(2) Prove that the volume under the bivariate normal density is one. [Hint: by a substitution eliminate the constants a¡ , a2, b1 , bz from the problem.] Here is the proof. Justify the equalities at the marked spots. By the change of variable u = (x - a1 Vb, and v = (y - az)/bz , no loss of generality takes place if we assume that a = az = 0 and that bị = b2 = 1. Take 2xV1- p = (1/C). Then we have -1 c exp{ 2 * + y? – 2pxy) } dy = c / exp{ - 2pxy + p°x² +G² , dy 2(1 – p2) -1 { 2(1 – 2 1 V2a(1 – p°) = exp -(y - px) dy 3D Then, (iii), explain why does the prove derivation prove that the volume under the bivariate normal density is one. The correct answers for the three parts are: Taylor expansion Derivative in y Integration by parts Pulled ex12 out of integral None of the above N/A (i- Select One) Taylor expansion Derivative in y Integrating a normal density Integration by parts None of the above N/A (ii- Select One) Integrating a density gives 1 Taylor expansion Derivative in y Integration by parts None of the above N/A (iii- Select One)

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**Problem Statement:**

(2) Prove that the volume under the bivariate normal density is one. [Hint: by a substitution eliminate the constants \( a_1, a_2, b_1, b_2 \) from the problem.]

**Proof Explanation:**

Here is the proof. Justify the equalities at the marked spots.

By the change of variable \( u = (x-a_1)/b_1 \) and \( v = (y-a_2)/b_2 \), no loss of generality takes place if we assume that \( a_1 = a_2 = 0 \) and that \( b_1 = b_2 = 1 \). Take \( 2\pi \sqrt{1-\rho^2} = (1/C) \). Then we have

\[ C \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \exp \left\{ \frac{-1}{2(1-\rho^2)} (x^2+y^2-2\rho xy) \right\} dy = C \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \exp \left\{ \frac{-1}{2(1-\rho^2)} (y^2 - 2\rho xy + \rho^2 x^2 + (x^2 - \rho^2 x^2)) \right\} dy \]

\[ (i) = C e^{-x^2/2} \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \exp \left\{ \frac{-1}{2(1-\rho^2)} (y-\rho x)^2 \right\} dy \]

\[ (ii) = C e^{-x^2/2} \sqrt{2\pi(1-\rho^2)} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}} e^{-x^2/2} \]

**Question:**

Then, (iii), explain why does the prove derivation prove that the volume under the bivariate normal density is one.

**Multiple Choice Answers:**

The correct answers for the three parts are:

- **(i- Select One):**
  - [ ] Taylor expansion
  - [ ] Derivative in \( y \)
  - [ ] Integration by parts
  - [ ] Pulled \( e^{-x^2/2} \) out of integral
Transcribed Image Text:**Problem Statement:** (2) Prove that the volume under the bivariate normal density is one. [Hint: by a substitution eliminate the constants \( a_1, a_2, b_1, b_2 \) from the problem.] **Proof Explanation:** Here is the proof. Justify the equalities at the marked spots. By the change of variable \( u = (x-a_1)/b_1 \) and \( v = (y-a_2)/b_2 \), no loss of generality takes place if we assume that \( a_1 = a_2 = 0 \) and that \( b_1 = b_2 = 1 \). Take \( 2\pi \sqrt{1-\rho^2} = (1/C) \). Then we have \[ C \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \exp \left\{ \frac{-1}{2(1-\rho^2)} (x^2+y^2-2\rho xy) \right\} dy = C \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \exp \left\{ \frac{-1}{2(1-\rho^2)} (y^2 - 2\rho xy + \rho^2 x^2 + (x^2 - \rho^2 x^2)) \right\} dy \] \[ (i) = C e^{-x^2/2} \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \exp \left\{ \frac{-1}{2(1-\rho^2)} (y-\rho x)^2 \right\} dy \] \[ (ii) = C e^{-x^2/2} \sqrt{2\pi(1-\rho^2)} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}} e^{-x^2/2} \] **Question:** Then, (iii), explain why does the prove derivation prove that the volume under the bivariate normal density is one. **Multiple Choice Answers:** The correct answers for the three parts are: - **(i- Select One):** - [ ] Taylor expansion - [ ] Derivative in \( y \) - [ ] Integration by parts - [ ] Pulled \( e^{-x^2/2} \) out of integral
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