Consider the set of lattice paths from (0, 0) to (8, 8). You should know one quick formula for the cardinality of that set. However, counting a different way can lead to an interesting identity involving binomial coefficients. Notice that any path goes through exactly one of the points (0, 8),(1, 7),(2, 6), (3,5), (4,4), (5,3) ,(8, 0). Count the number of lattice paths that go through each of those 9 points - leave the expression in terms of binomial coefficients. Even more interesting is what you get if you generalize to a destination of (n, n), n 2 1. I am unsure of how to go about solving this problem in any way that makes sense, Was wondering if anyone here could help?

Advanced Engineering Mathematics
10th Edition
ISBN:9780470458365
Author:Erwin Kreyszig
Publisher:Erwin Kreyszig
Chapter2: Second-order Linear Odes
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Consider the set of lattice paths from (0, 0) to (8, 8).
You should know one quick formula for the
cardinality of that set. However, counting a different
way can lead to an interesting identity involving
binomial coefficients. Notice that any path goes
through exactly one of the points (0, 8),(1, 7),(2, 6),
(3,5), (4,4), (5,3) ,(8, 0). Count the number of lattice
paths that go through each of those 9 points - leave
the expression in terms of binomial coefficients.
Even more interesting is what you get if you
generalize to a destination of (n, n), n > 1.
I am unsure of how to go about solving this problem
in any way that makes sense, Was wondering if
anyone here could help?
Transcribed Image Text:Consider the set of lattice paths from (0, 0) to (8, 8). You should know one quick formula for the cardinality of that set. However, counting a different way can lead to an interesting identity involving binomial coefficients. Notice that any path goes through exactly one of the points (0, 8),(1, 7),(2, 6), (3,5), (4,4), (5,3) ,(8, 0). Count the number of lattice paths that go through each of those 9 points - leave the expression in terms of binomial coefficients. Even more interesting is what you get if you generalize to a destination of (n, n), n > 1. I am unsure of how to go about solving this problem in any way that makes sense, Was wondering if anyone here could help?
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