(A)
To calculate:
The future price of the brandex stock.
Introduction:
Future price refers to the price pertaining to which two parties transact the commodity at a predetermined price at a specific date in the future. It represents the price of commodity or stock on future contract in comparison to the current or spot price.
(B)
To calculate:
The change in the future price of the brandex stock and the margin account of the investor.
Introduction:
Margin in the trading account refers to the minimum amount of money, which the investor is required to maintain in his account in the form of margin for placing a trade order.
(C)
To calculate:
Percentage return on the position held by the investor.
Introduction:
Want to see the full answer?
Check out a sample textbook solutionChapter 21 Solutions
INVESTMENTS-CONNECT PLUS ACCESS
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- Assume a security follows a geometric Brownian motion with volatility parameter sigma=0.2. Assume the initial price of the security is $25 and the interest rate is 0. It is known that the price of a down-and-in barrier option and a down-and-out barrier option with strike price $22 and expiration 30 days have equal risk-neutral prices. Compute this common risk-neutral price. I was able to do this problem, but have a question about the interpretation of my answer. I got an answer of $3.00 for the cost of the call option, but how do I answer "compute this common risk-neutral price"? Do I have to divide the answer my 2 for each of the barrier options and say the answer is $1.50? Or because of the fact that it says common does that mean to take the combined value of $1.50+$1.50 to get $3.00 as the answer? I'm just not sure if my answer to the question is $3.00 or $1.50. Does it all depend on the word "common"? Thanks for some clarification.arrow_forwardWith all other variables being equal (the same excerise price, underlying asset, implied volatility, interest rate, etc.), an at-the-money option with 30 days to expiration will tpyically have a gamma that is higher than an at-the-moeny option with 180 days to expiration (hint: think of the different shapes of the associated probability distribution and the change in delta) True or False?arrow_forwardYou are evaluating a put option based on the following information: P = Ke-H•N(-d,) – S-N(-d,) Stock price, So Exercise price, k = RM 11 = RM 10 = 0.10 Maturity, T= 90 days = 0.25 Standard deviation, o = 0.5 Interest rate, r Calculate the fair value of the put based on Black-Scholes pricing model. Cumulative normal distribution table is provided at the back.arrow_forward
- If the stock price is 44, the exercise price is 40, the put price is 1.54, and the Black-Scholes price using .28 as the volatility is 1.11, the implied volatility will be. Explain how? A. higher than .28 B. lower than .28 C. .28 D. lower than the risk-free rate E. none of the abovearrow_forwardAssume a security follows a geometric Brownian motion with volatility parameter sigma=0.2. Assume the initial price of the security is $25 and the interest rate is 0. It is known that the price of a down-and-in barrier option and a down-and-out barrier option with strike price $22 and expiration 30 days have equal risk-neutral prices. Compute this common risk-neutral price. (I attempted this problem and got a final answer of $1.50. Not sure if that is right.)arrow_forward4. Valuation of a Derivative Consider a derivative on a stock with the time to expiration T and the following payoff: 0 K₁ 0 if ST K₁. What is the present value of the derivative? Provide an analytic expression of the price using N(), the cumulative probability distribution function of a standard normal random variable.arrow_forward
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