advanced-pathopharmacology-practice-test
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Jan 9, 2024
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Advanced Pathopharmacology practice test
Advanced Pathopharmacological Foundations (Western Governors University)
Studocu is not sponsored or endorsed by any college or university
Advanced Pathopharmacology practice test
Advanced Pathopharmacological Foundations (Western Governors University)
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Correct
1.During the body's infammatory process, what causes edema?
Vasodilation of blood vessels
Emigration of neutrophils
Endothelial cell expansion
Increased capillary permeability
Correct
1/1 Points
2.A 56-year-old diabetic patient has not taken his insulin in 4 days due to him” feeling well without it”. He is admitted to the ED with an elevated blood sugar. What electrolyte should be assessed FIRST?
Calcium
Sodium
Potassium
Feedback: ANS: C - Insulin facilitates the intracellular transport of potassium, phosphate, and magnesium. Without insulin, potassium does not get transported to the intracellular environment and the serum potassium will rise.
Chloride
Correct
1/1 Points
3.A 46-year-old women is considering having another child. The healthcare providers are explaining to the woman that children born to women late in life have an increase rate in having children with which condition.
Kawasaki’s disease
Down syndrome
Feedback: Down syndrome risk increases with Maternal age.
Klinefelter syndrome
Turner syndrome
Correct
1/1 Points
4.A patient with several risk factors is concerned about developing type 2 diabetes. The healthcare professional advises the patient to lose
weight, explaining that obesity is an important risk factor for type 2 diabetes mellitus because it causes what?
Reduced insulin production by the pancreas
Increased resistance to insulin in the cells
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Feedback: People with type 2 diabetes mellitus sufer from insulin resistance. Obesity causes this resistance so their cells have difculty using insulin. Obesity does not lead to reduced insulin production, obstructed insulin outfow, or stimulation of glucose production.
Obstructed outfow of insulin from the pancreas
Stimulation of glucose production by the liver
Correct
1/1 Points
5.When evaluating a patient for hypertensive target organ damage, the APRN looks for evidence of:
Lipid abnormality
Insulin resistance
Left ventricular hypertrophy
Clotting disorders
Correct
1/1 Points
6.On ultrasound a patient had 4-chamber dilation with an ejection fraction of 15% and a pleural efusion on chest x-ray. Elevated liver function tests, hypokalemia, and hypomagnesema are seen on lab results. Blood pressure is 115/60 and heart rate is 110 bpm with regular rate and rhythm, respiratory rate 30 bpm and O2 saturation is 88% on room air. Initial therapy should include all of the following except:
Diuretic
ACE Inhibitor
Digoxin
Beta Blocker
Correct
1/1 Points
7.A patient in the emergency department is suspected of having a myocardial infarction (MI). The initial cardiac troponin 1 level was negative. What action by the healthcare professional is best?
Administer thrombolytic therapy.
Discharge the patient.
Schedule repeat troponin within a few hours.
Feedback: Several cardiac biomarkers exist including the most specifc, cardiac troponin 1 (cTnI), cTnI begins to rise within 2 to 4 hours after cardiac injury, so if the initial result is normal, the test should be repeated within 6 to 9 hours and again at 12 to 24 hours. It is not known yet if the patient has had an MI so treatment with Downloaded by ashley burnett (dburnett86@gmail.com)
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thrombolytic therapy and/or catheterization would be premature. The patient should not
be discharged since the professional suspected an MI.
Prepare the patient for cardiac catheterization.
Correct
1/1 Points
8.Which patient would the healthcare professional assess for elevated levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion?
Being treated for small cell carcinoma of the stomach
Feedback: A common cause of elevated levels of ADH secretion is ectopically produced
ADH by tumors, such as small cell carcinoma of the duodenum, stomach, and pancreas; cancers of the bladder, prostate, and endometrium; lymphomas; and sarcomas. High doses of antiinfammatory medications are a risk factor, but acetaminophen is not an antiinfammatory medication. Surgery within the last 5 to 7 leads to increased ADH secretion. Kidney disease does not lead to excess levels of ADH.
