Questions:Why did Britain and France conduct a policy of "appeasement" of the dictators in the 1930s?Did their motives change over time?Can one justify this policy?Describe the sequence of crises from 1931 to 1939 which set the scene for the "Second World War" and show the role that appeasement played.

Since you have posted a question of multiple subparts, we will solve the first three subparts for you. To get the remaining subparts solved, please repost the complete question and mention the subparts to be solved. Appeasement was a diplomatic foreign policy in which nations would make peace with the aggressive country with the help of negotiations. It is done to prevent wars. Britain and France conducted this appeasement policy in the 1930s with Germany. This appeasement policy was done to stop Hitler from starting a world war. They were apprehensive of his policies, which could have waged another world war. It allowed Hitler to expand its territories, which were not under check by any international agency. The end of this policy was at Munich Conference in 1938.This policy of appeasement was done on popular demand by Western democracies like Britain and France. The aggressive nations like Germany with Hitler as dictator took the advantage of this policy and tried to expand their dominion. Not only Germany but Fascist Italy was also on the same line during the period of 1930s. This appeasement reached its climax when Hitler seized parts of Czechoslovakia on March 15, 1939, opposing its promises given during the Munich Conference in 1938. Furthermore, Prime Minister Chamberlain decided to go with the policy of resistance. This made the dictators aggressive and led to Second World War.When the dictators spread terror onto the lands, all of them looked at great democracies like Britain and France. But what they come up with was the policy of appeasement. It did not try to curb Germany and Italy's dictatorship; instead, it acted as a support to them. This policy couldn't be justified by the political scientists and diplomats as all Britain and France wanted was to stop the war. They had seen the catastrophic 1st World War, and their economies were not recovered yet. But this appeasement policy did not prevent Hitler from waging the Second World War. Hence, it cannot be justified.

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Why did Britain and France conduct a policy of "appeasement" of the dictators in the 1930s? Did their motives change over time? Can one justify this policy?

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Questions:

Why did Britain and France conduct a policy of "appeasement" of the dictators in the 1930s?
Did their motives change over time?
Can one justify this policy?
Describe the sequence of crises from 1931 to 1939 which set the scene for the "Second World War" and show the role that appeasement played.

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