is Fima, which we can solve for acceleration to give us a F/m. Which answer below correctly reasons why a 2kg mass half of the acceleration of a 1kg mass under the same force? Seeing proptionality directly in equations: Newton's A 2kg mass is twice the mass of a 1kg mass. For the same F, a-F/m tells us that we can think of the acceleration going as 1/m. If we double m, then we would be comparing 1/(m) to 1/(2m). The 1/(2m) case corresponds to the doubled mass case; clearly, it is equal to 1/2 of 1/m, so the acceleration must be halved if we double the mass. Actually, it doesn't the acceleration stays the same for both masses, because the law is still a = F/m. If we consider a₁ = F/(1kg), and a2 = F/(2kg), then we can see that aglay (F/2kg)/(F/1kg) =(1/2kg)/(1/1kg) 1kg/2kg -1/2, so then a₂ = 1/2* a1. The acceleration of the doubled mass (2kg) is half of the acceleration of the original mass (1kg) for the same F. Both the first and third choice are correct. Actually, it doesn't have halve the acceleration: the acceleration of the 2kg mass is twice as large as the 1kg mass because acceleration goes as m, not 1/m. All of the Above None of the Above

Applications and Investigations in Earth Science (9th Edition)
9th Edition
ISBN:9780134746241
Author:Edward J. Tarbuck, Frederick K. Lutgens, Dennis G. Tasa
Publisher:Edward J. Tarbuck, Frederick K. Lutgens, Dennis G. Tasa
Chapter1: The Study Of Minerals
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Seeing proptionality directly in equations: Newton's 2nd law is F=ma, which we can solve for acceleration to give us a=F/m. Which answer below correctly reasons why a 2kg mass has one-half of the acceleration of a 1kg mass under the same force?
A 2kg mass is twice the mass of a 1kg mass. For the same F, a=F/m tells us that we can think of the acceleration going as 1/m. If we double m, then we would be comparing 1/(m) to 1/(2m). The 1/(2m) case corresponds to the doubled mass case; clearly, it is equal to 1/2 of 1/m, so the
acceleration must be halved if we double the mass.
Actually, it doesn't: the acceleration stays the same for both masses, because the law is still a = F/m.
0000
If we consider a₁ = F/(1kg), and a2 = F/(2kg), then we can see that
a₂/a₁ = (F/2kg) / (F/1kg)
=(1/2kg) / (1/1kg)
= 1kg/2kg
= 1/2,
so then a2 = 1/2 * a1. The acceleration of the doubled mass (2kg) is half of the acceleration of the original mass (1kg) for the same F.
Both the first and third choice are correct.
Actually, it doesn't have halve the acceleration: the acceleration of the 2kg mass is twice as large as the 1kg mass because acceleration goes as m, not 1/m.
All of the Above
None of the Above
Transcribed Image Text:Seeing proptionality directly in equations: Newton's 2nd law is F=ma, which we can solve for acceleration to give us a=F/m. Which answer below correctly reasons why a 2kg mass has one-half of the acceleration of a 1kg mass under the same force? A 2kg mass is twice the mass of a 1kg mass. For the same F, a=F/m tells us that we can think of the acceleration going as 1/m. If we double m, then we would be comparing 1/(m) to 1/(2m). The 1/(2m) case corresponds to the doubled mass case; clearly, it is equal to 1/2 of 1/m, so the acceleration must be halved if we double the mass. Actually, it doesn't: the acceleration stays the same for both masses, because the law is still a = F/m. 0000 If we consider a₁ = F/(1kg), and a2 = F/(2kg), then we can see that a₂/a₁ = (F/2kg) / (F/1kg) =(1/2kg) / (1/1kg) = 1kg/2kg = 1/2, so then a2 = 1/2 * a1. The acceleration of the doubled mass (2kg) is half of the acceleration of the original mass (1kg) for the same F. Both the first and third choice are correct. Actually, it doesn't have halve the acceleration: the acceleration of the 2kg mass is twice as large as the 1kg mass because acceleration goes as m, not 1/m. All of the Above None of the Above
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