Taking high dose acetaminophen (Tylenol) for arthritis
Had a hip replacement operation 14 days ago
Has long-standing kidney disease from diabetes
Correct
1/1 Points
9.A post-operative patient with gallbladder surgery has an epidural infusion of Astramorph. The patients respiratory rate starts to decline to 9 breaths/minute. Which medication should the healthcare provider anticipate administering to this patient?
Protamine sulfate
Mucomyst
Naloxone
Feedback: Naloxone is a narcotic antagonist that can reverse the efect of both adverse and therapeutic use of opioid narcotic analgesics.
Solu-Medrol
Correct
1/1 Points
10.A patient is brought to the Emergency Department with a gunshot wound to the chest. The healthcare professional assesses an abnormality involving a pleural rupture that acts as a one-way valve, permitting air to enter on inspiration but preventing its escape by closing during expiration. What action by the healthcare professional is
the priority?
Draw arterial blood gasses.
Assist with a chest tube insertion.
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Feedback: In a tension pneumothorax, the site of pleural rupture acts as a one-way valve, permitting air to enter on inspiration but preventing its escape by closing up during expiration. As more and more air enters the pleural space, air pressure in the pneumothorax begins to exceed barometric pressure. Air pressure in the pleural space pushes against the already recoiled lung, causing compression atelectasis, and against the mediastinum, compressing and displacing the heart, great vessels, and trachea. This is an emergency condition requiring chest tube insertion or immediate needle decompression. Arterial blood gas results will not change the treatment plan. This patient may need oxygen if defnitive treatment is delayed, but it would need to be high-fow oxygen. Clubbing of fngernails occurs in chronic hypoxemic conditions. The professional should assist with immediate needle decompression or chest tube insertion.
Give the patient low-fow oxygen.
Assess for clubbing of fngernails.
Correct
1/1 Points
11.A 2-year-old pediatric patient with limited medical history available arrives to an urgent care with excessive irritability and crying. X-rays were obtained and noted to have fractures of the metatarsals of the foot and left tibia. On exam, the nurse notes that the patient seems to have a blue tint to both sclera, and she didn't seem to react normally when the nurse was talking to her. Which diagnosis is most likely in this
case?
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Feedback: Osteogenesis imperfecta (OI) is a genetic abnormality with predominant autosomal dominant inheritance. OI afects bone integrity through a variety of collagen defects. Depending on the type of OI, various manifestations may be concomitant such as appearance of blue sclera, hearing defcits, short stature and/or dental malformations.
Calcium defciency
Non-accidental trauma (physical abuse)
Osteomyelitis
Correct
1/1 Points
12.A patient who has chronic kidney disease has hemoglobin of 7.2 mg/dL. What treatment does the healthcare professional prepare the patient for?
Intrinsic factor
b. Vitamin B12
c. Vitamin D
d. Erythropoietin
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Feedback: Anemia of chronic kidney disease can be successfully treated with erythropoietin. Reduced erythropoietin secretion and reduced red cell production are evident in anemia resulting from chronic kidney disease. Intrinsic factor is needed for the absorption of vitamin B12. Vitamin D is important for calcium absorption.
Correct
1/1 Points
13.A healthcare professional is assessing a patient who could have either pyelonephritis or cystitis. Which diferentiating sign would assist the professional in making this diagnosis?
Difculty initiating urine stream
Urinalysis confrmation of white blood cell casts
Feedback: Clinical assessment alone is difcult to diferentiate the symptoms of cystitis from those of pyelonephritis. Urine culture, urinalysis, and clinical signs and symptoms establish the specifc diagnosis. When present, white blood cell casts indicate
pyelonephritis.
