Business and Society_ Stakeholders, Ethics, Public Policy 17e Lawrence TB 09_version1 - Copy
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University of Notre Dame *
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Course
224
Subject
Geography
Date
Feb 20, 2024
Type
docx
Pages
134
Uploaded by abayomiadisa2009
Student name: 9
TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.
1)
Business and society operate within, and depend on, the natural environment.
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2)
All natural capital assets are nonrenewable.
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3)
For human society to survive over time, it must operate sustainably.
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false
4)
A global set of Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) have been developed by the United States.
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true
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5)
If humanity continues to breach planetary boundaries, environmental devastation will result.
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e
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false
6)
The world’s natural resource base—the air, water, soil, minerals, and so forth—is infinite, or unbounded.
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true
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fal
se
7)
According to the textbook, global population is tripling every 50 years.
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true
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8)
Densely populated regions are some of the most polluted areas on Earth.
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9)
All forms of economic growth are detrimental to the environment.
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true
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10)
The leading contributor to global warming is the burning of fossil fuels, which releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.
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true
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false
11)
Black carbon is the second largest contributor to climate change, responsible for as much as 18 percent of global warming.
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true
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false
12)
Biodiversity refers to the number and variety of species that have become extinct.
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true
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se
13)
Life-cycle analysis involves collecting information on the lifelong environmental impact of a product, all the way from extraction of raw material, to manufacturing, to its distribution, use, and ultimate disposal.
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true
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false
14)
The circular economy refers to a production system that is regenerative by design.
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tru
e
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false
15)
Sustainable development will require technology cooperation through long-term partnerships between companies in developed and developing countries to transfer environmental technologies.
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tru
e
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false
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MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
16)
Both large and small businesses have adopted sustainable practices to what advantage?
A) cost savings from operational efficiency
B) opportunity to serve emerging economies
C) reduction of regulatory risk
D) All of these choices are correct.
17)
The world’s supply of geology, soil, air, water, and all living things is called
A) natural capital.
B) carrying capacity.
C) ecological biodiversity.
D) industrial ecology.
18)
Natural assets such as oil and coal are considered to be what type of resource?
A) sustainable
B) renewable
C) nonrenewable
D) stable and lasting
19)
How can business and government ensure fairness in sustainable development?
A) emphasize societal consumption over the basic quality of life
B) promote development that does not further degrade the environment
C) use innovation to meet human needs in developing nations only
D) give precedence to present human needs over future human needs
20)
The geological era in which human activity has dominated the impact on climate and the environment is called the
A) Industrial Revolution.
B) Precambrian era.
C) Anthropocene era.
D) Great Acceleration.
21)
What is one reason humanity continues to breach planetary boundaries?
A) The majority of society is not even aware of natural boundary limitations.
B) Nature’s feedback on human actions tends to be delayed until it’s too late.
C) Business, governments, and society really don’t care about sustainability.
D) There is an unspoken belief that technology will save us from ourselves.
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22)
The amount of land and water a human population needs to produce the resources it consumes and to absorb its wastes given prevailing technology is called
A) ecological footprint.
B) technological innovation.
C) sustainable development.
D) consumption footprint.
23)
The global population is currently
A) staying about the same.
B) growing exponentially.
C) growing gradually.
D) declining gradually.
24)
The percentage of people in a country who live in a city or town as compared to rural areas is called
A) industrialization.
B) ruralization.
C) urbanization.
D) acceleration.
25)
Which pattern of consumption is recommended to reduce humanity’s energy usage?
A) Buy goods from firms that focus strictly on profits.
B) Consume less and purchase less harmful products.
C) Build more transit stops on the outskirts of town.
D) Eat more beef, veal, mutton, and pork.
26)
Exponential GDP growth can have what impact on the environment?
A) further degradation of natural habitats
B) increased usage of nonrenewable resources
C) greater air and water pollution
D
) All of these choices are correct.
27)
About how much has the Earth warmed since 1880, according to the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change?
A) 1.8 degrees Fahrenheit
B) 1 degree Celsius
C) 1 degree Fahrenheit
D) 2 degrees Celsius
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28)
By promoting the use of clean cookstoves in developing nations, a global alliance hopes to reduce
A) deforestation.
B) meat consumption.
C) black carbon.
D) methane emissions.
29)
Deforestation impacts the environment in what way(s)?
A) There are fewer trees to absorb CO
2
.
B) It significantly increases methane emissions.
C) Less shade leads to even more warming.
D) The answers “There are fewer trees to absorb CO
2
” and “ Less shade leads to even more warming” are correct.
30)
The largest single source of global methane emissions derives from
A) beef production.
B) oil and gas wells.
C) deforestation.
D) manufacturing.
31)
Which recent addition to the Convention on Climate Change set limits on average global temperature rise?
A) Kyoto Protocol
B) Montreal Protocol
C) Paris Agreement
D) Global Air Report
32)
A thin layer of gas that protects the earth from excessive ultraviolet radiation from the sun is
A) ozone.
B) carbon.
C) methane.
D) oxygen.
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33)
Participants in the Montreal Protocol agreed that by 2030 they would phase out
A) black carbon.
B) CFCs.
C) HCFCs.
D) carbon dioxide.
34)
Arable land is accurately described by which statement?
A) If cared for properly, it is a renewable resource.
B) Over half of irrigated lands in developing countries have been desalinized.
C) Poor farming practices have caused arable lands to turn into swamps.
D) Soil erosion helps to distribute dirt across arable lands.
35)
Why is water considered a renewable resource?
A) Moisture evaporates from oceans and returns to Earth as freshwater precipitation.
B) Water is not considered to be a renewable resource.
C) When surface water is depleted, underground water bubbles up naturally.
D) Polar ice cap melt regularly replenishes the global water supply.
36)
The commitments of the Convention on Biological Diversity include
A) developing national conservation strategies.
B) completely eliminating CFC production.
C) providing population control education.
D) massive irrigation projects in developing countries.
37)
The Great Pacific garbage patch formed due to which marine ecosystem threat?
A) overfishing
B) microplastics
C) coastal development
D) ocean acidity
38)
The term for the number and variety of species and the range of their genetic makeup is
A) biodiversity.
B) biosphere.
C) ecosystem.
D) natural capital.
39)
Life-cycle analysis involves
A) accurately recording the production costs at each stage of a product’s life cycle.
B) collecting information on the lifelong environmental impact of a product, from cradle to grave.
C) reducing recycling costs for disposable products.
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D) increasing productivity while improving the environment.
40)
An example of industrial ecology in practice is
A) developing a paper recycling program in a business office.
B) using waste from one process as raw material for another process.
C) manufacturing recyclable containers for food products.
D) All of these choices are correct.
41)
Product stewardship refers to the idea that companies have responsibility for the environmental impact of their goods
A) only during manufacturing.
B) up until they are sold.
C) even after they are sold.
D) every time a product is returned.
42)
The term circular economy
refers to a production system that is
A) linear and finite.
B) proven and repeatable.
C) regenerative by design.
D) distributed around the world.
43)
An organization that produces net zero emissions of greenhouse gases is achieving
A) carbon offsets.
B) carbon credits.
C) carbon neutrality.
D) carbon dating.
44)
Sustainable development through technology cooperation is best illustrated by
A) the Paris Agreement, which aims to limit the rise of the average global temperature.
B) Microsoft providing the Jane Goodall Institute with animal migration tracking tools.
C) a Swiss company selling chemicals agreeing to global sustainable development goals.
D) Salesforce installing its own water recycling system, including “graywater” processing.
45)
How do primitive cooking methods impact the environment, according to the case “Clean
Cooking”?
A) Gathering firewood increases biodiversity.
B) Combustion creates black carbon pollution.
C) Cutting trees for fuel replenishes the watershed.
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D) Burning animal dung adds moisture to the air.
46)
According to the case “Clean Cooking,” the widespread adoption of clean cookstoves would provide which benefit?
A
) reduced health risks
B) an increase in arable land
C) more take-out food options
D) less entrepreneurial activity
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
47)
Explain how business and society interact within the natural environment.
The interaction of business and society within the natural environment emphasized the concepts
by which businesses' are responsible for environmental stewardship through sustainable
practices, corporate social responsibility, stakeholder engagement, and ethical conduct by
fostering and promoting a positive interaction with the natural environment.
48)
Identify a business with which you are familiar. What management steps could this business take to operate more sustainably?
49)
What is meant by the Earth’s planetary boundaries? How can they be addressed? Discuss the changes that need to be made to bring the Earth’s carrying capacity back into balance with the demands placed on it by human society.
50)
Four critical forces of the Great Acceleration have combined to intensify the ecological crisis facing the world community and to make sustainable development more difficult. Explain and discuss these forces.(see page 11&12 ppt-chpt-9)
Socio-economic trends.
Earth system trends.
51)
What defines an environmental problem that is inherently global in scope? Discuss in detail two of the global problems outlined in the textbook that will have major consequences for business and society.
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52)
Discuss some of the voluntary initiatives undertaken by businesses around the world to incorporate sustainable development into their everyday business practices
.
Life cycle analysis:
is assessing a product's environmental impact throughout its entire existence, from raw material
extraction and manufacturing to distribution, use, and disposal.
Industrial ecology
is the designing factories and distribution systems as if they were self- contained-ecosystems.
Extended product responsibility.
extended product responsibility is a situation where a company accepts any responsibility for the
environmental impact of its products and services, even after they have been sold.
Student name:10
TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.
1)
By setting a common standard for all firms, government can take the cost of pollution control out of competition.
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tru
e
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false
2)
The first U.S. federal laws to protect the environment involved protecting navigable waterways.
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tru
e
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false
3)
The EPA has identified carbon monoxide as the sole indicator of the overall level of air pollution.
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true
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se
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4)
Efforts to prevent inequitable exposure to risk, such as from hazardous waste, are sometimes referred to as the movement for environmental justice.
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tru
e
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false
5)
Superfund sites were primarily funded by a tax on petroleum and chemical companies because they created significant amounts of toxic waste.
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ue
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false
6)
Command-and-control regulation can retard innovation.
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tru
e
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false
7)
Market-based pollution control mechanisms are the easiest to enforce.
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true
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se
8)
One potential cost of environmental regulation is reduced capital investment.
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true
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false
9)
Environmental regulations, such as energy conservation, depress the economy.
