Security
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School
Western Governors University *
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Course
NBT1
Subject
Information Systems
Date
Apr 3, 2024
Type
txt
Pages
167
Uploaded by aiyiwu
Question 1:
Correct
While reviewing video files from your organization's security cameras, you notice a
suspicious person using piggybacking to gain access to your building. The individual in question did not have a security badge.
Which of the following security measures would you MOST likely implement to keep this from happening in the future?
Answer
Lo-jack recovery service
Door locks with card readers
Correct Answer:
Access control vestibule
Cable locks
Explanation
You could implement an access control vestibule (ACV) at each entrance to the facility. An ACV is a specialized entrance with two doors that creates a security buffer zone between two areas. Once a person enters into the space between the doors, both doors are locked. To enter the facility, authentication must be provided. If authentication is not provided, the intruder is kept in the access control vestibule until authorities arrive.
Cable locks are used to secure computer hardware.
In this scenario, door locks with card readers were already circumvented with the piggybacking technique.
Lo-jack recovery services are used to locate stolen or misplaced computer hardware.
References
14.3.1 Building Physical Access Measures
14.3.2 Building Physical Access Measure Facts
q_building_security_piggy_backing_mantrap_pp7.question.fex
Question 2:
Correct
Which of the following can be paired with a motion sensor to improve security?
Answer
Correct Answer:
Lights
Cable lock
Door lock
Magnetometer
Explanation
Motion sensors can be implemented to trigger spotlights or alarms when motion is detected. The motion sensors can be used both inside and outside of a building.
Cable locks, door locks, and magnetometers would not be paired with a motion sensor
to improve security.
References
14.3.1 Building Physical Access Measures
14.3.2 Building Physical Access Measure Facts
q_building_security_motion_sensor_lights_pp7.question.fex
Question 3:
Incorrect
Which of the following door locks provides authentication to a specific lock over a
Bluetooth connection?
Answer
Correct Answer:
Key fob
Biometric
Incorrect answer:
Smart card
Standard lock
Explanation
A key fob provides a keyless authentication to a specific lock. The key fob may use
a wireless radio signal, NFC, or Bluetooth to communicate with the lock.
Smart cards also provide a keyless authentication to a specific lock. Smart cards typically use RFID or NFC to communicate with the lock and need to be scanned by a special reader to open the lock. Smart cards do not use Bluetooth.
Biometric locks can provide authentication to a lock using a user's unique physical
traits. Biometric locks do not use Bluetooth.
A standard lock uses a key, not Bluetooth.
References
14.3.1 Building Physical Access Measures
14.3.2 Building Physical Access Measure Facts
q_building_security_key_fob_def_pp7.question.fex
Question 4:
Correct
A public library has purchased new laptop computers to replace their older desktop computers and is concerned that they are vulnerable to theft.
Which of the following laptop features should they use to physically secure the new
laptops?
Answer
Correct Answer:
Cable locks
A multi-factor password policy
Biometric authentication
An external encryption device
Explanation
Cable locks can be used to physically secure laptops in order to deter theft.
Biometric authentication, a multi-factor password policy, or external encryption devices do not physically secure laptops.
References
14.3.1 Building Physical Access Measures
14.3.2 Building Physical Access Measure Facts
q_building_security_cable_lock_sol_pp7.question.fex
Question 5:
Correct
You have five salespeople who work out of your office and who frequently leave their laptops laying on their desks in their cubicles. You are concerned that someone might walk by and take one of these laptops.
Which of the following is the BEST protection method to address your concerns?
Answer
Encrypt all company data on the hard drives.
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Implement screen saver passwords.
Correct Answer:
Use cable locks to chain the laptops to the desks.
Require strong passwords in the Local Security Policy.
Explanation
Your main concern, in this case, is with the laptops being stolen. The best protection against physical theft is to secure the laptops in place using cable locks.
Requiring strong passwords or using encryption might prevent unauthorized users from accessing data on the laptops, but doing so does not prevent physical theft.
References
14.3.1 Building Physical Access Measures
14.3.2 Building Physical Access Measure Facts
q_building_security_cable_lock_chain_sol_pp7.question.fex
Question 6:
Correct
You have been hired to evaluate a client's building security. In your walkthrough, you notice the following:
All pieces of equipment have cable locks installed.
Server racks are locked and have alarms.
The WAP for the guest Wi-Fi is located on the receptionist's desk.
Biometric locks are installed on high security rooms.
Which of the following would you MOST likely recommend that your client do to increase security based on this information?
Answer
Install biometric locks on the server racks.
Replace the biometric locks with standard locks.
Upgrade the equipment cable locks.
Correct Answer:
Install the WAP on the ceiling or inside of a special locked box.
Explanation
In this scenario, the WAP should be installed on the ceiling or in a special locked
box to prevent unauthorized access.
Upgrading cable locks is not necessary.
Biometric locks on the server racks are not needed and would be an unnecessary cost.
Replacing the biometric door locks with standard locks would downgrade the building's overall security.
References
14.3.1 Building Physical Access Measures
14.3.2 Building Physical Access Measure Facts
q_building_security_wap_on_ceiling_sol_pp7.question.fex
Question 7:
Correct
You have been hired to evaluate your client's building security. In your walkthrough, you notice the following:
A high fence is installed around the property.
Visitors are able to enter the building and are checked in by a receptionist.
Security cameras are installed on all buildings.
Server racks are locked and have alarms.
Which of the following would you MOST likely recommend that your client do to increase security based on this information?
Answer
Install barbed wire around the top of the fence.
Correct Answer:
Place a security guard at the entrance gate with an access list to control who comes on the property.
Install biometric locks on all server racks.
Upgrade the security cameras.
Explanation
Security guards can provide a high level of security inside and outside the property. They should be stationed at the entrance(s). The guards should have an access list that states who is allowed onto the property.
Biometric locks on the server racks are not needed and would be an unnecessary cost.
Installing barbed wire on top of the fence is not necessary in most cases.
Upgrading the security cameras would most likely not be necessary.
References
14.3.1 Building Physical Access Measures
14.3.2 Building Physical Access Measure Facts
q_building_security_place_security_guard_sol_pp7.question.fex
Question 8:
Correct
You have been hired to evaluate a client's building security. In your walkthrough, you notice the following:
A high fence is installed around the property.
Security cameras are installed on all buildings.
The parking lot has light poles installed in all areas.
Vehicles are able to drive straight to the building entrance itself.
Which of the following would you MOST likely recommend that your client do to increase security based on this information?
Answer
Upgrade the security cameras to a better quality option.
Install barbed wire on the fence.
Correct Answer:
Install bollards.
Upgrade the light poles to LED lights.
Explanation
Bollards should be installed to prevent vehicles from driving straight to the building entrance. Bollards are metal poles that are secured into the ground to prevent vehicle access. Bollards should be placed near the front of any building to
prevent vehicles from getting too close.
Installing barbed wire on top of the fence is not necessary in most cases.
Upgrading the security cameras would most likely not be necessary.
The light poles do not need to be LED lights, as this would be an unnecessary expense.
References
14.3.2 Building Physical Access Measure Facts
q_building_security_install_bollards_pp7.question.fex
Question 9:
Incorrect
You are a security consultant and have been hired to evaluate an organization's physical security practices. All employees must pass through a locked door to enter
the main work area. Access is restricted using a biometric fingerprint lock.
A receptionist is located next to a locked door in the reception area. They use an
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iPad application to log any security events that may occur. They also use their iPad to complete work tasks as assigned by the organization's CEO.
Network jacks are provided in the reception area so that employees and vendors can access the company network for work-related purposes. Users within the secured work
area have been trained to lock their workstations if they will be leaving them for any period of time.
Which of the following recommendations are you MOST likely to make to this organization to increase their security? (Select two.)
Answer
Correct Answer:
Disable the network jacks in the reception area.
Replace the biometric locks with smart cards.
Incorrect answer:
Require users to use screen saver passwords.
Correct Answer:
Train the receptionist to keep their iPad in a locked drawer when not in use.
Move the receptionist's desk to the secured area.
Explanation
You should recommend the following:
Disable the network jacks in the reception area. Having these jacks in an unsecured
area allows anyone who comes into the building to connect to the company's network.
Train the receptionist to keep their iPad in a locked drawer when not in use. Tablet devices are small and easily stolen if left unattended.
The receptionist's desk should remain where it is currently located because it allows them to visually verify each employee as they access the secured area.
Biometric locks are generally considered more secure than smart cards because cards
can be easily stolen.
Training users to lock their workstations is more secure than using screen saver passwords, although this may be a good idea as a safeguard in case a user forgets.
References
14.3.2 Building Physical Access Measure Facts
q_building_security_dis_net_jacks_locked_dwr_sol_pp7.question.fex
Question 10:
Correct
Which of the following should be installed inside the entrance to the building to prevent weapons or unauthorized equipment being brought into the building?
Answer
Badge reader
Correct Answer:
Magnetometer
Cable lock
Access control vestibule
Explanation
A magnetometer is a metal detector that users walk through to detect whether they are bringing any weapons or unauthorized equipment into the building. This should be installed just inside the entrance to the building.
A badge reader is installed at the entrance to a building to help control access. A
badge reader is not used to prevent weapons or unauthorized equipment from being brought inside.
The access control vestibule is a specialized entrance with two doors that creates a security buffer zone between two areas. An access control vestibule is not used to prevent weapons or unauthorized equipment from being brought inside.
Cable locks can be used to physically secure a device to a desk. They are not used to prevent weapons or unauthorized equipment from being brought inside.
References
14.3.2 Building Physical Access Measure Facts
q_building_security_magnetometer_sol_pp7.question.fex
Question 11:
Correct
You have been hired to assess a client's security. During your testing, you discover that users have access to other departments' files.
Which of the following should you recommend that the company implement?
Answer
Mobile device management
Certificate Manager
Correct Answer:
Principle of least privilege
Bring Your Own Device
Explanation
The principle of least privilege states that a user should be given access to only the resources needed to perform their job. In this scenario, users have access to more than what they need. The company should implement the principle of least privilege to secure their networks.
Certificate Manager is a Windows application for managing digital certificates. This would not affect the resources that users have access to.
Bring Your Own Device is a policy that allows employees to use their own computers and mobile devices for work purposes. This would not affect the resources that users have access to.
Mobile device management (MDM) generally describes the policies and procedures used
by an organization to maintain security and permissions on mobile devices. This would not affect the resources that users have access to.
References
14.1.4 Security Policy Facts
14.4.1 Logical Security Measures
14.4.2 Logical Security Measures Facts
q_logical_security_least_privilege_recommendation_pp7.question.fex
Question 12:
Correct
Which of the following security practices is the BEST example of the principle of least privilege?
Answer
The Guest user account on a Windows workstation has been disabled.
Autorun has been disabled on a Windows workstation.
All users on a Windows workstation have been assigned strong passwords.
Correct Answer:
All users on a Windows workstation are Limited users except for one, who is responsible for maintaining the system.
Explanation
The principle of least privilege specifies that users should have only the degree of access to the workstation that is necessary for them to complete their work. Making all users Limited users except for those who need administrative access is an example of the principle of least privilege.
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The other practices listed are workstation security best practices, but they are not necessarily examples of the principle of least privilege.
References
14.1.4 Security Policy Facts
14.4.1 Logical Security Measures
14.4.2 Logical Security Measures Facts
q_account_manage_least_priv_ex_pp7.question.fex
Question 13:
Correct
You are working at the local hospital in the IT department. You have just received a promotion to junior network technician. Part of your new role involves troubleshooting network communication issues.
Which of the following user groups should your account be added to?
Answer
Administrator
Remote Desktop Users
Correct Answer:
Network Configuration Operator
Cryptographic Operator
Explanation
In this scenario, your user account should be added to the Network Configuration Operator user group. Members of this group can manage a system's IP configuration, which would allow you to troubleshoot network communication issues.
Your user account should not be added to the Administrator user group, as this would give you too much unnecessary access.
Adding your user account to the Remote Desktop Users group would not be correct. Members of this group can remotely access a workstation's desktop, but you would still not have access to troubleshoot network connectivity issues.
Members of the Cryptographic Operator group can perform cryptographic operations. This would not give you access to troubleshoot network configuration issues.
References
14.1.4 Security Policy Facts
14.4.1 Logical Security Measures
14.4.2 Logical Security Measures Facts
q_account_manage_network_cfg_operator_group_pp7.question.fex
Question 14:
Correct
A technician assists Joe, an employee in the sales department who needs access to the client database, by granting him Administrator privileges. Later, Joe discovers
that he has access to the salaries in the payroll database.
Which of the following security practices was violated?
Answer
Multi-factor authentication
Correct Answer:
Principle of least privilege
Strong password policy
Entry control roster
Explanation
The technician violated the principle of least privilege, which is the practice of limiting user access rights to be the bare minimum that a user needs to perform their work.
Strong passwords are recommended to prevent unauthorized access, but in this scenario, the database was not password-protected.
Multi-factor authentication is the process of authenticating a user by validating two or more claims presented by them, each from a different category. This could include such things as a password and mobile phone possession or a password and a fingerprint.
Security personnel can grant access to a physical area using the entry control roster. A database is not normally protected by physical security.
References
14.1.4 Security Policy Facts
14.4.1 Logical Security Measures
14.4.2 Logical Security Measures Facts
q_account_manage_sec_practice_violation_pp7.question.fex
Question 15:
Correct
Where is the access control list stored on a Windows system?
Answer
Hard token
Certificate Manager
Authentication app
Correct Answer:
Master File Table
Explanation
On a local Windows system, the ACL is stored on the Master File Table (MFT), which is a special partition created during the Windows installation process.
Certificate Manager is a Windows application for managing digital certificates. The
ACL is not stored there.
A hard token is a hardware device that is used to authenticate users. It does not store the ACL.
Authentication apps are installed on a user's smartphone or tablet and used for authentication purposes. They do not store the ACL.
References
14.4.1 Logical Security Measures
14.4.2 Logical Security Measures Facts
14.4.9 Manage Authentication on Windows
q_logical_security_acl_location_pp7.question.fex
Question 16:
Correct
Which of the following does Windows use to manage and enforce what a user is authorized to access?
Answer
Certificate Manager
Multi-factor authentication
Correct Answer:
Access control list
Soft token
Explanation
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Access control lists (ACLs) are used to manage and enforce what a user is authorized to access.
A soft token is any digital authentication key used to authenticate a user. A soft token is not used to manage and enforce what a user is authorized to access.
Certificate Manager is a Windows application for managing digital certificates. It is not used to manage and enforce what a user is authorized to access.
Multi-factor authentication means that at least two authentication categories are used to authenticate a user. Multi-factor authentication is not used to manage and enforce what a user is authorized to access.
References
14.4.1 Logical Security Measures
14.4.2 Logical Security Measures Facts
14.4.9 Manage Authentication on Windows
q_logical_security_acl_def_pp7.question.fex
Question 17:
Correct
Which of the following authentication combinations is an example of multi-factor authentication?
Answer
Smart card and one-time code
Fingerprint and retinal scan
Correct Answer:
PIN and authentication app
Username and password
Explanation
Multi-factor authentication means that at least two categories of authentication methods are utilized. Of these options, having the user input a PIN (something you know) and use an authentication app (something you have) is the only example of multi-factor authentication.
Fingerprints and retinal scans both fall under something you are.
Usernames and passwords both fall under something you know.
Smart cards and one-time codes both fall under something you have.
References
14.4.1 Logical Security Measures
14.4.2 Logical Security Measures Facts
q_logical_security_multifactor_auth_ex_pp7.question.fex
Question 18:
Correct
Which of the following is an example of a hard token?Answer
One-time code
Correct Answer:
Smart card
Certificate Manager
Authentication app
Explanation
A hard token is a hardware device that is used to authenticate users. Of these options, the smart card is the only hardware device that fits this description.
An authentication app and one-time code are both examples of soft tokens.
Windows Certificate Manager is an application that manages digital certificates. It
is not a hard token.
References
14.4.1 Logical Security Measures
14.4.2 Logical Security Measures Facts
14.4.9 Manage Authentication on Windows
q_logical_security_hard_token_ex_pp7.question.fex
Question 19:
Correct
Which of the following statements is true regarding hard tokens?
Answer
Hard tokens are inexpensive to implement.
Correct Answer:
Hard tokens provide a higher level of security.
Hard tokens provide protection even if they are lost or stolen.
Hard tokens are easy to replace if they are lost or stolen.
Explanation
Hard tokens provide a higher level of security, but if the token is lost or stolen,
the security breach can be quite severe. Implementing hard tokens can also be expensive and time-consuming. They are generally reserved for highly sensitive data.
References
14.4.1 Logical Security Measures
14.4.2 Logical Security Measures Facts
14.4.9 Manage Authentication on Windows
q_logical_security_hard_token_higher_security_pp7.question.fex
Question 20:
Correct
Which of the following is an example of a soft token?
Answer
Smart card
Correct Answer:
Authentication app
Key fob
USB security device
Explanation
A soft token is any digital authentication key that is used to authenticate a user.
Of these options, only the authentication app is a soft token, since an authentication app is a digital app on a phone or tablet.
All the other options are examples of hard tokens, which are hardware devices that authenticate users.
References
14.4.1 Logical Security Measures
14.4.2 Logical Security Measures Facts
14.4.9 Manage Authentication on Windows
q_logical_security_soft_token_ex_pp7.question.fex
Question 21:
Incorrect
Which of the following BEST describes authorization?
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Answer
Correct Answer:
The resources that a user can access.
The policy of allowing employees to use their own devices for work purposes.
Incorrect answer:
The process of giving users access to only the resources they need.
The process of verifying a user's identity.
Explanation
Authorization defines which resources a user is able to access once he or she is authenticated.
Authentication is the process of verifying a user's identity.
The principle of least privilege is the process of giving users access to only the resources they need.
A Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) policy allows employees to use their own devices for
work purposes.
References
14.4.1 Logical Security Measures
14.4.2 Logical Security Measures Facts
q_logical_security_authorization_descrp_pp7.question.fex
Question 22:
Correct
Which of the following processes is used to prove a user's identity?
Answer
Authorization
Logical security
Certificate Manager
Correct Answer:
Authentication
Explanation
Authentication is the process by which users provide credentials to prove their identity.
Authorization defines what a user is able to access once he or she is authenticated.
Certificate Manager is a Windows application for managing digital certificates. It is not used to prove a user's identity.
Logical security refers to the security measures that are implemented through the operating system and software. Logical security is not used to prove a user's identity.
References
14.4.1 Logical Security Measures
14.4.2 Logical Security Measures Facts
q_logical_security_auth_prove_identity_pp7.question.fex
Question 23:
Correct
What are the security measures that are implemented through the operating system and software known as?
Answer
Mobile device management (MDM)
Physical security
Bring Your Own Device (BYOD)
Correct Answer:
Logical security
Explanation
Logical security refers to the security measures that are implemented through the operating system and software.
Physical security refers to physical security measures, such as cameras and fences.
Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) is the policy that allows employees to use their own computers and mobile devices for work purposes.
Mobile device management (MDM) generally describes the policies and procedures used
by an organization to maintain security and permissions on mobile devices.
References
14.4.2 Logical Security Measures Facts
q_logical_security_definition_pp7.question.fex
Question 24:
Correct
You are working as a junior network technician at the local hospital. The security administrator has just finished rolling out a new security policy that requires users to log in to workstations using a fingerprint scanner.
Which authentication category does this fall under?
Answer
Something you know
Something you have
Soft token
Correct Answer:
Something you are
Explanation
Biometrics (fingerprint scanner) fall under the something you are authentication category.
Something you have requires a user to have a physical device to authenticate.
Something you know requires a user to demonstrate something that only they should know (username and password) to authenticate.
A soft token is not an authentication category. A soft token is any digital key that is used to authenticate a user.
References
14.4.2 Logical Security Measures Facts
q_logical_security_something_you_are_ex_pp7.question.fex
Question 25:
Correct
Which of the following is a benefit of BYOD?
Answer
Alerts and monitoring
Root/jailbreak detection
Correct Answer:
Lower costs
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Lockout policies
Explanation
Lower costs are one benefit of BYOD. Companies may help users with the cost of a mobile device or offer more compensation to cover the purchase. But generally, the employee purchases the device and any data or telecom services.
The other options are all typical security features of an MDM solution.
References
14.4.2 Logical Security Measures Facts
q_logical_security_byod_benefit_pp7.question.fex
Question 26:
Correct
Which of the following can be used to back up a company's certificate database?
Answer
Correct Answer:
Certificate Manager
Master File Table
Hard token
MDM software
Explanation
Windows Certificate Manager can be used to back up a company's digital certificate database.
Mobile device management (MDM) software is used by administrators to secure mobile devices and to enforce enterprise policies on devices.
A hard token is a hardware device that is used to authenticate users. It is not used to back up a company's certificate database.
The Master File Table (MFT) is a special partition that is created during the Windows installation process and holds the access control list.
References
14.4.2 Logical Security Measures Facts
q_logical_security_cert_manager_backup_pp7.question.fex
Question 27:
Correct
Which authentication category does a username and password fall under?
Answer
Something you have
Soft token
Something you are
Correct Answer:
Something you know
Explanation
A username and password falls under the something you know authentication category.
A soft token is not an authentication category. A soft token is any digital key that is used to authenticate a user.
References
14.4.2 Logical Security Measures Facts
q_logical_security_something_you_know_ex_pp7.question.fex
Question 28:
Correct
You have an executive user who keeps sensitive information about the company on a company-owned mobile device. You want to be prepared to keep company information secure if he loses this device or if it is stolen.
Which of the following solutions should you use? (Select two.)
Answer
Mobile device management software that allows automatic detection of unfamiliar networks.
Correct Answer:
Mobile device management software that performs remote wipes.
Mobile device management software that automatically detects network firewalls.
Mobile device management software that provides pop-up blocking.
Correct Answer:
Mobile device management software that performs full device encryption.
Explanation
If a mobile device with sensitive information is lost, the best defense you can have is mobile device management software that can fully encrypt the device and remotely wipe its data storage.
Pop-up blockers, unfamiliar network detection, and firewalls are not designed to keep data secure on a mobile device.
References
12.6.2 Mobile Device Security Facts
q_mob_dev_sec_secure_data_lost_stolen_pp7.question.fex
Question 29:
Correct
Your company has recently implemented a BYOD policy. To protect the network, users must install an app on their devices that allows the security administrator to enforce the security policies.
Which of the following is this an example of?
Answer
Access control list
Correct Answer:
Mobile device management
Certificate Manager
Soft token
Explanation
This is an example of mobile device management (MDM). MDM software is used by administrators to secure mobile devices and to enforce enterprise policies on the devices. MDM software is often used alongside a bring your own device(BYOD) policy and is typically deployed as a combination of an on-device application or agent that communicates with a backend server. The application receives policies and settings from the server to configure and control the mobile device.
A soft token is any digital authentication key that is used to authenticate a user.
A soft token is not used to enforce security policies.
Certificate Manager is a Windows application for managing digital certificates. It is not used to enforce security policies.
Access control lists (ACLs) are used to manage and enforce what a user is authorized to access. The ACL does not require an app to be installed on devices.
References
12.6.2 Mobile Device Security Facts
q_logical_security_mobile_device_mgmt_ex_pp7.question.fex
Question 30:
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Incorrect
Which of the following is true of a domain controller?
Answer
A domain can contain only one domain controller.
Correct Answer:
A domain controller is a Windows server that holds a copy of the Active Directory database.
Only certain domain controllers can make changes to the Active Directory database.
Incorrect answer:
A domain controller can be a member of multiple domains.
Explanation
A domain controller is a Windows server that holds a copy of the Active Directory database.
A domain controller is a member of only one domain.
A domain can contain multiple domain controllers. Each domain controller holds a copy of the Active Directory database.