Spasmodic pain that radiates through the groin
Increased GFR
Correct
1/1 Points
14.James, a 22-year-old frefghter, presents to your practice with dyspnea on exertion. He reports that he has trouble keeping up with his squad and can no longer carry his 40 lb. pack. He reports 2 months of nocturnal cough, a 10 lb. weight loss and fatigue. He denies any history of smoking and he drinks 2-3 six packs of beer daily. He presented 3 weeks ago to a primary care clinic where he was told he had pneumonia and asthma. He was started on antibiotics and a B-
agonist, but still does not feel well. Which of the following fndings is the least specifc in making a diagnosis?
Elevated JVD
Wheezing
Feedback: Wheezing is not a sign of heart failure.
S3 gallop
Rales
Correct
1/1 Points
15.A patient with history of a hemithyroidectomy is attending her annual wellness exam. The healthcare provider orders a serum TSH. The results are 4.6 microunits/mL, with a normal range of 0.3 - 6 microunits/mL. The healthcare provider can draw the following conclusion about this patient's thyroid function.
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TSH is normal indicating that the patient’s thyroid hormone is normal.
Feedback: The negative feedback loop, unique to the endocrine system allows laboratory evaluation by measuring various hormones involved in the feedback loop of the endocrine organ. Thyroid stimulation hormone will fuctuate as the body needs thyroid hormone. In cases where the thyroid is not functioning at an optimal state and thyroid hormone is not being produced, the anterior pituitary gland will continue to produce TSH in attempts to stimulate the thyroid. The more the thyroid does not produce thyroid hormone, the more TSH produced. In this case, the TSH level is normal suggesting that thyroid function is operating a normal rate in this patient.
TSH is normal indicating that the patient's thyroid level is low.
TSH is normal indicating that the patient's thyroid hormone is elevated.
TSH as a laboratory test alone is not enough data to draw a conclusion about thyroid
function.
Correct
1/1 Points
16.Lab results reveal that a 55-year-old male patient with insulin-
dependent type 2 diabetes has a HgbA1c of 6.9%. A review of his medications reveals that he takes 60 units of Lantus SQ at night and covers his meals with Humalog insulin using a sliding scale. Based on this information alone, what changes to his treatment regimen should the provider recommend?
Increase his nightly Lantus dose
increases each dose of the Humalog sliding scale
Add metformin
Make no changes
Feedback: Make no changes because less than 7% is our HgbA1c goal in diabetics.
Correct
1/1 Points
17.A patient with history of asthma presents with acute exacerbation after exposure to a known trigger (cat). Which immunoglobulin is released as part of the physiology associated with an allergic response?
IgA
IgE
Feedback: IgE is produced after trigger in the nose, throat, lungs or skin. IgE binds to receptors that stimulate an immune response. In patients with asthma, IgE binds to mast cells which initiates the cascade of an asthma exacerbation (infammation).
IgG
IgM
Correct
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1/1 Points
18.A person has acne, easy bruising, thin extremities, and truncal obesity. Which health history fnding is most likely the cause of these symptoms?
Partial thyroid removal
Chronic glucocorticoid use
Feedback: These symptoms are characteristic of Cushing disease (or Cushing-like syndrome) which can be caused by long-term use of glucocorticoids to treat other medical conditions. None of the other combined history fndings can be attributed to the
choices given.
Stage 3 heart failure
High calorie diet
Correct
1/1 Points
19.The physiology diferences which distinguishes a partial focus seizure from a generalized seizure is best represented in which of the following statements?
Patients are aware during a partial focus seizure, but not during a generalized seizure.
A partial focus seizure only involves the lower half of the body.
Partial focus seizures result when neural tissue is abnormal in a focal area of the brain.
Partial focus seizures result when abnormal neural tissue is present in both hemispheres of the brain.
Correct
1/1 Points
20.Ondansetron should be avoided in which of the following patients? Select all that apply.
A 12-year-old patient with vomiting and diarrhea for 2 days.
A 52-year-old male with history of prolonged QT syndrome.
