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History
Both British and Spanish American colonies might have had rebellions to separate from their mother countries in the 18th century,

Both British and Spanish American colonies might have had rebellions to separate from their mother countries in the 18th century,

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Both British and Spanish American colonies might have had rebellions to separate from their mother countries in the 18th century, yet it only happened at this point in North America. Why? What was unique about the British colonies and not present in the Spanish colonies? How did these factors influence the potential for revolution at this point in time?
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