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true
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fals
e
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10)
Corporate sustainability leaders operate so they can continue their activities indefinitely, without altering the carrying capacity of the biosphere.
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true
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false
11)
In the past decade, nearly all organizations have become truly sustainable businesses.
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true
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fals
e
12)
Sustainability leaders have found they are most effective in reaching their goals when they do not involve line managers or employees.
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true
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fals
e
13)
Rewards and incentives are effective ways to make businesspeople consider the environmental impacts of their actions.
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true
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false
14)
Research shows that firms with good performance on material sustainability issues significantly outperform firms with poor performance on these issues.
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true
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false
15)
Products, but not services, can be marketed as being environmentally friendly.
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MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
16)
In the United States, the federal government regulates which of the following major areas
of environmental protection?
A) air pollution
B) water pollution
C) solid and hazardous waste
D) All of these answers are correct.
17)
The category of cross-media environmental law refers to
A) controls over contaminants from both hardware and software manufacturers.
B) rules that monitor emissions from TV, radio, and cell towers.
C) oversight of pollution with multiple impacts on air, water, and land.
D) regulations around waste from social media and email providers.
18)
Air pollution is accurately described by which statement?
A) Air pollution occurs when more pollutants are emitted into the atmosphere than can be
safely absorbed and diluted by natural processes.
B) A majority of the people in the United States breathe unsafe air for at least part of the year.
C) Air pollution is caused by mixing natural water vapor with diesel fuel, creating acid rain.
D) The EPA has identified hundreds of "criteria" pollutants, which are relatively common
harmful substances that serve as indicators of overall levels of air pollution.
19)
The main U.S. law governing water pollution is the
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A) Safe Drinking Water Act.
B) Clean Water Act.
C) Pesticide Control Act.
D) Oil Pollution Act.
20)
In the United States, most solid waste ends up
A) recycled.
B) composted.
C) incinerated.
D) in landfills.
21)
The Toxic Substances Control Act is accurately described by which of the following?
A) It required reductions in urban smog, acid rain, and greenhouse gas emissions.
B) It established a national policy to regulate, restrict, and, if necessary, ban toxic chemicals.
C) It promoted nontoxic chemicals and fuels for business use.
D) It authorized funds for treatment plans and toxic waste cleanup.
22)
The annual EPA report Toxics Release Inventory (TRI)
is an example of which environmental policy type?
A) cap-and-trade system
B) government incentives
C) criminal enforcement
D) information disclosure
23)
The process of firms buying and selling the right to pollute is an example of which type of environmental regulation?
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A) command
B) control
C) market-based
D) emissions charges
24)
The government imposing high taxes on new cars, with exceptions for electric vehicles, is an example of which type of pollution control method?
A) local business incentives
B) emissions charges or fees
C) criminal tax penalties
D) regulation by publicity
25)
Under U.S. sentencing guidelines, how would firms facing environmental violations typically be treated if they had an active compliance program and fully cooperated with investigators?
A) They would be treated the same as any other violator.
B) Their sentence would likely be lighter.
C) They would be given less prison time but levied higher fines.
D) They would be granted automatic probation.
26)
Possible costs of environmental regulation include all of the following except
A) increased unemployment.
B) reduced capital investment.
C) corporate restructuring.
D) lowered productivity.
27)
Every environmental regulation must be initially evaluated for its costs and benefits in a process called
A) strategic planning.
B) government savings study.
C) regulatory impact analysis.
D) command and control legislation.
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28)
Environmental regulations stimulate some sectors of the economy by
A) creating jobs in industries such as environmental consulting, recycling, and solar panel
installation.
B) saving jobs in industries like fishing and tourism when natural areas are protected or restored.
C) compelling businesses to become more efficient by conserving energy.
D) All of these answers are correct.
29)
These organizations recognize stewardship of the natural environment as one of their core
responsibilities.
A) corporate sustainability leaders
B) purpose-driven marketers
C) waste management firms
D) science-based recyclers
30)
The concept of businesses not emitting more pollutants than they remove or offset is called
A) not zero.
B) net zero.
C) net clean.
D) full offset.
31)
An important principle of sustainability leadership is aligning corporate practices with
A) marketing-based targets.
B) customer satisfaction.
C) science-based targets.
D) employee interests.
32)
The role of chief sustainability officer has recently evolved to include
A) oversight of regulatory compliance.
B) supervising financial activities.
C) working across functional areas.
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D) strategic thinking and leadership.
33)
The most environmentally proactive companies tend to have strong support from
A) government regulators.
B) union leadership.
C) boards of directors.
D) state legislators.
34)
Sustainability leaders have found that the most effective environmental management approach involves
A) a team of line managers from across the business organization.
B) top-level executives who make all corporate decisions.
C) the largest and most influential shareholders.
D) a consortium of staff employees with no manager involvement.
35)
The practice of aligning executive pay to their success at meeting sustainability goals is an example of which management technique?
A) top management commitment
B) employee engagement
C) alignment of rewards and incentives
D) building environmental partnerships
36)
What is the purpose of an environmental partnership?
A) to enforce international sustainability standards and guidelines
B) to leverage the strengths of each partner to improve the environment
C) to find ways for all nonpartners to conserve resources
D) to raise funds from shareholders to create environmental programs
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37)
How do companies that reduce waste, recycle, and operate efficiently impact their costs?
A) Costs stay about the same.
B) Costs are generally reduced.
C) Costs are slightly increased.
D) Costs are greatly increased.
38)
When companies develop a reputation for environmental excellence to attract environmentally aware customers, this is called
A) technological innovation.
B) strategic planning.
C) brand differentiation.
D) cost savings.
39)
A company that installs sensors to drive efficient water usage is adopting which sustainability strategy?
A) technological innovation
B) product differentiation
C) brand differentiation
D) cost savings
40)
Proactive environmental management can help reduce which risk(s)?
A) regulatory
B) liability
C) climate change
D) All of these answers are correct.
41)
Sustainable organizations use complex auditing and forecasting techniques to
A) satisfy government rules and regulations.
B) guarantee long-term financial success.
C) analyze ecological trends from prior years.
D) anticipate external influences on the firm.
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42)
The instrumental argument for promoting sustainability management is that it
A) is simply the right thing to do.
B) must be done because it is the law.
C) makes sense from a business perspective.
D) is a losing proposition and should be avoided.
43)
What was the primary indicator that General Motors is trying to become a corporate sustainability leader, according to the case “General Motors’ Drive for Carbon Neutrality”?
A) They ran a funny ad challenging Norway’s EV leadership during the Super Bowl.
B) Many gas-powered GM vehicles will remain on the roads for at least another decade.
C) GM withdrew from the lawsuit challenging California’s miles-per-gallon rules.
D) They announced a plan to become carbon neutral, meaning zero carbon emissions, by 2040.
44)
General Motors’ attempt to create a distinguished reputation for environmental excellence by announcing a full suite of 30 new EVs is an example of what, according to the case “General Motors’ Drive for Carbon Neutrality”?
A) environmental auditing
B) brand differentiation
C) reduction of regulatory risk
D) environmental justice
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
45)
What are the appropriate civil and criminal penalties for companies that violate environmental laws? What types of guidelines exist for sentencing environmental wrongdoers?
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46)
Briefly describe climate change. Do you think a command-and-control or market-based regulatory approach would work better to reduce emissions of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases, and why?
47)
Commercial buildings and industrial facilities account for a major share of a company's environmental impact. Identify one business that has implemented green building standards and describe the advantages they have gained from their efforts.
48)
Cost–benefit analysis seeks to weigh the relative costs and benefits of various alternatives, to see which one gives the "best value." Of the various areas of environmental protection discussed in this chapter (air, water, and waste), which one do you think has been the best value? Which has been the worst value? On what basis do you think so?
49)
Do you think businesses should voluntarily undertake environmental efforts, beyond those required by law? Why or why not?
50)
Describe the sustainability management practices of a business firm with which you are familiar. What steps might its managers take to improve its environmental performance? In answering this question, consider the various elements of effective environmental management.
51)
Discuss the following statement: "Effective sustainability management makes firms more
competitive."
Effective sustainability management can make businesses more competitive by resulting in cost savings,
higher brand recognition, increased customer demand, regulatory compliance, and improved access to
finance. Embracing sustainability not only aligns businesses with societal standards but also generates
major commercial benefits and gives the business a competitive advantage in the marketplace.
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Student name:11
TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.
1)
In the modern world, technology is a major ethical force with no economic or social impacts.
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true
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lse
2)
The dominant feature of technology is change and then more change.
⊚
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ue
⊚
false
3)
Technology tends to ripple through society until it affects every community.
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tru
e
⊚
false
4)
Nations have tended to move sequentially through each phase of technology, beginning with the lowest technology and moving higher with each step.
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ue
⊚
false
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5)
The current phase of technology is the service society.
⊚
true
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se
6)
The United States has the most Internet users, more than any other country.
⊚
true
⊚
fa
lse
7)
Internet usage in developing nations has not even begun to catch up with developed countries.
⊚
true
⊚
fals
e
8)
With the ability to collect big data comes an increasing ethical responsibility over its usage.
⊚
tru
e
⊚
false
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9)
In the United States, individuals have the absolute right to unfiltered free speech.
⊚
true
⊚
fa
lse
10)
The gap between those who have access to technology and those who do not is called the digital divide.
⊚
tr
ue
⊚
false
11)
In the United States, the government has tried to help narrow the digital divide through multiple initiatives.
⊚
tr
ue
⊚
false
12)
Individual privacy increased dramatically following the Information Age.
⊚
true
⊚
fal
se
13)
Businesses and governments often clash over who should have access to personal data found on devices such as smartphones and automobile black boxes.
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⊚
tru
e
⊚
false
14)
Nondemocratic governments tend to fiercely protect the public’s intellectual property rights.
⊚
true
⊚
fa
lse
15)
Since the first genetically modified foods reached the market, dozens of adverse health effects among consumers have been found.
⊚
true
⊚
fals
e
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
16)
This term refers to the practical applications of science and knowledge to commercial and
organizational activities.
A) technology
B) e-commerce
C) software
D) semantic
17)
Many rapid changes in technology over the past few decades were facilitated by
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A) artificial intelligence.
B) wireless networks.
C) processing of big data.
D
) All of these choices are correct.
18)
The self-reinforcing feature of technology means that
A) civilization tends to develop at an uncontrollable pace.