Feedback: Ondansetron is contraindicated or with caution in those with prolonged QT syndrome, heart failure, electrolyte imbalance, or while taking other medications known
to cause prolonged QT such as methadone. In patients with prolonged QT syndrome, the
dysrhythmia torsades de pointes, occurs with increased risk when receiving ondansetron.
A 74-year-old male with chronic renal failure admitted for electrolyte balance following dialysis.
Feedback: Ondansetron is contraindicated or with caution in those with prolonged QT syndrome, heart failure, electrolyte imbalance, or while taking other medications known
to cause prolonged QT such as methadone. In patients with prolonged QT syndrome, the
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dysrhythmia torsades de pointes, occurs with increased risk when receiving ondansetron.
A 32-year-old admitted for acute intoxication of methadone.
Feedback: Ondansetron is contraindicated or with caution in those with prolonged QT syndrome, heart failure, electrolyte imbalance, or while taking other medications known
to cause prolonged QT such as methadone. In patients with prolonged QT syndrome, the
dysrhythmia torsades de pointes, occurs with increased risk when receiving ondansetron.
45-year-old with history of non-small cell carcinoma of the left upper lobe of lung.
Correct
1/1 Points
21.A nurse has orders to give Lactulose to her patient with portal hypertension. The nurse knows that Lactulose is an osmotic laxative. This means that:
They increase the amount of water and electrolytes within the intestinal lumen by increasing secretion of water and ions into the intestine and by reducing water and electrolyte absorption.
They stimulate peristalsis and soften feces by increasing secretion of water and electrolytes into the intestine and decreasing water and electrolyte absorption.
They secrete water, thereby softening and enlarging the fecal mass; fecal swelling promotes peristalsis.
They retain water and thereby softens the feces; fecal swelling promotes peristalsis.
Correct
1/1 Points
22.A 74-year-old patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of hypertension, dementia and hyperlipidemia. The patient also has a history of a pulmonary embolism. Her son brought in a bag of her mediations which included warfarin, ginkgo biloba, low dose aspirin, hydrochlorothiazide, lisinopril and echinacea. The health care provider should be concerned over which medication as a potential drug to drug
interaction?
Echinacea and warfarin
Lisinopril and hydrochlorothiazide
Lisinopril and echinacea
Warfarin and gingko biloba
Feedback: Warfarin and blood thinners interact with gingko biloba as designed to improve memory. All herbal supplements should be evaluated with current pharmacological medications. The other options do not have drug interaction.
Correct
1/1 Points
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23.A 70-year old patient is concerned that he is becoming forgetful. He
wants the APRN to recommend ways to prevent this from happening. Which of the following is an evidenced based recommendation?
Begin to take a vitamin B12 supplement
Make sure to get 8-9 hours of sleep per night
Stay well hydrated with 8 glasses of fuid per day
Play cards or word games with friends several times a week
Feedback: It is important for patients who are concerned with forgetfulness to do activities that promote memory and learning so social engage with friends.
Correct
1/1 Points
24.A patient needs to purchase a new prescription of Eliquis but does not have stable employment nor health insurance. Which 2 social determinants of health are primarily impacting this patient’s ability to access the medication he needs?
Economic stability and health/healthcare
Feedback: Answer d does not contain actual social determinants of health, just components of them. Answer A is the best choice because money is going to be the one
main reason the patient might not be able to take his medication.
Education and health literacy
Social and community context and neighborhood and built environment
Rural healthcare access and environmental conditions
Correct
1/1 Points
25.The nurse is obtaining a history from a patient who discloses daily use of St. John’s wort in addition to prescription drugs. Which efect of this dietary supplement would most concern the nurse?
It accelerates the metabolism of some drugs.
