Taking David Faber's argument (Munich, 1938) at face value: that appeasement was clearly a dominant--if not the dominant--characteristic of European diplomacy with Nazi Germany in the 1930s, in what ways can the policy of appeasement be understood as a by-product of European nationalism? In what specific ways can the British government's negotiations with Hitler in the late 1930s be compared to its handling of Gandhi and the Indian independence movement? Please explain.

Taking David Faber's argument (Munich, 1938) at face value: that appeasement was clearly a dominant--if not the dominant--characteristic of European diplomacy with Nazi Germany in the 1930s, in what ways can the policy of appeasement be understood as a by-product of European nationalism? In what specific ways can the British government's negotiations with Hitler in the late 1930s be compared to its handling of Gandhi and the Indian independence movement? Please explain.