B) developing economies demand newer and larger innovations.
C
) technology acts as a multiplier to encourage its own faster development.
D) an invention developed in one place remains localized.
19)
The phase of technology that focuses on building material goods and manual labor is
A) agrarian.
B) service.
C
) industrial.
D) information.
20)
The place where information is stored, ideas are described, and communication takes place in and through an electronic network of linked systems is called
A) the personal computer.
B) cyberspace.
C) cloud computing.
D) communication.
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21)
We are currently in which phase in the development of technology?
A) industrial
B) biotechnology
C) information
D) service
22)
The primary skills required in the information stage were
A) sales and services.
B) intellectual and electronic skills.
C) manual and machine skills.
D) the same skills as needed in previous phases.
23)
The use of biological processes in the development or manufacture of a product or in the technological solution to a problem is called
A) physical science.
B) metatechnology.
C) modern biology.
D) biotechnology.
24)
Which nation currently has the greatest number of Internet users?
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A) United States
B) India
C
) China
D) Japan
25)
Which region of the world has the highest Internet usage?
A) North America
B) Asia
C) Europe
D) Africa
26)
A compulsion to engage in rewarding behaviors, despite negative consequences, is called
A) tissue engineering.
B) physical dependency.
C) behavioral addiction.
D) Facebook fatigue.
27)
Another name for unsolicited commercial emails is
A) spam.
B) junk email.
C) UCE.
D
) All of these choices are correct.
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28)
Besides spam filters, why has the global spam email rate declined in recent years?
A) This is due to a campaign by the Anti-Phishing Working Group.
B) Governments created strong penalties against spamming.
C) Consumers used the Do Not Call Registry option.
D) The rate of unsolicited spam emails has actually increased.
29)
The practice of using fake business emails to trick users into divulging personal data, such as usernames and passwords, is called
A) phishing.
B) pharming.
C) spamming.
D) hacking.
30)
The digital divide describes the gap between those
A
) individuals who have access to technology and those who do not.
B) businesses who use e-business and those who do not.
C) hospitals who use online information and those who do not.
D) individuals who have broadband technology and those who do not.
31)
Currently, about what percentage of global households have no access to the Internet?
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A) 98 percent
B) 45 percent
C) 25 percent
D) 5 percent
32)
The use of mobile (or cell) phones to conduct commercial transactions is called
A) e-commerce.
B) mobility.
C) m-commerce.
D) i-purchasing.
33)
The term
cryptocurrency
is accurately defined by which statement?
A) A digital currency that operates inside the banking system using encrypted technology.
B) A digital currency that operates outside the banking system using encrypted technology.
C) A physical currency that operates using a secure set of microchipped coins.
D) A global online banking system that allows international currency exchange.
34)
About what percentage of the world’s population uses social media?
A) less than half
B) slightly more than half
C) only a quarter
D) over three-quarters
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35)
A person’s entitlement to protection from invasion of one’s personal life is called the
A) right of free speech.
B) declaration of independence.
C) right to privacy.
D) principle of freedom.
36)
Invasion of privacy through technology is best exemplified by
A) the neighbor video recording his dog in his own yard.
B) your car’s GPS tracking you at every location.
C) a friend taking photos of the ocean with her smartphone.
D) your mom’s home assistant reminding her to pay the power bill.
37)
In the United States, the right to free speech
A) is an absolute privilege to all American citizens.
B) is a constant threat to every brick-and-mortar business.
C) must be weighed against the consequences for the community.
D) depends on individual state and local laws.
38)
Which of the following is not
a potential source of personal private data?
A) smartphones
B) internet connections
C) automobiles
D) broadcast radio
39)
Why did some authoritarian governments limit access to the Internet?
A) to suppress political dissent
B) to impose ideological views
C) to impose religious views
D) All of these choices are correct.
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40)
What recent U.S. government regulations were implemented to control genetically modified foods?
A) uniform labeling of all foods containing genetically engineered ingredients
B) a national ban on the use of various kinds of genetically modified seeds
C) a regional ban on genetically modifying soybeans to resist weed killer
D) hefty fines per square acre of genetically modified crops
41)
What are the benefits of sequencing the human genome?
A) provides early diagnosis of diseases
B) allows development of generic drug therapies
C) spurs new ways to prevent illnesses.
D) The answers “provides early diagnosis of diseases” and “spurs new ways to prevent illnesses” are correct.
42)
Which medical breakthrough offered the promise to rejuvenate or regenerate human cells?
A) DNA sequencing
B) artificial intelligence
C) stem cell research
D) the HapMap catalogue
43)
Which new technology forms the backbone of China’s Social Credit System, according to the Discussion Case?
A) big data mining
B) facial recognition
C) cryptocurrency
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D) email phishing
44)
Which ethical concerns surround China’s Social Credit System, according to the case?
A) a loss of personal privacy
B) censorship of free speech
C) publication of citizens’ DNA
D) The answers “a loss of personal privacy” and “censorship of free speech” are correct.
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
45)
Define technology and describe its three primary features.
Technology is the practical application of science and knowledge to commercial and organizational activities.
1.
Change: Change is one of the dominant features of technology, and it is changing at a pace that is beyond human tolerance.
2.
The effects of widespread: The level at which technology is spreading is quite unpredictable.
3.
Self-reinforcing: Technology feeds on itself by making more technology possible. 46)
Describe the activities and primary skills used in each of the six periods of technology development.
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Harvesting
Manual
Planting and harvesting
Manual
Building material goods
Manual and machine
Providing services
Manual and intellectual
Thinking and designing
Intellectual and electronic
Relevance and context
Intellectual and networking
Application of engineering and biological sciences
Networking and artificial creation
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47)
Discuss what factors have fueled technological growth and development.
48)
Discuss the current impacts of technology in our daily lives.
Unwanted technology threats
Big data
49)
Describe an Internet threat that you or a friend have experienced. How do threats to individuals differ from threats to businesses?
50)
Discuss the issue of digital divide. Is it lessening or widening with more technological innovation? How have businesses, government bodies, and nonprofit organizations met the digital divide challenge?
1. Mobile Telephones
2. Cryptocurrency
3. Social networking
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51)
How does the increase in technological innovation affect individual privacy and free speech? Discuss the related ethical issues around this topic.
The loss of privacy
The issues of free speech
52)
Describe the ethical challenges regarding one of the following scientific breakthroughs: genetically modified foods, human genome or stem cell research. Do the potential benefits of this
breakthrough outweigh the potential costs?
Student name:12
TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.
1)
In 2018, the European Union passed legislation to protect personal user data during collection, processing, and storage.
⊚
tr
ue
⊚
false
2)
All countries have nearly identical intellectual property laws.
⊚
true
⊚
f
alse
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3)
Net neutrality refers to the principle that wealthier users should pay higher rates for faster
Internet speeds.
⊚
true
⊚
fa
lse
4)
The collection of large amounts of consumer data by businesses creates ethical issues of privacy and security.
⊚
tr
ue
⊚
false
5)
The stakeholders rarely targeted by companies for personal data collection are employees
and consumers.
⊚
true
⊚
fa
lse
6)
E-business refers to electronic exchanges from business to business and consumer to business.
⊚
tr
ue
⊚
false
7)
Due to the coronavirus pandemic, e-commerce experienced a surge of activity and new consumers.
⊚
tru
e
⊚
false
8)
Experts predicted that the use of artificial intelligence would decline rapidly over the next
decade.
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⊚
true
⊚
fa
lse
9)
Robotic technology has advanced enough to generate many new business opportunities.
⊚
tru
e
⊚
false
10)
The responsibility of managing technology with its many privacy and security issues for business organizations is entrusted to the CFO.
⊚
true
⊚
fa
lse
11)
In recent years, the role of the chief information officer has become more strategic.
⊚
tru
e
⊚
false
12)
The primary reason that hackers hack is to make money.
⊚
tru
e
⊚
false
13)
Cybersecurity experts recommend that firms implement an incident-response plan for cyberattacks, which are strictly preventative in nature.
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⊚
true
⊚
fa
lse
14)
Some experts believe that cybercrime can be controlled only through international government coordination.
⊚
tr
ue
⊚
false
15)
In 2014, NATO ratified a change to its mission of collective defense by stating that a cyberattack on one member nation would be declared an attack on all members.
⊚
tru
e
⊚
false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
16)
The purpose of the right to be forgotten is to
A) protect an individual’s right to online privacy.
B) protect property rights.
C) protect intellectual property.
D) prevent software privacy.
17)
Intellectual property refers to
A) protecting one’s ideas, concepts, and symbolic creations.
B) special laws protecting copyrights, patents, and trademarks.
C) prohibiting the downloading of commercial software or video games.
D
) All of these choices are correct.
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18)
Software piracy is a major problem in which part of the world?
A) globally
B) North America only
C) Asia only
D) Europe only
19)
This Act makes it a crime to circumvent antipiracy measures built into most commercial software agreements between the manufacturers and their users.
A) Software Business Piracy Act
B) Digital Millennium Copyright Act
C) Intellectual Property Millennium Act
D) Copyright Act of 1998
20)
One argument in favor of net neutrality is
A) businesses that are willing to pay more should have faster Internet.
B) broadband providers should have free reign to block any site they object to.
C) to fairly compete, small, medium, and large firms should have the same Internet bandwidth.
D) individuals don’t need fast Internet, only businesses do.
21)
MIT researchers determined that 90 percent of shopper’s credit card transactions could be
used to
A) uniquely identify an individual’s shopping habits and preferences.
B) collect individual names and Social Security numbers of the shoppers.
C) identify an individual shopper using only four bits of secondary information.
D) Both answers “uniquely identify an individual’s shopping habits and preferences” and “identify an individual shopper using only four bits of secondary information” are correct.
22)
One ethical concern about businesses collecting vast amounts of stakeholder data is
A) if the effort actually benefits the stakeholders.
B) the terms and conditions are confusing to consumers.
C) the information is too secure to be useful.
D) there is often not enough detail to build a marketing campaign.
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23)
Buying and selling goods and services electronically is called
A) m-commerce.
B) e-business.
C) telecommunications.
D) intellectual property.
24)
One major advantage of conducting business online is
A) enhanced local and regional presence.
B) cost-effective marketing and promotions.
C) no need for professional customer service.
D) web security is less costly than physical security.