Feedback: St. John’s wort has the potential to interact with many drugs through three diferent mechanisms. One mechanism, induction of P450, accelerates the metabolism of many drugs, causing loss of therapeutic efects. St. John’s wort reduces the efects of digoxin, because P-glycoprotein transports drugs out of tubular cells of the kidney and into the urine, greatly reducing digoxin levels. St. John’s wort does not counteract the benefcial efects of CNS depressants; it can actually intensify the efects of serotonin. St. John’s wort is not known to increase the risk of bleeding
It enhances the efects of digoxin.
It counteracts the efects of CNS depressants.
It increases the risk of bleeding.
Correct
1/1 Points
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26.A nursing student asks the charge nurse what the NMBER system that rates dietary supplements means. The nurse responds that the NMBER system:
Provides free information about clinical trials and epidemiologic studies of products.
Provides funding for research on complementary and alternative medicine.
Describes the chemistry, toxicology, pharmacology, and uses of supplements.
Helps consumers evaluate the safety and efcacy of products.
Feedback: The Natural Medicines Brand Evidence-Based Rating (NMBER) system ofers evidence-based ratings for over 60,000 supplement products based on scientifc evidence of safety and efcacy.
Correct
1/1 Points
27.What is the primary source of physiologic iron?
Transferrin from plasma
Pepsin form pepsinogen
Bile from bilirubin
Heme from animal protein
Feedback: The primary source of iron is heme from animal protein. A small portion of iron comes from recycling of old red blood cells.
Correct
1/1 Points
28.A clinic-based task force is assigned with designing practices that help providers prioritize patient care. They decide to initiate which of the following?
Increased patient appointment times to facilitate appropriate treatment plans
Web-linked electronic health records that facilitate identifcation of clinical options based on clinical decision support tools
Feedback: EHRs have long been recognized as efective tools for patient prioritization, but have never been efectively used. The other choices are not presented in the article as possible options.
More accurate, patient-specifc nursing care plans that include patient decision-
making
Increased hiring of providers to efciently and successfully develop appropriate patient treatment plans.
Correct
1/1 Points
29.A self-management priority for a patient with asthma is to provide quick relief therapy for:
Bronchospasm
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Feedback: See web link https://jaoa.org/article.aspx?articleid=2210624
Hives
Triggers
Wheezing
Correct
1/1 Points
30.A healthcare professional is working with providers in a developing country to fnd appropriate asthma treatment guidelines. The most appropriate website related to asthma treatment for providers in countries with limited resources is:
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention website
Center for Disease Prevention and Health Promotion website
Feedback: GINA guidelines are for use around the globe and are a great resource for providers in countries with limited research fndings and other resources. The other options are in the US and may not be appropriate for other countries.
Food and Drug Administration website
Global Initiative for Asthma website
Correct
1/1 Points
31.Which of the following should be obtained in a 7-year-old patient starting the stimulant methylphenidate? Select all that apply.
Height
Feedback: Rationale: Stimulant agents can cause poor appetite. Obtaining baseline height and weight will allow trending of this adverse efect.
Weight
Feedback: Rationale: Stimulant agents can cause poor appetite. Obtaining baseline height and weight will allow trending of this adverse efect.
Urine drug test
Audiometry testing
Visual acuity testing
Correct
1/1 Points
32.CYP450 is responsible for which one of the following?
Activation of recessive gene traits. Absorption of drugs through passive binding in the small intestine
Metabolism of drugs
Feedback: Located in the mitochondria or endoplasmic reticulum, CYPs metabolize numerous drugs, hormones, vitamin D and also involved in production of cholesterol.
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Children under 1 year of age have varying rates of hepatic metabolism, so medication dosages are set by a board of pharmacists for all pediatric patients.
Correct
1/1 Points
33.The health care professional is working with a patient who is dealing
with depression. The patient is complaining of feeling tired and fatigued during the day. Which antidepressant would help these improve these symptoms based on the side efect profle of the drug?
