If ø(x) is an arbitrary well-behaved function, can one claim [î, §]= iħ1 ? (YES or NO). Give reasons to support your answer. Notice that the focus shifts from the wave function to the operators themselves.
If ø(x) is an arbitrary well-behaved function, can one claim [î, §]= iħ1 ? (YES or NO). Give reasons to support your answer. Notice that the focus shifts from the wave function to the operators themselves.
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![8. If ø(x) is an arbitrary well-behaved function, can one claim [î,ô]= iħÏ ? (YES or NO). Give reasons to
support your answer. Notice that the focus shifts from the wave function to the operators themselves.](/v2/_next/image?url=https%3A%2F%2Fcontent.bartleby.com%2Fqna-images%2Fquestion%2F2e50119e-8646-4255-90fd-98958ba58941%2F960365d7-477c-4220-8c82-f97250b2584c%2Fm7kk2dp_processed.jpeg&w=3840&q=75)
Transcribed Image Text:8. If ø(x) is an arbitrary well-behaved function, can one claim [î,ô]= iħÏ ? (YES or NO). Give reasons to
support your answer. Notice that the focus shifts from the wave function to the operators themselves.
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