25)
The idea that every distribution channel must work together to deliver a unified and consistent customer experience is called
A) multichannel.
B) natural monopoly.
C) fulfillment center.
D) omnichannel.
26)
The ability of a digital computer or computer-controlled robot to perform tasks commonly associated with intelligent beings is called
A) business robotics.
B) artificial intelligence.
C) cyborg knowledge.
D) autonomous brainpower.
27)
The use of robotics in the workplace has increased recently because
A) the cost of robots has decreased.
B) robots are more reliable than people.
C) new collaborative machines have been invented.
D
) All of these choices are correct.
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28)
A recent Oxford study noted that the move to robots tends to generate what kind of new jobs?
A) lower paying
B) higher paying
C) governmental
D) automated
29)
According to McKinsey and Company, which position(s) cannot be easily replaced with robots?
A) repetitive factory jobs
B) clerks and bookkeepers
C) team managers
D) legal researchers
30)
What is a major ethical concern over businesses using drones?
A) excessive noise
B) property theft
C) personal privacy
D) property damage
31)
A CIO is the company’s
A) chief investigative officer.
B) chief information officer.
C) coordinator of international operations.
D) controller of internal overhead.
32)
Over time the role of the CIO
A) has remained focused on simply managing IT.
B) has decreased in level of responsibility as technology has taken over.
C) has changed dramatically, superseding the role of the chief executive officer.
D) has become more integrated into the overall strategic direction of the firm.
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33)
The role of the CIO includes all of these tasks except
A) acting as lead security officer to protect information.
B) educating the organization about technology initiatives.
C) marketing technology projects to stakeholders.
D) monitoring the appropriate level of employee productivity.
34)
Downloading illegal files, spreading computer viruses, and stealing from online bank accounts is collectively referred to as
A) hacking.
B) software piracy.
C) cybercrime.
D) Internet censorship.
35)
An example of a hacking job motivated by retaliation is
A) a woman hired a hacker to break into Facebook to find out if her boyfriend was cheating on her.
B) a foreign government stole data from U.S. institutions and asked for ransom to return it.
C) a white hatter broke into a major software firm’s computer network exposing security flaws.
D) a gray hatter revealed previously unreported bugs on a popular online shopping site.
36)
Hackers employed by businesses or governments to intentionally discover weaknesses in information systems are called
A) gray hatters.
B) black hatters.
C) white hatters.
D) mad hatters.
37)
The type of cybercrime where malware locks the data on a computer and payment is demanded to unlock it, is called
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A) a phishing attack.
B) a ransomware attack.
C) software piracy.
D) victim bashing.
38)
Cybersecurity experts recommend including which essential elements for an incident-
response plan for cyberattacks?
A) support from executive leadership
B) involvement by all functional departments
C) focus on how to respond to a breach
D) All of these choices are correct.
39)
What is the Sheltered Harbor?
A) a new U.S. cybersecurity law that sought to control cybercrime
B) a nongovernmental organization that promoted international cybersecurity solutions
C) a collective of U.S. banks that adopted a robust set of cybersecurity safeguards
D) a group of businesses located around New York Harbor that invested in cybersecurity
40)
What is the mission of Data Privacy Day, held annually on January 28th?
A) empower people to protect their privacy
B) escalate the protection of personal privacy
C) help people control their digital footprint
D) All of these choices are correct.
41)
Increased cyber activity by which countries prompted NATO officials to brand them as “patriotic hackers”?
A) Russia and Estonia
B) Iran and China
C) Iraq and Pakistan
D) Mexico and Canada
42)
The EU law passed in 2018 that required companies to promptly report personal data breaches was called the
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A) Digital Millennial Copyright Act.
B) Right to be Forgotten.
C) General Data Protection Regulation.
D) Global Policy Forum.
43)
What are some business concerns around self-driving vehicles, as found in the case “The Arrival of Autonomous Cars—Bright Future or Looming Threat”?
A) the elimination of many jobs that currently employ human drivers
B) the possibility of the vehicles’ computer systems being hacked
C) people in the vehicle as backup drivers may tend to downplay the technology
D) Both “the elimination of many jobs that currently employ human drivers” and “the possibility of the vehicles’ computer systems being hacked” are correct.
44)
What has the U.S. government done to make automated driving systems (ADS) safe, according to the case “The Arrival of Autonomous Cars—Bright Future or Looming Threat”?
A) NHTSA released new federal safety guidelines for ADS.
B) Every state in the union enacted ADS safety laws.
C) Safe development laws were passed in states that make ADS.
D) They have partnered with insurance companies to ensure fair coverage.
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
45)
Explain the concept of the “right to be forgotten.” What are its implications to governments, businesses, and individuals?
46)
Discuss some of the interventions that different governments have taken to control information technology in their nations. How have these steps affected individual privacy rights as well as public security?
47)
What have businesses done to manage personal information about their employees and customers? Identify a specific company that has taken action and discuss the results.
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48)
Discuss the advantages of e-business for businesses around the world and of different sizes.
49)
How is the corporate Chief Information Officer (CIO) a “security guard” for the organization? What are some of the important responsibilities of the CIO?
50)
Discuss the motivations of cybercriminals. Explain the costs that cybercrimes have on businesses, governments, and individuals.
51)
Discuss the global impact of cybercrime and explain how some international and national
groups are fighting it.
Student name: 13
TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.
1)
The two main types of investors that own shares of stock in U.S. corporations are individuals and institutions.
⊚
tr
ue
⊚
false
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2)
Since the 1960s, growth in the number of institutional investors in the United States has been phenomenal.
⊚
tru
e
⊚
false
3)
Investors always choose to invest in the stock of companies that pay high dividends.
⊚
true
⊚
fal
se
4)
A corporation's shareholders have a right to inspect the company's books for any reason.
⊚
true
⊚
fal
se
5)
It is the responsibility of the board of directors and its audit committee to engage an independent accounting firm to audit the financial statements prepared by management.
⊚
tr
ue
⊚
false
6)
When boards of directors meet without management present, they are more likely to have
completely candid discussions about a company's affairs.
⊚
tru
e
⊚
false
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7)
The Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD), representing 37 nations, issued a revised set of principles of corporate governance to serve as a benchmark for companies and policymakers worldwide.
⊚
tru
e
⊚
false
8)
Stock options represent the right to buy a company's stock at a set price for a certain period.
⊚
tru
e
⊚
false
9)
The ratio of average executive to average worker pay tends to increase during recessions and fall during periods of economic expansion.
⊚
true
⊚
fals
e
10)
Executive compensation in the United States, by international standards, is about the same as in Europe.
⊚
true
⊚
fal
se
11)
Shareholders must rely exclusively on the board of directors to protect their interests.
⊚
true
⊚
fals
e
12)
Institutional investors have little incentive to hold their shares and organize to change management policy.
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⊚
true
⊚
fal
se
13)
The activism of institutional shareholders has been completely limited to the United States.
⊚
true
⊚
fal
se
14)
It is illegal in the United States to offer stock trade tips to clients based on public information.
⊚
true
⊚
fal
se
15)
Shareholders have become an increasingly powerful and vocal stakeholder group in corporations.
⊚
tr
ue
⊚
false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
16)
What is another term for the shareholders of a firm?
A) investors
B) stockholders
C) owners
D) All of these choices are correct.
17)
Which statement below is true about shareholders?
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A) They are the legal owners of business corporations.
B) They own equal shares of company assets.
C) They are nonmarket stakeholders in the company.
D) They have no stake in how well the company performs.
18)
Institutional investors are accurately described by which statement?
A) Institutions invest their funds by purchasing shares of stock in corporations.
B) The number of institutional investors in the United States has declined since the 1960s.
C) Banks and student loans are examples of institutional investors.
D) Institutions account for over 90 percent of total U.S. equity value.
19)
Institutional investors are sometimes referred to as
A) Main Street investors.
B) Wall Street investors.
C) inside investors.
D) outside investors.
20)
Investors may receive an economic benefit from the ownership of stock by receiving
A) interest.
B) dividends.
C) capital gains.
D) Both “dividends” and “capital gains” are correct.
21)
In 2020, share values declined sharply during the coronavirus pandemic. This type of stock market is referred to as a
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A) bull market.
B) volatile market.
C) bear market.
D) global tailspin.
22)
A legal right of shareholders is
A) to vote for members of the board of directors.
B) to receive interest, if declared.
C) to publish annual financial reports.
D) to vote on the next chief executive officer (CEO).
23)
Corporate governance involves the exercise of control over a company's
A) finance and accounting departments.
B) overall strategic direction.
C) global manufacturing facilities.
D) marketing and sales departments.
24)
Corporate boards are accurately characterized by which statement?
A) Corporate boards average between 9 and 11 members.
B) Less than half of the members are “outside” directors.
C) Board members are also called directors.
D) High-tech boards tend to be larger than average.
25)
Which protected group has the largest representation on boards of directors?
A) women
B) African Americans
C) Latino(a)s
D) Asian Pacific Islanders
26)
How are corporate directors typically compensated?
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A) cash only
B) stock only
C) grants and fees
D
) cash and stock
27)
The board committee that administers and approves salaries and benefits of high-level managers in a company is called the
A) executive.
B) audit.
C) nominating.
D) compensation.
28)
The audit committee is required by U.S. law to be
A) composed entirely of outside directors.
B) financially literate.
C) headed by the company’s CEO.
D) Both “composed entirely of outside directors” and “financially literate” are correct.
29)
How are board members (directors) selected?
A) Shareholders elect the directors from a list of candidates.
B) The company’s CEO appoints the directors.
C) The nominating committee elects the directors.
D) Investors with the greatest ownership in the company become directors.
30)
Best practices of good corporate governance include
A
) hold regular meetings without the CEO present.
B) fill most board positions with managers of the firm.
C) combine the duties of the board chairperson and the chief executive.
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D) hold frequent, but closed, board elections.
31)
The "agency problem" arises when
A) business owners manage the company on their own behalf.
B) there is no separation of ownership and control in a company.
C) managers act in their own interest, rather than in the interest of shareholders.
D) shareholders act in their own interest, rather than in the interest of the board.
32)
Why are pay-for-performance stock option grants an incentive to improve company results?
A) High executive compensation attracts talent from competitors and suppliers.
B) It allows executive compensation to be better aligned with other developed nations.
C) If the company stock price increases, the executive compensation also rises.
