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- Suppose that x is the continuously compounded yield to maturity on a zero-coupon bond that pays off $1 at time T. Assume that x follows the process: dx = a (x₁ - x) dt + sx dz where a, x0, and s are positive constants and dz is a Wiener process. What is the process followed by the bond price? Solutions:Solve this practice problemSuppose the CAPM is true. Consider two assets, X and Y, and the market M. Suppose cov(X,M) = .3, cov(Y,M) = .5. %3D (a) Is the expected return higher on X or Y? (b) Suppose var(M) = 1.5, what are the betas of X and Y? (c) Suppose the expected market return is 20% and the risk free rate is 5%, what is the expected returns of X and Y?. (d) Given your analysis in (a)-(c), what type of investor would prefer asset X to asset Y?
- Remember the following the 1-factor model or CAPM is defined as re-rf beta * [rm -rf] what is the return on equity (re) if rf = 0.05 rm = 1.88 beta = 1.47Suppose two asset returns are described by a 1-factor model = 2% + 0.6f + ej r2= 2% + 0.6f+ e2 where the volatility of fis 30% and the volatility of e and ez is 20%. What is the covariance of r and r2? (Nearest 0.0001)Consider a two-factor Arbitrage Pricing Theory (APT) model, T; = a; + b1,ifı + b2.i f2 + €i, with the following information Asset i Asset 1 0.07 0.50 0.25 Asset 2 0.15 1.10 0.75 Asset 3 0.20 b1,3 Hi b1i b2i 1.0 and the risk-free rate rp is 0.025. (a) Find the value of b13 to preclude arbitrage opportunity. (b) is an Asset 4 with 4 = 0.13, b14 = 0.8, and b2.4 = 0.4. Explain how you would exploit an arbitrage opportunity if there
- 4. Explain what the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) is and calculate and explain the result of the CAPM based on the following data. a. Expected Return: 8% b. Risk-free rate: 4% c. Beta of the investment: 1.2 ER=Rf+B(ERm - Rf) where: ER = expected return of investment Rf risk-free rate B;= beta of the investment - (ERm - Rf) = market risk premiumPlease calculate CAPM of Asset J with the following information: where, kj = required return on asset j, Rf = risk-free rate of return, (6%) bj = beta coefficient for asset j, (1.75) %3D Rm = market return. (10%) The equation for CAPM is kj = Rf + [bj x (Rm - Rf)] kj = Solve for required return on asset j (kj is CAPM) Please be detailed when answering and show all work, thank you.Capital asset pricing model (CAPM) For the asset shown in the following table, use the capital asset pricing model to find the required return. (Click on the icon here O in order to copy the contents of the data table below into a spreadsheet.) ne Risk-free Market rate, R return, rm Beta, b nts 4% 0.7 1% The required return for the asset is %. (Round to two decimal places.) eТext edia Librai ial Calculat er Resource Enter your answer in the answer box and then click Check Answer. Check Answer mic Study ules Clear All All parts showing 10: DExercise(14); ools > This course (Introduction to Finance (FIN-101-D02) Distance Spring 2021) is hased on Zutter/Smart Princinles of Managerial Finance Rrief Re 4/13 O Type here to search insert
- Suppose you have the follow information about Intrinsic Co. and the market. What is the Beta of Intrinsic Co.? Probability 0.48 0.35 0.17 a) 1.39 Ob) 1.13 c) 1.00 d) 1.26 Intrinsic Co. Returns 15.4% 17.9% 21.5% Market Returns 9.1% 10.8% 13.5%Assume that the risk-free rate, RF, is currently 9% and that the market return, rm, is currently 16%. a. Calculate the market risk premium. b. Given the previous data, calculate the required return on asset A having a beta of 0.4 and asset B having a beta of 1.8.For each of the cases shown in the following table, use the capital asset pricing model (CAPM) to find the required return and explain your answer. Case Risk-free rate Market return Beta (%) (%) 8 A 5 1.3 В 8. 13 0.9 C 9 12 -0.2 D 10 15 1.0 E 10 0.6
