Rizal argued that the pre-hispanic Filipinos had their own culture before 1521, and thus they were not saved from barbarism, and did not obtain “civilization” from Spain. Do you agree with him? Why?

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Rizal argued that the pre-hispanic Filipinos had their own culture before 1521, and thus they were not saved from barbarism, and did not obtain “civilization” from Spain. Do you agree with him? Why?  

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