D) It actually becomes a disincentive because the stakes are too high to manage.
33)
One of the main reasons that American executives are paid so much is because
A) their pay is set by the compensation committees of the board, largely comprised of other CEOs who have an interest in pushing compensation up.
B) qualified individuals are scarce, as most current CEOs were born during the “baby bust” years of the Great Depression.
C) high executive compensation in other nations puts upward pressure on the salaries of U.S. executives.
D) most executives are paid based on their performance, and rising compensation reflects
the excellent performance of their firms.
34)
An argument that opposes the idea of high executive pay is
A) high salaries provide an incentive for innovation and risk taking.
B) not many individuals are capable of running today's large, complex organizations.
C) top athletes and entertainers make a lot of money, so top executives should, too.
D) high salaries divert resources that could be used to invest in the business.
35)
An argument in support of high executive compensation is
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A) inflated executive pay helps U.S. firms compete with foreign rivals.
B) the high pay causes resentment by talented middle managers.
C) high salaries provide an incentive for innovation and risk-taking.
D) there is currently a surplus of qualified executive candidates.
36)
This provision of the Dodd–Frank Act required firms to hold shareholder votes on executive pay at least once every three years.
A) clawback
B) pay-for-performance
C) proxy access.
D
) say-on-pay
37)
When firms take back incentive-based pay after a financial restatement, this is called
A) say-on-pay.
B) a recall.
C) clawback.
D) a pay cut.
38)
A reason for institutions becoming more assertive in promoting the interests of their member investors is
A) protesting management performance by selling a large block of stock would reduce the value of the institution’s holdings.
B) institutional investors are rarely able to influence management policy.
C) institutions have greater flexibility in selling stocks than do individual investors.
D) institutions have placed members on the finance committee of the board of directors.
39)
The activism of institutional investors in other countries has been spearheaded by
A) U.S.-based pension and mutual funds that acquired large stakes in foreign companies.
B) foreign institutions that were granted new rights by their governments.
C) managers who became less active in proxy battles on a global level.
D) the rising number of individual investors in public service companies.
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40)
Which of these uses aggressive strategies to earn high returns for their investors?
A) social investors
B
) hedge funds
C) private equity firms
D) pension funds
41)
When activist shareholders seek to promote social, environmental, and good corporate governance, it is called
A) social investment.
B) socially responsible investment.
C) sustainable, responsible, and impact investment.
D) All of these choices are correct.
42)
What does the term stock screening
refer to?
A) investing in companies that support ESG goals
B) divesting from businesses that support ESG goals
C) avoiding investments in firms that are not socially responsible
D) Both “investing in companies that support ESG goals” and “avoiding investments in firms that are not socially responsible” are correct.
43)
The SEC allows social responsibility shareholder resolutions on the ballot under what condition?
A) whenever there is a good chance the proposal will be resolved before the election
B) when the shareholder owns a certain number of shares for a certain time period
C) when the issue deals with ordinary company business, like employee wages
D) only when shareholders have concerns over explicit advertising content
44)
When investors took McKesson Corporation to court over their role in the opioid crisis, this was an example of which type of shareholder activism?
A) social responsibility shareholder resolution
B) socially responsible stock screening
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C) sustainable, responsible, and impact investing
D) a socially responsible shareholder lawsuit
45)
The mission of the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) is to
A) protect shareholders’ rights by making sure that stock markets are run fairly.
B) protect companies from vulture capitalists and hostile takeovers.
C) ensure that institutional investors do not take control of company management.
D) ensure that the federal Treasury receives its share of the revenues from stock trading.
46)
Reports filed with the SEC provide information on a company’s
A) corporate sales and earnings.
B) depreciation by line of business.
C) details of foreign operations.
D
) All of these choices are correct.
47)
An example of “insider trading” is
A) an auditor using public information about the company to invest in its stock.
B) a marketing executive briefing stock analysts on the company’s sales performance.
C) the CEO’s cousin offering to acquire the heavily indebted company.
D) a manager sharing nonpublic news about an upcoming acquisition with a friend, who traded for a profit.
48)
In what way did the Wynn Resorts’ board of directors contribute to the ongoing problem of sexual misconduct in the workplace, as described in the case “Corporate Governance and Executive Misconduct at Wynn Resorts”?
A) The entire board continually defended Wynn’s high CEO compensation package.
B) Nine of the 10 members were outside directors, and Wynn was chairman of the board.
C) Many of the board members were friendly with Wynn and almost always voted in his favor.
D) The company was given an “F” grade in corporate governance by a proxy advisory firm.
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49)
The company justified Wynn’s high compensation package, in the discussion case “Corporate Governance and Executive Misconduct at Wynn Resorts,” by saying that
A) he was the inspiration for the casino owner character in the Ocean
’s films.
B) his personal signature was literally the company logo.
C) he had led the company to total returns of 19 percent per year between 2002 and 2017.
D) his ex-wife was the only one who ever voted against him.
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
50)
Identify and provide an example for each of the five major legal rights afforded to shareholders.
1.
To receive dividend, if declared.
2.
To vote on: Members of board of directors, major M&A, Charter &bylaw changes, proposals by stockholders.
3.
To receive annual reports on the company’s financial condition.
4.
To bring shareholder suits against the company and officers
5.
To sell their own shares of stock to others. 51)
What are the key features of effective boards of directors?
52)
Describe a current trend in corporate governance, providing a real example.
53)
Do you think U.S. executives are compensated too highly? Why or why not?
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54)
Why have U.S. institutions become more active as investors? How has this trend spread to other countries?
55)
What is insider trading? Explain how the courts have defined this practice.
Occurs when a person gains access to confidential information about a company’s financial condition.
Uses that information, before it becomes public knowledge, to buy or sell the company’s stock for a profit.
56)
In your opinion, how is the relationship between modern corporations and their shareholders changing? Explain and justify your argument.
Shareholders have become an increasingly powerful and vocal stakeholder group in corporations. •
Provide capital.
•
Monitor corporate performance.
•
Assure the effective operation of stock markets.
•
Bring new issues to the attention of management.
•
Play a very important role in making the business system work.
Student name:14-Consumer
TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.
1)
The “right to choose” guarantees competitive prices for consumers within all industries.
⊚
true
⊚
fa
lse
2)
Under the “right to be heard” protection, the consumer is guaranteed satisfactory quality and service at fair prices.
⊚
true
⊚
fa
lse
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3)
The only recourse consumers have to protect themselves from unsafe products is through the courts.
⊚
true
⊚
fa
lse
4)
The Latin phrase caveat emptor
, meaning “let the seller beware,” has put sellers on alert to look after their own interests.
⊚
true
⊚
fa
lse
5)
Consumer advocacy groups in the United States actively promote and speak for the interests of millions of consumers.
⊚
tr
ue
⊚
false
6)
The collective goals of government to safeguard the rights of consumers are called consumer protection laws.
⊚
tr
ue
⊚
false
7)
The Department of Agriculture has authority over vitamins and some minerals that may affect consumers.
⊚
true
⊚
fal
se
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8)
The mission of the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau is to ensure that financial products and services are fair, transparent, and competitive.
⊚
tru
e
⊚
false
9)
One danger of businesses collecting vast amounts of private data is that it might lead to unanticipated harm.
⊚
tr
ue
⊚
false
10)
A variety of technologies may be implemented to collect private data without the consumer’s knowledge.
⊚
tr
ue
⊚
false
11)
Advertisements tailored to a user’s interests and preferences have advantages only for the
business.
⊚
true
⊚
fal
se
12)
The doctrine of strict liability extends only to the retailer who is involved in selling the product, not the manufacturer.
⊚
true
⊚
fa
lse
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13)
One reason for business efforts to reform product liability laws is the increasing cost of insuring against liability suits.
⊚
tr
ue
⊚
false
14)
Product quality refers to everything an organization does to assure the sales of its products.
⊚
true
⊚
fa
lse
15)
One problem with product recalls is that the public is often unaware of them.
⊚
tr
ue
⊚
false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
16)
The core rights of consumers include the right to
A) be represented.
B) purchase goods.
C) safety.
D) due process.
17)
Nutrition labels on food products are an example of which consumer right?
A) right to be heard
B) right to be safe
C) right to be informed
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D) right to choose
18)
The “right to be heard” promises that consumers’ interests will
A) be protected against fraudulent or misleading information.
B
) receive full and sympathetic consideration.
C) be assured satisfactory quality and service at a fair price.
D) be given all the facts to make an informed choice.
19)
Consumers have become more dependent on businesses for product quality because
A) the complexity of economic life makes choices complicated for consumers.
B) instructions for use or care of products are provided in clear and simple language.
C) their technical competence allows them to inspect the products thoroughly.
D) competition has forced manufacturers to market lower-quality goods.
20)
The Consumer Federation of America is an example of a(n)
A) government consumer agency.
B) consumer advocacy organization.
C) online group of individual consumers.
D) organized group of legal professionals.
21)
One example of a self-organized consumer protection method is
A) joining the American Association for Retired People.
B) posting and reading product reviews online.
C) subscribing to Consumer Reports magazine.
D) supporting government-run consumer regulations.
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22)
Consumer protection laws include regulating which type(s) of protections?
A) pricing
B) liability
C) privacy
D) All of these choices are correct.
23)
When DeVry University exaggerated its graduates’ job prospects and earnings, this was an example of what?
A) predatory pricing
B) deceptive advertising
C) hazardous materials
D) invasion of privacy
24)
The act that requires lenders to inform borrowers of the annual rate of interest to be charged, plus related fees and services charges, is called the
A) Consumer Protection Act.
B) Product Safety Act.
C) Predatory Mortgage Act.
D
) Truth in Lending Act.
25)
The law requiring that toys and infant products be tested before sale is called the
A) Child Safety Protection Act.
B) Strong Product Safety Bill.
C) Consumer Product Safety Improvement Act.
D) Uniform Safety Testing Bill.
26)
Warning consumers about the possible side effects of pharmaceutical drugs is an example
of protecting consumers from
A) predatory pricing.
B) incomplete information disclosure.
C) hazardous products.
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D) violations of individual privacy.
27)
The main responsibility of the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration is to
A) set a uniform national speed limit.
B) set airline safety standards.
C) set motor vehicle safety standards.
D) safeguard consumers from altered odometers.
28)
The role of the Food and Drug Administration includes
A) approving a wide range of consumer products.
