For the infinite series series n=1 n=1 1 2n it is clear that lim 1 is convergent? Why or why not? 2n n 1 = 0. Can we use this fact to conclude that the infinite 2n

Advanced Engineering Mathematics
10th Edition
ISBN:9780470458365
Author:Erwin Kreyszig
Publisher:Erwin Kreyszig
Chapter2: Second-order Linear Odes
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For the infinite series 

\[
\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{2n},
\]

it is clear that 

\[
\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{2n} = 0.
\] 

Can we use this fact to conclude that the infinite series 

\[
\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{2n}
\]

is convergent? Why or why not?
Transcribed Image Text:For the infinite series \[ \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{2n}, \] it is clear that \[ \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{2n} = 0. \] Can we use this fact to conclude that the infinite series \[ \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{2n} \] is convergent? Why or why not?
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