Any domain controller can make changes to the Active Directory database.
References
8.1.2 Active Directory Overview
8.1.3 Join a Domain
8.1.5 Manage Active Directory Objects
8.1.6 Active Directory Facts
8.1.12 Group Policy Facts
q_domain_fct_controller_fact_pp7.question.fex
Question 31:
Incorrect
What does Active Directory use to locate and name network objects?
Answer
Incorrect answer:
Domain controller
IPv4
Correct Answer:
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DNS
Containers
Explanation
Active Directory uses DNS (Domain Name Services) to locate and name objects.
IPv4 is an internet protocol version that is used to route most internet traffic. IPv4 is not a naming convention.
A domain controller is a Windows server that holds a copy of the Active Directory database. A domain controller is not used to name Active Directory network objects.
Containers in Active Directory help organize the network objects in the directory database. Containers are not used to name Active Directory network objects.
References
8.1.2 Active Directory Overview
8.1.3 Join a Domain
8.1.5 Manage Active Directory Objects
8.1.6 Active Directory Facts
8.1.12 Group Policy Facts
q_domain_fct_dns_name_objects_pp7.question.fex
Question 32:
Incorrect
A new computer has been added to the sales department and needs to be joined to the
CorpNet domain.
Which of the following System Properties settings must you use to make the change?
Answer
System Properties > Advanced
Incorrect answer:
System Properties > Remote
Correct Answer:
System Properties > Computer Name
System Properties > System Protection
Explanation
The Computer Name tab lets you view, change, or join a computer to a domain.
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The System Protection tab lets you configure and create system restore points.
The Advanced tab lets you configure settings such as Performance, User Profiles, and Startup and Recovery.
The Remove tab lets you configure Remote Assistance and Remote Desktop settings.
References
8.1.2 Active Directory Overview
8.1.3 Join a Domain
8.1.5 Manage Active Directory Objects
8.1.6 Active Directory Facts
8.1.12 Group Policy Facts
q_domain_fct_join_domain_setting_pp7.question.fex
Question 33:
Correct
Which of the following is a valid distinguished name for the MarketSpace common domain name?
Answer
Market.Space.org
MarketSpace_com
Correct Answer:
MarketSpace.org
MarketSpace/com
Explanation
A valid distinguished name includes the common domain name along with the top-level
DNS domain name, separated by a period. In this case, MarketSpace.org is a valid distinguished name for the MarketSpace common domain name.
Market.Space.org, MarketSpace_com, and MarketSpace/com are not valid distinguished names for the MarketSpace common domain name.
References
8.1.2 Active Directory Overview
8.1.3 Join a Domain
8.1.5 Manage Active Directory Objects
8.1.6 Active Directory Facts
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8.1.12 Group Policy Facts
q_domain_fct_valid_dn_pp7.question.fex
Question 34:
Incorrect
You manage a large number of workstations that belong to a Windows domain. You want
to prevent someone from gaining access to login information by trying multiple passwords.
Which default GPO contains a policy you can enable to guard all computers in the domain against this security breach?
Answer
Correct Answer:
Default Domain Policy
Group Security Policy
Domain Security Policy
Incorrect answer:
Group Domain Policy
Explanation
The Default Domain Policy GPO contains a policy you can enable for all computers in
a domain that prevents multiple password login attempts.
Group Domain Policy, Group Security Policy, and Domain Security Policy are not default GPOs in Active Directory.
References
8.1.2 Active Directory Overview
8.1.3 Join a Domain
8.1.5 Manage Active Directory Objects
8.1.6 Active Directory Facts
8.1.12 Group Policy Facts
q_gp_fcts_default_domain_policy_pp7.question.fex
Question 35:
Incorrect
Computer configuration policies (also called machine policies) are enforced for the
entire computer and are applied when the computer boots. Which of the following are
computer configuration policies? (Select two).
Answer
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Scripts that run at logon or logoff.
Browser favorites and security settings.
Correct Answer:
Software that has been installed on the local system.
Incorrect answer:
HKEY_CURRENT_USER Registry settings.
Correct Answer:
Network communication security settings.
Software installed for specific users.
Explanation
Computer configuration policies (also called machine policies) are enforced for the
entire computer and are applied when the computer boots. Computer configuration policies include network communication security settings and software that has been
installed on the local system.
User configuration policies are enforced for specific users. User configuration policies include scripts that run at logon or logoff, browser favorites and security settings, software installed for specific users, and HKEY_CURRENT_USER Registry settings.
References
8.1.3 Join a Domain
8.1.10 Group Policy
8.1.11 Use Group Policy
8.1.12 Group Policy Facts
q_gp_fcts_computer_cfg_plcy_ex_pp7.question.fex
Question 36:
Correct
Drag each Group Policy setting on the left to the appropriate description of how the setting is enforced on the right.
Causes the policy to be enforced
selected correct answer: Enabled
correct answer:
Does not change the current setting for the policy
selected correct answer: Not configured
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correct answer:
Prevents the policy from being enforced
selected correct answer: Disabled
correct answer:
Keyboard Instructions
Explanation
Each policy can be configured using one of the settings listed below.
Not Configured has no value and does not change the current setting for this policy.
Enabled causes the policy to be enforced.
Disabled prevents the policy from being enforced.
References
8.1.3 Join a Domain
8.1.10 Group Policy
8.1.11 Use Group Policy
8.1.12 Group Policy Facts
q_gp_fcts_grp_plcy_set_def_pp7.question.fex
Question 37:
Incorrect
The Hide Programs setting is configured for a specific user as follows:
Policy
Setting
Local Group Policy
Enabled
Default Domain Policy GPO
Not configured
GPO linked to the user's organizational unit
Disabled
After logging in, the user is able to see the Programs and Features option. Why did
this happen?
Answer
Incorrect answer:
The Local Group Policy is applied last. It is set to Enabled, which makes the Programs and Features option visible.
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The GPO linked to the user's organizational unit is applied first, so this setting takes precedence over settings that are applied later.
Correct Answer:
The GPO linked to the user's organizational unit is applied last, so this setting takes precedence.
The Default Domain GPO is applied last. It is set to Not configured, so it doesn't change the configuration.
Explanation
The GPO linked to the user's organizational unit is applied last, so the setting that disables the policy to hide the Programs and Features page takes precedence.
In this question's scenario, Local Group Policy enables the policy to hide the Programs and Features page. When the Default Domain Policy GPO is applied, this policy is set to Not configured, so it doesn't change anything. When the GPO linked
to the user's organizational unit is applied, the setting for this policy is disabled, which reverses the setting in the Local Group Policy and makes the Programs and Features page visible to the user. The Local Group Policy is applied first. GPOs linked to the user's domain are applied second and take precedence over
settings in the Local Group Policy. GPOs linked to the user's organizational unit are applied last and take precedence over any preceding policy settings.
References
8.1.3 Join a Domain
8.1.10 Group Policy
8.1.11 Use Group Policy
8.1.12 Group Policy Facts
q_gp_fcts_hide_programs_option_pp7.question.fex
Question 38:
Correct
Which of the following is true of an organizational unit (OU)?
Answer
An organizational unit cannot contain other OUs.
Correct Answer:
An organizational unit is like a folder that subdivides and organizes network resources within a domain.
An organizational unit cannot be created, moved, renamed, or deleted.
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An organizational unit has very few editable properties.
Explanation
An organizational unit (OU) is like a folder that subdivides and organizes network resources within a domain.
OUs can be created, moved, renamed, or deleted. They have several editable properties.
Built-in containers (not OUs) have very few editable properties.
An OU can contain other OUs.
References
8.1.2 Active Directory Overview
8.1.5 Manage Active Directory Objects
8.1.6 Active Directory Facts
q_domain_fct_ou_fact_pp7.question.fex
Question 39:
Correct
You are your company's Active Directory system administrator. The company has branch offices in several countries, including Mexico, Argentina, Canada, and the UK. The company only has a total of 250 employees organized in the same departments
in each office. However, the company is projected to expand rapidly in the next two
years.
You want to create a tree of organizational units (OUs) that can adapt to the rapid
growth without re-organizing the OU structure in the near future. You also want to be able to easily assign rights to certain network resources based on departmental organizational roles.
Which of the following solutions would BEST meet your requirements?
Answer
Organize the OUs at the top level by employee and resource; then assign specific rights to each user.
Organize the OUs at the top level by department; then use group accounts to help control resource rights.
Correct Answer:
Organize the OUs at the top level by office (country); then use group accounts to help control resource rights.
Organize the OUs at the top level by resource and office (country); then assign specific rights to each user.
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Explanation
Because the branch office in each country is organized similarly, the best recommendation would be to use departmental OUs at the top with office (country) OUs underneath. You could then create resource containers under each office. You could then easily utilize group accounts to assign resource rights to specific roles departmentally as the company hires more employees.
Organizing the top level using one container for employees and another for resources would make it hard to keep track of which employees belong to which office and department. Assigning individual rights to each user would take much more time than assigning group accounts to users.
Organizing the top level using one container for resources and one for each country
would make it difficult to see which resources are located in which office. Assigning individual rights to each user would take much more time than assigning group accounts to users.
References
8.1.2 Active Directory Overview
8.1.5 Manage Active Directory Objects
8.1.6 Active Directory Facts
q_domain_fct_ou_org_sol_pp7.question.fex
Question 40:
Correct
A user has complained about not being able to remove a program that is no longer needed on a computer. The Programs option is not available in Control Panel.
You suspect that a policy is enabled that hides this option from the user. But after opening the Local Group Policy Editor, you see that the policy to hide Programs is not configured. You know that other users in this domain can access the
Programs option.
Where should you look next to determine whether the policy is enabled?
Answer
The Default Domain Policy GPO.
Correct Answer:
GPOs linked to organizational units that contain this user's object.
GPOs linked to the domain that contains this user's object.
The Local Group Policy.
Explanation
You should look at GPOs linked to organizational units that contain this user's object to see where the Hide Programs and Features Page policy might be enabled.
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If the policy were enabled in a GPO linked to the domain, it would be applied to all users in the domain.
The next level that GPOs are applied from is any GPO linked to organizational units
that contain the user's object.
References
8.1.12 Group Policy Facts
q_gp_fcts_gpos_linked_to_ous_pp7.question.fex
Question 41:
Correct
Match each Active Directory definition on the left with its corresponding component
on the right.
Domain
selected correct answer: A collection of network resources that share a common directory database.
correct answer:
Organizational unit (OU)
selected correct answer: A folder-like container that organizes network resources.
correct answer:
Built-in containers
selected correct answer: Default containers used to organize Active Directory objects that cannot be deleted.
correct answer:
Object
selected correct answer: A resource within Active Directory.
correct answer:
Domain controller
selected correct answer: A Windows server that holds a copy of the Active Directory database.
correct answer:
Keyboard Instructions
Explanation
The Active Directory structure contains the following components:
A domain is a collection of network resources that share a common directory database.
An organizational unit (OU) is a folder-like container that organizes network resources.
A built-in container is a default container used to organize Active Directory objects. It cannot be deleted.
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An object is a resource within Active Directory.
A domain controller is a Windows server that holds a copy of the Active Directory database.
References
8.1.6 Active Directory Facts
q_domain_fct_act_dir_def_match_pp7.question.fex
Question 42:
Correct
What is the name of the service included with the Windows Server operating system that manages a centralized database containing user account and security information?
Answer
Access
Active Desktop
SQL
Correct Answer:
Active Directory
Explanation
Active Directory (AD) is the centralized database that is included with the Windows
Server operating system. Active Directory is used to store information about a network, such as user accounts, computers, printers, and security policies.
Active Desktop was a feature of early versions of Microsoft Internet Explorer.
SQL and Access are relational databases.
References
8.1.6 Active Directory Facts
q_domain_fct_act_dir_def_pp7.question.fex
Question 43:
Correct
You are the owner of a small startup company that consists of only five employees. Each employee has their own computer. Due to the type of services your company offers, you don't foresee the employee count increasing much in the next year or two. As a startup company, you want to keep costs low and facilitate easier file sharing and internet, printer, and local network resource access.
Which of the following would be the BEST implementation for your business?
Answer
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Correct Answer:
A workgroup
A forest
A domain
A tree
Explanation
If you only have five PCs and the network is not growing, a Windows workgroup lets you organize your computers in a peer-to-peer network. This workgroup network lets you share files, internet access, and printers between the five employees.
A domain would do the same thing, but in this case, it is not a good idea because Windows Server brings new costs and complexity that probably wouldn't pay off for such a small company. In addition, you are introducing a single point of failure (the server).
Trees and forests are subsets, or components, of a domain.
References
8.1.6 Active Directory Facts
q_domain_fct_workgroup_sol_pp7.question.fex
Question 44:
Partially Correct
You manage a group of 20 Windows workstations that are currently configured as a workgroup. You have been thinking about switching to an Active Directory configuration.
Which advantages would you gain by switching to Active Directory? (Select two.)
Answer
Incorrect answer:
Increased local control of workstation settings
Decreased implementation cost
Correct Answer:
Centralized authentication
Correct Answer:
Centralized configuration control
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Reduced need for specialized hardware
Explanation
An Active Directory database provides several advantages. These include:
Improved scalability
Centralized configuration control
Reduced data backup complexity
Centralized authentication
Centrally applied security settings
Active Directory also include some drawbacks. These include:
Increased cost
Specialized hardware and software needs
Increased planning time
References
8.1.12 Group Policy Facts
q_gp_fcts_act_dir_adv_pp7.question.fex
Question 45:
Incorrect
Administrative Templates are Registry-based settings that you can configure within a GPO to control a computer system and its overall user experience.
Which of the following can you do with an Administrative Template? (Select two.)
Answer
Correct Answer:
Restrict access to Control Panel features.
Identify allowed or blocked software.
Allow users to run only the files you specify.
Correct Answer:
Control notifications.
Incorrect answer:
Determine who can add trusted publishers.
Explanation
Administrative Templates are Registry-based settings that you can configure within
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a GPO to control a computer system and its overall user experience. They include the ability to do things like control notifications and restrict access to Control Panel features.
Software restriction policies allow you to identify allowed or blocked software, let users run only the files you specify, and determine who can add trusted publishers.
References
8.1.12 Group Policy Facts
q_gp_fcts_admin_temp_func_pp7.question.fex
Question 46:
Correct
While configuring a wireless access point device, a technician is presented with several security mode options.
Which of the following options provides the most secure access?
Answer
WEP 128
WPA and AES
WPA and TKIP
WPA2 and TKIP
Correct Answer:
WPA2 and AES
Explanation
Of the three wireless security protocols (WEP, WPA and WPA2), WPA2 is the most secure.
Of the two encryption algorithms (TKIP and AES), AES is the most secure.
References
9.3.2 File Encryption Facts
11.5.4 Wireless Security
11.5.5 Wireless Security Facts
11.5.6 Wireless Encryption and Authentication
11.5.7 Wireless Encryption and Authentication Facts
q_wl_sec2_wifi_standards_most_sec_pp7.question.fex
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Question 47:
Incorrect
Which of the following wireless security methods uses a common shared key that is configured on the wireless access point and all wireless clients?
Answer
WPA Personal and WPA2 Personal
WEP
WPA Enterprise and WPA2 Enterprise
Correct Answer:
WEP, WPA Personal, and WPA2 Personal
Incorrect answer:
WEP, WPA Personal, WPA Enterprise, WPA2 Personal, and WPA2 Enterprise
Explanation
Shared key authentication is used with WEP, WPA, and WPA2. Shared key authentication with WPA and WPA2 is often called WPA Personal or WPA2 Personal.
WPA Enterprise and WPA2 Enterprise use 802.1x for authentication. 802.1x authentication uses usernames and passwords, certificates, or devices such as smart
cards to authenticate wireless clients.
References
9.3.2 File Encryption Facts
11.5.4 Wireless Security
11.5.5 Wireless Security Facts
11.5.6 Wireless Encryption and Authentication
11.5.7 Wireless Encryption and Authentication Facts
q_sec_data_wireless_common_shared_key_pp7.question.fex
Question 48:
Incorrect
Which encryption method is used in WPA3 to generate a new key for every transmission?
Answer
Correct Answer:
SAE
Incorrect answer:
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802.1x
WPS
PSK
Explanation
WPA3 implements the Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE) standard instead of
using a pre-shared key (PSK). SAE uses a 128-bit key with perfect forward secrecy to authenticate users.
WPA2 makes use of the pre-shared key to authenticate users; WPA3 does not.
Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS) is a connection method that allows a device to easily and securely connect to a wireless network. WPS is not an encryption protocol used by WPA3
802.1x is an authentication method that is extremely secure and typically used in an enterprise environment. 802.1x is not a encryption protocol for WPA3.
References
11.5.4 Wireless Security
11.5.5 Wireless Security Facts
11.5.6 Wireless Encryption and Authentication
11.5.7 Wireless Encryption and Authentication Facts
q_wl_sec2_sae_generate_key_pp7.question.fex
Question 49:
Correct
Which of the following is an encryption algorithm that includes a base key, the MAC
address of the wireless access point, and a unique packet serial number for each transmitted packet?
Answer
AES
Kerberos
RADIUS
Correct Answer:
TKIP
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Explanation
With TKIP (Temporal Key Integrity Protocol), each packet is given a unique encryption key. TKIP accomplishes this by mixing:
A base key
The MAC address of the wireless access point
A unique packet serial number
AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) is typically combined with Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication (CCMP) to enhance wireless network security. AES does not use a base key, a MAC address, or a unique packet serial number associated with each packet transmitted.
RADIUS and Kerberos are authentication protocols that allow only authorized users to access a wireless network. These protocols are not encryption algorithms.
References
11.5.4 Wireless Security
11.5.5 Wireless Security Facts
11.5.6 Wireless Encryption and Authentication
11.5.7 Wireless Encryption and Authentication Facts
q_wireless_encrypt_tkip_packet_encryption_pp7.question.fex
Question 50:
Incorrect
While Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) keys can be either 128, 192, or 256 bits in length, AES encrypts everything in one-size data chunks.
Which of the following is the size of those AES data chunks?
Answer
Incorrect answer:
256
Correct Answer:
128
192
520
Explanation
Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) encrypts data in 128-bit chunks.
References
11.5.4 Wireless Security
11.5.5 Wireless Security Facts
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11.5.6 Wireless Encryption and Authentication
11.5.7 Wireless Encryption and Authentication Facts
q_wireless_encrypt_aes_data_chunk_size_pp7.question.fex
Question 51:
Incorrect
Which of the following encryption algorithms is considered one of the strongest encryption protocols and is used in more than just wireless networks?
Answer
Correct Answer:
AES
Incorrect answer:
TACACS+
RADIUS
TKIP
Explanation
AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) is considered one of the strongest encryption protocols and is used in more than just wireless networks.
TKIP (Temporal Key Integrity Protocol) is known to have several vulnerabilities and
is no longer considered secure. You should not use TKIP on modern wireless networks.
RADIUS and TACACS+ are authentication protocols. These protocols do not encrypt data packets over a wireless network.
References
11.5.4 Wireless Security
11.5.5 Wireless Security Facts
11.5.6 Wireless Encryption and Authentication
11.5.7 Wireless Encryption and Authentication Facts
q_wireless_encrypt_aes_strongest_algorithm_pp7.question.fex
Question 52:
Incorrect
Which of the following authentication methods allows you to securely connect a printer to the wireless network with the least amount of effort?
Answer
PSK
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Incorrect answer:
Open Network
Correct Answer:
WPS
Captive Portal
Explanation
Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS) allows you to connect a device to the wireless network simply by pushing the button on the wireless access point. The connecting device then connects by using a WPS button or an 8-digit pin. WPS can only be used on a wireless network that is using a PSK and an appropriate encryption protocol.
An open network is not secure and should not be used except in certain situations.
A pre-shared key is the passphrase that is used to connect to the wireless network.
This is a secure method, but would not require less effort than using WPS.
Implementing a captive portal forces a user to view and interact with the portal before accessing a network. This method is not the most secure, nor does it require
the least amount of effort to connect a device to the wireless network.
References
11.5.4 Wireless Security
11.5.5 Wireless Security Facts
11.5.6 Wireless Encryption and Authentication
11.5.7 Wireless Encryption and Authentication Facts
q_wl_sec2_wifi_printer_connect_wps_pp7.question.fex
Question 53:
Incorrect
Match each authentication protocol on the left with its unique characteristic on the right. (Each protocol may be used more than once).
Sends a user's credentials over UDP
selected correct answer: Remote Authentication Dial-In Service (RADIUS)
correct answer:
Sends a user's credentials over TCP
selected correct answer: Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System (TACACS+)
correct answer:
Is a key component of Windows Active Directory
selected correct answer: Kerberos
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correct answer:
Provides a trusted Key Distribution Center (KDC)
incorrect answer:
Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System (TACACS+)
correct answer:
Kerberos
Only encrypts the password
incorrect answer:
Kerberos
correct answer:
Remote Authentication Dial-In Service (RADIUS)
Keyboard Instructions
Explanation
The following are unique characteristics of the listed authentication protocols:
Remote Authentication Dial-In Service (RADIUS):
Sends a user's credentials over UDP.
Only encrypts the password.
Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System (TACACS+):
Sends a user's credentials over TCP.
Kerberos:
Is a key component of Windows Active Directory.
Provides a trusted Key Distribution Center (KDC).
References
11.5.4 Wireless Security
11.5.5 Wireless Security Facts
11.5.6 Wireless Encryption and Authentication
11.5.7 Wireless Encryption and Authentication Facts
q_wireless_encrypt_auth_protocol_characteristics_pp7.question.fex
Question 54:
Incorrect
The AAA security standard includes authentication, authorization, and accounting (logging of user actions).
Which of the following authentication protocols only provides authentication?
Answer
AES
TACACS+
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Incorrect answer:
RADIUS
Correct Answer:
Kerberos
Explanation
The Kerberos protocol only provides authentication, not authorization and accounting.
RADIUS and TACACS+ both provide authentication, authorization, and accounting.
AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) is an encryption algorithm, not an authentication protocol.
References
11.5.6 Wireless Encryption and Authentication
11.5.7 Wireless Encryption and Authentication Facts
q_wireless_encrypt_kerberos_auth_only_pp7.question.fex
Question 55:
Correct
After entering a user ID and password, an online banking user must enter a PIN that
was sent as a text message to their mobile phone.
Which of the following digital security methods is being used?
Answer
Smart card
Firewall
Correct Answer:
Multifactor authentication
DLP
Explanation
The digital security method being used is multifactor authentication. Multifactor authentication is the process of authenticating a user by validating two or more claims, each from a different category. Examples include a password and mobile phone possession or a password and a fingerprint.
Data loss prevention (DLP) programs or devices monitor operations such as file transfers and email for user activities that could compromise data security.
A smart card could be one of the authentication methods used in multifactor
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authentication.
Firewalls are placed between a company network and the internet to filter network traffic at the IP level. They do not authenticate users.
References
11.5.6 Wireless Encryption and Authentication
11.5.7 Wireless Encryption and Authentication Facts
12.6.2 Mobile Device Security Facts
q_mob_dev_sec_multifactor_auth_ex_pp7.question.fex
Question 56:
Correct
Anna, a user, downloaded a free PDF editing application from the internet. Now her laptop constantly displays desktop pop-ups, and several applications don't start.
Which of the following types of malware was Anna the victim of?
Answer
Spyware
Social engineering
Worm
Correct Answer:
Trojan
Explanation
A Trojan, or Trojan horse, is a type of malware that is often disguised as legitimate software.
Spyware is malware that monitors a user's behavior without their knowledge. Spyware
often secretly gathers information about a person or organization and relays this data to other parties.
Social engineering is a way of manipulating people so that they give up confidential information, such as passwords, bank information, or access to a computer.
A worm is a type of malware that exploits vulnerabilities in an operating system and often spreads to other computers by replicating itself.