B) pulling existing products off the market when necessary.
C) issuing emergency authorizations for use of drugs not yet fully approved.
D
) All of these choices are correct.
29)
After home mortgages, what makes up the largest portion of household debt?
A) credit card debt
B) medical debt
C) car loans
D
) student loans
30)
The major federal consumer protection agencies are authorized by law to
A) intervene directly into the very center of free market activities to protect consumers.
B) substitute government-mandated standards for decisions made by private buyers and sellers.
C) substitute private manufacturing standards for government-mandated standards.
D) Both “intervene directly into the very center of free market activities to protect consumers” and “substitute government-mandated standards for decisions made by private buyers and sellers” are correct.
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31)
An identifying marker placed on a user’s computer hard drive used to build profiles of their behavior over time is called a
A) Web beacon.
B) deep packet.
C) flash cookie.
D) firewall.
32)
Groups that collect and combine data from various sources into individual profiles that are sold to retailers and advertisers are called
A) the Internet of things.
B) data aggregators.
C) Internet marketers.
D) 360-degree viewers.
33)
The risk online shoppers take when their Web profile negatively impacts their credit is known as
A) digital discredit.
B
) weblining.
C) dark money.
D) crisis management.
34)
One particularly negative aspect of behavioral advertising is
A) consumers receive too many coupons for products they purchase regularly.
B) sellers collect so much data about purchasers they can’t use most of it.
C) shoppers cannot keep up with all the new online sales.
D
) online users may be vulnerable to the spread of misinformation tailored to their beliefs.
35)
The EU’s 2018 General Data Protection Regulation applies to
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A) individual consumers anywhere in the world.
B) only companies headquartered in the European Union.
C
) companies anywhere who provide services to European customers.
D) only corporations that provide financial services.
36)
When businesses adopt voluntary policies for protecting the privacy of individuals' information disclosed during electronic transactions, this is an example of
A
) industry self-regulation.
B) privacy legislation.
C) consumer self-help.
D) business privacy regulation.
37)
Under what legal doctrine does a firm bear legal responsibility for injuries caused by something it made or sold, whether or not it was negligent?
A) strict liability
B) product liability
C) consumer liability
D) supplier liability
38)
Many companies have argued that the evolution of strict liability has
A) unfairly burdened them with excess costs.
B) decreased liability insurance rates.
C) increased corporate revenues and dividends.
D) changed top management's attitude about the consumer.
39)
The Class Action Fairness Act of 2005 included which provision(s)?
A) Lawyers were restricted from using local venues to try interstate cases.
B) Excessive attorney compensation was limited.
C) The burden of proof was shifted to government.
D
) Both “Lawyers were restricted from using local venues to try interstate cases" and “Excessive attorney compensation was limited” are correct.
40)
Consumer groups have opposed the idea of product liability reform using which argument?
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A) Punitive damages should be further limited.
B
) Strict liability pressures firms into making safe products.
C) The burden of proof should be shifted to consumers.
D) All consumer protection cases should be tried in federal courts.
41)
One alternative to product liability lawsuits is called
A) limited resolution.
B) punitive damages reform.
C) alternative dispute resolution.
D) consumerism.
42)
Why do many companies favor the use of mandatory arbitration clauses?
A) to avoid expensive liability lawsuits against them
B) to limit the consumer’s right to product safety
C) to keep minor lawsuits out of the judicial system
D) to charge customers more for the same products
43)
A company that assures product quality often sees which impact?
A) lower labor fees
B) higher service costs
C) build brand loyalty
D) increase lawsuits.
44)
When businesses band together to agree on how they will treat their customers, this is called
A) consumer action network.
B) consumer affairs doctrine.
C) voluntary industry codes of conduct.
D) national industry standards.
45)
What is the primary role of a consumer affairs officer?
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A) to build and maintain a user-facing company website
B) to manage a complex network of contacts with customers
C) to market and sell products and services to consumers
D) to create and manage both internal and external product training
46)
Anheuser-Busch voluntarily taking back packages of their beer because they might contain small pieces of glass is an example of a
A) process improvement.
B) supply chain issue.
C) product recall.
D) voluntary code of conduct.
47)
What specific claim did Volkswagen make about their diesel vehicles that constituted deceptive advertising, as noted in the case “Volkswagen’s ‘Clean Diesel’ Campaign”?
A) The cars were so much fun to drive.
B) TDI “Clean Diesel” had very low chemical emissions.
C) Diesel was more economical than gasoline.
D) The vehicle characteristics were clean and beautiful.
48)
Which major consumer right was violated according to the discussion case “Volkswagen’s ‘Clean Diesel’ Campaign”?
A) right to choose
B) right to privacy
C) right to be heard
D) right to be informed
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
49)
Consumer advocates argue that consumers are entitled to five core rights. What are they? Explain each.
1.
The right to be informed
: Ensuring transparency and protection from deceptive
practices for informed consumer decisions.
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2.
The right to safety
: Protection against the marketing of goods that are hazardous to
health or life.
3.
The right to choose
: Assurance of access to a variety of products and services at
competitive prices.
4.
The right to be heard
: Assurance that consumer interests will receive full and
sympathetic consideration in government policy and the courts.
5.
The right to privacy
: Ensuring privacy and non-disclosure of shared information in
transactions and online.
50)
The consumer movement exists because consumers want to be treated fairly and honestly
in the marketplace. Outline and explain the additional reasons for the existence of the consumer movement.
1. Consumerism
: Consumers act to protect their own interest.
2. Law/Courts
: People sue when they are injured by a product.
3. Govt regulation
: The government regulates product safety and protects consumer privacy
4. Industry
: The business protects their consumers through product recalls.
51)
Outline some of the major government agencies responsible for consumer-related issues. What is the major mission of each?
1.
Federal Trade Commission
2.
Food and Drug Administration
3.
Consumer Product Safety Commission
4.
Department of Justice
5.
National Transportation Safety Board
6.
Consumer Financial Protection Bureau
7.
Department of Agriculture
52)
How do new technologies increasingly enable businesses to collect and use vast amounts of personal data about their customers and potential customers? Explain. Do you think these trends benefit consumers or not, and why?
53)
In your opinion, do U.S. product liability laws need to be changed? If so, how? If not, why not?
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54)
Because of the movement toward product quality, companies are now focusing on the customer. How does this occur? How could a specific industry be even more socially responsible
to its customers? Explain.
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Student name:15- Employees and the Corporation
TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.
1)
Rights of employees are ethical and social, not legal or contractual, in nature.
⊚
true
⊚
fal
se
2)
Employees in the United States have the right to organize and bargain collectively.
⊚
tr
ue
⊚
false
3)
Employers are not required by law to agree to the union's demands, but they are required to bargain in good faith.
⊚
tru
e
⊚
false
4)
The amount of violence in the workplace has recently diminished.
⊚
true
⊚
fa
lse
5)
The Occupational Safety and Health Act gives workers the right to a job "free from recognized hazards that are causing or likely to cause death or serious physical harm."
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⊚
tr
ue
⊚
false
6)
Employment-at-will is a legal doctrine that means employees are hired and retain their jobs at the sole discretion of the employer.
⊚
tru
e
⊚
false
7)
The rise of the “gig economy” has allowed companies to become more cost-efficient.
⊚
true
⊚
false
8)
The level of income inequality in the United States has fallen since the 1980s.
⊚
true
⊚
fa
lse
9)
Firms paying high executive compensation and very low worker pay are contributing to inequality in the broader society.
⊚
tr
ue
⊚
false
10)
In a business context, privacy rights refer to protecting an individual’s personal life from unwarranted intrusion by his or her employer.
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⊚
tr
ue
⊚
false
11)
Electronic monitoring of employees is illegal in the United States.
⊚
true
⊚
fa
lse
12)
Drug testing for cause is commonly used after an accident or some observable change in behavior.
⊚
tr
ue
⊚
false
13)
The problem of alcohol-related accidents in the workplace is caused almost entirely by hard-core alcoholics.
⊚
true
⊚
fa
lse
14)
The U.S. Constitution explicitly protects freedom of expression in the workplace.
⊚
true
⊚
fa
lse
15)
Speaking out against an employer can be risky to the employee.
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⊚
tr
ue
⊚
false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
16)
If someone is entitled to be treated in a certain way, this refers to a(n)
A) relationship.
B) obligation.
C) duty.
D
) right.
17)
Employees in the United States have a legal right to
A) organize and bargain collectively.
B) a safe and healthy workplace.
C) a job with fair compensation.
D
) Both “organize and bargain collectively” and “a safe and healthy workplace” are correct.
18)
What is the purpose of a labor union?
A) to negotiate employee wages
B) to promote safe working conditions
C) to represent workers on the job
D
) All of these choices are correct.
19)
Under U.S. laws, who has the right to hold an election to choose what union they want to represent them, if any?
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A) only private workers
B) only public workers
C
) most private and public workers
D) only the employer
20)
Why has union membership declined in the United States since the 1950s?
A) a decrease in the manufacturing sector
B) the ongoing economic recession
C) a heavy reduction in globalization
D) increased levels of inequality
21)
The right to a safe and healthy workplace is accurately described by which statement?
A) Over recent years no new categories of accidents or illnesses have emerged.
B) Extensive training and strict enforcement are necessary to avoid accidents, injuries, and illness.
C) A very limited number of jobs are potentially hazardous to workers’ safety and health.
D) Regulations and enforcement have failed to curb worker accidents.
22)
The leading cause of death on the job is due to
A) falls at work.
B) vehicle accidents.
C) being struck by an object.
D) human violence.
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23)
The practice of adapting the job to the worker is called
A) social contracts.
B) work–life balance.
C) electronic monitoring.
D
) ergonomics.
24)
According to the U.S. Department of Labor, some of the most dangerous jobs include
A) biologists and lab technicians.
B) teachers and school administrators.
C) pilots and flight attendants.
D) police, firefighters, and prison guards.
25)
The Occupational Safety and Health Act gives workers the right to a job
A) that offers all employees equal wages for similar kinds of work.
B) with wages that enable an employee to enjoy a decent standard of living.
C) that is free from recognized hazards that are likely to cause death or serious injury.
D) that does not require them to lift, bend, or move items at any time on the job.
26)
What impact has OSHA had on businesses?
