Which of the following are among the reasonsoffered by Adam Smith for why specializationresults in higher levels of output?(Select all that apply. Hint: There are 2 correctanswers.)Select all that apply:Specialization in a particular small joballows workers to focus on the partsof the production process where theyhave an advantage.Specialization allows businesses totake advantage of economies ofscale.Specialization allows workers toexperiment with different tasks tosee which responsibilities make themhappiest at work.Workers who specialize in certaintasks forgo an opportunity to learnhow to do new tasks efficiently.

GIVEN DATA Adam smith The economist and philosopher "Are also referred to as "The Father of…

Answered: Which of the following are among the…

Which of the following are among the reasons offered by Adam Smith for why specialization results in higher levels of output? (Select all that apply. Hint: There are 2 correct answers.)

ENGR.ECONOMIC ANALYSIS

14th Edition

ISBN:9780190931919

Author:NEWNAN

Publisher:NEWNAN

Chapter1: Making Economics Decisions

Section: Chapter Questions

Problem 1QTC

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Consider the Specific Factors model with two countries, Home and Foreign, with two goods, cars (c) and pharmaceutical drugs (d), and three factors, capital K, skilled labour S, and unskilled labour L. The production functions are given by 1 1 F.(Ke, Le) = K. Lễ and Fa(Ka, Sa) = K}S}. That is, skilled labour is specific to pharmaceutical drugs, and unskilled labour to cars. Suppose that the countries' factor endowments are KH = 2 = KF, 1 and SF LH 1 and LF 3/2, and SH 1/2, so that the total labour force is 2 in || both countries. The price of capital is denoted by r, the price of skilled and unskilled labour by w, and w. Denote the goods' prices by pc and pa, and normalise pa 1 %3D for simplicity. The demand for cars and drugs in country j = H, F is given by , and r: 2Yi and ra 3 pe 1Yj 3 pa where Y' denotes aggregate income in country j. (b) Derive the autarky equilibrium in Home, showing that KH = 4/3 and p = /2.
Standard trade Model When comparing the agricultural sectors of the USA and the UK, we can analyze it within the framework of the standard trade model, also known as the neoclassical trade model. This model assumes perfect competition, constant returns to scale, and comparative advantage based on differences in factor endowments. Here's how the standard model can be applied to the agricultural sectors of the USA and the UK: a) Land: The USA has vast amounts of arable land, which can be used for agriculture. Its large land endowment can give it a comparative advantage in the production of various agricultural commodities. b) Labor: The UK's agricultural sector might not have a significant comparative advantage in labor-intensive agriculture due to relatively high labor costs compared to countries with lower wage levels. However, it may focus on niche agricultural products or high-value crops that require specialized labor or have specific geographical advantages. c) Capital: The…
If a country (say the UK) has 900 units of labour available, can produce two goods (cars and PCs) and the unit labour requirement in car production is 5 while in PCs production it is 2, the opportunity cost of cars in terms of PCs would be 2.5. Indicate whether the above statement is True or False, AND with a couple of sentences explain why.
Is this a good example of opportunity cost? Why or why not. “In 2019, I started my small business by selling prints of my photographs. Now it’s temporarily closed. During this time I had the option of shipping my prints through USPS or UPS. I decided to ship my prints through USPS instead of UPS since it was a bit expensive at the time. My prints that were shipped out from USPS arrived in time and came in good condition. The opportunity cost is the cost of UPS.”
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In the Heckscher-Ohlin-Vanek model, labour productivities in the production of a good in the different countries must be equal to each other must be equal to productivity of capital in producing the same good must be equal to each other and the capital productivities for the same good in different countries none of the above.
I've already read the answer provided on this site, but it is not giving me the information I need. I understand the math for finding the opportunity costs for each item in each country. However, where are they getting the answer that 2.5 tons of chemicals is what the US will give up, and 1 ton of apparel is what China will give up? From videos I've seen on youtube, they basically state that as long as the cost is less than what the original opportunity cost is, then nations will trade. So, it costs China 4 apparel for every 1 ton of chemicals, and in the US it costs 1 apparel for every 3 tons of chemicals. Am I right to assume that as long as China can trade less than 4 apparel it will benefit, and as long as the US can trade less than 3 tons of chemicals it will benefit? If so, then what is the math being used to arrive at exactly 1 ton of Chemicals for 1 ton of Apparel for China, and 1 apparel for 2.5 tons of Chemicals for the US? I need to understand the math that is used to…
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Why would multinational corporations from the U.S. be interested in emerging and developing markets (e.g. Latin America, Africa, Central and Southeast Asia)? Would MNCs be better off focusing their efforts on more industrialized markets (US, Canada, western Europe, Australia, Japan)? Explain?
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Q9 What’s the correct answer ?