References
14.7.1 Malware
14.7.2 Malware Facts
q_sec_sw_trojan_attack_ex_pp7.question.fex
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Question 57:
Correct
Which of the following is a program that appears to be a legitimate application, utility, game, or screen saver, but performs malicious activities surreptitiously?
Answer
Worm
Scareware
Correct Answer:
Trojan horse
Ransomware
Explanation
A Trojan horse is a program that appears to be a legitimate application, utility, game, or screen saver, but performs malicious activities surreptitiously. Trojan horses are commonly internet downloads. To keep your systems secure and free from such malicious code, you need to take extreme caution when downloading any type of file from just about any site on the internet. If you don't fully trust the site or
service that is offering a file, don't download it.
Ransomware is a form of malware that denies access to an infected computer system until the user pays a ransom.
A worm is a type of malicious code similar to a virus. A worm's primary purpose is to duplicate itself and spread, while not necessarily intentionally damaging or destroying resources.
Scareware is a scam that fools users into thinking that they have some form of malware on their system. The intent of the scam is to sell the user fake antivirus software to remove malware that they don't have.
References
14.7.1 Malware
14.7.2 Malware Facts
q_sec_sw_trojan_def_pp7.question.fex
Question 58:
Correct
While browsing the internet, you notice that your browser displays pop-ups containing advertisements that are related to recent keyword searches that you have
performed.
Which of the following is this an example of?
Answer
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Trojan
Worm
Correct Answer:
Adware
Grayware
Explanation
Adware monitors actions that denote personal preferences and then sends pop-ups and
ads that match those preferences. Adware is:
Usually passive.
Invasive.
Installed on your machine when you visit a website or run an application.
Usually more annoying than harmful.
A worm is a self-replicating virus.
Grayware is software that might offer a legitimate service, but also includes features that you aren't aware of or features that could be used for malicious purposes.
A Trojan horse is a malicious program that is disguised as legitimate or desirable software.
References
14.7.1 Malware
14.7.2 Malware Facts
q_sec_sw_adware_ex_pp7.question.fex
Question 59:
Incorrect
Which of the following are the most common means of virus distribution? (Select two.)
Answer
Incorrect answer:
Music files from the internet
Correct Answer:
Malicious websites
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Commercial software CDs
Floppy disks
Correct Answer:
Email
Explanation
Email is the most common means of virus distribution. Often, viruses employ self-
contained SMTP servers to facilitate self-replication and distribution over the internet. Viruses are able to spread quickly and broadly by exploiting the communication infrastructure of internet email.
Malicious websites are also frequently used for virus distribution. For this reason, it is important to keep your antivirus software updated so as to block any possible attempts by viruses to infect your systems or to spread to other systems from your system.
Floppy disks are rarely used and normally pose no virus distribution threat.
Downloaded music files and commercial software CDs all have the potential to spread
viruses, but they are not as commonly employed.
References
14.7.1 Malware
14.7.2 Malware Facts
q_sec_sw_common_virus_distrib_methods_pp7.question.fex
Question 60:
Correct
Which of the following is the common name for a program that has no useful purpose,
but attempts to spread itself to other systems and often damages resources on the systems where it is found?
Answer
Buffer overflow
Correct Answer:
Virus
Password attack
Trojan
Explanation
A virus is the common name for a program that has no useful purpose, but attempts to spread itself to other systems and often damages resources on the systems where
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it is found. Viruses are a serious threat to computer systems, especially if the systems are connected to the internet. You should install anti-malware software on every computer on your network to protect against viruses.
Trojan horses are programs that claim to serve a useful purpose, but hide a malicious purpose or activity.
A buffer overflow can be an insertion vector for a virus. A buffer overflow is not the virus itself.
A password attack attempts to identify a user account's password.
References
14.7.1 Malware
14.7.2 Malware Facts
q_sec_sw_virus_def_pp7.question.fex
Question 61:
Correct
A large number of compromised computers are infected with malware that allows an attacker (herder) to control the computers to spread email spam and launch denial-
of-service attacks.
Which of the following does this security threat describe?
Answer
Phishing
Spoofing
Correct Answer:
Zombie/botnet
On-path attack
Explanation
Devices that are infected with malware that can be remote controlled by an attacker
are known as zombies. A collection of these zombies that are controlled by the same
attacker are known as a botnet (robot network).
Phishing is an attempt to trick a user into compromising personal information or downloading malware. Most often, phishing involves an email that contains a malicious attachment or hyperlink.
An on-path attack intercepts communications between two systems and alters the message before sending it on to the original recipient.
Spoofing is when an entity misrepresents itself by using a fake IP address or, more
commonly, a fake email address that resembles a real address. The person being spoofed may not immediately discover that the address is fake.
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References
14.7.1 Malware
14.7.2 Malware Facts
q_sec_sw_zombie_botnet_def_pp7.question.fex
Question 62:
Correct
Which of the following describes spyware?
Answer
It is a malicious program that is disguised as legitimate software.
Correct Answer:
It monitors the actions you take on your machine and sends the information back to the originating source.
It monitors the actions of a user and then sends pop-up ads to the user that match their tastes.
It is a program that attempts to damage a computer system and replicate itself to other computer systems.
Explanation
Spyware monitors the actions you take on your machine and sends the information back to the originating source.
Adware monitors the actions of a user that denote their personal preferences and then sends pop-ups and ads to the user that match their tastes.
A virus is a program that attempts to damage a computer system and replicate itself
to other computer systems.
A Trojan horse is a malicious program that is disguised as legitimate software.
References
14.7.1 Malware
14.7.2 Malware Facts
q_sec_sw_spyware_def_pp7.question.fex
Question 63:
Correct
A user is unable to read their computer files. A pop-up explains that the files have been encrypted and gives instructions on how to purchase a decryption key.
Which of the following BEST describes this malware?
Answer
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Spyware
Trojan
Correct Answer:
Ransomware
Social engineering
Explanation
Ransomware is a type of malicious software that is designed to block access to a computer system, often by encrypting files, until a sum of money is paid.
Spyware is malware that monitors a user's behavior without their knowledge. Spyware
often secretly gathers information about a person or organization and relays this data to other parties.
Social engineering is a way of manipulating people so that they give up confidential information, such as passwords, bank information, or access to a computer.
A Trojan horse, or Trojan, is a type of malware that is often disguised as legitimate software. Ransomware may be introduced as a Trojan horse, but a Trojan horse does not always install ransomware.
References
14.7.1 Malware
14.7.2 Malware Facts
q_sec_sw_ransomware_attack_ex_pp7.question.fex
Question 64:
Correct
Which type of malicious activity can be described as numerous unwanted and unsolicited email messages that are sent to a wide range of victims?
Answer
Email hijacking
Correct Answer:
Spamming
Crimeware
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Trojan
Explanation
Spamming is a type of malicious activity in which numerous unwanted and unsolicited
email messages are sent to a wide range of victims. Spam itself may or may not be malicious in nature. Unfortunately, spam accounts for 40 to 60 percent of the email
traffic on the internet. Most of this activity is unsolicited.
References
14.7.1 Malware
14.7.2 Malware Facts
q_sec_sw_spamming_def_pp7.question.fex
Question 65:
Correct
You are trying to connect from outside the company network to a server inside the company network using RDP (Remote Desktop Connection). However, the connection is failing.
Which network device does your network administrator MOST likely need to configure to allow this connection?
Answer
Correct Answer:
Firewall
Access point
Switch
Hub
Explanation
A firewall filters network traffic based on a set of rules (ACL). The network administrator most likely needs to configure the company's network firewall to allow RDP traffic.
A switch maintains a table of MAC addresses by port and forwards network frames to only the port that matches the MAC address.
An access point grants Wi-Fi access to a network.
A hub transmits a data frame to every port except the port that received the data frame.
References
14.7.1 Malware
14.7.2 Malware Facts
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14.8.3 Firewall Facts
q_net_firew_correct_rdp_connect_sol_pp7.question.fex
Question 66:
Correct
In which of the following situations should you install a firewall?
Answer
You want internet users to see a single IP address when accessing your company network.
Correct Answer:
You want to restrict internet users from accessing private data on your network.
You want to implement a password system for internet users who access your private website.
You want to improve internet performance by saving popular websites locally.
Explanation
Firewalls limit traffic by blocking connections that are initiated from an untrusted network, such as the internet, unless the traffic matches rules you configure in the firewall's access control list (ACL).
Setting up a single IP address for internet users when accessing your company network usually involves using and configuring a router and does not involve configuring a firewall.
Saving popular websites locally to improve performance usually involves caching website information for your web browser and does not involve configuring a firewall.
Implementing a password system for your private website is a function of your web server and does not involve configuring a firewall.
References
14.7.1 Malware
14.7.2 Malware Facts
14.8.3 Firewall Facts
q_net_firew_install_situations_pp7.question.fex
Question 67:
Correct
Joe, a user, receives an email from a popular video streaming website. The email urges him to renew his membership. The message appears official, but Joe has never had a membership before. When Joe looks closer, he discovers that a hyperlink in the email points to a suspicious URL.
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Which of the following security threats does this describe?
Answer
On-path attack
Trojan
Correct Answer:
Phishing
Zero-day attack
Explanation
Phishing is an attempt to trick a user into compromising personal information or downloading malware. Most often, phishing involves an email containing a malicious attachment or hyperlink.
An on-path attack intercepts communications between two systems and alters the message before sending it on to the original recipient.
A zero-day attack is an exploit of an operating system or software vulnerability that is unknown and unpatched.
A Trojan horse, or Trojan, is a type of malware that is often disguised as legitimate software.
References
14.7.1 Malware
14.7.2 Malware Facts
q_sec_sw_phishing_attack_ex_pp7.question.fex
Question 68:
Correct
You want to perform a Windows update on your Windows 11 computer. Before doing so, you want to make sure you can easily go back to the state it was in prior to the update.
Which of the following Control Panel utilities is BEST to enable and use prior to the update?
Answer
Performance
View hidden files
Correct Answer:
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System protection
Program and Features
Explanation
System protection provides full control over your System Restore operations. In Windows 11, System Protection is disabled by default. Before you perform the Windows update, you should enable this feature. Once enabled, Windows will automatically create restore points when system changes are made. However, it may be best to create the first restore point manually. If, for some reason, your Windows system is not functioning properly after the update, you can use this feature to restore your system back to the restore point created prior to the upgrade.
Performance lets you adjust settings to use for the appearance and performance of Windows. It also lets you configure some advanced settings, such as configuring virtual memory. It cannot be used to create or use restore points.
View hidden files will let you see and work with files that are normally hidden. It
cannot be used to create or use restore points.
Program and Features lets you view the programs installed on your computer and, if needed, uninstall, change, or repair an application. It cannot be used to create or
use restore points.
References
8.7.7 System Recovery Facts
q_recv_rcon_multiple_protect_pp7.question.fex
Question 69:
Correct
Which of the following is a common form of a social engineering attack?
Answer
Stealing the key card of an employee and using it to enter a secure building.
Distributing false information about your organization's financial status.
Using a sniffer to capture network traffic.
Correct Answer:
Sending phishing emails.
Explanation
Phishing emails are a common form of social engineering attack. This type of attack
preys on email recipients by sending an email that looks legitimate, but has a malicious payload instead. The victims of these attacks are requested to click on a
link that forwards them to a malicious website or downloads an attachment that
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contains malware.
Using a sniffer to capture network traffic, stealing a keycard, and distributing false information about your organization's financial status can be malicious, but are not forms of social engineering attacks.
References
14.5.1 Social Engineering
14.5.2 Social Engineering Facts
q_social_engineering_phishing_pp7.question.fex
Question 70:
Correct
Several users have forwarded you an email stating that your company's health insurance provider has just launched a new website for all employees. To access the
site, you are told to click a link in the email and provide your personal information. Upon investigation, you discover that your company's health insurance provider did not send this email.
Which of the following BEST describes the type of attack that just occurred?
Answer
Tailgating
Whaling
Vishing
Correct Answer:
Phishing
Explanation
A phishing attack has occurred. In a phishing attack, a spoofed email containing a link to a fake website is used to trick users into revealing sensitive information,
such as a username, password, bank account number, or credit card number. Both the email and the website used in the attack appear to be legitimate on the surface.
Tailgating occurs when an unauthorized person follows an authorized person into a secure building or area.
Vishing is a social engineering attack that takes place over the phone.
Whaling is a targeted phishing attack directed at a high-level person, such as a CEO. The attack would not be sent as a general email to all company employees.
References
14.5.1 Social Engineering
14.5.2 Social Engineering Facts
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q_social_engineering_phishing_attack_ex_pp7.question.fex
Question 71:
Correct
Which of the following is a form of attack that tricks victims into providing confidential information, such as identity information or logon credentials, through emails or websites that impersonate an online entity that the victim trusts, such as a financial institution or well-known e-commerce site?Answer
Correct Answer:
Phishing
Social engineering
Evil twin attack
Impersonation
Explanation
Phishing tricks victims into providing confidential information, such as identity information or logon credentials, through emails or websites that impersonate an online entity that the victim trusts, such as a financial institution or well known
e-commerce site. Phishing is a specific form of social engineering.
Social engineering is the general term that covers a variety of computer-based and human-based security attacks.
An evil twin attack is used to knock users off of a legitimate, secure wireless network and redirect them to a malicious wireless network with the same SSID.
Impersonation is an attack method where the attacker impersonates a legitimate worker that should be granted access to the building.
References
14.5.1 Social Engineering
14.5.2 Social Engineering Facts
q_social_engineering_phishing_def_pp7.question.fex
Question 72:
Correct
Jared receives an email relating that an account containing a large sum of money has been frozen by the government of a small African nation. Jared is offered a 25 percent share of this account if he will help the sender transfer it to a bank in the United States.
Jared replies to the sender and is instructed to send his bank account number so that it can be used to facilitate the transfer. Jared sends the requested information, and then the sender uses the information to drain Jared's bank account.
Which type of attack occurred?
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Answer
Correct Answer:
Phishing
Vishing
Tailgating
Eavesdropping
Explanation
Jared was the victim of a phishing attack. This particular attack is sometimes referred to as a Nigerian 419 attack and is very common.
Tailgating occurs when an unauthorized person follows an authorized person into a secure building or area.
Eavesdropping refers to an unauthorized person listening to conversations of employees or other authorized personnel discussing sensitive topics.
Vishing is a social engineering attack that takes place over the phone.
References
14.5.1 Social Engineering
14.5.2 Social Engineering Facts
q_social_engineering_phishing_ex_pp7.question.fex
Question 73:
Correct
Joe, an executive, receives an email that appears to be from the financial institution that provides his company credit card. The text of the email includes Joe's name and the company name and states that there is a problem with Joe's credit card. The email provides a link to verify the credit card, but when Joe hovers over the link, he thinks the web address seems strange.
Which of the following BEST describes this type of attack?
Answer
Brute forcing
Zero-day attack
Correct Answer:
Social engineering
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On-path
Explanation
Social engineering is the use of deception to manipulate individuals into sharing confidential or personal information that can be used for unlawful purposes. In this scenario, a social engineering attack is being used to gather information about Joe's credit card account.
A zero-day attack is an exploit of an operating system or software vulnerability that is unknown and unpatched by the author.
Brute force attacks can be used to crack a username, password, or other authentication using trial and error, usually by trying all possibly permutations.
An on-path attack intercepts communications between two systems and alters the message before sending it on to the original recipient.
References
14.5.1 Social Engineering
14.5.2 Social Engineering Facts
q_social_engineering_social_engineering_ex_pp7.question.fex
Question 74:
Correct
You are a security consultant. An organization has hired you to review their security measures. The employees in the organization often receive calls from hackers trying to gain sensitive information using high-pressure tactics.
Which of the following actions would you MOST likely recommend to mitigate these social engineering attacks?
Answer
Implement a border firewall to filter inbound network traffic.
Train managers to monitor user activity.
Correct Answer:
Teach users how to recognize and respond to these attacks.
Establish a written security policy.
Explanation
This type of social engineering attack over the phone is called vishing. Constant user training is the most effective method to prevent this type of attack.
Filtering network traffic with a firewall fails to address the human element involved in social engineering attacks such as vishing.
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While a written security policy is a necessary measure, it will do little to defend
your network if your users don't know how to recognize social engineering attempts.
Management oversight is expensive and unlikely to detect a social engineering attempt until it is too late. Raising user awareness of the issue through training tends to be much more effective.
References
14.5.1 Social Engineering
14.5.2 Social Engineering Facts
q_social_engineering_vishing_training_pp7.question.fex
Question 75:
Correct
Which of the following are examples of social engineering? (Select two.)
Answer
Port scanning
Correct Answer:
Dumpster diving
War dialing
Correct Answer:
Shoulder surfing
Brute force password cracking
Explanation
Social engineering leverages human nature. Internal employees are often the targets
of trickery, and false trust can quickly lead to a serious breach of information security. Shoulder surfing and dumpster diving are examples of social engineering.
Shoulder surfing is the act of looking over an authorized user's shoulder in hopes of obtaining an access code or credentials.
Dumpster diving involves searching through trash or other discarded items to obtain
credentials or information that may facilitate further attacks. These low-tech attack methods are often the first course of action that a hacker pursues.
Port scanning and war dialing are technical attacks that seek to take advantage of vulnerabilities in systems or networks.
Brute force password-cracking software tries to identify a password by trying every
possible letter, number, and symbol combination until the correct one is found.
References
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14.5.1 Social Engineering
14.5.2 Social Engineering Facts
q_social_engineering_shoulder_surf_dumpster_dive_pp7.question.fex
Question 76:
Correct
An unauthorized person gains access to a secure area by following an authorized person through a door controlled by a badge reader.
Which of the following security threats does this example describe?
Answer
Correct Answer:
Tailgating
Phishing
Impersonation
Shoulder surfing
Explanation
Tailgating describes the actions of an unauthorized person closely following an authorized person to gain access to a secure area.
Shoulder surfing occurs when a one person obtains usernames, passwords, and other data by looking over the shoulder of another person.
Impersonation is an attack method where the attacker impersonates a legitimate worker that should be granted access to the building or sensitive information.
Phishing is an attempt to trick a user into compromising personal information or downloading malware. Most often, it involves an email containing a malicious attachment or hyperlink.
References
14.5.1 Social Engineering
14.5.2 Social Engineering Facts
q_social_engineering_tailgating_def_pp7.question.fex
Question 77:
Correct
An intruder waits near an organization's secure entrance until an employee approaches the entrance and unlocks it with a security badge. The intruder falls in
line behind the employee, who assumes the intruder is another employee and holds the door open for her.
Which of the following BEST describes the type of attack that just occurred?
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Answer
Shoulder surfing
Phishing
Impersonation
Correct Answer:
Tailgating
Explanation
A tailgating attack has occurred. Tailgating occurs when an unauthorized person follows an authorized person into a secure building or area.
In a phishing attack, a spoofed email containing a link to a fake website is used to trick users into revealing sensitive information, such as a username, password, bank account number, or credit card number. Both the email and website appear to be
legitimate on the surface.
Shoulder surfing occurs when a one person obtains usernames, passwords, and other data by looking over the shoulder of another person.
Impersonation is an attack method where the attacker impersonates a legitimate worker that should be granted access to the building or sensitive information.
References
14.5.1 Social Engineering
14.5.2 Social Engineering Facts
q_social_engineering_tailgating_ex_pp7.question.fex
Question 78:
Correct
A malicious person calls an employee from a cell phone. She tells the employee that
she is the vice president over the accounting department in the employee's company.
She relates that she has forgotten her password and demands that the employee give her his password so that she can access the reports she needs for an upcoming presentation. She threatens to fire the employee if he does not comply.
Which of the following BEST describes the type of attack that just occurred?
Answer
Correct Answer:
Vishing
Tailgating
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Eavesdropping
Phishing
Explanation
A vishing attack has occurred. Vishing involves an attacker convincing authorized personnel over the phone to grant them access to protected information by pretending to be someone who is authorized and/or requires that access. Often, the attacker poses as a member of senior management. A sense of urgency is typically fabricated to motivate the user to act quickly.
Tailgating is an attempt to closely follow an authorized user into a secure building or space without providing the appropriate control measure, such as a badge.
Phishing is a computer-based social engineering attack that involves sending an email that looks legitimate, but encourages the victim to click a link that takes them to a malicious website or downloads a malware file.
Eavesdropping is listening in on a conversation to gather sensitive information.
References
14.5.1 Social Engineering
14.5.2 Social Engineering Facts
q_social_engineering_impersonation_ex_pp7.question.fex
Question 79:
Correct
At company headquarters, several employees are having issues with their Wi-Fi access suddenly dropping and then reconnecting to the same wireless network.
You decide to investigate and determine that someone has set up a rogue access point near company headquarters and is using it to capture sensitive data from the company network.
Which type of social engineering attack is being used?
Answer
Correct Answer:
Evil twin
Eavesdropping
Phishing
Impersonation
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Explanation
An evil twin attack involves an attacker setting up a rogue Wi-Fi access point, using a jamming or disassociation attack to knock users off the legitimate network,
and then having users reconnect to the rogue access point in order to gain access to sensitive data.
Phishing is an attempt to trick a user into compromising personal information or downloading malware. Most often, it involves an email containing a malicious attachment or hyperlink.
Impersonation is an attack method where the attacker impersonates a legitimate worker that should be granted access to the building or sensitive information.
Eavesdropping means to listen in on other people's conversations in order to gather
sensitive information.
References
14.5.1 Social Engineering
14.5.2 Social Engineering Facts
q_social_engineering_user_awareness_train_pp7.question.fex
Question 80:
Incorrect
Which of the following attacks is designed to bombard a target with more data than it can handle?
Answer
On-path
Incorrect answer:
Brute force
Correct Answer:
Denial-of-service
Cross-site scripting
Explanation
A denial-of-service attack is designed to bombard the target with more data than it
can handle, causing it to shut down.
In an on-path attack, the hacker places themselves between two devices and intercepts all communications. It does not bombard the target with more data than it can handle.
A cross-site scripting attack takes advantage of improperly configured input fields
on a website to send an attack to the server. This attack does not bombard the target with more data than it can handle.
In a brute force attack, the attacker attempts to guess the password by using a
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cracking tool that submits every possible letter, number, and symbol combination in
a short amount of time. This attack does not bombard the target with more data than
it can handle.
References
14.5.3 Threats
14.5.4 Threat Facts
q_threats_denial_of_service_pp7.question.fex
Question 81:
Incorrect
Which type of DoS attack exhausts the target's resources by overloading a specific program or service?
Answer
Correct Answer:
Application layer
Protocol
Distributed
Incorrect answer:
Amplification
Explanation
The goal of an Application layer DoS is to exhaust the target's resources by overloading a specific program or service.
A distributed DoS attack uses multiple computers to generate the necessary traffic.
A protocol DoS targets different protocols, such as TCP flags, to overload a network device, such as a firewall.
An amplification DoS attack consumes the bandwidth between the target server and the internet, effectively cutting off the target.
References
14.5.3 Threats
14.5.4 Threat Facts
q_threats_application_layer_pp7.question.fex
Question 82:
Correct
Which of the following attacks exploits a vulnerability in software that has not been discovered by the developer?
Answer
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XSS attack
Correct Answer:
Zero-day attack
Brute force attack
Insider threat
Explanation
A zero-day attack exploits a vulnerability in software that has not been discovered
by the developer. These attacks are referred to as zero-day attacks because that is
how many days the developer has known about the vulnerability.
An insider threat is an ex-employee that still has access to the network and wants to cause damage or steal data. This is not exploiting a vulnerability in software that has not yet been discovered.
In a brute force attack, the attacker attempts to guess the password by using a cracking tool that submits every possible letter, number, and symbol combination in
a short amount of time. This is not exploiting a vulnerability in software that has
not yet been discovered.
