a. Why was the Sherman Act written in such broad language? b. Is it possible that Congress wrote the legislation in an unclear manner to give the courts broad leeway in attacking monopolistic business practices? c. Would it have been better for Congress to have specified more of the terms of antitrust violations?
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a. Why was the Sherman Act written in such broad language?
b. Is it possible that Congress wrote the legislation in an unclear manner to give the courts broad leeway in attacking monopolistic business practices?
c. Would it have been better for Congress to have specified more of the terms of antitrust violations?
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