I am intrigued by the following article detailing how Nestle agreed to pay Starbucks $7.2B to distribute and sell Starbucks’ packaged coffees and teas around the world. Why would Nestle purposely put its competitors’ brands right next to it in the store, and then pay them for the privilege? Why wouldn’t Starbucks just take care of distributing its own brands rather than go through Nestle? Please explain how this outcome could be profit maximizing for both firms
I am intrigued by the following article detailing how Nestle agreed to pay Starbucks $7.2B to distribute and sell Starbucks’ packaged coffees and teas around the world. Why would Nestle purposely put its competitors’ brands right next to it in the store, and then pay them for the privilege? Why wouldn’t Starbucks just take care of distributing its own brands rather than go through Nestle? Please explain how this outcome could be profit maximizing for both firms
Chapter1: Making Economics Decisions
Section: Chapter Questions
Problem 1QTC
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I am intrigued by the following article detailing how Nestle agreed to pay Starbucks $7.2B to distribute and sell Starbucks’ packaged coffees and teas around the world. Why would Nestle purposely put its competitors’ brands right next to it in the store, and then pay them for the privilege? Why wouldn’t Starbucks just take care of distributing its own brands rather than go through Nestle? Please explain how this outcome could be profit maximizing for both firms
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