ERSC 1P01 Final exam_2022F
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Planet Earth –
Solid Earth: ERSC 1P01 Exam date: 10 December 2022 Page 1 of 9 THIS EXAMINATION WILL NOT BE DEPOSITED IN THE LIBRARY RESERVE BROCK UNIVERSITY Final Examination: Saturday, 10 December, 2022 Number of pages: 9 Course: Planet Earth –
Solid Earth, ERSC 1P01 Number of students: 114 Place of Examination: THSOS Duration: 2 hours Time of Examination: 14:00
–
16:00 hrs Instructor: Martin J. Head No examination aids are permitted (this regulation does not preclude special arrangements being made for students with disabilities). Use or possession of unauthorized materials or electronic devices will result in a charge of academic misconduct under the University’s Academic Integrity Policy.
A minimum of 50 percent must be obtained on this final examination in order to achieve a passing grade in the course.
Name Student number There are sixty (60) questions in total. Answer ALL questions: they are all equally weighted. NO marks are deducted for incorrect answers. Choose only ONE answer for each question. 1. When an earthquake occurs, the place underground where the rock first failed is known as the a. quake point b. epicentre c. quake focus d. Richter point e. hypocentre 2. A fault with an angle of 30° or less to horizontal in which the hanging wall has moved upwards relative to the footwall wall, with no lateral displacement, is termed a a. joint b. normal fault c. thrust fault d. reverse fault e. strike-slip fault 3. Regarding seismic waves, those SURFACE waves where particles of material move perpendicular to the direction of travel are called a. P-waves b. L-waves c. Z-waves d. S-waves e. R-waves 4. A modern seismograph consists of an electrical coil surrounded by a heavy magnet. The coil is firmly fixed to a frame that is bolted to the bedrock, and the heavy magnet is suspended from the frame by springs. During an earthquake, which components actually move? a. Only the frame b. All components except the coil c. All components of the seismograph d. All components except the magnet e. None of the above
Planet Earth –
Solid Earth: ERSC 1P01 Exam date: 10 December 2022 Page 2 of 9 5. Place the following waves in their correct order of speed, beginning with the fastest a. Surface waves, S-waves, P-waves b. R-waves, L-waves, P-waves c. P-waves, S-waves, surface waves d. L-waves, P-waves, S-waves e. S-waves, P-waves, surface waves 6. Regarding earthquakes, which one of the following is FALSE? a. The Mercalli intensity scale relies on more complex analysis of waves than the Richter scale b. Triangulation can be used to determine the position of an epicentre c. Southern Ontario can experience small earthquakes d. The Mediterranean region is seismically active e. A six (6) on the Richter scale is ten times as powerful as a five (5) 7. The Wadati-Benioff zone reflects a. rocks accumulating in an accretionary prism b. earthquakes along the inclined plane of a subducting plate c. the distribution of earthquakes around the Atlantic Ocean d. crushed and pulverized rock along any fault system e. lateral movement along a transform plate margin 8. A continental transform fault earthquake could occur in which major city/region? a. Kashmir, Himalayas b. New York (USA) c. Tokyo (Japan) d. Toronto (Ontario, Canada) e. San Francisco (USA) 9. The Denali fault, over which the Trans-Alaska pipeline crosses, is a a. joint b. normal fault c. thrust fault d. reverse fault e. strike-slip fault 10. When a tsunami moves from the deep ocean to the shore, where water depths are shallower, it a. speeds up b. slows down c. maintains a constant speed d. decreases in wave height e. both speeds up and increases in wave height 11. The P-wave shadow zone on Earth occurs because a. the inner core is solid b. the outer core refracts the P-wave towards it c. the P-wave cannot travel through the outer core because it is liquid d. the P-wave is a surface wave and only travels a limited distance e. the outer core is solid 12. The solid inner core of the Earth was discovered by the reflection of a. Rayleigh waves b. P-waves c. S-waves d. Love waves e. none of the given answers
Planet Earth –