A cross-site scripting (XSS) attack takes advantage of improperly configured input fields on a website to send an attack to the server. This is not exploiting a vulnerability in software that has not yet been discovered.
References
14.5.3 Threats
14.5.4 Threat Facts
q_threats_zero_day_attack_pp7.question.fex
Question 83:
Correct
In which of the following security attacks does the hacker intercept session cookies in order to access the victim's account?
Answer
Cross-site scripting
Correct Answer:
Session hijacking
Brute force
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SQL injection
Explanation
When a user logs into a website, a session cookie is generated. If the hacker can intercept this data, they will be able to access the user's account. This is known as a session hijacking attack.
A cross-site scripting attack takes advantage of improperly configured input fields
on a website to send an attack to the server. The hacker does not intercept cookies
in order to access the victim's account in this attack.
A SQL injection attack does not intercept cookies in order to access the victim's account. In a SQL injection attack, the attacker inputs SQL commands into text fields in order to access data.
In a brute force attack, the attacker attempts to guess a password by using a cracking tool that submits every possible letter, number, and symbol combination in
a short amount of time. The hacker does not intercept cookies in order to access the victim's account in this attack.
References
14.5.3 Threats
14.5.4 Threat Facts
q_threats_session_hijacking_pp7.question.fex
Question 84:
Correct
You have been hired to help assess the security of your client's organization. During your assessment, you have found a rogue wireless access point that is configured to look identical to the legitimate wireless network.
Which of the following attacks was MOST likely being carried out?
Answer
HTTPS spoofing
Correct Answer:
Evil twin attack
DNS spoofing
Session hijacking
Explanation
In this scenario, a evil twin attack (also called Wi-Fi eavesdropping) is the most likely attack being carried out. In an evil twin attack, the hacker tricks users into connecting to a malicious wireless network so they can monitor and manipulate the data packets flowing across the network.
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When a user logs into a website, a session cookie is generated. If the hacker can intercept this data, they will be able to access the user's account. This is known as a session hijacking attack. This is not the attack most likely being carried out
in this scenario.
In a DNS spoofing attack, the hacker modifies a website's address in the DNS server. When the user attempts to go that website, they are redirected to the hacker's malicious site. This is not the attack most likely being carried out in this scenario.
In an HTTPS spoofing attack, the hacker uses a website name that looks similar to a
real site. This is not the attack most likely being carried out in this scenario.
References
14.5.3 Threats
14.5.4 Threat Facts
q_threats_evil_twin_attack_pp7.question.fex
Question 85:
Incorrect
Which of the following types of password cracking attacks is designed to avoid lockout policies?
Answer
Incorrect answer:
SQL injection
Dictionary attack
Correct Answer:
Password spraying
Online attack
Explanation
Password spraying involves the attacker using the same password with multiple user accounts. Because there is a delay between submitting a password attempt on each account, the lockout policy can be avoided.
In a dictionary attack, the hacker will use a list of words and phrases to try to guess the password. This will not avoid lockout policies.
An online brute force attack requires the attacker to submit the passwords using the same user login interface while the target is up and running. This will not avoid lockout policies.
In a SQL injection attack, the attacker inputs SQL commands into text fields in order to access the data. This is not a password cracking attack.
References
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14.5.3 Threats
14.5.4 Threat Facts
q_threats_password_spraying_pp7.question.fex
Question 86:
Incorrect
You have just implemented several lockout policies.
Which of the following password attacks will these policies MOST effectively protect against?
Answer
Incorrect answer:
Password spraying
Correct Answer:
Online attack
SQL injection
Offline attack
Explanation
A brute force online attack requires the attacker to submit the passwords using the
same user login interface while the target is up and running. The best defense against this method is to implement lockout policies. This means that if the incorrect password is entered multiple times in a short period of time, the account
will be locked out for a specified amount of time.
Offline attacks require the attacker to somehow steal the password file. The attacker can then run different attacks against that file with no limitations.
Password spraying involves the attacker using the same password with multiple user accounts. Because there is a delay between submitting a password attempt on each account, the lockout policy can be avoided.
In a SQL injection attack, the attacker inputs SQL commands into text fields in order to access the data. This is not a password cracking attack.
References
14.5.3 Threats
14.5.4 Threat Facts
q_threats_online_attack_pp7.question.fex
Question 87:
Correct
Which type of password cracking attack uses a list of words and phrases to guess the password?
Answer
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Password spraying
SQL injection
Session hijacking
Correct Answer:
Dictionary attack
Explanation
In a dictionary attack, the hacker uses a list of words and phrases to try to guess
the password.
Password spraying involves the attacker using the same password with multiple user accounts.
In a session hijacking attack, the attacker intercepts the victim's session cookie in order to gain access to the account. This is not a password cracking attack.
In a SQL injection attack, the attacker inputs SQL commands into text fields in order to access the data. This is not a password cracking attack.
References
14.5.3 Threats
14.5.4 Threat Facts
q_threats_dictionary_attack_pp7.question.fex
Question 88:
Correct
Which of the following is the best defense against an insider network threat?
Answer
Implement lockout policies.
Install security cameras at all entrances.
Correct Answer:
Immediately revoke the employee's credentials when they leave.
Have the employee turn in their security card.
Explanation
A user's credentials should be immediately revoked when they leave the
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organization. This is the best defense against an insider threat.
Implementing a lockout policy would not stop an insider threat, as the employee would still have legitimate credentials.
Installing security cameras would not be the best defense against an insider threat
since, oftentimes, the cameras are not monitored 24/7 or the employee can still log
in remotely.
Turning in a security card does not stop the employee from accessing the network if
their credentials are not revoked.
References
14.5.3 Threats
14.5.4 Threat Facts
q_threats_revoke_credentials_pp7.question.fex
Question 89:
Incorrect
You have been hired to investigate a recent cybersecurity attack. You have discovered that the attacker was able to send commands to the server using the login fields and steal user credentials from the database.
Which of the following attacks was your client MOST likely the victim of?
Answer
Incorrect answer:
Cross-site scripting
Correct Answer:
SQL injection
On-path
Brute force
Explanation
Your client is most likely the victim of an SQL injection attack. SQL is the most common database language and is used by most websites. All sorts of sensitive data,
such as user credentials, are stored in these databases. If the SQL database is not
properly configured, an attacker can input SQL commands into text fields on a website to gain access to the data. The attacker can steal, edit, or even destroy the data contained in the database.
A cross-site scripting (XSS) attack takes advantage of improperly configured input fields on the website. The attacker can hide malicious code inside of a legitimate input field and send it to the server. If the server processes the request, the malicious code will also be processed and carry out the attack. An XSS attack is not used to gain access to the database.
In an on-path attack, the hacker places themselves between two devices and
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intercepts all communications. It is not used to gain access to the database.
In a brute force attack, the attacker attempts to guess the password by using a cracking tool that submits every possible letter, number, and symbol combination in
a short amount of time. This attack is not used to gain access to the database.
References
14.5.3 Threats
14.5.4 Threat Facts
q_threats_sql_injection_pp7.question.fex
Question 90:
Correct
Which of the following is released by software vendors to address issues or vulnerabilities?
Answer
Exploits
Configuration settings
Correct Answer:
Patches
Definition files
Explanation
Patches are released by software vendors to address known issues or security vulnerabilities.
Configuration settings are used to set user preferences or define how a program operates. They are not released by software vendors to address known issues or security vulnerabilities.
Definition files are used by anti-malware programs to detect known malware.
Attackers use exploits to target known vulnerabilities.
References
14.5.5 Vulnerabilities
14.5.6 Vulnerability Facts
q_vulnerabilities_patching_solution_pp7.question.fex
Question 91:
Correct
What do you call a system that has no anti-malware or firewall installed?
Answer
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Correct Answer:
Unprotected
Compliant
End-of-life
Unpatched
Explanation
A system with no anti-malware or firewall is considered unprotected.
An unpatched system is missing the latest updates and patches.
An end-of-life operating system is one that no longer receives patches or updates.
A compliant system means that it meets the minimum requirements as defined in the security plan.
References
14.5.5 Vulnerabilities
14.5.6 Vulnerability Facts
q_vulnerabilities_unprotected_system_pp7.question.fex
Question 92:
Correct
What do you call an operating system that no longer receives security patches or updates?
Answer
Non-compliant
Unpatched
Correct Answer:
End-of-life
Unprotected
Explanation
All operating systems have an end-of-life date. After this date, the vendor will no
longer release security patches or updates.
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A non-compliant system no longer meets the requirements as defined in the security plan. This is not an operating system that no longer receives security patches or updates.
An unpatched system is missing the latest updates and patches. This is not an operating system that no longer receives security patches or updates.
An unprotected system is missing anti-malware software and/or a proper firewall. This is not an operating system that no longer receives security patches or updates.
References
14.5.5 Vulnerabilities
14.5.6 Vulnerability Facts
q_vulnerabilities_end_of_life_pp7.question.fex
Question 93:
Correct
What policy allows employees to use their own computers and mobile devices for work
purposes?
Answer
Correct Answer:
Bring Your Own Device
Use Your Own Device
Use Your Work Device
Bring Your Work Device
Explanation
The policy allowing employees to use their own computers and mobile devices for work purposes is known as a Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) policy.
None of the other options are correct answers.
References
14.5.5 Vulnerabilities
14.5.6 Vulnerability Facts
q_vulnerabilities_byod_policy_pp7.question.fex
Question 94:
Correct
Which of the following Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) risks is both a security issue for an organization and a privacy issue for a BYOD user?
Answer
Correct Answer:
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Mixing of personal and corporate data
Work flexibility
Confidential data exposure
Lower cost
Explanation
Mixing of personal and corporate data is both a security issue for the company and a privacy issue for users.
Confidential data exposure can occur when a mobile device synchronizes with organizational email and other cloud-connected apps to download corporate and confidential information. This is a risk to the organization, but not the user.
Lower cost is a benefit of BYOD, not a security issue.
Work flexibility is a benefit of BYOD, not a security issue.
References
14.5.5 Vulnerabilities
14.5.6 Vulnerability Facts
q_vulnerabilities_org_and_privacy_issue_pp7.question.fex
Question 95:
Correct
Which of the following are benefits of a BYOD policy? (Select three.)
Answer
Confidential data exposure
Mixing of personal and corporate data
Variety of devices
Correct Answer:
Lower costs
Bypassing of security policies
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Correct Answer:
Work flexibility
Correct Answer:
Increased productivity
Explanation
Below is a list of a few BYOD benefits.
Increased productivity
Employee satisfaction
Work flexibility
Lower costs
Below is a list of a few BYOD risks:
Data leakage
Confidential data exposure
Improper disposal
Variety of devices
Mixing of personal and corporate data
Bypassing of security policies
References
14.5.5 Vulnerabilities
14.5.6 Vulnerability Facts
q_vulnerabilities_byod_benefits_pp7.question.fex
Question 96:
Correct
Which of the following should you implement to monitor and manage the risks of a BYOD policy?
Answer
Security management
Mobile application management
Correct Answer:
Mobile device management
Bring Your Own Device
Explanation
The term mobile device management (MDM) generally describes the policies and procedures used by an organization to maintain security and permissions on mobile devices. More specifically, MDM software is used by administrators to secure mobile
devices and to enforce enterprise policies on the devices. MDM software usually offers a suite of features, including:
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Policy management
Security management
Inventory management
Telecom service management
Mobile application management
A Bring Your Own Device policy is the policy that allows employees to use their own
computers and mobile devices for work purposes. MDM software is often used alongside a BYOD policy.
Security management is a general term for using software and documented policies to
protect valuable company assets.
Mobile application management (MAM) is focused on applications, not devices.
References
14.5.5 Vulnerabilities
14.5.6 Vulnerability Facts
q_vulnerabilities_mobile_device_mgmt_pp7.question.fex
Question 97:
Correct
Which of the following Bring Your Own Device benefits is a result of users becoming
experts in device usage?
Answer
Lower costs
Work flexibility
Correct Answer:
Increased productivity
Employee satisfaction
Explanation
Increased productivity is the result of users being experts in the usage of their devices.
Employee satisfaction is the result of users utilizing a device that they have picked out and not having to carry multiple devices.
Work flexibility is the result of users carrying one device for both personal and professional use and being able to work from anywhere, not just the office.
Lower costs is the result of the employee purchasing their own device and paying for data usage.
References
14.5.5 Vulnerabilities
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14.5.6 Vulnerability Facts
q_vulnerabilities_device_usage_experts_pp7.question.fex
Question 98:
Correct
Which of the following are risks of implementing a BYOD policy? (Select three.)
Answer
Employee satisfaction
Increased productivity
Lower costs
Work flexibility
Correct Answer:
Data leakage
Correct Answer:
Improper disposal
Correct Answer:
Number of different devices
Explanation
BYOD risks include:
Data leakage
Confidential data exposure
Improper disposal
Variety of devices
Mixing of personal and corporate data
Bypassing of security policies
BYOD benefits include:
Increased productivity
Employee satisfaction
Work flexibility
Lower costs
References
14.5.5 Vulnerabilities
14.5.6 Vulnerability Facts
q_vulnerabilities_byod_risks_pp7.question.fex
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Question 99:
Correct
Which of the following BYOD risks can leave old information, even financial data and credit card details, vulnerable to malicious purposes?
Answer
Correct Answer:
Improper disposal
Confidential data exposure
Bypassing security policies
Data leakage
Explanation
Improperly disposing of a device can leave old information, even financial data and
credit card details, vulnerable to malicious purposes.
While away from the office, a user might access company data via a public network. If these connections are not encrypted, it can lead to data leakage.
As mobile devices synchronize with an organization's email and other cloud-
connected apps, they download organizational and confidential information. Losing a
device or having it stolen can expose this information.
Security rules that are enforced only by a policy (and not by any automated means) can be overlooked or even maliciously exploited by disgruntled employees.
References
14.5.5 Vulnerabilities
14.5.6 Vulnerability Facts
q_vulnerabilities_improper_disposal_pp7.question.fex
Question 100:
Correct
Which of the following is a type of firewall?
Answer
Encrypting
Packet rearranging
Protocol converting
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Correct Answer:
Packet filtering
FTP hosting
Explanation
Firewalls often filter packets by checking each packet against a set of administrator-defined criteria. If the packet is not accepted, it is simply dropped.
FTP hosting is a storage space for storing files associated with an FTP server.
Encrypting involves converting data from a readable format into an encoded format.
Packet rearranging (or reordering) is an issue with packets arriving at a destination in the wrong order.
Protocol converting enables the protocol of a sending device to be recognized by a receiving device that might be using a different communication protocol.
References
14.8.3 Firewall Facts
q_net_firew_packet_filter_type_pp7.question.fex
Question 101:
Correct
There are two main types of firewalls that you should be familiar with. Which of the following describes a feature of a network-based firewall?
Answer
Is executed directly on the servers that need to be protected.
Correct Answer:
Inspects traffic as it flows between networks.
Inspects traffic received by a specific host.
Works with a single network interface.
Explanation
A network-based firewall inspects traffic as it flows between networks.
A host-based firewall inspects traffic received by a specific host. This firewall type is installed directly on a host (such as a server or workstation) and only requires a single interface. A network-based firewall requires two (or more) interfaces.
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References
14.8.3 Firewall Facts
q_net_firew_net_firewall_feature_pp7.question.fex
Question 102:
Incorrect
Which of the following is a firewall type that scans network traffic based on TCP or UDP transmission?
Answer
Packet filtering
Access control list
Correct Answer:
Circuit-layer gateway
Incorrect answer:
Application-level gateway
Explanation
A circuit-layer gateway scans network traffic based on TCP or UDP transmission. If the transmission is detected as legitimate, the packet is granted access while the link remains established.
Packet filtering is one of the most common types of firewalls. It scans all packets
and reads the source and destination IP addresses along with port numbers. Then, based on the ACL, the firewall rejects any packet that does not belong to that network.
An application-level gateway monitors packet contents. Each packet has information about what application can use that data. The ACL then dictates whether that data is denied or allowed on the network.
An access control list (ACL) is not a type of firewall. It is a set of rules utilized by the firewall to filter network traffic.
References
14.8.3 Firewall Facts
q_net_firew_circuit_layer_gateway_pp7.question.fex
Question 103:
Correct
You want to be able to access your home computer using Remote Desktop while traveling. You enable Remote Desktop, but you find that you cannot access your computer outside of your home network.
Which of the following is the BEST solution to your problem?
Answer
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Move your home computer outside of the firewall.
Correct Answer:
Open the firewall port for the Remote Desktop protocol.
Open the Telnet and SSH ports in your firewall.
Configure a VPN connection to your computer.
Explanation
You need to open the firewall port for the Remote Desktop program. Firewalls prevent all traffic except authorized traffic. To allow a specific program, open the port that corresponds to the port used by that application.
Placing your computer outside of the firewall leaves it open to attack.
Opening the Telnet and SSH ports on your firewall will not resolve the issue of allowing Remote Desktop to function.
A VPN encrypts communications between two computers through the internet. However, a VPN will not allow a Remote Desktop connection.
References
14.8.3 Firewall Facts
q_net_firew_open_firewall_port_for_rdp_pp7.question.fex
Question 104:
Incorrect
You have recently purchased a third-party application and installed it on your workstation. However, after doing some maintenance work on the users and groups on your Windows system, the application begins to display error messages each time you
try to run it.
What is the MOST likely cause of the issue?
Answer
You switched from a domain account login to a local login.
Correct Answer:
You deleted a group that was created by the third-party application.
You assigned the application user account to the Users group.
Incorrect answer:
You assigned the wrong permissions to your user account.
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Explanation
Many Windows features or third-party applications create additional groups in order
to access rights and permissions. If you delete the group, the application probably
won't launch or work properly.
Assigning the wrong permissions to your user account would not impact the functioning of a third-party application.
Switching from a domain to a local login would not impact the launching of a application.
The application would not have a user account (although it might have a system account).
References
8.2.1 Users and Groups
8.2.2 User and Group Facts
8.2.5 Manage Local Users and Groups
8.2.6 Authenticate with Online User Accounts
8.2.7 Online Authentication Facts
8.2.8 Manage Users and Groups
q_usrgrpf_delete_3rd_party_group_pp7.question.fex
Question 105:
Correct
You need to create a user account on a Windows system that can create files, run applications, and install printers when the driver for the printer already exists on the computer. You want the user to have only the minimum rights necessary.
Which group should this user be a member of?
Answer
Administrators
Guests
Remote Desktop Users
Correct Answer:
Users
Explanation
Members of the Users group can access the system, but they cannot perform system administration tasks. They also may not be able to run legacy applications. Members
of the Users group can save files to their own directories and run installed applications, but they cannot share directories or install printers if the driver
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is not yet installed. They also cannot view or modify system files.
Making the user a member of the Administrators groups would give them too many rights. Members of the Remote Desktop Users group are only allowed to access the system remotely using the Remote Desktop Client.
References
8.2.1 Users and Groups
8.2.2 User and Group Facts
8.2.5 Manage Local Users and Groups
8.2.6 Authenticate with Online User Accounts
8.2.7 Online Authentication Facts
8.2.8 Manage Users and Groups
q_usrgrpf_min_rights_group_pp7.question.fex
Question 106:
Correct
Which of the following Windows 11 options lets you associate your local user account with an online Microsoft account?
Answer
Users and Groups
Correct Answer:
Sign in with a Microsoft account instead
Family & other users
Manage my accounts
Explanation
The Sign in with a Microsoft account instead option lets you associate your local user account with your online Microsoft account.
The Manage my accounts option lets you manage your user accounts, but does not provide an option to associate your local user account with your online Microsoft account.
You can use the Family & other users option to allocate a specific number of hours for screen time, enforce content filters, and receive activity reporting for specific family members.
Users and Groups is a snap-in that is used in the Computer Management tool to manage user accounts.
References
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8.2.1 Users and Groups
8.2.2 User and Group Facts
8.2.5 Manage Local Users and Groups
8.2.6 Authenticate with Online User Accounts
8.2.7 Online Authentication Facts
8.2.8 Manage Users and Groups
q_alt_auth_man_assoc_local_online_acct_opt_pp7.question.fex
Question 107:
Correct
Which of the following are advantages of using an online Microsoft account? (Select
two.)
Answer
You can manage user accounts from Computer Management.
Files associated with the user profile are synchronized to other computers.
Correct Answer:
You have automatic access to the Microsoft Store.
Correct Answer:
Your account profile information is synchronized to other computers.
You can force a user to change their password.
Explanation
The following are advantages of using an online Microsoft account:
Your account profile information is synchronized to other computers.
You have automatic access to the Microsoft Store.
Files associated with the user profile are not synchronized when you log in to other computers.
The rest of the listed answers are all features that apply to local user accounts.
References
8.2.1 Users and Groups
8.2.2 User and Group Facts
8.2.5 Manage Local Users and Groups
8.2.6 Authenticate with Online User Accounts
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8.2.7 Online Authentication Facts
8.2.8 Manage Users and Groups
q_alt_auth_man_online_account_advantages_pp7.question.fex
Question 108:
Correct
A user calls to report a problem. She is trying to install an application on her new Windows 11 system, but the installation will not proceed. Her user account is a
member of the Users group.
What is MOST likely causing the installation issue?
Answer
Correct Answer:
Her group membership does not allow her to install new software.
She is not using an app from the Microsoft Store.
The application is incompatible with Windows 11.
She is not a member of the Power Users group.
Explanation
Members of the Users group are not allowed to make system-wide changes, such as installing new applications. Only users who are members of the Administrators group
can install new applications.
On modern versions of Windows, users who are members of Power Users are not allowed
to install applications. In fact, the Power Users group is only included for backwards compatibility with older versions of Windows.
Windows 11 can run traditional desktop applications as well as apps from the Microsoft Store.
References
8.2.1 Users and Groups
8.2.2 User and Group Facts
8.2.5 Manage Local Users and Groups
8.2.8 Manage Users and Groups
q_usrgrpf_grp_member_no_app_install_pp7.question.fex
Question 109:
Correct
You want to create a new user account on a Windows system that can create and edit private files, start and stop the system, install applications, and add new device drivers.
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Which group should this user be a member of?
Answer
Users
Power Users
Guests
Correct Answer:
Administrators
Explanation
The user should be a member of the Administrators group. No other group can add new
device drivers or install new applications.
References
8.2.1 Users and Groups
8.2.2 User and Group Facts
8.2.5 Manage Local Users and Groups
8.2.8 Manage Users and Groups
q_usrgrpf_group_admin_pp7.question.fex
Question 110:
Correct
You have been assigned to the Performance Log Users group for several Windows 10 workstations.
Which of the following are you allowed to do on those workstations? (Select two.)
Answer
Correct Answer:
Schedule logging of performance counters.
Manage the system's network configuration.
Correct Answer:
Enable trace providers.
Access the workstations remotely using Remote Desktop Client.
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Perform cryptographic operations.
Explanation
As a member of the Performance Log Users group, you are allowed to
Schedule logging of performance counters
Enable trace providers
Collect event traces on the system
Accessing a workstation remotely is assigned to the Remote Desktop Users group.
Managing the system's network configuration is assigned to the Network Configuration Operators group.
Performing cryptographic operations is assigned to the Cryptographic Operators group.
References
8.2.2 User and Group Facts
q_usrgrpf_secure_local_accts_steps_pp7.question.fex
Question 111:
Correct
Which of the following is true of groups on a Windows system?
Answer
Users and local resources, such as printers and shared folders, can be made members
of a group.
A group allows multiple users to share a single logon.
Users can log on as the group and have all the assigned access rights.
Correct Answer:
Group members have the access rights that are assigned to the group.
Explanation
A Windows group is used to identify groups of user accounts that have similar access needs. Group members have the permissions and rights assigned to the group. Using groups simplifies administration. Instead of assigning permissions to each individual user account, you can assign permissions to the group and then make user
accounts members of that group.