A) a notable increase in lost workdays
B) stagnant compensation payment costs
C
) a significant reduction in workplace deaths
D) a minor reduction in workplace deaths
27)
Some states recognize which exemption(s) to worker termination under the at-will-
employment doctrine?
A) public policy
B) implied contract
C) just cause
D
) All of these choices are correct.
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28)
According to the new social contract
A) the employer is obligated to provide long-term job security.
B) companies try to attract workers by giving them interesting and challenging work.
C) unions have less representation on company boards to codetermine policy.
D) the employer has no legal or ethical responsibilities toward employees.
29)
The “gig” economy is accurately described by which statement(s)?
A) Many companies have become more cost-efficient.
B) Risk has shifted from the worker to the company.
C) The generally low wages decreased in many cases.
D
) Both the answers “Many companies have become more cost-efficient” and “The generally low wages decreased in many cases” are correct.
30)
Businesses can reduce income inequality by taking which action?
A) Adjust minimum wage laws to increase worker pay.
B) Pass a new tax law that benefits workers.
C) Provide very high executive compensation.
D
) Commit to paying a living wage to all employees.
31)
A living wage has been defined as a wage that
A) equals or exceeds the minimum wage established by law.
B) equals or exceeds one-and-a-half times the minimum wage established by law.
C) supports the basic needs of an average-sized family, based on local prices.
D) supports half the basic needs of an average-size family, based on local prices.
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32)
A recent study found that companies that paid workers above-average wages saw which impact?
A) lower shareholder returns
B) excellent shareholder returns
C) reduced worker productivity
D) much lower overall growth
33)
Which example illustrates a legal reason for employee monitoring?
A) a worker telling a colleague that they are being monitored
B) an employee documenting trade secrets for another department
C) a staff member discussing personal activities with her manager
D
) multiple part-time workers collaborating to steal company goods
34)
What is one major concern about allowing romance in the workplace?
A) The couple, whether management or staff, would be too distracted to work effectively.
B
) An unwelcome relationship could be demanded by an employee in a position of authority.
C) Whenever a relationship is disclosed, the subordinate would likely quit their job.
D) Workplace romance is completely prohibited by government regulations.
35)
Random drug testing of employees is accurately described by which statement?
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A) It screens randomly selected employees at various times through the year.
B) It randomly tests selected applicants before hiring, as part of a physical examination.
C) It tests an employee believed to be impaired by drugs and unfit for work.
D) It regularly tests employees from randomly selected job categories or job levels.
36)
Employee Assistance Programs (EAPs) are correctly described by which statement(s)?
A) They offer counseling and follow-up to alcohol and drug abusers. B) Almost all employers with 1,000 or more workers offer EAPs. C) Nearly three-quarters of small companies with 50 to 99 employees offer EAPs. D
) All of these choices are correct.
37)
Employee theft is correctly described by which statement?
A) Almost half of all inventory losses are due to employee theft in the United States.
B) Employee theft is a significant economic, social, and ethical problem in the workplace.
C) Almost half of all employees admit to stealing a former employer’s sensitive data.
D) In 2020, employee thefts in the United States cost businesses almost $30 million a day.
38)
What is one criticism of honesty testing in the workplace?
A) The American Psychological Association reported that testing always fails.
B) The tests tend to identify dishonesty regarding fraud, but not theft.
C) The tests may create an opportunity to discriminate against legally protected groups.
D) Because theft in the workplace is minimal, testing is not needed.
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39)
When an employee believes that their employer has done something wrong or harmful to the public, and he or she reports the alleged organizational misconduct to the media, government,
or a high-level company officials, what has occurred?
A) insider trading
B) hotlining
C) whistleblowing
D) snitching
40)
The Sarbanes–Oxley Act makes it illegal for employers to retaliate against whistleblowers under what conditions?
A) specifically when the firm is successfully prosecuted for violations of fraud
B) when the information reported might impact the company’s share value
C) only when the whistleblower has full support of law enforcement
D) whenever the employee is a ranking member of any official labor union
41)
Which law allows individuals who sue federal contractors for fraud to receive up to 30 percent of any amount recovered by the government?
A) Dodd–Frank Act of 2010
B) Economic Priorities Act (as amended in 1999)
C) U.S. False Claims Act (as amended in 1986)
D) Fair Labor Standards Act
42)
What is one criticism against whistleblowing?
A) The stress of blowing the whistle always outweighs any reward.
B) Even when whistleblowers win, the actual problem is rarely solved.
C) Hundreds of unsubstantiated, or false, are cases reported.
D) In all cases, both the employee and the company lose.
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43)
What criteria must be met before a whistleblower goes public?
A) The unreported act would do some amount of harm to others.
B) The employee has not yet tried to resolve the issue internally.
C) Reporting the problem publicly may or may not resolve the issue.
D) There is enough potential harm to justify the possible costs of disclosure.
44)
How did Amazon respond to the unionization campaign, according to the case “Do It Without Dues”?
A) The company supported the effort during several mandatory meetings.
B) Employees received text messages with negative messaging about unions.
C) Amazon set up a website for workers to join the union at their convenience.
D) The firm placed posters in bathroom stalls listing worker rights and privileges.
45)
What was the primary concern of Amazon workers, as described in the case “Do It Without Dues”?
A) extremely low wages
B) inadequate company benefits
C) unsafe working conditions
D) no opportunity to unionize
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SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
46)
Workers in the United States enjoy several important legal guarantees. Discuss three major worker rights. What are the U.S. laws and regulations that govern each? How do such policies compare with those of other countries?
47)
Discuss working conditions around the world. What challenges face multinational corporations? What approaches are companies using to establish fair labor standards? Are there circumstances under which some approaches might work better than others?
48)
Discuss the pros and cons of the new social contract from the viewpoint of an employer and employee. What duty does an employer have to provide job security to its workers?
49)
Income inequality has grown in the United States since the 1980s. In what ways do businesses contribute to this trend? What, if anything, can businesses do to reduce income inequality?
50)
Some people believe that the right to privacy should be extended to the workplace. Others think, on the contrary, that such an extension would constitute an unwarranted incursion into management’s right to manage. Comment on this debate using examples from the text discussion of electronic monitoring, romance in the workplace, employee drug testing, and employee honesty testing. Are there particular circumstances under which it is, or is not, appropriate for employers to monitor employee behavior?
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51)
As the use of electronic communication at work has risen, new ethical issues involving worker privacy have emerged. Should employers be allowed to read employee email, inspect their Facebook pages or blogs, or access files located on a personal computer at work? Why or why not?
52)
Provide an example where employee whistleblowing is justified and an example where it is not. Support each example.
Student name:16- Managing a Diverse Workforce
TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.
1)
The term diversity
refers to variation in the important human characteristics that distinguish people from one another.
⊚
tr
ue
⊚
false
2)
Workforce diversity represents both a challenge and an opportunity for businesses.
⊚
tr
ue
⊚
false
3)
The term pay gap
refers to the inequitable concentration of a group, such as minorities or women, in a particular job category.
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⊚
true
⊚
fal
se
4)
Minority groups experience disproportionately higher levels of unemployment, especially
during times of economic hardship.
⊚
tru
e
⊚
false
5)
In the United States, immigrants were twice as likely as nonimmigrants to start their own business.
⊚
tr
ue
⊚
false
6)
The major agency charged with enforcing equal opportunity laws and executive orders in the United States is the Americans with Disabilities Council (ADC).
⊚
true
⊚
fal
se
7)
Some women and persons of color have spoken out against affirmative action, preferring to achieve personal success without receiving preferential treatment.
⊚
tru
e
⊚
false
8)
Sexual harassment is limited to overt acts of individual coworkers or supervisors.
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⊚
true
⊚
fa
lse
9)
The proportion of working women that have told researchers they have been sexually harassed on the job is between 40 and 70 percent.
⊚
tr
ue
⊚
false
10)
Sexual and racial harassment will happen, and there is little a business can do to eliminate
the problem.
⊚
true
⊚
fa
lse
11)
Companies that implement effective diversity programs often see an improvement in their reputation.
⊚
tr
ue
⊚
false
12)
A diversity council is a group of managers and employees responsible for developing and
implementing specific action plans to meet an organization's diversity goals.
⊚
tru
e
⊚
false
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13)
Policies and practices that leverage a variety of perspectives, life experiences, and approaches that every individual brings to the workplace, are referred to as diversity.
⊚
true
⊚
fa
lse
14)
According to the latest government data, in about 60 percent of all married couples with children, both parents worked at least part-time.
⊚
true
⊚
fal
se
15)
Under the Family Medical Leave Act, companies that employ 50 or more people must grant unpaid, job-protected leaves for up to 12 weeks to employees with serious family needs, including the birth or adoption of a baby.
⊚
tr
ue
⊚
false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
16)
Variation in the important human characteristics that distinguish people from one another
is called
A) workforce variability.
B) diversity.
C) difference.
D) affirmative action.
17)
Age, ethnicity, gender, mental or physical abilities, race, and sexual orientation fall under
which dimension of diversity?
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A
) primary
B) secondary
C) tertiary
D) legal
18)
The growing diversity in the U.S. workforce is due to
A) millennials and members of Gen Z entering the workforce.
B) significant immigration from other countries.
C) shifting patterns of work and retirement.
D
) All of these choices are correct.
19)
In 2015, the largest generation in the workforce was
A) baby boomers.
B) Generation X.
C) millennials.
D) Generation Y.
20)
Women in the U.S. workforce are accurately characterized by which statement(s)?
A) The participation rate has been between 46 and 47 percent since the late 2000s.
B) A lack of family-friendly business policies has made it difficult for working mothers.
C) The participation rates of women and men in the workforce have diverged.
D
) Both the answers “The participation rate has been between 46 and 47 percent since the
late 2000s” and “A lack of family-friendly businesses policies has made it difficult for working mothers” are correct.
21)
According to the textbook, Asian American men now have higher median weekly earnings than white American men primarily because
A) the Asian group collectively increased connections with upper management.
B) most Asians had earned a bachelor’s degree or higher.
C) white men had generally dropped out of management.
D) white women had taken over most of the jobs of white men.
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22)
Which of the following is not
true about occupational segregation?
A) It concentrates women in traditionally female-dominated jobs.
B) The pay gap in American businesses persists, in part, because of it.
C) It means that women cannot get the jobs that could break the cycle of low pay.
D) The technology sector is rapidly becoming dominated by women.