Fluoxetine
Feedback: Fluoxetine works with the central nervous system stimulation. This medication will assist in works on central nervous system stimulation and will assist in patients with fatigue
Mirtazapine
Duloxetine
Amitriptyline
Correct
1/1 Points
34.A patient presents to the emergency department reporting severe fatigue after an extreme weather event several days ago that resulted in the deaths of two family members and loss of the family home. Her vital signs are at baseline and other assessment fndings are unremarkable. Which serum lab draw would be most appropriate based
on the recent history?
cortisol level
Feedback: Cortisol can easily be depleted after several days of intense stress response.
troponin level
lipase level
erythrocyte sedimentation rate
Correct
1/1 Points
35.The healthcare provider is caring for a 78-year-old female who is recovering from surgery. The ended up being a long surgery and you note in the chart that her blood sugars are elevated however, she has not been diagnosed a diabetic. What do you contribute to this elevated
blood sugar level?
It is a result of antidiuretic hormone.
She probably had diabetes prior to surgery.
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She has become a diabetic from the abdominal surgery.
The elevated blood sugar level is a result of the fght or fight reaction.
Feedback: During stressful situations, ACTH stimulates the release of cortisol from the adrenal gland, which creates protein catabolism releasing amino acids and stimulating the liver to convert amino acids to glucose, the results is an elevated blood sugar. Option A, is incorrect. Antidiuretic hormone is released during stressful situations and stimulates reabsorption of water in the distal and collecting tubules of the kidney. Option B in incorrect, assuming the patient had diabetes prior to surgery demonstrates a lack of understanding of stress induced hyperglycemia. Option C is incorrect, there is no evidence in the questions other than elevated blood sugar levels that would support a diagnosis of diabetes.
Correct
1/1 Points
36.A patient arrives to the clinic reporting last two weeks of feeling overwhelmingly sad, wanting to be left alone, and difculty focusing. The health care provider has diagnosed the patient with mild depression. What is the recommended approach in management of mild depression?
Drug therapy or psychotherapy
Feedback: Treatment for someone with mild depression should be either drug therapy or psycho therapy
A combination of drug therapy and psychotherapy
Electroconvulsive therapy
Transcranial magnetic stimulation
Correct
1/1 Points
37.Diagnostic criteria for generalized anxiety disorder include all the following except:
Difculty concentrating
Excessive hunger
Easily fatigued
Irritability
Correct
1/1 Points
38.The least important factor in the evaluation of a patient with clinical
depression would be:
Their thinking process
Evidence of past physical harm
Basic personality type
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Feedback: All of the above are important factors to consider for a diagnosis of depression. Personality type is not important.
Potential for suicide
Correct
1/1 Points
39.A patient is given a prescription for clozapine. The healthcare professional educates the patient that this drug blocks which neurotransmitter receptor?
Norepinephrine
Dopamine
Feedback: Clozapine is a second-generation atypical antipsychotic drug that works by blocking dopamine receptors.
Gamma-aminobutyric acid
Serotonin
Correct
1/1 Points
40.A patient asks the nurse what can be given to alleviate severe, chronic pain of several months’ duration. The patient has been taking oxycodone [OxyContin] and states that it is no longer efective. The nurse will suggest discussing which medication with the provider?
Fentanyl [Duragesic] transdermal patch
Feedback: Transdermal fentanyl is indicated only for persistent, severe pain in patients
already opioid tolerant. Hydrocodone, a combination product, has actions similar to codeine and is not used for severe, chronic pain. Meperidine is not recommended for continued use because of the risk of harm caused by the accumulation of a toxic metabolite. Pentazocine is an agonist-antagonist opioid and is less efective for pain; moreover, when given to a patient who is already opioid tolerant, it can precipitate an acute withdrawal syndrome.
Hydrocodone [Vicodin] PO
Meperidine [Demerol] PO
Pentazocine [Talwin] PO
Correct
1/1 Points
41.A healthcare worker planning a research project related to teenage pregnancy in his community would include in the initial assessment the
health status of the target population. Health status could be best evaluated by the examination of the:
Birth rate, disease morbidity, and life expectancy
Birth rate, access to health care, and death rate
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Disease morbidity, life expectancy, and health insurance coverage.