Group accounts cannot be used for logon on a Windows system.
Local hardware resources cannot be made members of a group on Windows.
References
8.2.2 User and Group Facts
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q_usrgrpf_win_groups_access_rights_pp7.question.fex
Question 112:
Incorrect
Which of the following stores user accounts, groups, and their assigned rights and permissions?
Answer
Incorrect answer:
Local Users and Groups
Active Directory
Correct Answer:
Domain controller
Microsoft account
Explanation
A domain controller is a special server that stores user accounts, groups, and their rights and permissions.
Domain accounts are stored in a central database called Active Directory.
A Microsoft account enables feature such as syncing your settings across multiple computers. It is not designed to store the rights and permissions associated with a
user account.
Local Users and Groups is a feature in Windows that lets you create and manage users and groups locally on your computer.
References
8.2.2 User and Group Facts
q_usrgrpf_domain_controller_pp7.question.fex
Question 113:
Incorrect
You are attempting to sign in to a computer that requires a picture password. How would you sign in?
Answer
Swipe to the appropriate picture.
Incorrect answer:
Tap the appropriate picture.
Select the appropriate picture and enter an associated PIN.
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Correct Answer:
Swipe and tap with a three-step gesture.
Explanation
The picture password option allows you to swipe and tap a photograph to unlock your
device. You can choose a picture and then select a three-step gesture that you use to sign in.
References
8.2.3 Login Options
8.2.4 Login Option Facts
q_login_options_picture_password_technique_pp7.question.fex
Question 114:
Correct
Which of the following must be set up before you can register a facial or fingerprint scan for your account?
Answer
Password
Security key
Correct Answer:
PIN
Picture password
Explanation
Windows Hello requires you to set up a PIN before you can register a facial or fingerprint scan for your account.
References
8.2.3 Login Options
8.2.4 Login Option Facts
q_login_options_pin_setup_pp7.question.fex
Question 115:
Incorrect
Which Windows service stores registered biometric scans for authentication and determines whether they match the stored scan?
Answer
Correct Answer:
Windows Hello
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Security key
Incorrect answer:
SSO
PIN
Explanation
Windows Hello is a biometric login system that is built into Windows 11. Windows Hello stores registered biometric scans, accepts scans for authentication, and determines whether they match the stored scan.
A PIN is one authentication type used by Windows Hello.
SSO (single sign-on) and security keys are not functions of Windows Hello.
References
8.2.3 Login Options
8.2.4 Login Option Facts
q_login_options_windows_hello_def_pp7.question.fex
Question 116:
Incorrect
Which Active Directory service simplifies how users log in to all the systems and applications that they need?
Answer
PIN
Workgroup
Incorrect answer:
Domain
Correct Answer:
SSO
Explanation
Active Directory uses the single sign-on (SSO) process to simplify how users sign in to all the systems and applications that they need. When a user logs in, their credentials are authenticated with the authentication server. When the user visits a trusted resource, the authentication server vouches for the user, and the resource allows them access.
Windows Hello uses a PIN as a backup for biometric authentication.
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A domain is an administratively defined collection of network resources that share a common directory database and security policies.
A workgroup is Microsoft's implementation of peer-to-peer networking.
References
8.2.3 Login Options
8.2.4 Login Option Facts
q_login_options_sso_ad_feature_pp7.question.fex
Question 117:
Correct
Which Windows sign-in feature automatically locks your device while you are away?
Answer
Windows Hello
Correct Answer:
Dynamic Lock
Security key
User policy
Explanation
Dynamic Lock automatically locks your device while you are away.
A security key allows you to sign in using a physical key (usually a USB key).
A user policy is a set of configuration settings that are applied to users.
Windows Hello stores registered biometric scans, accepts scans for authentication, and determines whether they match the stored scan.
References
8.2.4 Login Option Facts
q_login_options_dynamic_lock_feature_pp7.question.fex
Question 118:
Correct
Which file attribute identifies the file as having been modified since the last backup?
Answer
Hidden
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Correct Answer:
Archive
Encrypted
Read-only
Explanation
The Archive (A) attribute identifies whether a file has been modified since the last backup.
The Read-only (R) attribute marks a file as read-only, meaning that the file cannot
be altered by subsequent users.
The Encrypted attribute encrypts a file.
The Hidden (H) attribute hides a file within the file system so that it cannot be viewed or accessed by users who do not have access to its specific filename.
References
9.1.1 Windows File and Folder Properties
9.1.3 File Management Facts
9.2.1 NTFS and Share Permissions
9.2.2 NTFS and Share Permissions Facts
9.2.3 Configure Basic Folder Sharing on Windows
9.2.4 Configure Advanced Folder Sharing on Windows
9.2.5 Configure Share and NTFS Permissions
9.2.6 Configure NTFS Permissions
9.2.8 Configure NTFS Permissions
9.3.3 Encrypt Files
q_os_files_modified_attrib_pp7.question.fex
Question 119:
Incorrect
A user needs to copy a file from an NTFS partition to a FAT32 partition. The file has NTFS permissions and the Read-only (R) and Encryption attributes.
Which of the following will be true when the file is copied?
Answer
Only the R and Encryption attributes are retained on the file.
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All the attributes and NTFS permissions are retained on the file.
Only the NTFS permissions are retained on the file.
Correct Answer:
Only the R attribute is retained on the file.
Incorrect answer:
None of the NTFS permissions or attributes are retained on the file.
Explanation
Only the Read-only (R) attribute is retained (not the Encryption, nor NTFS permissions).
The FAT32 file system only supports the following attributes: R, H, S, and A. When you copy files from an NTFS partition to a FAT32 partition, attributes unavailable under FAT32 do not remain with the file. Moving NTFS files to a non-NTFS partition removes the permissions.
References
9.1.1 Windows File and Folder Properties
9.1.3 File Management Facts
9.2.1 NTFS and Share Permissions
9.2.2 NTFS and Share Permissions Facts
9.2.3 Configure Basic Folder Sharing on Windows
9.2.4 Configure Advanced Folder Sharing on Windows
9.2.5 Configure Share and NTFS Permissions
9.2.6 Configure NTFS Permissions
9.2.8 Configure NTFS Permissions
9.3.3 Encrypt Files
q_os_files_r_attrib_retained_pp7.question.fex
Question 120:
Correct
You have a file which you would like other users to see, but not modify. Which file
attribute should you use?
Answer
H
Correct Answer:
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R
S
A
Explanation
The Read-only (R) attribute marks a file as read-only, meaning that the file cannot
be altered by subsequent users.
The Archive (A) attribute identifies whether a file has been modified since the last backup.
The System (S) attribute identifies a file as a system file that cannot be deleted.
The Hidden (H) attribute hides a file within the file system so that it cannot be viewed or accessed by users that do not have access to its specific filename.
References
9.1.1 Windows File and Folder Properties
9.1.3 File Management Facts
9.2.1 NTFS and Share Permissions
9.2.2 NTFS and Share Permissions Facts
9.2.3 Configure Basic Folder Sharing on Windows
9.2.4 Configure Advanced Folder Sharing on Windows
9.2.5 Configure Share and NTFS Permissions
9.2.6 Configure NTFS Permissions
9.2.8 Configure NTFS Permissions
9.3.3 Encrypt Files
q_os_files_see_not_mod_attrib_pp7.question.fex
Question 121:
Correct
You manage two folders in your computer as follows:
C:\Confidential
D:\PublicReports
Both the C:\ and D:\ drives are formatted with the NTFS file system. In the C:\
Confidential folder, you edit the properties for the following two files and assign
the Deny Read permission to the Users group:
Reports.doc
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Costs.doc
The D:\ drive grants the Full Control permission to the Users group. There are no other permissions assigned except for the default permissions. You then take the following actions. You:
Move Reports.doc from C:\Confidential to D:\PublicReports.
Copy Costs.doc from C:\Confidential to D:\PublicReports.
Which of the following BEST describes the permission the members of the Users group
will have for the two files in the D:\PublicReports folder?
Answer
Deny Read for both.
Deny Read for Reports.doc and Allow Full Control for Costs.doc.
Allow Full Control for Reports.doc and Deny Read for Costs.doc.
Correct Answer:
Allow Full Control for both.
Explanation
Users will have Allow Full Control for both files. Moving or copying files to a different NTFS partition removes any existing NTFS permissions so that only inherited permissions apply.
References
9.1.1 Windows File and Folder Properties
9.1.3 File Management Facts
9.2.1 NTFS and Share Permissions
9.2.2 NTFS and Share Permissions Facts
9.2.3 Configure Basic Folder Sharing on Windows
9.2.4 Configure Advanced Folder Sharing on Windows
9.2.5 Configure Share and NTFS Permissions
9.2.6 Configure NTFS Permissions
9.2.8 Configure NTFS Permissions
9.3.3 Encrypt Files
q_ntfs_allow_full_control_both_pp7.question.fex
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Question 122:
Correct
Your computer has a single NTFS partition that is used for the C: drive with the folders below.
C:\Confidential
C:\PublicReports
You configure NTFS permissions on the C:\Confidential folder and deny the Read permission to the Users group. For the C:\PublicReports folder, you allow the Full Control permission for the Users group. You have not configured any permissions other than the defaults on any other folders or files. You take the following actions. You:
Move Reports.doc from C:\Confidential to C:\PublicReports.
Copy Costs.doc from C:\Confidential to C:\PublicReports.
Which of the following BEST describes the permission the members of the Users group
will have for the two files in the C:\PublicReports folder?
Answer
Allow Full Control for Reports.doc and Deny Read for Costs.doc.
Correct Answer:
Allow Full Control for both.
Deny Read for both.
Deny Read for Reports.doc and Allow Full Control for Costs.doc.
Explanation
Users will have Allow Full Control for both files in the C:\PublicReports folder.
When you move or copy files to an NTFS partition, the files inherit the permissions
configured for the parent folders. If you had configured explicit permissions for the files, the moved file would retain the explicit permissions.
Copying files to new folders or partitions removes any existing permissions so that
only inherited permissions apply.
References
9.1.1 Windows File and Folder Properties
9.1.3 File Management Facts
9.2.1 NTFS and Share Permissions
9.2.2 NTFS and Share Permissions Facts
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9.2.3 Configure Basic Folder Sharing on Windows
9.2.4 Configure Advanced Folder Sharing on Windows
9.2.5 Configure Share and NTFS Permissions
9.2.6 Configure NTFS Permissions
9.2.8 Configure NTFS Permissions
9.3.3 Encrypt Files
q_ntfs_allow_full_control_sol_pp7.question.fex
Question 123:
Correct
The D:\ drive in your computer has been formatted with NTFS. The Sales group on your computer has been granted Allow Full Control for the D:\Sales folder. The Rachel user account is a member of the Sales group.
Which of the following will BEST prevent Rachel from accessing the D:\Sales\
2010sales.doc file without affecting her ability to access any other files in that folder and without affecting the abilities of any other users?
Answer
Edit the folder properties and assign the Sales group the Deny Full Control permission.
Correct Answer:
Edit the file properties and assign Rachel the Deny Full Control permission.
Remove Rachel from the Sales group.
Edit the file properties and assign the Sales group the Deny Full Control permission.
Edit the folder properties and assign Rachel the Deny Full Control permission.
Explanation
To prevent Rachel from accessing the singular file, you should assign the user account the Deny Full Control permission for the file. Deny permissions override Allow permissions.
Removing Rachel from the group or denying permissions to the folder would prevent her from accessing all files in the folder. Denying permissions for the group would
affect all group members, not just the one user.
References
9.1.1 Windows File and Folder Properties
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9.1.3 File Management Facts
9.2.1 NTFS and Share Permissions
9.2.2 NTFS and Share Permissions Facts
9.2.3 Configure Basic Folder Sharing on Windows
9.2.4 Configure Advanced Folder Sharing on Windows
9.2.5 Configure Share and NTFS Permissions
9.2.6 Configure NTFS Permissions
9.2.8 Configure NTFS Permissions
9.3.3 Encrypt Files
q_ntfs_assign_deny_full_control_permission_pp7.question.fex
Question 124:
Incorrect
The D:\ drive in your computer has been formatted with NTFS. The Rachel user account has been assigned the following permissions:
Allow Full Control for the D:\Reports folder.
Deny Full Control for the D:\Sales folder.
Deny Full Control for the D:\Reports\2010reports.doc file.
Allow Full Control for the D:\Sales\2010sales.doc file.
Which of the following BEST describes the effective permissions Rachel will have for both files?
Answer
Correct Answer:
Deny Full Control for D:\Reports\2010reports.doc and Allow Full Control for D:\
Sales\2010sales.doc.
Allow Full Control for both.
Incorrect answer:
Allow Full Control for D:\Reports\2010reports.doc and Deny Full Control for D:\
Sales\2010sales.doc.
Deny Full Control for both.
Explanation
Rachel will have Deny Full Control for D:\Reports\2010reports.doc and Allow Full Control for D:\Sales\2010sales.doc because the permissions are explicitly assigned to the file. With NTFS permissions, explicitly assigned permissions take precedence
over inherited permissions, even inherited Deny permissions.
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References
9.1.1 Windows File and Folder Properties
9.1.3 File Management Facts
9.2.1 NTFS and Share Permissions
9.2.2 NTFS and Share Permissions Facts
9.2.3 Configure Basic Folder Sharing on Windows
9.2.4 Configure Advanced Folder Sharing on Windows
9.2.5 Configure Share and NTFS Permissions
9.2.6 Configure NTFS Permissions
9.2.8 Configure NTFS Permissions
9.3.3 Encrypt Files
q_ntfs_deny_allow_full_control_sol_pp7.question.fex
Question 125:
Incorrect
Your computer has a single NTFS partition that is used for the C: drive with the folders below.
C:\Confidential
C:\PublicReports
In the C:\Confidential folder, you edit the properties for the two files below and assign the Deny Read permission to the Users group.
Reports.doc
Costs.doc
The C:\PublicReports folder allows the Full Control permission for the Users group.
There are no other permissions assigned except the default permissions. You then take the following actions. You:
Move Reports.doc from C:\Confidential to C:\PublicReports.
Copy Costs.doc from C:\Confidential to C:\PublicReports.
Which of the following BEST describes the permission the members of the Users group
will have for the two files in the C:\PublicReports folder?
Answer
Allow Full Control for Reports.doc and Deny Read for Costs.doc.
Deny Read for both.
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Correct Answer:
Deny Read for Reports.doc and Allow Full Control for Costs.doc.
Incorrect answer:
Allow Full Control for both.
Explanation
Users will have Deny Read for the Reports.doc file. Moving the file to the new folder on the same drive preserves the NTFS permissions assigned to the file.
Users will have Allow Full Control for the Costs.doc file. Copying the file to the new folder removes any existing NTFS permissions so that only inherited permissions
apply.
References
9.1.1 Windows File and Folder Properties
9.1.3 File Management Facts
9.2.1 NTFS and Share Permissions
9.2.2 NTFS and Share Permissions Facts
9.2.3 Configure Basic Folder Sharing on Windows
9.2.4 Configure Advanced Folder Sharing on Windows
9.2.5 Configure Share and NTFS Permissions
9.2.6 Configure NTFS Permissions
9.2.8 Configure NTFS Permissions
9.3.3 Encrypt Files
q_ntfs_deny_read_to_reports_sol_pp7.question.fex
Question 126:
Correct
Susan has left the company and has been replaced by Manuel. You create a user account for Manuel on Susan's computer. Manuel calls you and says that he can't open a specific file on the computer.
Which of the following will MOST likely correct the problem?
Answer
Correct Answer:
Make Manuel the file owner.
Make Manuel's user account a member of the Power Users group.
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Edit the Local Security Policy and modify user rights.
Delete Susan's user account from the system.
Explanation
You should make Manuel the file owner. The file owner has all the permissions for the file.
Deleting Susan's user account will change the file owner, but will not make Manuel the owner.
Making Manuel a member of the Power Users group would not increase file permissions, although making Manuel a member of the Administrators group could be an alternative solution.
User rights in the Local Security Policy control the ability to perform actions on the system, such as shutting the system down. However, file access is controlled through permissions.
References
9.1.1 Windows File and Folder Properties
9.1.3 File Management Facts
9.2.1 NTFS and Share Permissions
9.2.2 NTFS and Share Permissions Facts
9.2.3 Configure Basic Folder Sharing on Windows
9.2.4 Configure Advanced Folder Sharing on Windows
9.2.5 Configure Share and NTFS Permissions
9.2.6 Configure NTFS Permissions
9.2.8 Configure NTFS Permissions
9.3.3 Encrypt Files
q_ntfs_make_owner_of_file_pp7.question.fex
Question 127:
Correct
Mary and Pablo share a customer support workstation. Mary works in the morning, and
Pablo works in the evening.
One day, Mary is helping a customer with a support issue. Because her shift is over, she creates a Word document with details about the customer she was helping. She saves it to the C:\Customer folder on the computer.
When Pablo comes in, he receives a call from the same customer, who is still having
support issues. However, when Pablo attempts to open Mary's file, he is denied access.
Which of the following is the BEST solution to allow Pablo to open the file?
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Answer
Call Mary back and have her print the document.
Have Pablo log in using Mary's user account.
Correct Answer:
Modify the document permissions.
Edit the Local Security Policy and modify user rights.
Explanation
You should modify the document permissions. When Mary saved the document, she became the document owner and, as such, has all the document permissions. Pablo does not have the correct permissions for the document, as this access is controlled through permissions.
Having Pablo log in using Mary's account is a serious security breach and should not be used as a solution.
User rights in the Local Security Policy control the ability to perform actions on the system, such as shutting the system down.
Printing the document would not allow Pablo to make the necessary changes to the document.
References
9.1.1 Windows File and Folder Properties
9.1.3 File Management Facts
9.2.1 NTFS and Share Permissions
9.2.2 NTFS and Share Permissions Facts
9.2.3 Configure Basic Folder Sharing on Windows
9.2.4 Configure Advanced Folder Sharing on Windows
9.2.5 Configure Share and NTFS Permissions
9.2.6 Configure NTFS Permissions
9.2.8 Configure NTFS Permissions
9.3.3 Encrypt Files
q_ntfs_modify_doc_permission_pp7.question.fex
Question 128:
Incorrect
Bob is a member of the Accounting group. The Accounting group has been granted the Read and Write NTFS permissions for the WeeklyReport.xls file.
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Bob is also a member of the Everyone group, which has been given the Full Control permission for the WeeklyReport.xls file.
Which of the following statements MOST correctly describes Bob's ability to access the WeeklyReport.xls file?
Answer
Bob cannot search for or open the file.
Correct Answer:
Bob can open, read, and write changes to the file.
Bob can find the file in a search, but he cannot open the file.
Incorrect answer:
Bob has Full Access to the file and can open, read, write, delete, and change permissions on the file.
Bob can open and read the file, but he cannot write changes to the file.
Explanation
When you evaluate the interaction between Full Control and NTFS permissions, remember that the most restrictive set of permissions takes precedence. In this case, the NTFS permissions (Read and Write) are more restrictive than the Full Control permission granted to the Everyone group through the share, so the effective permissions are Read and Write.
References
9.1.1 Windows File and Folder Properties
9.1.3 File Management Facts
9.2.1 NTFS and Share Permissions
9.2.2 NTFS and Share Permissions Facts
9.2.3 Configure Basic Folder Sharing on Windows
9.2.4 Configure Advanced Folder Sharing on Windows
9.2.5 Configure Share and NTFS Permissions
9.2.6 Configure NTFS Permissions
9.2.8 Configure NTFS Permissions
9.3.3 Encrypt Files
q_shared_ntfs_permission_grps_pp7.question.fex
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Question 129:
Correct
You have a folder on your Windows computer that you would like to share with members of your development team. Users should be able to view and edit any file in
the shared folder. You share the folder and give everyone the Full Control permission for the shared folder. Users connect to the shared folder and report that they can open the files, but they cannot modify any of the files.
Which of the following would be the BEST action to take next?
Answer
Correct Answer:
Modify the NTFS permissions on the folder.
Create new user accounts for each user and assign the necessary folder permissions.
Install Samba on your workstation and then configure permissions using Samba.
Create a group and make all user accounts members of the group. Grant the Full Control share permissions to the group.
Explanation
Access to shared folders on a Windows system are controlled through the combination
of share and NTFS permissions. Even though the necessary share permissions have been granted, you need to verify that the NTFS permissions also allow access.
Modifying users and groups will not affect the ability to access the files unless the NTFS permissions are also modified.
You use Samba to share folders on a Linux system.
References
9.1.1 Windows File and Folder Properties
9.1.3 File Management Facts
9.2.1 NTFS and Share Permissions
9.2.2 NTFS and Share Permissions Facts
9.2.3 Configure Basic Folder Sharing on Windows
9.2.4 Configure Advanced Folder Sharing on Windows
9.2.5 Configure Share and NTFS Permissions
9.2.6 Configure NTFS Permissions
9.2.8 Configure NTFS Permissions
9.3.3 Encrypt Files
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q_shared_ntsf_modify_folder_permission_pp7.question.fex
Question 130:
Correct
Using the Windows OS, Joe transfers a file in his Documents folder to a folder that
has been configured to give Ann full control of all files. Instead of copying the files, Joe uses a move operation. Ann can read the file, but can't save any changes
to it.
Which of the following is MOST likely the reason that Ann cannot update the file?
Answer
The Modify and Write permissions for Joe were set to Deny on the destination folder.
Joe is not a member of the Administrators group.
Correct Answer:
The Modify and Write permissions for Ann were set to Deny when the file was in Joe's Documents folder.
Ann is not a member of the Administrators group.
Explanation
When a file is copied in Windows, it's given the permissions in the destination folder, regardless of the original file permissions. When a file is moved, Windows attempts to keep the same permissions that the file had in the original folder. Most likely, the Modify and Write permissions for Ann were set to Deny when the file was in Joe's Documents folder.
If Ann were a member of the Administrators group, most likely, she would have been able to update the file. The file permissions are independent of whether or not Joe
is a member of the Administrators group. If the Modify and Write permissions for Joe on the destination folder were set to Deny, Joe would not have been able to transfer the file.
References
9.2.1 NTFS and Share Permissions
9.2.2 NTFS and Share Permissions Facts
9.2.3 Configure Basic Folder Sharing on Windows
9.2.4 Configure Advanced Folder Sharing on Windows
9.2.6 Configure NTFS Permissions
q_ntfs_modify_write_per_set_to_deny_pp7.question.fex
Question 131:
Correct
You manage the two folders listed below on your computer.
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C:\Confidential
D:\PublicReports
The C:\ drive is formatted with NTFS, and the D:\ drive is formatted with FAT32. On
the C:\Confidential folder, you edit the properties for the following two files and
assign the Deny Read permission to the Users group:
Reports.doc
Costs.doc
You then take the following actions. You:
Move Reports.doc from C:\Confidential to D:\PublicReports.
Copy Costs.doc from C:\Confidential to D:\PublicReports.
Which of the following BEST describes what happens to the permissions for both files as they are created in the D:\PublicReports folder?
Answer
Permissions are kept for Reports.doc but removed from Costs.doc.
Correct Answer:
Permissions are removed from both files.
Permissions are removed from Reports.doc but kept for Costs.doc.
Permissions are kept on both files.
Explanation
Permissions will be removed from both files. Moving or copying files to a non-NTFS partition removes all permissions (FAT32 does not support NTFS permissions).
Moving files to the same NTFS partition preserves the permissions. Copying files to
another partition (NTFS or otherwise) removes existing permissions. Copied files on
an NTFS partition inherit the permissions assigned to the drive or folder, and copied files on a non-NTFS partition do not inherit permissions because no permissions exist.
