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aking David Faber's main argument for exactly what it says: that appeasement was clearly a dominant--if not the dominant--characteristic of European diplomacy with Nazi Germany in the 1930s, in what ways can the policy of appeasement be understood as a by-product of European nationalism?

aking David Faber's main argument for exactly what it says: that appeasement was clearly a dominant--if not the dominant--characteristic of European diplomacy with Nazi Germany in the 1930s, in what ways can the policy of appeasement be understood as a by-product of European nationalism?

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Taking David Faber's main argument for exactly what it says: that appeasement was clearly a dominant--if not the dominant--characteristic of European diplomacy with Nazi Germany in the 1930s, in what ways can the policy of appeasement be understood as a by-product of European nationalism?

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