Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is the benign growth of cells within the prostate gland. This causes problem to empty the bladder completely. Surgical treatment with transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) relives the symptoms, but cells may overgrow over the several years. Case summary: A 70 year old patient is suffering from severe obstructive urinary symptoms with a large postvoid residual. The patient had undergone a TURP for BPH 5 years ago. The patient was recommended for digital rectal examination (DRE). DRE result showed large, bulky, and nodular prostrate, with palpable extension that lead to the left seminal vesicle. His prostate specific antigen (PSA) level was found to be 15 ng/mL (but, its normal value is 0-4 ng/mL). The bone scan was found negative. Bilateral external iliac adenopathy associated with lymph nodes (1.5 cm) was revealed in CT scan. Normal size of lymph node is 1 cm. Their prostatic biopsy showed a poorly differentiated adenocarcinoma. The patient has stage T3N+ disease that is extended to seminal vesicles and nodal metastasis. Recommendation is anti-testosterone hormonal drug treatment.

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Answer 1

Question

Chapter 9, Problem 1CRPA

Summary Introduction

Introduction: Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is the benign growth of cells within the prostate gland. This causes problem to empty the bladder completely. Surgical treatment with transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) relives the symptoms, but cells may overgrow over the several years.

Case summary: A 70 year old patient is suffering from severe obstructive urinary symptoms with a large postvoid residual. The patient had undergone a TURP for BPH 5 years ago. The patient was recommended for digital rectal examination (DRE). DRE result showed large, bulky, and nodular prostrate, with palpable extension that lead to the left seminal vesicle. His prostate specific antigen (PSA) level was found to be 15 ng/mL (but, its normal value is 0-4 ng/mL). The bone scan was found negative. Bilateral external iliac adenopathy associated with lymph nodes (1.5 cm) was revealed in CT scan. Normal size of lymph node is 1 cm. Their prostatic biopsy showed a poorly differentiated adenocarcinoma. The patient has stage T3N+ disease that is extended to seminal vesicles and nodal metastasis. Recommendation is anti-testosterone hormonal drug treatment.

Expert Solution & Answer

Answer to Problem 1CRPA

Correct answer:

Option c. is given as “Partial prostatectomy (transurethral)”.

Therefore, option c. is correct.

Explanation of Solution

Reasons for the correct statement:

Five years earlier, the patient had benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) within the prostate gland. So, diagnosed with surgical treatment of transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) to relives from the symptoms. Therefore, option “Partial prostatectomy (transurethral)” is correct answer.

Hence, option c. is correct.

Reasons for the incorrect statement:

Option a. is given as “Removal of testicles”. But, Five years earlier testicles were not removed.

So, option a. is incorrect answer.

Option b. is given as “Perineal prostatectomy”. Perineal prostatectomy refers to surgical removal of prostate gland by incision between scrotum and anus. But, prostate gland was not removed.

So, option b. is incorrect answer.

Hence, options a. and b. are incorrect answer.

Conclusion

Five year previously the patient underwent partial prostatectomy.

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Answer 2

Question

Chapter 9, Problem 1CRPA

Summary Introduction

Introduction: Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is the benign growth of cells within the prostate gland. This causes problem to empty the bladder completely. Surgical treatment with transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) relives the symptoms, but cells may overgrow over the several years.

Case summary: A 70 year old patient is suffering from severe obstructive urinary symptoms with a large postvoid residual. The patient had undergone a TURP for BPH 5 years ago. The patient was recommended for digital rectal examination (DRE). DRE result showed large, bulky, and nodular prostrate, with palpable extension that lead to the left seminal vesicle. His prostate specific antigen (PSA) level was found to be 15 ng/mL (but, its normal value is 0-4 ng/mL). The bone scan was found negative. Bilateral external iliac adenopathy associated with lymph nodes (1.5 cm) was revealed in CT scan. Normal size of lymph node is 1 cm. Their prostatic biopsy showed a poorly differentiated adenocarcinoma. The patient has stage T3N+ disease that is extended to seminal vesicles and nodal metastasis. Recommendation is anti-testosterone hormonal drug treatment.

Expert Solution & Answer

Answer to Problem 1CRPA

Correct answer:

Option c. is given as “Partial prostatectomy (transurethral)”.

Therefore, option c. is correct.

Explanation of Solution

Reasons for the correct statement:

Five years earlier, the patient had benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) within the prostate gland. So, diagnosed with surgical treatment of transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) to relives from the symptoms. Therefore, option “Partial prostatectomy (transurethral)” is correct answer.

Hence, option c. is correct.

Reasons for the incorrect statement:

Option a. is given as “Removal of testicles”. But, Five years earlier testicles were not removed.

So, option a. is incorrect answer.

Option b. is given as “Perineal prostatectomy”. Perineal prostatectomy refers to surgical removal of prostate gland by incision between scrotum and anus. But, prostate gland was not removed.

So, option b. is incorrect answer.

Hence, options a. and b. are incorrect answer.

Conclusion

Five year previously the patient underwent partial prostatectomy.