References
9.2.1 NTFS and Share Permissions
9.2.2 NTFS and Share Permissions Facts
9.2.3 Configure Basic Folder Sharing on Windows
9.2.4 Configure Advanced Folder Sharing on Windows
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9.2.6 Configure NTFS Permissions
q_ntfs_remove_permissions_from_files_pp7.question.fex
Question 132:
Correct
Ted, an employee in the sales department, has asked a coworker, Ann, to update the product descriptions contained in a sales document. Ann can open the file, but can't save her changes to it.
Which of the following digital security methods is MOST likely preventing her from saving the file?
Answer
Correct Answer:
Directory permissions
Multifactor authentication
Antivirus software
Data loss prevention
Explanation
Directory permissions can be set to allow or deny users or groups of users from reading, writing, updating, deleting, or executing files. In this scenario, Ann has
Read permissions, but not Write permissions.
Multifactor authentication is the process of authenticating a user by validating two or more user-presented claims, each from a different category. For example, they could present a password and the possession of a mobile phone, a password and a fingerprint, etc.
Antivirus software can prevent users from reading or executing files. In this scenario, however, Ann could read the file.
Data loss prevention (DLP) programs or devices monitor operations such as file transfers and email for user activities that could compromise data security.
References
9.2.2 NTFS and Share Permissions Facts
q_ntfs_directory_permission_prevent_access_pp7.question.fex
Question 133:
Correct
Which permission does a user need to set security permissions for a folder that exists on an NTFS partition?
Answer
Execute
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Read
Write
Correct Answer:
Full Control
Explanation
A user must have the Full Control permission to set NTFS security permissions.
Write permissions allow a user to change folder or file data and attributes.
Modify permissions include all Read & Execute and Write actions and the ability to add or delete files.
Read permissions allow a user to view folder details and attributes.
References
9.2.2 NTFS and Share Permissions Facts
q_ntfs_set_security_per_pp7.question.fex
Question 134:
Incorrect
Which of the following statements are true regarding administrative shares? (Select
two.)
Answer
Correct Answer:
To connect to an administrative share, you must use the UNC path.
Incorrect answer:
If you are a member of the Administrators group, the administrative shares are visible to you when you browse the network.
Correct Answer:
By default, Windows automatically creates an administrative share for every volume.
Adding a ! sign to the end of a share name creates an administrative share.
Default administrative shares grant access to the Administrators or Power Users group.
Explanation
By default, Windows automatically creates an administrative share for every volume.
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Because administrative shares are not visible when browsing the network, you must use the UNC path to connect to an administrative share. Only members of the Administrators group can access default administrative shares.
Adding a $ sign (not a !) to the end of a share name creates an administrative share.
References
9.2.2 NTFS and Share Permissions Facts
q_ntfs_admin_share_true_pp7.question.fex
Question 135:
Incorrect
Which tools in Windows 11 would you use to browse all networks and shared folders that a user has access to? (Select three.)
Answer
Correct Answer:
This PC
Correct Answer:
File Explorer
Incorrect answer:
Computer Management
Incorrect answer:
Network Neighborhood
Windows Explorer
Correct Answer:
Network
Explanation
In Windows 11, Network acts as a built-in network browser, showing you all networks
and shared folders that a user has access to. You can view this same information in
This PC and File Explorer.
Network Neighborhood was used in previous Windows versions, but was replaced by My Network Places in Windows 2000, Me, and XP and by Network in Windows Vista, Windows
7, and Windows 8.
Computer Management and Device Manager let you manage hardware and software in the Windows system, but can't be used to browse the network.
Windows Explorer was replaced by File Explorer in Windows 10.
References
9.2.2 NTFS and Share Permissions Facts
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q_ntfs_browse_networks_folders_access_pp7.question.fex
Question 136:
Incorrect
A help desk technician determines that a user's issue is caused by a corrupt file on their computer.
Which of the following would be the FASTEST way to transfer a good file to the computer?
Answer
Correct Answer:
Use the C$ administrative share to copy the file.
Incorrect answer:
Have the user share the folder as a local share and copy the file to the share.
Establish remote assistance and transfer the file within the session.
Attach the file to an email and have the user copy the file to the correct folder.
Explanation
The C$ administrative share (\\computername\C$) is available to technicians with administrator privileges. This share is the fastest way to transfer a file.
It takes extras steps to have users create local shares, and the user may not have permissions for the folder where the file should be copied.
There are several steps to creating an email and attaching a file. In addition, depending on the file type, the file could be blocked by email filtering.
The C$ administrative share is available to the technician. Setting up a remote assist session would add extra steps.
References
9.2.2 NTFS and Share Permissions Facts
q_ntfs_fastest_way_transfer_file_c$_pp7.question.fex
Question 137:
Correct
Ben, an employee in the legal department, has created several sensitive documents on his computer that must be made available to all members of the executive staff who work in the same building.
Due to the sensitive nature of these document, Ben not only wants to restrict access to the files, but also make it impossible for anyone else in the company to even know where they are stored unless specifically given the UNC path to the files.
Which of the following would MOST likely fulfil Ben's file management requirements?
Answer
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VPN connection
Correct Answer:
Administrative share
Remote desktop connection
Network share
Explanation
An Administrative share is a form of network share that cannot be viewed by others when browsing the network. These shares are created by adding a dollar sign ($) to the end of the share when it is created. By using this type of share, Ben could send the UNC path to those requiring access, and then those with rights could see and access the files.
A network share would fulfill all of Ben's requirements except making the share hidden from those that may want to search for the location. Using a network share would make a hacker's job one step easier.
A VPN, or virtual private network, allows you to create a secure tunnel between your company network and a remote location over an existing connection, usually the
internet. A VPN is not required to share folders with fellow employees in the same local network.
A remote desktop connection gives someone the ability to log on to another computer
from their computer. This would not be a suitable solution, as it would be difficult to limit rights.
References
9.2.2 NTFS and Share Permissions Facts
q_ntfs_hidden_share_sol_pp7.question.fex
Question 138:
Incorrect
Jane, an employee in the human resources department, has created several important PDF documents on her computer that all office managers in her building must read. She would like to make locating these files simple and maintain them as little as possible. It is important that no other users are permitted to view these documents.
As the IT technician for your company, Jane has asked you to make this possible.
Which of the following would MOST likely fulfill Jane's request?
Answer
Hidden share
Incorrect answer:
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Administrative share
Remote Desktop connection
VPN connection
Correct Answer:
Network share
Explanation
By creating a network share for Jane's folder that contains her documents, you can grant the managers the ability to see and read these documents. All other employees
will not have access if the rights are granted appropriately. If a manager forgets the path, they will still be able to easily find the folder by looking for shared folders on her computer.
Administrative shares are created by the operating system, so you cannot set specific share permissions and file security.
A hidden share is a form of network share that cannot be viewed by others when they
are searching for the shared location. These shares are created by adding a dollar sign ($) to the end of the share when it is created. Although this could work for Jane's files, it would require that Jane give the path to each manager. Since Jane wanted to make this process as simple as possible, using a network share would be easier.
A VPN, or virtual private network, allows you to create a secure tunnel between your company network and a remote location over an existing connection, usually the
internet. This is not required to share folders with fellow employees on the same local network.
A remote desktop connection gives someone the ability to log on to another computer
from their computer. This would not be a suitable solution, as it would be difficult to limit rights.
References
9.2.2 NTFS and Share Permissions Facts
q_ntfs_network_share_sol_pp7.question.fex
Question 139:
Correct
You have a folder that you would like members of your development team to access. You want to restrict network and local access to only specific users. All other users must not be able to view or modify the files in the folder.
Which of the following would be the BEST actions for you to take next? (Select two.)
Answer
Correct Answer:
Place the files on an NTFS partition.
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Configure share permissions.
Correct Answer:
Configure both share and NTFS permissions.
Place the files on a FAT32 partition.
Configure NTFS permissions.
Explanation
To control both local and network access, you will need to use both NTFS and share permissions.
The folder must be located on an NTFS partition to be able to configure NTFS permissions. Configuring only NTFS permissions will not allow network access. Configuring only shared permissions with the files on a FAT32 partition will not control local access.
References
9.2.2 NTFS and Share Permissions Facts
q_shared_ntfs_partition_sol_pp7.question.fex
Question 140:
Correct
You want to use the Universal Naming Convention (UNC) format to access a shared folder called Pictures on a computer named Home1.
Which of the following is an example of the UNC format?
Answer
Home1:Pictures
Home1:\\Pictures
Correct Answer:
\\Home1\Pictures
.Home1:Pictures
Explanation
The UNC format is \\Servername\Sharename. Use \\Home1\Pictures to access the shared
folder.
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References
9.2.2 NTFS and Share Permissions Facts
q_shared_unc_format_example_pp7.question.fex
Question 141:
Correct
You want to configure User Account Control so that you see the permission prompt only when programs try to make changes to your computer (not when you make changes). You do not want the desktop to be dimmed when the prompt is shown.
What should you do?
Answer
Configure UAC to Always notify.
Configure UAC to Never notify.
Correct Answer:
Disable the Secure Desktop.
Disable UAC.
Explanation
When you select the Notify me only when programs try to make changes to my computer
(do not dim my desktop) option, the following happens:
Notifications occur when programs make changes.
Notifications do not occur when you make changes.
The desktop is not dimmed, which means Secure Desktop is disabled.
References
8.2.9 Manage UAC Settings
8.2.10 UAC Facts
q_uacf_dis_secure_dsktp_pp7.question.fex
Question 142:
Incorrect
You want to configure User Account Control so that when a UAC prompt is shown, the desktop is not dimmed, allowing you to continue working without responding to the prompt immediately.
What should you do?
Answer
In Control Panel, select System and Security > System. Then click System
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protection.
Correct Answer:
Edit settings in the Local Security Policy.
In Control Panel, go to System and Security > System.
Incorrect answer:
In Control Panel, select Programs > Programs and Features.
Explanation
To see a prompt without dimming the desktop, you need to disable Secure Desktop. Secure Desktop dims the desktop and forces you to respond to the UAC prompt before you can do anything else. You can configure the Local Security Policy to disable Secure Desktop. The only UAC setting available under User Accounts is to enable or disable UAC (disabling UAC prevents all prompts). Choose Notify me only when programs try to make changes to my computer (do not dim my desktop) to notify you when programs make changes (but not when you make changes) without dimming the desktop.
References
8.2.9 Manage UAC Settings
8.2.10 UAC Facts
q_uacf_edit_local_sec_pol_settings_pp7.question.fex
Question 143:
Incorrect
You have a laptop running Windows 11. User Account Control (UAC) has been disabled.
How would you re-enable UAC on the laptop? (Select two. Each choice is a complete solution.)
Answer
Incorrect answer:
In Control Panel, select System and Security > System. Then click System protection.
Correct Answer:
In Control Panel, select System and Security > Security and Maintenance.
In Control Panel, select System and Security > System. Then click Advanced system settings.
Correct Answer:
In Control Panel, select User Accounts > User Accounts.
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In Control Panel, select User Accounts > Credential Manager.
Explanation
To configure UAC in Windows 11:
In Control Panel, go to User Accounts.
Select User Accounts and then select Change User Account Control settings.
Or:
In Control Panel, go to System and Security.
Select Security and Maintenance > Security. Then select Change settings under User Account Control.
You can also use the Change User Account Control settings link in System and Security. Edit the Local Security Policy to configure UAC and control settings that
are not available through Control Panel.
References
8.2.9 Manage UAC Settings
8.2.10 UAC Facts
q_uacf_enable_uac_pp7.question.fex
Question 144:
Correct
Which Windows component prompts the user for credentials or permissions to protect against unauthorized activities, such as an unintended software installation?
Answer
Correct Answer:
User Account Control (UAC)
Windows Firewall with Advanced Security
Windows SmartScreen
Windows Defender
Explanation
User Account Control (UAC) prompts a user for credentials or permissions in an effort to minimize the dangers of unauthorized actions or unintended software installations.
Windows SmartScreen is used to warn the user before running unrecognized apps or files from the internet.
Windows Firewall protects the system from network attacks.
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Windows Defender scans software for malicious software, such as viruses or spyware.
References
8.2.10 UAC Facts
q_uacf_cred_perm_prompt_pp7.question.fex
Question 145:
Incorrect
What does Windows 11 do when you log in with an administrator account with elevated
privileges?
Answer
Correct Answer:
Assign you a user and an administrator token.
Notify you that you have administrative privileges.
Assign you a unique administrator token.
Incorrect answer:
Use your credentials to assign you administrative privileges.
Explanation
When a standard user logs on, a standard user token is created. But when an administrator logs on, two access tokens are created. Windows creates a standard user token, and then Windows also creates an administrator token.
Providing login credentials does not immediately give you administrative credentials. Windows 11 creates a user and an administrative token based on the credentials. These tokens allow Windows to grant you elevated privileges.
You receive no notification that you have administrative privileges when you log in
with an administrator account.
References
8.2.10 UAC Facts
q_uacf_admin_token_pp7.question.fex
Question 146:
Correct
You want a security solution that protects your entire hard drive, preventing access even when it is moved to another system.
Which of the following is the BEST method for achieving your goal?
Answer
VPN
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Correct Answer:
BitLocker
EFS
IPsec
Explanation
BitLocker is a Microsoft security solution that encrypts the entire contents of a hard drive, protecting all files on the disk. BitLocker uses a special key, which is required to unlock the hard disk. You cannot unlock/decrypt a drive simply by moving it to another computer.
EFS is a Windows file encryption option, but it only encrypts individual files. Encryption and decryption is automatic and dependent upon the file's creator and whether other uses have Read permissions.
A virtual private network (VPN) uses an encryption protocol (such as IPsec, PPTP, or L2TP) to establish a secure communication channel between two hosts or between one site and another site. Data that passes through the unsecured network is encrypted and protected.
References
8.2.4 Login Option Facts
9.3.2 File Encryption Facts
9.3.5 BitLocker
9.3.6 Use BitLocker
9.3.8 BitLocker Facts
14.1.2 Workstation Security Facts
q_sec_bitlocker_protect_entire_hard_drive_pp7.question.fex
Question 147:
Incorrect
Which of the following Windows programs uses integrity checking early in the boot process to ensure that the drive contents have not been altered?
Answer
Windows Security
Correct Answer:
BitLocker
Microsoft Defender
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Incorrect answer:
EFS
Explanation
BitLocker is a Windows program that uses integrity checking early in the boot process to ensure that the drive contents have not been altered and that the drive is in the original computer.
EFS, or Encryption File System, encrypts individual files or folders and does not use integrity checking in the boot process.
Windows Security is a Windows program that provides antivirus protection.
Microsoft Defender is an antivirus protection program created by Microsoft.
References
8.2.4 Login Option Facts
9.3.2 File Encryption Facts
9.3.5 BitLocker
9.3.6 Use BitLocker
9.3.8 BitLocker Facts
14.1.2 Workstation Security Facts
q_sec_bitlocker_definition_pp7.question.fex
Question 148:
Incorrect
How many NTFS partitions does BitLocker require to operate?
Answer
Three
Incorrect answer:
One
Four
Correct Answer:
Two
Explanation
BitLocker requires two NTFS partitions to operate. It requires the system partition, which is not encrypted and is set to active. It also requires the operating system partition, which needs to be large enough for the operating system
files.
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BitLocker cannot function with only one NTFS permission, but does not need more than two NTFS partitions to operate.
References
8.2.4 Login Option Facts
9.3.2 File Encryption Facts
9.3.5 BitLocker
9.3.6 Use BitLocker
9.3.8 BitLocker Facts
14.1.2 Workstation Security Facts
q_sec_bitlocker_number_of_partitions_pp7.question.fex
Question 149:
Correct
Which of the following is true of the Windows BitLocker program?
Answer
Correct Answer:
BitLocker is designed to protect files against offline access only.
BitLocker is designed for use on the Home version of Windows 10 and later.
BitLocker is designed to protect files against offline and online access.
BitLocker is designed to encrypt individual files.
Explanation
BitLocker is designed to protect files against offline access only.
BitLocker is not designed to protect file against online access. This is the purview of EFS.
BitLocker is not designed to encrypt individual files. BitLocker encrypts the entire hard drive.
BitLocker is not designed for use on the Home edition of Windows 10 or later. BitLocker is only available on the Ultimate and Enterprise editions.
References
8.2.4 Login Option Facts
9.3.2 File Encryption Facts
9.3.5 BitLocker
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9.3.6 Use BitLocker
9.3.8 BitLocker Facts
14.1.2 Workstation Security Facts
q_sec_bitlocker_offline_access_only_pp7.question.fex
Question 150:
Incorrect
When you arrive at your company, you discover that a hard drive with your customers' sensitive information has been stolen.
You feel confident that the thief will not be able to view the data on the hard drive because you had previously taken security precautions to protect the data in case the hard drive was stolen.
Which of the following precautions is the MOST likely solution you used to protect the data on the hard drive?
Answer
Correct Answer:
BitLocker with TPM
Incorrect answer:
BitLocker To Go
Windows Security
Microsoft Defender
Explanation
BitLocker checks the integrity of the early boot components and the boot configuration data by using the Trusted Platform Module (TPM) to ensure that the data is accessible only when the computer's boot components appear unaltered. Also,
the encrypted disk must be in the same computer it was in when it was originally encrypted with BitLocker. This means that if someone were to obtain that hard drive
and put it in a different computer, they wouldn't be able to access the data on that drive. The data stays encrypted.
While BitLocker is designed to protect system hard drives, BitLocker To Go is designed to protect removeable storage devices, such as flash drives.
Microsoft Defender is an antivirus program designed to protect the Windows system from malware. This program would have no effect on preventing access to a stolen hard drive's data.
Windows Security is a program that scans for security threats, malware, and viruses. It would have no effect on preventing access to a stolen hard drive's data.
References
8.2.4 Login Option Facts
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9.3.2 File Encryption Facts
9.3.5 BitLocker
9.3.6 Use BitLocker
9.3.8 BitLocker Facts
14.1.2 Workstation Security Facts
q_sec_bitlocker_with_tpm_sol_pp7.question.fex
Question 151:
Incorrect
You have just installed Windows 11 on your laptop, purchased an infrared camera, and set up Windows Hello facial recognition as your login option. As part of the setup process, you enter a PIN as a backup login method.
After a few weeks of using facial recognition login, your infrared camera fails, and you are asked to enter your PIN. Because it has been several weeks, you have forgotten the exact number. You attempt to enter your PIN at least 24 times, but are never locked out.
What is the MOST likely reason that you have not been locked out after several failed PIN login attempts?
Answer
Incorrect answer:
You have set up BitLocker for lockout, but you have also failed to set up your TPM chip.
Your laptop has a TPM chip, but you have failed to set up BitLocker for lockout.
You have failed to set up both your TPM chip and BitLocker for lockout.
Correct Answer:
Your laptop does not have a TPM chip, and you have not set up BitLocker for lockout.
Explanation
If you are using a computer with a TPM chip, it is automatically configured for a set number of failed PIN attempts (about 10) before lockout (you do not need to set
this up). If your laptop does not have a TPM chip, you can set up BitLocker for lockout after several failed PIN attempts.
In this scenario, the most likely reason that you are not locked out is that your laptop does not have a TPM chip, and you have not set up BitLocker for lockout after several failed attempts.
References
8.2.4 Login Option Facts
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9.3.2 File Encryption Facts
9.3.5 BitLocker
9.3.6 Use BitLocker
9.3.8 BitLocker Facts
14.1.2 Workstation Security Facts
q_login_options_pin_tpm_vs_bitlocker_sol_pp7.question.fex
Question 152:
Correct
Which Windows feature can you use to encrypt a hard drive volume?
Answer
EFS
Correct Answer:
BitLocker
BitLocker to Go
NTFS
Explanation
BitLocker was introduced in Windows Vista and is used to encrypt an entire volume (not just individual files and folders). BitLocker is designed to protect all data on a volume, even if the hard drive is moved to another computer.
BitLocker to Go is used to encrypt USB drives (not a hard drive volume).
Encrypting File System (EFS) is a component of the NTFS file system that allows file encryption. EFS is not a Windows feature that is used to encrypt a hard drive volume.
NTFS is the file system that is used in modern Windows operating systems. It is not
a Windows feature that is used to encrypt a hard drive volume.
References
8.2.4 Login Option Facts
9.3.2 File Encryption Facts
9.3.5 BitLocker
9.3.6 Use BitLocker
9.3.8 BitLocker Facts
14.1.2 Workstation Security Facts
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q_security_best_bitlocker_hard_drive_encrypt_pp7.question.fex
Question 153:
Correct
A user stores sensitive data on a USB flash drive.
Which of the following can they use to encrypt the data on this drive?
Answer
Correct Answer:
Bitlocker To Go
Single sign-on
Administrative share
Run as administrator
Explanation
Bitlocker To Go can encrypt a USB flash drive.
Single sign-on (SSO) permits a user to employ their same credentials to automatically log in to other sites and services. SSO is not used for encryption.
Run as administrator is used to run an application with elevated privileges, not to
encrypt data.
An administrative share is used by administrators to access system drives. It's not
used for encryption.
References
9.3.5 BitLocker
9.3.7 Use Bitlocker To Go
q_sec_bitlocker_to_go_sol_pp7.question.fex
Question 154:
Correct
You need to use a common USB flash drive to transport important sensitive information for your organization.
Which of the following would be the BEST program for protecting the data on the flash drive with encryption?
Answer
EFS
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BitLocker
Microsoft Defender
Correct Answer:
BitLocker To Go
Explanation
BitLocker To Go provides drive encryption for removable data drives, including USB flash drives. You can use BitLocker To Go to encrypt the data on a flash drive. The
only way to decrypt the data on the flash drive is through the recovery password. Using BitLocker To Go and not sharing the recovery password would keep the data on the flash drive secure.
BitLocker is a drive encryption program that is designed to be used with NTFS files
on your hard drive, not on non-NTFS removeable devices. Most USB flash drives use FAT32 or exFAT storage.
Files that are encrypted with EFS, or Encrypting File System, lose their encryption
when they are copied to a USB flash drive, which is commonly formatted with FAT32 or exFAT.
Microsoft Defender is an antivirus program for Windows that does not encrypt files on a flash drive.
References
9.3.5 BitLocker
9.3.7 Use Bitlocker To Go
q_sec_bitlocker_to_go_flash_drive_pp7.question.fex
Question 155:
Correct
Which of the following security solutions would prevent you from reading a file that you did not create?
Answer
IPSec
Correct Answer:
EFS
BitLocker
VPN
Explanation
EFS is a Windows file encryption option that encrypts individual files so that only
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the user who created the file can open it. Decryption is automatic when the file owner opens it. Other users cannot open the encrypted file unless specifically authorized.
A virtual private network (VPN) uses an encryption protocol (such as IPsec, PPTP, or L2TP) to establish a secure communication channel between two hosts (or between one site and another site). Data that passes through the unsecured network is encrypted and protected.
BitLocker is a Microsoft security solution that encrypts the entire contents of a hard drive, protecting all files on the disk. BitLocker uses a special key, which is required to unlock the hard disk. You cannot unlock/decrypt a drive simply by moving it to another computer.
References
9.3.2 File Encryption Facts
9.3.3 Encrypt Files
9.3.4 Configure File Encryption
9.3.8 BitLocker Facts
q_sec_data_efs_sol_pp7.question.fex
Question 156:
Correct
You have used EFS to encrypt a directory of highly sensitive company files on your hard drive. You then decide to copy one of the files in the directory to a thumb drive to edit the files on a laptop computer while you are travelling to an industry conference.
What is the result of copying the file to the thumb drive?
Answer
Correct Answer:
The file will no longer be encrypted.
The file becomes inaccessible.
The file remains secure and accessible.
The file is compressed and remains secure.
Explanation
EFS encryption is only a feature of the NTFS file system, and thumb drives are normally formatted with FAT32. Because EFS does not work on FAT32 or eFAT, copying an encrypted file from your NTFS volume to a thumb drive means that the file will no longer be encrypted.