Solid Earth: ERSC 1P01 Exam date: 10 December 2022 Page 3 of 9 13. Which ONE of the following is TRUE? a. a seismic wave travels faster through peridotite (mantle) than sandstone (upper crust) b. a seismic wave travels faster through a liquid than a solid c. the mantle shows a gradual increase seismic velocity with depth d. a seismic ray travelling from a slow to a fast medium always bends towards the fast medium e. The closer the earthquake, the deeper the mantle that can be analyzed 14. A mountain belt is termed a(n) a. orogen b. seismogen c. monoton d. tectogen e. mountogen 15. Striations (grooves) along a fault caused by friction during sliding are called a. slide grooves b. fault grooves c. ridgebacks d. glide paths e. slickensides 16. During mountain building, a valley between two tilted (rotated) fault blocks that are underlain by a detachment fault is called a a. horst b. graben c. half-graben d. hanging block e. normal block 17. In the field, the angle and direction of a tilted bedding plane are described by measuring the a. drop and slide b. draw and balance c. dip and strike d. throw and bearing e. declination and inclination 18. A fold in strata in which the centre of the fold is younger than the limbs of the fold is known as a(n) a. anticline b. dipcline c. unconformity d. dome e. syncline 19. When a mountain belt rises, it weighs down progressively on the surface of the crust to form a depression that fills with sediment. This depression is called a(n) a. accretionary prism b. subduction basin c. exotic terrane d. foreland basin e. both an accretionary prism and a subduction basin
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Planet Earth –
Solid Earth: ERSC 1P01 Exam date: 10 December 2022 Page 4 of 9 20. Which one of the following statements is TRUE a. The Himalayas are subsiding b. The western margin of Canada is tectonically inactive c. Gentle deformation of a craton is known as a seismogeny d. In crustal dynamics, the process where buoyancy pushes up and gravity pulls down is megastasis e. Brock University is on the cratonic platform 21. He illustrated fossils in exquisite detail, and some of these under the microscope, and realized that many of these fossils were extinct. He was: a. Robert Hooke b. William Smith c. Pliny the Elder d. Nicholas Steno e. Charles Darwin 22
. The first person to use fossils to correlate strata and produce the world’s first geological map was
a. William Smith b. Pliny the Elder c. Alfred Wegener d. Herodotus e. Georgius Agricola 23. During fossilization, the original calcite forming a shell may be replaced by a new mineral of entirely different chemical composition such as pyrite. This process is known as a. permineralization b. carbonization c. recrystallization d. desiccation e. replacement 24. Which ONE of the following statements is TRUE? a. Well-oxygenated bottom waters and slow burial are usually favorable for the preservation of fossils b. Amber is the fossilized sugary sap from trees c. The Burgess Shale of British Columbia contains Cambrian fossils of soft-bodied organisms d. The fossil record gives us a nearly complete record of past life e. The lithographic limestone of Solenhofen in Germany has yielded one of the earliest fossil amphibians 25. Which ONE of the following statements is FALSE? a. Bivalves have shells divided into two similar halves b. Trilobites are arthropods divided lengthwise into three parts c. Bryozoans are colonial organisms d. Graptolites are sea lilies and are related to sea urchins e. Ammonites are extinct cephalopods related to the living Nautilus
. 26. The co-discoverer (with Charles Darwin) of evolution by natural selection was a. Carolus Linnaeus b. Francis Crick c. Gregor Mendel d. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck e. Alfred Russel Wallace
Planet Earth –
Solid Earth: ERSC 1P01 Exam date: 10 December 2022 Page 5 of 9 27. The model of evolution characterized by pulses of rapid change followed by stasis is known as a. gradualism b. keystone selection c. phyletic selection d. punctuated equilibrium e. natural selection 28
. Looking at a now famous unconformity at Siccar Point in Scotland, he exclaimed “we find no vestige of a beginning, no prospect of an end”. His name was
a. James Hutton b. James Ussher c. Nicholas Steno d. Charles Darwin e. Charles Lyell 29
. “The present is the key to the past” embodies the
a. Principle of uniformitarianism b. Principle of original continuity c. Principle of fossil succession d. Principle of superposition e. Principle of original horizontality 30. The relative geological time scale was mostly constructed during the a. 16
th
century b. 17
th
century c. 18
th
century d. 19
th
century e. 20
th