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Answer 3

Question

Chapter 9, Problem 1CRPA

Summary Introduction

Introduction: Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is the benign growth of cells within the prostate gland. This causes problem to empty the bladder completely. Surgical treatment with transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) relives the symptoms, but cells may overgrow over the several years.

Case summary: A 70 year old patient is suffering from severe obstructive urinary symptoms with a large postvoid residual. The patient had undergone a TURP for BPH 5 years ago. The patient was recommended for digital rectal examination (DRE). DRE result showed large, bulky, and nodular prostrate, with palpable extension that lead to the left seminal vesicle. His prostate specific antigen (PSA) level was found to be 15 ng/mL (but, its normal value is 0-4 ng/mL). The bone scan was found negative. Bilateral external iliac adenopathy associated with lymph nodes (1.5 cm) was revealed in CT scan. Normal size of lymph node is 1 cm. Their prostatic biopsy showed a poorly differentiated adenocarcinoma. The patient has stage T3N+ disease that is extended to seminal vesicles and nodal metastasis. Recommendation is anti-testosterone hormonal drug treatment.

Expert Solution & Answer

Answer to Problem 1CRPA

Correct answer:

Option c. is given as “Partial prostatectomy (transurethral)”.

Therefore, option c. is correct.

Explanation of Solution

Reasons for the correct statement:

Five years earlier, the patient had benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) within the prostate gland. So, diagnosed with surgical treatment of transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) to relives from the symptoms. Therefore, option “Partial prostatectomy (transurethral)” is correct answer.

Hence, option c. is correct.

Reasons for the incorrect statement:

Option a. is given as “Removal of testicles”. But, Five years earlier testicles were not removed.

So, option a. is incorrect answer.

Option b. is given as “Perineal prostatectomy”. Perineal prostatectomy refers to surgical removal of prostate gland by incision between scrotum and anus. But, prostate gland was not removed.

So, option b. is incorrect answer.

Hence, options a. and b. are incorrect answer.

Conclusion

Five year previously the patient underwent partial prostatectomy.

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Answer 4

Question

Chapter 9, Problem 1CRPA

Summary Introduction

Introduction: Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is the benign growth of cells within the prostate gland. This causes problem to empty the bladder completely. Surgical treatment with transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) relives the symptoms, but cells may overgrow over the several years.

Case summary: A 70 year old patient is suffering from severe obstructive urinary symptoms with a large postvoid residual. The patient had undergone a TURP for BPH 5 years ago. The patient was recommended for digital rectal examination (DRE). DRE result showed large, bulky, and nodular prostrate, with palpable extension that lead to the left seminal vesicle. His prostate specific antigen (PSA) level was found to be 15 ng/mL (but, its normal value is 0-4 ng/mL). The bone scan was found negative. Bilateral external iliac adenopathy associated with lymph nodes (1.5 cm) was revealed in CT scan. Normal size of lymph node is 1 cm. Their prostatic biopsy showed a poorly differentiated adenocarcinoma. The patient has stage T3N+ disease that is extended to seminal vesicles and nodal metastasis. Recommendation is anti-testosterone hormonal drug treatment.

Expert Solution & Answer

Answer to Problem 1CRPA

Correct answer:

Option c. is given as “Partial prostatectomy (transurethral)”.

Therefore, option c. is correct.

Explanation of Solution

Reasons for the correct statement:

Five years earlier, the patient had benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) within the prostate gland. So, diagnosed with surgical treatment of transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) to relives from the symptoms. Therefore, option “Partial prostatectomy (transurethral)” is correct answer.

Hence, option c. is correct.

Reasons for the incorrect statement:

Option a. is given as “Removal of testicles”. But, Five years earlier testicles were not removed.

So, option a. is incorrect answer.

Option b. is given as “Perineal prostatectomy”. Perineal prostatectomy refers to surgical removal of prostate gland by incision between scrotum and anus. But, prostate gland was not removed.

So, option b. is incorrect answer.

Hence, options a. and b. are incorrect answer.

Conclusion

Five year previously the patient underwent partial prostatectomy.

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Answer 5

Chapter 9, Problem 1CRPA

Summary Introduction

Introduction: Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is the benign growth of cells within the prostate gland. This causes problem to empty the bladder completely. Surgical treatment with transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) relives the symptoms, but cells may overgrow over the several years.

Case summary: A 70 year old patient is suffering from severe obstructive urinary symptoms with a large postvoid residual. The patient had undergone a TURP for BPH 5 years ago. The patient was recommended for digital rectal examination (DRE). DRE result showed large, bulky, and nodular prostrate, with palpable extension that lead to the left seminal vesicle. His prostate specific antigen (PSA) level was found to be 15 ng/mL (but, its normal value is 0-4 ng/mL). The bone scan was found negative. Bilateral external iliac adenopathy associated with lymph nodes (1.5 cm) was revealed in CT scan. Normal size of lymph node is 1 cm. Their prostatic biopsy showed a poorly differentiated adenocarcinoma. The patient has stage T3N+ disease that is extended to seminal vesicles and nodal metastasis. Recommendation is anti-testosterone hormonal drug treatment.