Because the file is copied to a FAT32 file system on the thumb drive, the file will
no longer be secure and will be completely accessible to anyone.
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Encryption cannot be used with compression, which means that the EFS-encrypted file
will not be compressed.
References
9.3.2 File Encryption Facts
9.3.3 Encrypt Files
9.3.4 Configure File Encryption
9.3.8 BitLocker Facts
q_sec_data_copy_from_efs_to_fat32_pp7.question.fex
Question 157:
Correct
After creating an FEK (file encryption key) for a file, what does EFS do next to add a greater level of security for the file?
Answer
Correct Answer:
EFS encrypts the FEK by creating a key pair (private and public).
EFS instructs Windows to create a key pair (private and public).
EFS stores the FEK with the public key.
EFS creates a symmetric key.
Explanation
After creating an FEK for the file, EFS then encrypts the FEK through asymmetric encryption by creating a private key and a public key.
While EFS does store the FEK with the public key, this happens after EFS creates a key pair (private and public).
The symmetric key is the FEK, which has already been created in this situation.
EFS does not instruct Windows to create a key pair. After the EFS process is complete (all keys are created), the user is assigned EFS access to the file. If he
or she does not have a key pair, Windows automatically creates a public key (called
the EFS certificate) and its associated private key for the user.
References
9.3.2 File Encryption Facts
9.3.3 Encrypt Files
9.3.4 Configure File Encryption
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9.3.8 BitLocker Facts
q_sec_data_efs_creates_key_pair_pp7.question.fex
Question 158:
Correct
A user has a file that contains sensitive data.
Which of the following security technologies should he or she use to encrypt the single file?
Answer
Single sign-on
Correct Answer:
EFS
BitLocker
Administrative share
Explanation
Encrypting File Server (EFS) is a Windows feature that can encrypt a single file or
multiple files and folders.
BitLocker is a Windows feature that encrypts an entire disk.
Single sign-on (SSO) permits a user to employ the same credentials to automatically
log in to other sites and services. SSO is not used for encryption.
An administrative share is used by administrators to access system drives. It is not used for encryption.
References
9.3.2 File Encryption Facts
9.3.3 Encrypt Files
9.3.4 Configure File Encryption
9.3.8 BitLocker Facts
q_sec_bitlocker_encrypt_single_file_efs_pp7.question.fex
Question 159:
Incorrect
After an employee left the company, you discovered that they utilized whole disk encryption to encrypt their laptop hard drive.
What do you need to do to access the hard drive contents?
Answer
Correct Answer:
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Obtain a backup recovery key.
Incorrect answer:
Move the encrypted drive to another computer.
Send the hard drive to the OEM to unlock the contents.
Use the BIOS/UEFI settings to unlock the hard drive contents.
Explanation
Most whole disk encryption solutions provide a backup recovery key that can unlock the drive if the original key is lost.
You cannot access the contents of an encrypted drive by moving it to another computer because the encryption keys needed to decrypt the data do not exist on the
other computer system.
There are no settings in BIOS/UEFI to unlock a whole disk encrypted hard drive.
The OEM (original equipment manufacturer) would not have the recovery key needed to
unlock the hard drive contents.
References
9.3.2 File Encryption Facts
9.3.3 Encrypt Files
9.3.4 Configure File Encryption
9.3.8 BitLocker Facts
q_sec_data_backup_recovery_key.question.fex
Question 160:
Correct
Which of the following protocols establish a secure connection and encrypt data for
a VPN? (Select three.)
Answer
WEP
Correct Answer:
L2TP
WPA
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FTP
RDP
Correct Answer:
PPTP
Correct Answer:
IPsec
Explanation
A virtual private network (VPN) uses an encryption protocol (such as IPsec, PPTP, or L2TP) to establish a secure communication channel between two hosts (or between one site and another site). Data that passes through the unsecured network is encrypted and protected.
Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is used by Windows Terminal Services-based applications, including Remote Desktop.
FTP is used for transferring files. It does not establish a secure connection.
WPA and WEP are protocols used to secure wireless communications.
References
9.3.2 File Encryption Facts
9.3.3 Encrypt Files
9.3.4 Configure File Encryption
9.3.8 BitLocker Facts
q_sec_data_secure_connect_encrypt_data_pp7.question.fex
Question 161:
Incorrect
Which database encryption method can you use to encrypt data at rest?
Answer
Incorrect answer:
Column-level encryption
Application-level encryption
Trusted Platform Module
Correct Answer:
Transparent data encryption
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Explanation
Transparent data encryption (TDE) encrypts the entire database and all backups. TDE
encrypts data at rest, which is data that is not currently being used.
Column-level encryption allows the administrator to encrypt each column separately.
This method does not encrypt data at rest.
With application-level encryption, the program that was used to create or modify the data is responsible for encrypting the data as well. This method does not encrypt data at rest.
A Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chip is built onto a motherboard and generates and stores encryption keys to protect boot files. The TPM chip does not encrypt data at
rest.
References
9.3.1 File Encryption
14.1.2 Workstation Security Facts
q_security_best_trans_data_encrypt_pp7.question.fex
Question 162:
Correct
Which of the following are examples of a strong password? (Select two.)
Answer
Morganstern
Correct Answer:
I love the Linux P3ngu!n Tux
NewYorkCity
skippy
Correct Answer:
il0ve2EatIceCr3am!
Explanation
A strong password is one that:
Is at least eight characters long (longer is better).
Is not based on a word found in a dictionary.
Contains both uppercase and lowercase characters.
Contains numbers.
Contains special characters.
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Does not contain words that could be associated with you personally.
Could be considered a passphrase.
The passwords il0ve2EatIceCr3am! and I love the Linux P3ngu!n Tux both meet the above criteria.
The password NewYorkCity is long enough and includes upper and lowercase letters, but it does not contain numbers or special characters and could be easily dissected
into a dictionary word.
The password skippy is probably a pet name.
The password Morganstern is probably someone's last name (perhaps a spouse's name or a maiden name).
References
14.1.1 Best Practices for Securing Workstations
14.1.2 Workstation Security Facts
q_security_best_strong_password_ex_pp7.question.fex
Question 163:
Correct
You are establishing a new security policy for user authentication and want to implement multi-factor authentication.
Which of the following would BEST accomplish this?
Answer
Fingerprint and iris scan
Smart card and one-time code text message
Username and password
Correct Answer:
Fingerprint and one-time code text message
Explanation
Multi-factor authentication requires that a user demonstrate two of the following:
Something you are
Something you know
Something you have
The only answer that satisfies this requirement is a fingerprint (something you are) and a one-time code text message (something you have, as the user must have their cell phone to receive the text message).
Fingerprint and iris scans are both something you are.
Usernames and passwords are both something you know.
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A smart card and one-time code text message are both something you have.
References
14.1.1 Best Practices for Securing Workstations
14.1.2 Workstation Security Facts
q_security_best_multifactor_auth_ex_pp7.question.fex
Question 164:
Correct
You provide desktop support at a bank's branch office. One of the Windows workstations you manage is used to set up new customer accounts and fill out customer loan applications.
Each user account on the system has been assigned a strong password. File and folder permissions have been assigned to prevent users from accessing each other's files.
Which of the following would MOST likely increase this system's security? (Select two. Each option is a complete solution.)
Answer
Enable the Guest account.
Make user accounts members of the Administrators group.
Correct Answer:
Install a privacy filter on the monitor.
Assign each user a simple password so that they won't be tempted to write it down.
Correct Answer:
Secure the computer system to the desk with a cable lock.
Explanation
Because this system is used in close proximity to customers, you should install a privacy filter on the monitor. A privacy filter prevents customers from viewing sensitive information that is displayed on the monitor (such as usernames, passwords, and account numbers).
You should also secure this system to the desk with a cable lock. Securing the computer to the desk prevents a malicious person from stealing the computer and all
of the sensitive information the computer contains.
Enabling the Guest user account would decrease the system's security, as would assigning simple passwords to user accounts and making all users members of the Administrators group.
References
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14.1.1 Best Practices for Securing Workstations
14.1.2 Workstation Security Facts
q_security_best_cable_lock_priv_filter_sol_pp7.question.fex
Question 165:
Correct
During an airline flight, a laptop user makes last-minute changes to a presentation
that contains sensitive company information.
Which of the following would make it difficult for other passengers to view this information on the laptop display?
Answer
Mantrap
Cable lock
Correct Answer:
Privacy filter
Smart card
Explanation
A privacy filter narrows a laptop display's viewing angle so that only the person directly in front can see the display.
A cable lock secures valuable items that could be easily removed from the workplace, like laptops. A cable lock would do nothing to prevent others from viewing the laptop display.
Smart cards can provide authentication, but they do nothing to prevent others from viewing the laptop display.
A mantrap is used to control access between two areas that have different security levels. It helps prevent tailgating by requiring that entry from one area closes before entry to the second area is possible.
References
14.1.1 Best Practices for Securing Workstations
14.1.2 Workstation Security Facts
q_security_best_privacy_filter_sol_pp7.question.fex
Question 166:
Correct
You are assisting the security administrator and discover that a user was logged in
to their workstation after hours. After further investigation, you discover that the user's account was compromised, and someone used the account to steal sensitive
data.
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Which of the following could have BEST prevented this from happening?
Answer
Correct Answer:
Restrict the user's login times to work hours only.
Require a stronger password.
Implement a password reset policy.
Implement a screen saver lock.
Explanation
Because the user account was accessed after work hours, the best solution would have been to restrict the user's login times to work hours only. If this policy were in place, the account could not have been used after hours
Requiring a stronger password would not have been the best option to prevent this from happening, as the password could still have been compromised.
A password reset policy should not be implemented, as this can actually reduce the security of passwords.
Implementing a screen saver lock would not have been the best option in this scenario, as the user was done for the work day and had already logged off of the computer. The attacker still knew the user's password.
References
14.1.3 Best Practices for Account Management
14.1.4 Security Policy Facts
q_account_manage_work_hours_only_pp7.question.fex
Question 167:
Correct
One of the Windows workstations you manage has four user accounts defined on it. Two of the users are Limited users, while the third (your account) is an Administrative user. The fourth account is the Guest user account, which has been enabled to allow management employees convenient workstation access.
Each Limited and Administrative user has been assigned a strong password. File and folder permissions have been assigned to prevent users from accessing each other's files. Autorun has also been disabled on the system.
Which of the following actions is MOST likely to increase this system's security?
Answer
Change your user account to a Limited user.
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Enable Autorun on the system.
Correct Answer:
Disable the Guest account.
Change the two Limited user accounts to Administrative users.
Explanation
The Guest user account has no password and provides too much access to the system. Unless its use is absolutely required, the Guest user account should remain disabled.
Changing your Administrative user account to a Limited user would prevent you from completing management tasks on the workstation.
Changing the two Limited user accounts to Administrative users would decrease the system's security, as would enabling Autorun.
References
14.1.3 Best Practices for Account Management
14.1.4 Security Policy Facts
q_account_manage_disable_guest_acct_sol_pp7.question.fex
Question 168:
Correct
You are establishing a new security policy and want to make sure that if a user puts in the wrong password three times, their account will be locked until the administrator unlocks it.
Which of the following should you configure?
Answer
User login times
Correct Answer:
Failed attempts lockout policy
Screen saver lock
Autorun deactivation
Explanation
You should configure a failed attempts lockout policy in this scenario. If a user types in the incorrect password a defined number of times, their account will be
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locked for a specified period of time or until the administrator manually unlocks the account.
Restricting a user's login times should be implemented to prevent someone from accessing the user's account after work hours. This would not lock a user's account
after putting the wrong password in three times.
Screen savers come on when a system is idle for a set amount of time (usually a few
minutes). When the user returns to the computer, the user should have to enter their password to get back on the computer. This would not lock a user's account after putting the wrong password in three times.
Autorun is a Windows feature that automatically runs executable files when a USB drive or optical disc is inserted.
References
14.1.3 Best Practices for Account Management
14.1.4 Security Policy Facts
15.6 Troubleshoot a Mobile Device
q_account_manage_failed_attempts_lockout_pp7.question.fex
Question 169:
Correct
Employees in a small business have a habit of transferring files between computers using a USB flash drive. The employees often bring in these files from outside the company.
Recently, a computer was infected with malware from a USB flash drive even though the employee did not access any files.
Which of the following options would prevent this issue in the future?
Answer
Correct Answer:
Disable Autorun.
Set strong passwords.
Configure screen savers to require a password.
Enable BitLocker.
Explanation
Disabling Autorun would prevent malware from installing even if a flash drive were attached.
Setting strong passwords is a best practice, but this would not prevent malware on a flash drive from installing.
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BitLocker is used to encrypt drives. It will not prevent malware on a flash drive from installing.
Configuring screen savers to require a password is a best practice, but doing so would not prevent malware on a flash drive from installing.
References
14.1.3 Best Practices for Account Management
14.1.4 Security Policy Facts
q_security_best_disable_autorun_sol_pp7.question.fex
Question 170:
Correct
One of the Windows workstations you manage has three user accounts defined on it. Two of the users are Limited users, while the third (your account) is an Administrative user.
Each Limited and Administrative user has been assigned a strong password. File and folder permissions have been assigned to prevent users from accessing each other's files.
Which of the following would MOST likely increase this system's security? (Select two.)
Answer
Assign each user a simple password so that they won't be tempted to write it down.
Change the two Limited user accounts to Restricted users.
Enable the Guest account.
Correct Answer:
Set a screen saver password.
Correct Answer:
Disable Autorun on the system.
Explanation
You could increase this system's overall security by disabling Autorun and setting a screen saver password.
Enabling the Guest user account would decrease the system's security, as would assigning simple passwords to user accounts.
There is no such thing as a Restricted user on Windows operating systems.
References
14.1.3 Best Practices for Account Management
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14.1.4 Security Policy Facts
q_account_manage_increase_sys_sec_sol_pp7.question.fex
Question 171:
Correct
You are choosing a method to secure a mobile device.
Which of the following types of screen locks is LEAST secure?
Answer
Fingerprint lock
Face lock
Passcode lock
Correct Answer:
Swipe lock
Explanation
Swipe lock is the least secure of the choices presented. It is relatively easy to duplicate the swipe pattern, even as far as six feet away.
Face lock uses facial recognition. This is secure and will become even more sophisticated in the future.
Passcode lock is the most common lock method. It is more effective when letters are
mixed with digits.
Fingerprint lock is the most secure of the choices presented.
References
12.6.1 Mobile Device Security
12.6.2 Mobile Device Security Facts
q_mob_dev_sec_least_secure_screen_lock_pp7.question.fex
Question 172:
Correct
Which of the following are features that a device location service on your smartphone can provide? (Select two.)
Answer
Perform a remote wipe.
Correct Answer:
Take and send pictures using the front and back cameras.
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Send a notification of unauthorized login attempts.
Correct Answer:
Identify the approximate location of the device on a map.
Reset the mobile device settings to factory defaults.
Explanation
If the location service has been set up on your device, you can use a website or software application to identify the approximate location of the device on a map. The service can also tell the device to take a picture with both the front and back
cameras and then send the pictures to you.
A device location service is not designed to reset the mobile device to factory defaults, perform a remote wipe, or send a notification that one or more unauthorized attempts have been made to log in to the device.
References
12.6.1 Mobile Device Security
12.6.2 Mobile Device Security Facts
12.6.3 Secure Mobile Devices
12.6.4 Configure iPad Access Control and Authentication
q_mob_dev_sec_device_location_features_pp7.question.fex
Question 173:
Incorrect
Mobile device applications fall into two categories. Some are reviewed, approved, and signed with a certificate by the app service, while others are not.
Which category do apps fall into if they have been reviewed, approved, and signed with a certificate?
secured
incorrect answer. Correct Answer:Trusted
What category do apps fall into if they have not been reviewed, approved, and signed with a certificate?
unsecured
incorrect answer. Correct Answer:Untrusted
Explanation
Apps that have been reviewed, approved, and signed with a certificate by the app service are referred to as trusted apps.
Apps that have not been reviewed, approved, or signed with a certificate by the app
service are referred to as untrusted apps. Untrusted apps might be safe, but it is risky to install them, and most devices won't allow them to be installed by default.
References
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12.6.1 Mobile Device Security
12.6.2 Mobile Device Security Facts
12.6.3 Secure Mobile Devices
12.6.4 Configure iPad Access Control and Authentication
q_mob_dev_sec_trusted_untrusted_app_review_pp7.question.fex
Question 174:
Incorrect
Which of the following are the BEST steps you can take to avoid having your mobile device exploited by a hacker or infected by a virus? (Select two.)
Answer
Keep your device in your possession.
Turn off location services.
Incorrect answer:
Keep an up-to-date remote backup.
Correct Answer:
Lock the screen with some form of authentication.
Correct Answer:
Keep the operating system up to date.
Avoid antivirus apps.
Explanation
The following are the best steps to take to avoid having your mobile device exploited by a hacker or infected by a virus:
Keep the operating systems up to date with the latest updates and patches. This helps because they often contain fixes for known security issues.
Configure the screen lock to require some sort of authentication to physically access your device.
A remote backup is an essential disaster recovery solution, but this will not prevent hacker exploitation or virus infection.
Even if you have your device always in your possession, it can still be hacked and infected by a virus if not protected.
Antivirus apps for Android devices do protect your device, but you should do research to make sure that you get the most effective one.
Turning off locations services does not improve your device's security, and it would make it harder to find your device if you lose it.
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References
12.6.2 Mobile Device Security Facts
q_mob_dev_sec_avoid_explotation_hacker_virus_pp7.question.fex
Question 175:
Correct
You are comparing methods for securing your mobile device.
Which of the following is the BEST method to secure your device's storage?
Answer
Remote backup applications
Correct Answer:
Full device encryption
Locator applications
Biometric authentication
Explanation
Full device encryption is an effective security method for mobile devices that encrypts every single sector of the device's storage, regardless of whether it has data or not. This protects the entirety of the device, including deleted files.
Biometric authentication uses such things as retinal, face, or fingerprint scans for authentication. However, if your device is compromised, all the storage can be accessed if it is not encrypted.
Remote backup refers to applications that back up data on a mobile device. Usually,
the backup data is stored in the cloud. While this process can make sure you have access to your data in case your mobile device fails, it does not secure your mobile device's storage.
Locator applications help you locate a lost or stolen mobile device. They are not designed to secure the storage on your device.
References
12.6.1 Mobile Device Security
12.6.2 Mobile Device Security Facts
q_mob_dev_sec_secure_dev_device_perf_pp7.question.fex
Question 176:
Incorrect
You want to use a cloud backup service on your Android smartphone to be able to recover important personal files.
Which of the following backup services can you use?
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Answer
iCloud
iTunes
Incorrect answer:
OneDrive
Correct Answer:
Google Sync
Explanation
Android devices use the Google Sync cloud service to sync and backup mail, contacts, calendars, and files across all android devices.
OneDrive is Microsoft's cloud-based backup service for Windows mobile devices.
iOS mobile devices have two different cloud-based backup services available. These are iTunes and iCloud.
References
12.6.2 Mobile Device Security Facts
q_mob_dev_sec_android_backup_service_pp7.question.fex
Question 177:
Incorrect
What normally happens to your mobile device after ten failed login attempts? (Select two.)
Answer
Incorrect answer:
You are sent an email message indicating a security breach.
Correct Answer:
The device settings are reset to the factory defaults.
The device data is encrypted, and you are sent the encryption key.
Incorrect answer:
All the mobile device applications are locked.
Correct Answer:
The contents of the device are wiped completely.
Explanation
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Most mobile devices are configured by default to allow only a set number of failed login attempts, which is usually ten. If more than ten failed logins are attempted,
the mobile device will automatically wipe the contents and reset to the factory defaults.
Locking mobile device applications, an email indicating a security breach, and encrypting the device data are not the normal actions taken (if at all) by the device as security measures.
References
12.6.1 Mobile Device Security
12.6.2 Mobile Device Security Facts
12.6.3 Secure Mobile Devices
q_mob_dev_sec_failed_login_attempt_actions_pp7.question.fex
Question 178:
Correct
A technician suspects that an app on a tablet device may be surreptitiously using the camera without permission.
Which of the following would be the BEST way to troubleshoot this issue?
Answer
Correct Answer:
Run an anti-malware scan.
Perform a soft reset on the device.
Remove all Bluetooth pairings.
Check the results of a cell tower analyzer.
Explanation
An app that uses the phone camera without permission could be categorized as malware. A malware scan should detect this issue.
Removing all Bluetooth pairings will not protect the camera from being used without
permission.
Checking the results of a cell tower analyzer will not prevent the camera being used without permission.
Performing a soft reset on the device will stop all apps, but will not protect the camera from being used without permission.
References
12.6.2 Mobile Device Security Facts
q_mob_dev_sec_run_anti-malware_scan_sol_pp7.question.fex
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Question 179:
Correct
Maria, a smartphone user, has recently installed a new app. She now experiences a weak signal and sometimes a complete signal loss at locations where she used to have a good cellular signal. Her phone battery is fully charged.
Which of the following actions would BEST address this issue?
Answer
Correct Answer:
Uninstall the new app and scan for malware.
Force stop the new app.
Reset to factory defaults.
Use a cell tower analyzer to determine normal signal strength.
Explanation
Weak or lost cellular signals can be an indication of malware, especially if the location's signal has been good in the past. The best action is to uninstall the new app and use anti-malware apps and app scanners to inspect for malware.
Force stopping the new app will help, but not all apps respond to a force stop, especially if they are malware. This is not the best course of action in this scenario.
A reset to factory defaults will uninstall all apps and remove data. You should do this only as a last resort.
A cell tower analyzer confirms a cellular signal's strength, but this analysis will
not explain a weak or lost cellular signal. This is not the best course of action in this scenario.
References
12.6.2 Mobile Device Security Facts
q_mob_dev_sec_weak_signal_loss_new_app_sol_pp7.question.fex
Question 180:
Correct
Joe, a mobile device user, is allowed to connect his personally owned tablet to a company's network.
Which of the following policies defines how company data is protected on Joe's tablet?
Answer
Trusted Sources Policy
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Device Encryption Policy
Correct Answer:
BYOD Policy
Remote Backup Policy
Explanation
A Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) Policy addresses the issues of personal data privacy
and corporate data protection. This policy also addresses corporate versus individual mobile device control.
A Trusted Sources Policy refers to the approved location for obtaining mobile applications, such as Google Play Store, App Store, and Microsoft Store.
A BYOD Policy may or may not require full device encryption when storing corporate data.
A Remote Backup Policy refers to applications that back up data on a mobile device.
Usually, the backup data is stored in the cloud.
References
12.6.2 Mobile Device Security Facts
q_mob_dev_sec_byod_policy_ex_pp7.question.fex
Question 181:
Correct
Which of the following are devices categorized as part of the Internet of Things (IoT)? (Select two.)
Answer
Correct Answer:
Smartwatches
Laptops
Correct Answer:
Medical sensors
Tablets
Routers
Explanation
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Internet of Things (IoT) devices utilize the internet or other communications networks to exchange data with other devices and systems. Examples include smartwatches, smart fire alarms, smart door locks, smart bicycles, medical sensors,
fitness trackers, and smart security systems.
IoT is a way to identify devices that have technology added to them to make them smart, or able to exchange data through the internet or other communications networks. Tablets, laptops, servers, and routers are not categorized as IoT devices.
References
12.6.2 Mobile Device Security Facts
q_mob_dev_sec_iot_devices_pp7.question.fex
Question 182:
Correct
Which of the following hard drive destruction methods only works with mechanical hard drives?
Answer
Disk shredder
Correct Answer:
Drilling
Low-level format
Incineration
Explanation
Drilling only works with mechanical hard drives since this method involves drilling
holes through the platters.
