of lactose tolerance is associated with:
A.
Cattle domestication (Correct)
B.
Rice domestication
C.
Dog domestication
D.
Wheat domestication
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NS/ANTH 2750: Human Biology & Evolution
Prelim Exam #2, 11/4 10:10 – 11:00 am
Name:___________________________
SECTION 2: TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS (2 points each for 20 points)
Answer any
10 of the following 11 TRUE/FALSE questions.
If you answer more,
only the first 10 will be graded.
Mark T for TRUE of F for FALSE in the space provided.
1.
Denisovans are considered a separate population from both Neanderthals and
modern humans. T
2.
Asians currently have the largest effective population size in the world. F
3.
According to the near-neutral theory of evolution, no deleterious mutation can ever
rise to high frequency within a population. F
4.
The cost of genome sequencing obeyed Moore's Law. F
5.
Humans are one of the most genetically diverse species ever studied. F
6.
Transposable Elements were discovered by Barbra McClintock. T
7.
The most common type of transposable element in humans are LINEs. T
8.
In Adam Boyko’s lecture on canine genomics, he hypothesized that dogs evolved in
Central Asia. T
9.
Agricultural revolution led to significant population increasing. T
10.
Alcohol flush reaction is caused by the accumulation of alcohol in the blood stream. F
11.
The interbreeding of Neanderthals and our ancestors outside of Africa resulted in an
introgression of Neanderthal-derived DNA in modern non-African human population. T
NS/ANTH 2750: Human Biology & Evolution
Prelim Exam #2, 11/4 10:10 – 11:00 am
Name:___________________________
SECTION 3: SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS I: (6 points each for 30 points)
Answer
5 of the following 6 questions.
If you answer more, only the first 5 will be
graded.
Limit your answers to the space provided below the question.
1.
What is the major difference between the neutral and near-neutral theories of
evolution, concerning slightly beneficial or deleterious alleles? Which theory predicts a higher
prevalence of genetic drift (i. e. a higher percentage of genes whose evolution is determined
by drift)?
Near-neutral theory focuses on the evolution of slightly deleterious or advantageous
mutations (1), and predicts that it is controlled by genetic drift instead of selection. (1)
Slightly advantageous mutations (0.5) may not necessarily rise to high frequency (0.5), but
instead die out (1). Similarly, slightly deleterious mutations (0.5) may not necessarily die out
(0.5), but instead rise to high frequency (1).
2.
What are the two enzymes that are involved in the pathway for breaking down
alcohol in humans? How does a deficiency in this pathway cause alcohol flush syndrome? In
which population is alcohol flush syndrome most common?
Alcohol dehydrogenase breaks down ethanol to acetaldehyde, acetaldehyde dehydrogenase
breaks down acetaldehyde to acetic acid. (2) Mutations that upregulate alcohol
dehydrogenase and downregulate acetaldehyde dehydrogenase cause buildup of acetaldehyde
(1), leading to alcohol flush syndrome. (1) These mutations are most common in Asian
populations (2), where they protect against alcohol poisoning due to rice wine.
3. How does genotype-based personalized nutrition differ from population nutrition?
Genotype-based nutrition takes into account genetic variations that change the amount of
nutrients each person requires and their response to those nutrients, so diets are personalized
to each person (3). Population-based nutrition is an average approach whose nutrition
recommendations are designed to work most people in a population (3).
NS/ANTH 2750: Human Biology & Evolution
Prelim Exam #2, 11/4 10:10 – 11:00 am
Name:___________________________
4.
Explain how lactose tolerance is an example of convergent evolution.
Lactose tolerance emerged independently, with different mutations, hence it is convergent
adaptation (3). It did so in Europe and Africa, associated with cattle domestication, and
conferred similar phenotypes of being able to digest lactose. (3)
5.
What is the human genome project (HGP)? What is the major economic impact of
HGP?
The HGP set out to sequence all of the base pairs in the human genome (3). The major
economic impact was the creation of a genomics industry to supply sequencing technology
and analysis, with a revenue of $798 billion each year, for an ROI of 141:1. (3)
6.
List four reasons to argue
against
the statement “Personal Genomics is good for
society”.
Any four of:
Knowing your predispositions may cause anxiety
Does not consider environmental contribution to risk
Genomic information may be very to keep private
Discrimination by insurance companies against those with high genetic risk for disease.
Wealthier people will have much better access than poor, since personal genomics is
expensive.
Lack of counseling for people to help them understand results.
Fatalism for people with high risk of developing a certain risk
Problems with determining who should know genetic information.
Lack of full understanding of which genetic variants are important and what they do.
Development of marketing and regulation guidelines by FDA.
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NS/ANTH 2750: Human Biology & Evolution
Prelim Exam #2, 11/4 10:10 – 11:00 am
Name:___________________________
SECTION 4: SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS II (10 points each for 20 points)
Answer BOTH
questions.
To conserve space and time, do not repeat the question
in your answer. Limit your answers to the space provided below the question.
1.
What is GWAS (1 point)? Why is GWAS better than the traditional way of genetic
mapping for disease genes (2 points)? Briefly describe the
theoretical basis
(3 points) and
experimental steps
(4 points) for this approach to identifying disease-associated mutations.
GWAS is a genome-wide association study (0.5), and links genetic variation to its effects on
disease risk (1.5).
It is better than pedigree analysis because disease-causing SNPs can be localized more
precisely (1), due to the fact that more recombination takes place in an unrelated GWAS
sample, leading to smaller LD blocks (1). GWAS can also detect more SNPs with small effect
on disease risk (1), because of greater statistical power from larger sample size (1).
Steps: Select a group of samples to sequence (0.5), both patients and controls (0.5).
Sequence or genotype samples (1).
Run statistical tests to associate SNPs in samples to disease risk (1)
Cluster significantly associated SNPs (1)
NS/ANTH 2750: Human Biology & Evolution
Prelim Exam #2, 11/4 10:10 – 11:00 am
Name:___________________________
2.
We discussed two methods in class that can be used to detect adaptive evolution:
dN/dS and haplotype length. 1) Please
describe
these two methods (2 points each) and
also explain the
theoretical basis
for either method (3 points each).
dN/dS is ratio of nonsynonymous to synonymous (1), < 1 indicates negative selection, ==1
indicates neutrality, > 1 indicates positive selection (1)
This is because nonsynonymous mutations cause an amino acid change, while synonymous
mutations do not (3)
Long haplotypes (1) indicate positive selection (1).
This is because recombination breaks up haplotypes (2), and positive selection takes less time
than genetic drift, leading to longer haplotypes on average (1).
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