century 31. In an undeformed, continuously deposited sequence of sedimentary rocks (first locality) comprising ten beds numbered 1 (at the base) to 10 (at the top), a number of fossils have the following ranges: trilobites (beds 1 and 2), conodonts (beds 2 and 3), brachiopods (beds 3 to 6), ammonites (bed 5), gastropods (beds 6 to 8), and bivalves (beds 8 to 10). In a second locality, rocks of unknown stratigraphic position contain brachiopods and gastropods. These rocks are biostratigraphically correlated to which bed(s) from the first locality? a. bed 3 b. bed 6 c. beds 6 to 8 d. beds 3 to 8 e. beds 3 to 6 32. A surface in a sedimentary sequence representing a period of non-deposition or erosion is a(n) a. unconformity b. irregularity c. intrusion d. erratic e. disjunction 33. From oldest to youngest, which is the correct order for the periods of the Paleozoic? a. Cambrian, Silurian, Ordovician, Devonian, Pennsylvanian, Mississippian, Permian b. Cambrian, Ordovician, Silurian, Devonian, Mississippian, Pennsylvanian, Permian c. Ordovician, Cambrian, Silurian, Mississippian, Pennsylvanian, Devonian, Permian d. Cambrian, Devonian, Ordovician, Silurian, Pennsylvanian, Mississippian, Permian e. Cambrian, Ordovician, Devonian, Silurian, Permian, Mississippian, Pennsylvanian
Planet Earth –
Solid Earth: ERSC 1P01 Exam date: 10 December 2022 Page 6 of 9 34. The Carboniferous Period was defined from a locality in a. France b. Russia c. Wales d. Germany e. England 35. A crystal of zircon is found to contain one quarter of 235
U and three quarters of 207
Pb. Knowing that 235
U has a half life of 713 million years, and that it decays directly to 207
Pb with no subsequent loss of either isotope a. the crystal is 356.5 million years old b. the crystal is 713 million years old c. the crystal is 1069.5 million years old d. the crystal is 1426 million years old e. None of the above 36. Comparing rocks of the Grand Canyon with rocks of the same age at Las Vegas: a. The Grand Canyon rocks have a more complete record of geological time b. The Las Vegas rocks have a more complete record of geological time c. The Grand Canyon rocks represent deposition in deep waters d. The Las Vegas rocks represent deposition in shallow waters e. Both b and d 37. A complete fossilized dinosaur is found in sedimentary strata that rest directly on the eroded surface of a granite pluton. About 50 metres above the dinosaur is an ash bed. Radiometric dating gives the age of the granite as 186 million years, and the ash bed as 154 million years. The age of the fossil is: a. exactly 186 million years b. exactly 154 million years c. exactly 170 million years d. somewhere between 186 and 154 million years e. impossible to estimate 38. Which one of the following statements is FALSE? a. The nature of radioactive decay was discovered at McGill University b. The parent isotope 235
U and its daughter isotope 207
Pb have different chemical behaviours c. Fission tracks in volcanic glass are caused by cosmic rays d. Magnetic anomalies on the seafloor can be correlated to sedimentary sequences on land e. Dendrochronology uses the study of growth rings to date fossil wood 39. The age of Earth’s formation is presently based on the
a. radiometric dating of the oldest Moon rocks b. cooling of Earth from an original temperature assumed to be as hot as the Sun c. concentration of salt in the world’s oceans
d. radiometric dating of Earth’s oldest rocks
e. total thickness of all sediments deposited 40. Which statement is TRUE about the the Hadean Eon? a. stable continental interiors called cratons first appeared b. the Moon would have appeared much smaller than today c. the atmosphere was without free oxygen d. single-celled organisms first appeared e. the surface of the Earth was cold and rocky
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Planet Earth –
Solid Earth: ERSC 1P01 Exam date: 10 December 2022 Page 7 of 9 41. Greenstone belts are common in Archean cratons. The greenstone within these belts represents a. the partial melting of continental crust b. a metamorphosed mixture of clay and sand deposited in the ocean c. metamorphosed oceanic crust d. precipitation of silica in the deep sea e. clastic deposits showing evidence of deposition by rivers 42. The second earliest known supercontinent was a. Rodinia b. Gondwana c. Pannotia d. Pangaea e. Grenvillia 43. The word Archean derives from the a. Greek meaning “first life”
b. Greek meaning “new life”
c. Greek meaning “ancient”