Expert Solution & Answer

Answer to Problem 1CRPA

Correct answer:

Option c. is given as “Partial prostatectomy (transurethral)”.

Therefore, option c. is correct.

Explanation of Solution

Reasons for the correct statement:

Five years earlier, the patient had benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) within the prostate gland. So, diagnosed with surgical treatment of transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) to relives from the symptoms. Therefore, option “Partial prostatectomy (transurethral)” is correct answer.

Hence, option c. is correct.

Reasons for the incorrect statement:

Option a. is given as “Removal of testicles”. But, Five years earlier testicles were not removed.

So, option a. is incorrect answer.

Option b. is given as “Perineal prostatectomy”. Perineal prostatectomy refers to surgical removal of prostate gland by incision between scrotum and anus. But, prostate gland was not removed.

So, option b. is incorrect answer.

Hence, options a. and b. are incorrect answer.

Conclusion

Five year previously the patient underwent partial prostatectomy.

Answer 6

Chapter 9, Problem 1CRPA

Summary Introduction

Introduction: Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is the benign growth of cells within the prostate gland. This causes problem to empty the bladder completely. Surgical treatment with transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) relives the symptoms, but cells may overgrow over the several years.

Case summary: A 70 year old patient is suffering from severe obstructive urinary symptoms with a large postvoid residual. The patient had undergone a TURP for BPH 5 years ago. The patient was recommended for digital rectal examination (DRE). DRE result showed large, bulky, and nodular prostrate, with palpable extension that lead to the left seminal vesicle. His prostate specific antigen (PSA) level was found to be 15 ng/mL (but, its normal value is 0-4 ng/mL). The bone scan was found negative. Bilateral external iliac adenopathy associated with lymph nodes (1.5 cm) was revealed in CT scan. Normal size of lymph node is 1 cm. Their prostatic biopsy showed a poorly differentiated adenocarcinoma. The patient has stage T3N+ disease that is extended to seminal vesicles and nodal metastasis. Recommendation is anti-testosterone hormonal drug treatment.

Expert Solution & Answer

Answer to Problem 1CRPA

Correct answer:

Option c. is given as “Partial prostatectomy (transurethral)”.

Therefore, option c. is correct.

Explanation of Solution

Reasons for the correct statement:

Five years earlier, the patient had benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) within the prostate gland. So, diagnosed with surgical treatment of transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) to relives from the symptoms. Therefore, option “Partial prostatectomy (transurethral)” is correct answer.

Hence, option c. is correct.

Reasons for the incorrect statement:

Option a. is given as “Removal of testicles”. But, Five years earlier testicles were not removed.

So, option a. is incorrect answer.

Option b. is given as “Perineal prostatectomy”. Perineal prostatectomy refers to surgical removal of prostate gland by incision between scrotum and anus. But, prostate gland was not removed.

So, option b. is incorrect answer.

Hence, options a. and b. are incorrect answer.

Conclusion

Five year previously the patient underwent partial prostatectomy.

Answer 7

Chapter 9, Problem 1CRPA

Summary Introduction

Introduction: Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is the benign growth of cells within the prostate gland. This causes problem to empty the bladder completely. Surgical treatment with transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) relives the symptoms, but cells may overgrow over the several years.

Case summary: A 70 year old patient is suffering from severe obstructive urinary symptoms with a large postvoid residual. The patient had undergone a TURP for BPH 5 years ago. The patient was recommended for digital rectal examination (DRE). DRE result showed large, bulky, and nodular prostrate, with palpable extension that lead to the left seminal vesicle. His prostate specific antigen (PSA) level was found to be 15 ng/mL (but, its normal value is 0-4 ng/mL). The bone scan was found negative. Bilateral external iliac adenopathy associated with lymph nodes (1.5 cm) was revealed in CT scan. Normal size of lymph node is 1 cm. Their prostatic biopsy showed a poorly differentiated adenocarcinoma. The patient has stage T3N+ disease that is extended to seminal vesicles and nodal metastasis. Recommendation is anti-testosterone hormonal drug treatment.

Answer 8

Expert Solution & Answer

Answer to Problem 1CRPA

Correct answer:

Option c. is given as “Partial prostatectomy (transurethral)”.

Therefore, option c. is correct.

Answer 9

Expert Solution & Answer

Answer 10

Expert Solution & Answer

Answer 11

Explanation of Solution

Reasons for the correct statement:

Five years earlier, the patient had benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) within the prostate gland. So, diagnosed with surgical treatment of transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) to relives from the symptoms. Therefore, option “Partial prostatectomy (transurethral)” is correct answer.

Hence, option c. is correct.

Reasons for the incorrect statement:

Option a. is given as “Removal of testicles”. But, Five years earlier testicles were not removed.

So, option a. is incorrect answer.

Option b. is given as “Perineal prostatectomy”. Perineal prostatectomy refers to surgical removal of prostate gland by incision between scrotum and anus. But, prostate gland was not removed.

So, option b. is incorrect answer.

Hence, options a. and b. are incorrect answer.