Health insurance coverage, death rate, and access to health care.
Correct
1/1 Points
42.The healthcare provider is caring for a patient in the ER. Her daughter brought her into the ER because her mothers’ behavior has drastically changed of the last few days. She tells you that her mother has become extremely confused and has had a slight fever in the last two days. What should you check for?
Hypertension
A urinary tract infection
Feedback: In older patients their symptoms include behavior changes such as confusion.
Diabetes
Thyroid problem
Correct
1/1 Points
43.A newly diagnosed diabetic patient reports that he lives in an area of the city that the nurse knows is economically depressed and has few
stores or restaurants with access to healthy foods. For which social determinant does the RN need to accommodate when educating the patient about his nutrition?
Economic stability
Education
Social and community context
Health and healthcare
Neighborhood and built environment
Feedback: One of the key issues in Neighborhood and Built Environment is access to healthy foods.
Correct
1/1 Points
44.You are about to prescribe spironolactone (Aldactone) 25 mg. PO twice a day for a 74-year-old man with systolic heart failure. Which of the following is a priority for the APRN?
Order an electrolyte panel in 3 days
Feedback: You will need to check potassium levels
Order liver function tests in 3 days
Order a CBC/dif within a week
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None of the above
Correct
1/1 Points
45.A pediatric patient is diagnosed with chickenpox. The parent is asking about medications that would help the patient with symptoms. The best response would be: (Select all that apply)
Diphenhydramine
Aspirin
Acetaminophen
Ibuprofen
Feedback: NSAIDs may cause a secondary skin eruption therefore should be avoided in
patients with chickenpox
Correct
1/1 Points
46.A 22-year-old male arrives to the emergency room following a motor vehicle accident. Physical examination reveals increased trouble
breathing with decreased breath sounds on the left side. The patient's trachea appears to be deviating to the right when examining the neck. Which intervention is highest in priority?
placement of a chest tube to the left side
placement of a test tube to the right side
needle decompression on the left side
Feedback: tracheal deviation is a hallmark physical exam fnding for a pneumothorax which needle decompression on the afected side is appropriate
needle decompression the right side
Correct
1/1 Points
47.A newborn with sickle cell disease trait is prescribed twice-daily oral
penicillin. This is acceptable management according to which of the following rationales?
Individuals with sickle cell trait who have not received the pneumococcal vaccine are at an increased risk for pneumococcal infections.
Feedback: Patients with sickle cell disease are prone to pneumococcal bacterial infections therefore prior to receiving the pneumococcal vaccine prophylactic antibiotics
are prescribed
Individuals with sickle cell disease are at an increased risk for streptococcal infection.
Individuals with sickle cell disease have increased risk of clotting, thus antibiotics will prevent opportunistic infections.
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Individuals with sickle cell trait have immunosuppression secondary to asplenia.
Correct
1/1 Points
48.Which of the following laboratory values would suggest simvastatin has been efective?
LDL 89 mg/dL
Feedback: LDL <100 mg/dL is normal range
HDL 32 mg/dL
Total cholesterol 210 mg/dL
Triglycerides 174 mg/dL
Correct
1/1 Points
49.A chromosomal deletion occurs when:
An error is made in the DNA transcription process.
Gene coding is missing on a specifc chromosome.
Feedback: Genes are codes for specifc body codes/functions. When missing, syndromes like Cri-du-chat, Prader-Willi can occur.
A chromosome is missing.
An autosomal chromosome is fragmented.
Correct
1/1 Points
50.Which properties of the angiotensin can enzyme (ACE)inhibitors are advantageous when treating conditions like hypertension? Select all that apply. Vasoconstriction
Vasodilation
Diuresis
Increasing contractile force of the heart
Cholinergic efects
Go back to thank you page
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