d. Greek with reference to the god of the underworld e. Latin with reference to the god of fire 44. Increasing levels of free atmospheric oxygen through the Proterozoic are indicated by a. a decline in banded iron formation b. increasing levels of iron sulphides in sedimentary clasts c. a decline in red beds d. an absence of eukaryotic life e. an absence of photosynthesizing organisms 45. The Ediacaran biota represents a. the first forms of multicellular life b. the first metazoan body fossils c. the first fossils with hard parts d. the first vertebrates e. both c and d 46. By the end of this period, all major fish groups and the first amphibians had evolved, and forests had formed; but web-spinning spiders, flying insects, and reptiles had yet to appear. K
nown as the “Age of Fish”, this period is the a. Devonian b. Ordovician c. Carboniferous d. Permian e. Silurian 47. Crucial to the development of reptiles was the evolution of a. an amniotic egg b. a placenta c. a swim bladder d. lungs e. limbs with five fingers
Planet Earth –
Solid Earth: ERSC 1P01 Exam date: 10 December 2022 Page 8 of 9 48. Pelycosaurs (sail-back reptiles) and therapsids (ancestors of mammals) evolved during this period, which ended with a profound mass extinction known as the “Great Dying”
. This period is the a. Carboniferous b. Jurassic c. Cambrian d. Devonian e. Permian 49. During this period, Tyranosaurus rex
was a top predator, Triceratops
was a common large three-
horned herbivore, and flowering plants evolved. It was the a. Jurassic b. Cretaceous c. Tertiary d. Triassic e. Devonian 50. Which ONE of the following is FALSE regarding the Cenozoic? a. The Alpine-Himalayan chain formed during the Cenozoic b. Anatomically modern humans appeared at the beginning of the Cenozoic c. India collided with Eurasia during the Cenozoic d. The western margin of N. America changed from convergent- to a transform-plate boundary e. It is known as the Age of Mammals 51. Aligators, monitor lizards, and warm-temperate forests thrived in the Canadian high arctic during the a. Holocene b. Miocene c. Oligocene d. Eocene e. Pleistocene 52. This presently unofficial but proposed new epoch of the geological time scale begins with the “Great Acceleration” at around the year 1950. It is called the
a. Agricocene b. Technocene c. Homocene d. Anthropocene e. Carbonocene 53. Which is in the correct order for increasing coal rank? a. Lignite, peat, bituminous coal, anthracite b. Peat, lignite, anthracite, bituminous coal c. Peat, anthracite, lignite, bituminous coal d. Lignite, bituminous coal, peat, anthracite e. Peat, lignite, bituminous coal, anthracite 54. Which one of the following statements is TRUE? a. Long-chain hydrocarbon molecules are gaseous at room temperature b. Salt is a poor seal (cap) rock c. Well-oxygenated bottom waters are needed for deposits to become a potential source rock d. A source rock originating from marine plankton can yield both gas and oil e. Oil and gas are mostly made up of carbon and oxygen atoms.
Planet Earth –
Solid Earth: ERSC 1P01 Exam date: 10 December 2022 Page 9 of 9 55. Which ONE of the following statements is TRUE? a. Gas hydrate is a major economic source of gas in warm shallow marine waters b. Important properties of a good reservoir rock are high porosity and high permeability c. Structural deformations in strata have poor potential for trapping and storing oil and gas d. O
il was first stored in empty milk churns and is still traded in “churns”.
e. Oil and natural gas do not typically occur in the word’s major sedimentary basins
56. Canada is one of the world’s largest producer
s of this element, and the Manhattan Project was reliant on a Canadian supply. It is a. gold b. silver c. molybdenum d. nickel e. uranium 57. The Sudbury impact structure in Ontario a. formed during the Eocene b. is one of the world’s largest deposits of nickel ore c. is one of the world’s largest deposits of iron ore
d. yields ore mostly originating from the impactor (a large meteorite) e. is one of the world’s largest deposits of aluminum ore
58. The production of cement uses which of the following rocks? a. limestone and coal b. sandstone and chert c. limestone and clay d. gypsum and clay e. rock salt and siltstone 59. Canada is a major exporter of aluminum, owing to hydroelectric power and an imported mineral formed by the extreme leaching of rocks. This mineral is a. hematite b. malachite c. goethite d. bauxite e. pyrite 60. The ingredients typically used in a blast furnace to smelt iron ore are a. iron ore, limestone, coke b. slag, limestone, coke c. pyrite, sandstone, shale d. malachite, hematite, shale e. pyrite, limestone, nitroglycerin END
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