8. O We have seen in class that cosh x = Does it follow that dividing both sides by x we “(2n)! n=0 can obtain the Maclaurin series for y =- cosh x ? Why or why not?

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„2n
O We have seen in class that cosh x =
Does it follow that dividing both sides by x² we
(2n)!
n=0
cosh x
can obtain the Maclaurin series for y =
? Why or why not?
Transcribed Image Text:„2n O We have seen in class that cosh x = Does it follow that dividing both sides by x² we (2n)! n=0 cosh x can obtain the Maclaurin series for y = ? Why or why not?
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