Disk shredding and incineration work with both mechanical and solid-state drives.
A low-level format is not a hard drive destruction method.
References
14.6.1 Data Disposal and Destruction
14.6.3 Data Disposal and Destruction Facts
q_destruct_disposal_drilling_drive_pp7.question.fex
Question 183:
Correct
Which hard drive destruction method uses a strong magnetic pulse to destroy data?
Answer
Correct Answer:
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Degaussing
Incineration
Drilling
Disk shredder
Explanation
Degaussing is a special tool that uses strong magnetic pulses to destroy all the data on the platters and drive motors.
A disk shredder is a specialized machine that shreds a hard drive into tiny pieces.
Incineration involves burning a hard drive.
Drilling a hole through the platters will ensure data cannot be recovered. It is recommended to drill multiple holes through all platters.
References
14.6.1 Data Disposal and Destruction
14.6.3 Data Disposal and Destruction Facts
q_destruct_disposal_degaussing_drive_pp7.question.fex
Question 184:
Correct
Which of the following hard drive destruction methods runs the risk of releasing toxic by-products?
Answer
Correct Answer:
Incineration
Shredding
Degaussing
Drilling
Explanation
Incinerating a hard drive can lead to the release of toxic by-products. This is why
you should only use a licensed incinerator.
None of the other drive destruction methods result in toxic by-products.
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References
14.6.1 Data Disposal and Destruction
14.6.3 Data Disposal and Destruction Facts
q_destruct_disposal_incinerate_drive_pp7.question.fex
Question 185:
Incorrect
Which of the following should you perform when disposing of a computer?
Answer
Run the motherboard through a shredder.
Incorrect answer:
Document the Chain of Custody.
Lock the hard drive in storage.
Correct Answer:
High-level format of the hard drive.
Explanation
You should always perform high-level formatting of the hard drive when you dispose of a computer.
The motherboard does not need to be shredded when disposing of a computer.
The hard drive does not need to be locked in storage when disposing of a computer.
You do not need to document the Chain of Custody when disposing of a computer.
References
14.6.1 Data Disposal and Destruction
14.6.3 Data Disposal and Destruction Facts
q_destruct_disposal_low_level_format_drive_pp7.question.fex
Question 186:
Incorrect
Which formatting method is done by the manufacturer to write new sectors and tracks
to a hard drive?
Answer
Deep format
Full format
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Incorrect answer:
High-level formatting
Correct Answer:
Low-level formatting
Explanation
A low-level format writes new sectors and tracks to the drive and is typically done
by the manufacturer when the drive is first assembled. When performing a low-level format, the sectors and tracks are recreated, and all empty space is filled with zeroes.
A high-level format is performed using the tools in the operating system. This method removes the pointers to files, but the data remains on the drive itself and can be recovered using special software.
Full or deep formats are not valid format types.
References
14.6.1 Data Disposal and Destruction
14.6.3 Data Disposal and Destruction Facts
q_destruct_disposal_write_new_sectors_and_tracks_pp7.question.fex
Question 187:
Incorrect
Which formatting method leaves data on a drive in a state that can be recovered using special software?
Answer
Incorrect answer:
Low-level formatting
Correct Answer:
High-level formatting
Full format
Deep format
Explanation
A high-level format is performed using the tools in the operating system. This method removes the pointers to files, but the data remains on the drive itself and can be recovered using special software.
A low-level format writes new sectors and tracks to the drive and is typically done
by the manufacturer when the drive is first assembled. When performing a low-level format, the sectors and tracks are recreated, and all empty space is filled with zeroes.
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Full or deep formats are not valid format types.
References
14.6.1 Data Disposal and Destruction
14.6.3 Data Disposal and Destruction Facts
q_destruct_disposal_high_level_format_drive_pp7.question.fex
Question 188:
Correct
Which of the following would be a reason to outsource hard drive destruction?
Answer
Availability of low-level formatting
Required COD
Correct Answer:
Cost of special equipment
Against the law to do it internally
Explanation
Purchasing the special equipment to destroy hard drives is often too cost-
prohibitive for most organizations. You should contract with companies that specialize in the destruction and recycling of computer equipment and hard drives when possible.
It is not against the law to destroy a hard drive internally.
A COD can be generated even if the drive was destroyed internally.
Low-level formatting utilities are available to anyone.
References
14.6.1 Data Disposal and Destruction
14.6.3 Data Disposal and Destruction Facts
q_destruct_disposal_special_equip_cost_pp7.question.fex
Question 189:
Correct
What should be created when you destroy a hard drive?
Answer
Outsourcing Record
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Chain of Custody
Correct Answer:
Certificate of Destruction
Record of Format
Explanation
No matter the method used to destroy a hard drive, a Certificate of Destruction (COD) should be obtained and kept with the organization's records. A COD is usually
necessary to satisfy internal security reporting requirements and may be required for legal reporting.
The Chain of Custody is something that is recorded in the Certificate of Destruction.
Record of Format or Outsourcing Record are not valid answers.
References
14.6.1 Data Disposal and Destruction
14.6.3 Data Disposal and Destruction Facts
q_destruct_disposal_cod_certificate_pp7.question.fex
Question 190:
Correct
Which of the following identifies who had possession of a hard drive and for how long before it was actually destroyed?
Answer
Certificate of Destruction
Outsourcing Record
Correct Answer:
Chain of Custody
Record of Format
Explanation
The Chain of Custody identifies who had possession of a device and for how long before it was actually destroyed.
A Certificate of Destruction (COD) is obtained when destroying a hard drive. The Chain of Custody should be a component of the COD.
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Record of Format and Outsourcing Record are not valid answers.
References
14.6.1 Data Disposal and Destruction
14.6.3 Data Disposal and Destruction Facts
q_destruct_disposal_chain_of_custody_pp7.question.fex
Question 191:
Correct
Which of the following must be included in a hard drive's Certificate of Destruction?
Answer
Name of security administrator
Location of destruction
Correct Answer:
Method of destruction
Cost of destruction
Explanation
The COD should include the following information:
Method of destruction
Date of destruction
Chain of Custody
None of the other options need to be included in the Certificate of Destruction.
References
14.6.1 Data Disposal and Destruction
14.6.3 Data Disposal and Destruction Facts
q_destruct_disposal_method_of_destruct_pp7.question.fex
Question 192:
Correct
A SOHO customer finds that their VoIP conversations frequently break up and become unintelligible. This happens most often when one person in the office streams video
from the internet.
Which of the following configuration changes on the SOHO router is MOST likely to improve the VoIP performance?
Answer
Correct Answer:
Change QoS settings to give VoIP traffic more priority.
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Forward UDP ports 5060 - 5065 to the VoIP phone.
Change DHCP to give the VoIP phone a static IP address.
Create a screened subnet and add the VoIP phone.
Explanation
Poor VoIP performance is likely due to insufficient bandwidth to support both video
streaming and VoIP calls. Changing the router's QoS settings to give a higher priority to VoIP traffic will most likely improve VoIP performance.
Since VoIP functions correctly but gives poor performance, any necessary port forwarding for VoIP is in place.
Configuring the VoIP phone with a static IP address will not improve performance.
Creating a screened subnet and adding the VoIP phone will not resolve any traffic contention between video and VoIP traffic.
References
11.6.2 SOHO Configuration Facts
q_soho_cfg_change_qos_settings_sol_pp7.question.fex
Question 193:
Correct
A technician is installing a network-enabled smart home control system in a SOHO.
Which of the following configurations is MOST likely required on the SOHO router in
order to access the system from the internet?
Answer
Correct Answer:
Port forwarding
DHCP
QoS
NAT
Explanation
Access to the smart home control system from the internet through the SOHO router is most likely achieved with port forwarding.
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QoS gives priority to certain types of network traffic, such as VoIP phone traffic.
DHCP dynamically assigns IP addresses to clients on the local network.
NAT translates private IP addresses on the local network to public IP addresses on the internet.
References
11.6.2 SOHO Configuration Facts
q_soho_cfg_soho_install_internet_access_pp7.question.fex
Question 194:
Incorrect
A technician is replacing a SOHO router and has configured DHCP to assign private IP addresses to hosts on the local network. These hosts can communicate with each other, but users can't browse the internet.
Which of the following changes to the SOHO router is MOST likely to restore internet connectivity?
Answer
Remove any QoS settings that give low priority to HTTP traffic.
Correct Answer:
Configure the SOHO router for NAT.
Incorrect answer:
Disable DHCP and configure the hosts with static IP addresses.
Update the firmware on the SOHO router.
Explanation
Configure NAT to translate the private IP addresses on the local network to public IP addresses on the internet. Doing this will most likely restore internet connectivity in this scenario.
QoS settings may cause HTTP traffic to be slower, but they would not completely interrupt it.
Static IP addresses would not restore internet connectivity in this scenario.
Updating the firmware is not likely to restore internet connectivity in this scenario.
References
11.6.2 SOHO Configuration Facts
q_soho_cfg_soho_router_for_nat_sol_pp7.question.fex
Question 195:
Correct
A technician is installing a new SOHO wireless router.
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Which of the following is the FIRST thing the technician should do to secure the router?
Answer
Adjust the radio power levels.
Correct Answer:
Change the router's default password.
Disable SSID broadcast.
Press the WPS button.
Explanation
The first security consideration on a router is to change the default password.
Disabling the SSID broadcast may be desirable for added security, but this is not the first action you should take.
Adjusting the radio power levels limits the broadcast area and may be desirable for
added security, but this is not the first action you should take.
Pressing the WPS button temporarily broadcasts the SSID and passphrase, which would
decrease security.
References
11.6.1 SOHO Configuration
11.6.2 SOHO Configuration Facts
11.6.3 Configure a SOHO Router
11.6.4 Configure a Wireless Router
q_soho_cfg_install_soho_router_first_step_pp7.question.fex
Question 196:
Correct
A technician receives a notification from a SOHO router manufacturer of a specific vulnerability that allows attackers to exploit SNMP traps to take over routers. The
technician verifies the settings outlined in the notification.
Which of the following actions should the technician take NEXT?
Answer
Enable content filtering.
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Disable DHCP.
Enable MAC filtering.
Correct Answer:
Check for and apply firmware updates.
Explanation
Manufactures often accompany a vulnerability notification with firmware updates to address the vulnerability. You should apply these updates immediately.
Parental controls or content filters restrict or block specific web traffic based on keyword, URL, or time of day. They do not address network vulnerabilities.
Disabling DHCP will require static IP addresses. This does nothing to address network vulnerabilities.
MAC filtering limits connectivity to a list of MAC addresses. This does nothing to address network vulnerabilities.
References
11.6.1 SOHO Configuration
11.6.2 SOHO Configuration Facts
11.6.3 Configure a SOHO Router
11.6.4 Configure a Wireless Router
q_soho_cfg_apply_firmware_updates_pp7.question.fex
Question 197:
Correct
A technician is installing a SOHO router at an after-school community center. The customer would like to keep children from accessing inappropriate content while browsing the web.
Which of the following actions would help accomplish this goal?
Answer
Update the firmware.
Correct Answer:
Enable content filtering.
Disable DHCP.
Disable SSID broadcast.
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Explanation
Parental controls or content filters restrict or block specific web traffic based on keyword, URL, or time of day.
Disabling the SSID broadcast would increase security, but this does nothing to restrict web browsing results.
Disabling DHCP would require static IP addresses, but this does nothing to restrict
web browsing results.
Updating firmware may improve security by fixing vulnerabilities, but this does nothing to restrict web browsing results.
References
11.6.1 SOHO Configuration
11.6.2 SOHO Configuration Facts
11.6.3 Configure a SOHO Router
11.6.4 Configure a Wireless Router
q_soho_cfg_soho_enable_content_filter_pp7.question.fex
Question 198:
Correct
You are an IT technician for your company. Your boss has asked you to set up and configure a wireless network to service all of the conference rooms.
Which of the following features lets you allow or reject client connections by hardware address?
Answer
WPA2
Correct Answer:
MAC address filtering
WEP
SSID
Explanation
MAC address filtering allows or rejects client connections by hardware address.
Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) provides network security. However, WPA2 is considered more secure than WEP.
Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2) provides encryption and user authentication for wireless networks.
The SSID is the network name or identifier.
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References
11.6.2 SOHO Configuration Facts
q_soho_cfg_mac_address_filter_pp7.question.fex
Question 199:
Correct
Which of the following identifies the network name on a wireless network?
Answer
MAC address
WEP key
Correct Answer:
SSID
WPA2 passphrase
Explanation
Wireless devices use the SSID (service set identifier) to identify the network name. All devices on a wireless network use the same SSID.
The MAC address is a unique physical device address.
The WPA2 Personal passphrase and the WEP key are both mechanisms used to secure wireless communications.
References
11.6.1 SOHO Configuration
11.6.2 SOHO Configuration Facts
11.6.3 Configure a SOHO Router
11.6.4 Configure a Wireless Router
q_soho_cfg_ssid_network_name_pp7.question.fex
Question 200:
Correct
You want to set up a service on your company network that can be configured with a list of valid websites. The service should give employees a certificate warning if they try to visit a version of an untrusted site.
Which of the following services is designed to provide this functionality?
Answer
Hashing
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Correct Answer:
DNS server
Extensions
DHCP server
Explanation
Internal DNS servers, such as one on your company network, can be configured with a
list of valid sites. This means that you can allow or deny access to certain sites.
The CA on the server will operate using the same authority as on a public site and will give the user a certificate warning if they try to visit their version of an untrusted site.
Hashing is a feature associated with password managers. Hashing generates a string of values that jumbles the password into symbols and letters. Hash codes cannot be reversed, which makes them a good deterrent to security threats. The actual password is then saved to the account.
A DHCP server leases IP addresses and other information to DHCP clients.
Extensions are one or more functions added to the browser that can be created by the affiliated browser or a third party.
References
14.10.1 Browsers
14.10.2 Browser Facts
14.10.3 Install Browser and Extensions
q_browsers_dns_valid_websites_pp7.question.fex
Question 201:
Correct
Which of the following password manager features converts a password into a jumbled
string of symbols and letters before storing it in the account?
Answer
Two-factor authentication
Cloud access
Correct Answer:
Hashing
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Extensions
Explanation
Hashing generates a string of values that jumbles a password into symbols and letters. Hash codes cannot be reversed, which makes them a good deterrent to security threats. The actual password is then saved to the account.
Two-factor authentication is using two authentication credentials to access one account. For example, once a user uses their password to access their account, an alert with a confirmation code will appear on another account, such as a separate email. It will then ask to validate that code.
Extensions are one or more functions added to the browser that can be created by the affiliated browser or a third party.
Some password managers are accessed from the cloud, while others are installed locally. This characteristic is not associated with converting a password into a jumbled string of symbols and letters.
References
14.10.1 Browsers
14.10.2 Browser Facts
14.10.3 Install Browser and Extensions
q_browsers_hashing_conversion_pp7.question.fex
Question 202:
Correct
Which of the following is a risk associated with using a web browser password manager?
Answer
Web browser password managers cannot store complex passwords.
Passwords stored in the password manager may not work on newer web pages.
You are limited to the number of passwords you can store in a web browser password manager.
Correct Answer:
Signing in with the browser password gives a hacker control over all passwords stored on the browser.
Explanation
Signing in with the browser password gives a hacker control over all passwords that
are stored on that browser. This is especially dangerous if the browser password is
leaked or is easily guessed.
If you can store the password using a web browser password manager, you have access
to the web page and the stored password will work.
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Web password managers are capable of storing both simple and complex passwords and can store an unlimited number of them.
References
14.10.1 Browsers
14.10.2 Browser Facts
q_browsers_browser_password_risk_pp7.question.fex
Question 203:
Correct
What is issued to a website in order for it to be validated as a trusted website?
Answer
Extension
DNS
Correct Answer:
Certificate authority
Hash code
Explanation
Certificate authority (CA) information is stamped on all packets coming from a website to validate where they came from. If any packets are misdirected through an
untrusted site, the browser will detect that the certificate is now invalid and will give the user a warning in the form of a dialog box.
Extensions are one or more functions added to the browser that can be created by the affiliated browser or a third party.
Hashing is a feature associated with password managers. Hashing generates a string of values (hash code) that jumbles the password into symbols and letters. Hash codes cannot be reversed, which makes them a good deterrent to security threats. The actual password is then saved in the account.
You can configure the DNS (Domain Name System) with a list of valid sites. This means that you can allow or deny access to certain sites. However, DNS is not designed to validate trusted websites.
References
14.10.1 Browsers
14.10.2 Browser Facts
q_browsers_ca_trusted_website_pp7.question.fex
Question 204:
Correct
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You have logged into your banking website using a password, but now the website indicates that it sent you an email with a confirmation code that you need to retrieve and enter before you can continue to access the website.
Which of the following security measures is being used?
Answer
Correct Answer:
Two-factor authentication
Certificate authority
Extensions
Hash code
Explanation
Two-factor authentication is using two authentication credentials to access one account. For example, once you enter your password to access your account, you receive an alert via email, text message, or voicemail message with a confirmation code that you need to also enter before accessing the website.
Certificate authority (CA) information is stamped on all packets coming from a website to validate where they came from. If any packets are misdirected through an
untrusted site, the browser will detect that the certificate is now invalid and will give the user a warning in a the form of a dialog box. This is not associated with authentication to a website.
Extensions are one or more functions added to the browser that can be created by the affiliated browser or a third party.
Hashing is a feature associated with password managers. Hashing generates a string of values (hash code) that jumbles the password into symbols and letters. Hash codes cannot be reversed, which makes them a good deterrent to security threats. The actual password is then saved to the account.
References
14.10.1 Browsers
14.10.2 Browser Facts
q_browsers_two_factor_auth_pp7.question.fex
Question 205:
Correct
Which of the following is the definition of a cookie?
Answer
A malicious program that runs when you read an email attachment.
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An executable file that runs in the background and tracks internet use.
A malicious program that disguises itself as a useful program.
Correct Answer:
A file that is saved on your hard drive that tracks website preferences and usage.
Explanation
A cookie is a file saved on your hard drive that tracks website preferences and usage. Many legitimate websites use cookies to remember your preferences and make the websites easier to use. However, other sites can use cookies to track personal information.
Spyware is a program that runs in the background and reports internet usage to online servers.
A Trojan horse is a malicious program that disguises itself as a useful program. Programs do not run when you simply read an email attachment. However, many malicious script programs are disguised as simple text files and can cause damage if you run the script file.
References
14.7.2 Malware Facts
q_sec_sw_cookie_def_pp7.question.fex
Question 206:
Correct
While browsing the internet, you are constantly being bombarded by small advertisements with links attached to the web page.
Which of the following can you use to prevent these advertisements from appearing?
Answer
Browser synchronization
Data cache clearing
Private Browsing Mode
Correct Answer:
Pop-up blocker
Explanation
Pop-ups are generally small advertisements with links attached to the web page. These web pages contain java script and can be a great security risk to the user. Most browsers have a way of blocking this content in their setting menu with a Pop-
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up blocker feature.
Private browsing mode lets you visit websites without the browser keeping your search history, cookies or password information. However, it does not prevent pop-
up ads from appearing.
In order for browsers to quickly retrieve websites, they often save all the site locations visited, which is referred to as being cached. Although clearing the cache can improve browser performance, it does not block pop-up ads.
Once you've created a browser account, there is a settings feature that lets you log into a browser from multiple systems with all information including bookmarks, password information and all security settings, synced . However, this synchronization does not block pop-up ads.
References
14.10.4 Browser Settings
14.10.5 Configure Browser Settings
14.10.6 Browser Setting Facts
q_browswer_settings_pop_up_blocker_pp7.question.fex
Question 207:
Correct
While browsing the internet, you notice that your browser performance is continually slowing down.
Which of the following would MOST likely increase the overall performance of your web browser?
Answer
Enable a pop-up blocker.
Correct Answer:
Clear the data cache.
Switch to Private Browsing Mode.
Synchronize your web browser data.
Explanation
In order for browsers to quickly retrieve websites, they often save all the site locations visited, which is referred to as a cache. You can clear the cache to help
improve the overall performance of your web browser.
Enabling a pop-up blocker can prevent pop-up ads from appearing on web pages. And while this might help to access the web page content a little quicker, it would not
significantly improve the overall performance of the web browser.
Private browsing mode lets you visit websites without the browser keeping your
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search history, cookies or password information. However, in this scenario, switching to private browsing mode would not clear the cache, which is most likely causing the performance problem.
Once you've created a browser account, there is a settings feature that lets you log into a browser from multiple systems with all information including bookmarks, password information and all security settings, synced. However, this synchronization would not slow down the overall performance of your web browser.
References
14.10.4 Browser Settings
14.10.5 Configure Browser Settings
14.10.6 Browser Setting Facts
q_browswer_settings_data_cache_clear_pp7.question.fex
Question 208:
Correct
While browsing the internet, you want to make sure that the browser you are using does not store your search history, cookies, or password information.
Which of the following can you enable to prevent this from happening?
Answer
Correct Answer:
Private Browsing Mode
Pop-up blocker
Data cache clearing
Browser synchronization
Explanation
Private browsing mode lets you visit websites without the browser keeping search history, cookies or password information.
A pop-up blocker keeps pop-up ads from appearing while browsing a website. However it does not prevent the browser from storing your search history, cookies or password information.
In order for browsers to quickly retrieve websites, they often save all the site locations visited, which is referred to as being cached. Although clearing the cache can improve browser performance, it does not prevent the browser from storing
your search history, cookies or password information.
Once you've created a browser account, there is a settings feature that lets you log into a browser from multiple systems with all information including bookmarks, password information and all security settings, synced. However, this feature does not prevent the browser from storing your search history, cookies, or password
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information.
References
14.10.4 Browser Settings
14.10.5 Configure Browser Settings
14.10.6 Browser Setting Facts
q_browswer_settings_private_browsing_pp7.question.fex
Question 209:
Correct
You have just created an account for your web browser, and you want to be able to access the bookmarks you create on your home laptop with the same web browser on your company workstation.
Which of the following can you use to make these bookmarks accessible on both computers?
Answer
Private Browsing Mode
Pop-up blocker
Correct Answer:
Browser synchronization
Data cache clearing
Explanation
Once you've created a browser account, there is a settings feature that lets you log into a browser from multiple systems with all information including bookmarks, password information and all security settings, synced. This feature would allow you to access the same bookmarks from both your home laptop and your company workstation.
A pop-up blocker can prevent pop-up ads from appearing on web pages. However, it would not synchronize bookmarks across several computers.
Private Browsing Mode lets you visit websites without the browser keeping your search history, cookies, or password information. However, it would not synchronize
bookmarks across several computers.
In order for browsers to quickly retrieve websites, they often save all the site locations visited, which is referred to as a cache. Although clearing the cache can
improve browser performance, it would not synchronize bookmarks across several computers.
References
14.10.4 Browser Settings
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14.10.5 Configure Browser Settings
14.10.6 Browser Setting Facts
q_browswer_settings_browser_sync_pp7.question.fex
Question 210:
Correct
Which of the following is an issue with using an adblocker extension on your web browser?
Answer
It can prevent you from synchronizing bookmarks from one computer to the next.
It can prevent the web browser from retaining password information.
Correct Answer:
It can cause certain sites and browsers to no longer work on specific web pages.
It can be a security risk to your stored password information.
Explanation
Adblockers are extensions that you can attach to your browser to block pop-up ads on a web page. However, blocking these ads can also cause certain sites and browsers to no longer work.
Using Private Browsing Mode (not an adblocker) can prevent the browser from retaining search history, cookies, or password information.
Adblockers do not impact the security of your stored password information or impact
the synchronization of bookmarks when using the same web browser across different computers.
References
14.10.4 Browser Settings
14.10.5 Configure Browser Settings
14.10.6 Browser Setting Facts
q_browswer_settings_ad_blocker_issue_pp7.question.fex
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