Can you please help with the explanation of the below? In contemporary monetary theory, we do not normally think of using a money stock to implement monetary policy. By setting m-p, the log of the real money stock, equal to money demand y-b.i where y and i are ln(GDP) and the interest rate, create a money policy reaction function. Noting that p+y is the log of nominal GDP how could you interpret m in this case so as to make your equation approximate the reality in Australia?

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