23)
When women and minorities are highly competent but are unable to attain executive positions, this is typically called
A) transparency.
B) broken windows theory.
C) glass ceiling.
D) glass wall.
24)
Why does the inclusion of women on corporate boards improve company performance?
A) Alternative courses of action are more realistically considered.
B) Women bring different life experiences to discussions.
C) Women are more likely to raise multiple stakeholder concerns.
D) All of these choices are correct.
25)
What is one reason why women and minorities fail to move into executive or board positions?
A) Women prefer jobs that are occupationally segregated.
B) There are already too many women in executive roles.
C) Minorities prefer staff-level positions throughout their careers.
D) Recruiters rely heavily on the old boys’ network.
26)
In 2019, more than 50 percent of minority-owned businesses were owned by
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A
) Asian Americans.
B) African Americans.
C) Hispanics.
D) Native Americans.
27)
Government rules on equal employment opportunity include
A) discrimination on the basis of sexual orientation is prohibited in all employment practices.
B
) government contractors must have written affirmative action plans to overcome the past and present effects of discrimination.
C) women and men must receive equal pay for performing equal work, but only if the woman is not pregnant.
D) affirmative action plans must be permanent and designed to correct future discrimination.
28)
Which law eliminated certain time restrictions for filing pay discrimination lawsuits?
A) Lilly Ledbetter Fair Pay Act of 2009
B) Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993
C) Equal Opportunity Employment Act of 1972
D) Equal Pay Act of 1963
29)
An argument against affirmative action is
A) it costs American businesses too much money.
B) there are no mechanisms in place to verify that it is actually working.
C) it is inconsistent with the principles of fairness and equality.
D) it violates individuals' basic human rights.
30)
One argument in favor of affirmative action is
A) people hired through this program tend to be more dedicated workers.
B) only the most qualified people are hired through this process.
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C) it’s easy to monitor the success of affirmative action programs.
D
) it levels the playing field to correct past discriminatory hiring practices.
31)
What is one of the most common reasons that sexual harassment occurs on the job?
A) people wearing sexy clothing
B) boys will be boys
C) an imbalance of power
D) workplace comradery
32)
Gender identity refers to
A) one’s emotional, romantic, or sexual attraction to other people.
B) the rule under Title VII that allows discrimination based on sex.
C) an individual’s self-perception as male, female, both, or neither.
D) the concentration of women within certain job categories.
33)
Racial harassment is illegal under
A) Title VII of the Civil Rights Act.
B) the Third Amendment to the Constitution.
C) the Equal Pay Act.
D) the Family Medical Leave Act.
34)
Companies can combat sexual and racial harassment—and protect themselves from expensive lawsuits—by
A) communicating a zero-tolerance policy on harassment to all employees.
B) establishing a complaint procedure in a way that avoids retaliation.
C) acting quickly to resolve any problems.
D
) All of these choices are correct.
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35)
Benefits of managing diversity and inclusion effectively include all except A) the federal government provides diversity-related tax breaks.
B) they can more effectively serve diverse customers.
C) they are better able to attract and retain workers from a variety of backgrounds.
D) businesses with a diverse workforce boost innovation for the firm.
36)
Many executives believe that a diverse workforce boosts innovation because
A) many unique perspectives provide valuable insights into tastes and preferences.
B) those who think exactly the same develop the most robust ideas.
C) people from poorer countries have to be more creative to survive.
D) people from different backgrounds have to work much harder to communicate.
37)
A diverse and inclusive workforce provides companies with all of the following except
A) reflection of a global customer base.
B) cultural insensitivity.
C) improvement in innovation.
D) avoidance of public embarrassment.
38)
In the business context, inclusion means having policies that
A) tap into the diverse perspectives, life experiences, and approaches of each worker.
B) require that all employees, including temp workers, attend the annual meeting.
C) apply the same measure of discipline to all company employees.
D) follow all legal mandates and actually go beyond full compliance.
39)
One action a company can take to effectively manage diversity and inclusion is to
A) hire a majority of foreign and immigrant workers.
B) set up a diversity council to monitor the company’s goals.
C) use a broad list of demographic factors to select applicants.
D) hire only those with existing employee referrals.
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40)
Bias within the hiring process refers to
A) always hiring the best fit candidate no matter what their physical characteristics are.
B) selecting only candidates that match a preconceived ideal of the role.
C) choosing new employees without consideration for their demographic data.
D) hiring based only on the applicant’s knowledge, skills, and abilities.
41)
Child-care assistance in the workplace is accurately described by the following:
A) It helps reduce employee absenteeism and tardiness.
B) It aids in recruitment by making the company more attractive to parents.
C) It helps retain talented employees.
D
) All of these choices are correct.
42)
Caregivers who care for both children and elderly adults are often referred to as the
A) baby boom generation.
B) millennial generation.
C) silent generation.
D
) sandwich generation.
43)
The time a mother or father is granted off when children are born or adopted and during the early months of a child’s development is called
A) child care.
B) flextime.
C) parental leave.
D) family leave.
44)
Which type of U.S. company is required to follow the Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA) and offer up to 12 weeks of unpaid employee leave to address family needs?
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A) corporations that employ 100 or more people
B) firms with at least 50 employees
C) only companies within the gig economy
D) small businesses with fewer than 50 workers
45)
Firms that fully support both men and women in their efforts to balance work and family responsibilities are known as
A) family-friendly workplaces.
B) remote work environments.
C) all-inclusive organizations.
D) onsite child-care providers.
46)
Which law protects Xiuying, as introduced in the case “Hello, My Name Is,” from job discrimination based on race, color, gender, religion, or national origin?
A) the Equal Employment Opportunity Act
B) the Civil Rights Act (and its amendments)
C) the Equal Rights Amendment
D) the Age Discrimination in Employment Act
47)
The firm who rejects a job seeker by saying they had “hired so many foreign nationals that it seems time for us to hire an American or be unfair” is demonstrating which type of bias, according to the case “Hello, My Name Is”?
A) racial
B) national origin
C) religious
D) ethnic
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SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
48)
Based on what we know about demographic trends, identify and describe three to five expected changes in workforce composition over the next 20 years.
49)
Identify and explain three or more factors that result in the low number of female CEOs heading Fortune 500 companies.
Many women and minorities start in staff rather than line positions.
Recruiters fill positions by word of mouth, using “old boys network.”
Companies lack commitment to diversity.
Too little accountability for equal employment opportunity at top management levels.
50)
Do you believe companies are ever justified in treating women or minority employees differently, with respect to wages, benefits, job assignments, or promotions? If not, why not? If so, under what conditions, and why?
51)
What is the role of government in the area of equal employment opportunity? Discuss from a historical perspective.
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52)
Government regulations ban both sexual and racial harassment. Discuss both kinds of harassment and why they are a concern to employers. What can companies do to combat sexual and racial harassment?
53)
In what ways will continued diversity create competitive advantages for companies? Discuss based on the material in the textbook.
54)
Identify and explain best practices for improving workplace diversity, equity, and inclusion.
55)
Do you believe that support programs for work and family primarily benefit women employees, men employees, or both equally? Explain.
Student name:17
- Business and Its Suppliers
TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.
1)
An organization that purchases goods or services from another company is known as a supplier.
⊚
true
⊚
fal
se
2)
The term "supply webs" refers to the multiple steps taken to move a product or service from the most distant supplier to the customer.
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⊚
tr
ue
⊚
false
3)
Although several steps removed, distant suppliers can still have a big impact on a company’s reputation and bottom line.
⊚
tr
ue
⊚
false
4)
All overseas supplier factories that pay low wages are engaging in a highly unethical social practice.
⊚
true
⊚
fa
lse
5)
Global lead firms that depend on farmed, extracted, or mined resources run a relatively high risk for human rights abuses by their suppliers.
⊚
tr
ue
⊚
false
6)
Suppliers that dump toxic chemicals, emit air pollution, or reduce biodiversity have little impact on the lead firm that buys their products.
⊚
true
⊚
fa
lse
7)
Because supply chains have become heavily globalized, government regulation efforts are now more concentrated and increasingly effective.
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⊚
true
⊚
fa
lse
8)
A company can develop its own code of conduct or adopt an NGO or industrywide code.
⊚
tru
e
⊚
false
9)
Assurance that a supplier is in compliance with the relevant code of conduct is determined by a supply chain audit.
⊚
tru
e
⊚
false
10)
When a supply chain audit is conducted, workers are usually willing to share their experiences with the auditors.
⊚
true
⊚
fa
lse
11)
An emerging method of auditing suppliers involves gathering factory conditions directly from employees using their mobile phones.
⊚
tr
ue
⊚
false
12)
A growing trend is for lead firms to work collaboratively with their suppliers to build capabilities and create shared value.
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⊚
tr
ue
⊚
false
13)
Lead firms often choose to develop their supplier's capabilities when the supplier has a strong management team, many resources, and high technical knowledge.
⊚
true
⊚
fa
lse
14)
One reason lead firms do not
change suppliers is due to moral obligation to the workers and the community to retain jobs.
⊚
tr
ue
⊚
false
15)
Lead firms sometimes create contradictory demands on suppliers, for example, by insisting on low costs as well as compliance with expensive environmental standards.
⊚
tru
e
⊚
false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
16)
Which type of supplier is hired to provide products or services directly to a lead firm?
A) Tier 1
B) Tier 2
C) subcontractors
D) networks
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17)
As a stakeholder, suppliers' interests include
A) selling to customers and earning income
B) using productive capacity efficiently
C) building short-term, but profitable, business relationships
D
) Both “selling to customers and earning income” and “using productive capacity efficiently” are correct.
18)
A supplier that controls critical worker skills and technical know-how holds which type of power over their lead firm?
A) economic
B) informational
C) legal
D) voting
19)
A visual representation of the many links between a lead firm and its suppliers, superimposed on a geographical map, is called a
A) linked list.
B) supply chain map.
C) supply web.
D) network map.
20)
Social effects of global supply chains include impacts on
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A) worker wages.
B) working conditions.
C) employee health.
D
) All of these choices are correct.
21)
Companies where employees work long hours, at low wages, under unsafe conditions, are collectively referred to as
A) nonunion shops.
B) sweatshops.
C) garment factories.
D) workshops.
22)
The illegal recruitment and movement of people against their will is called
A) temporary labor.
B) day workers.
C
) forced labor.
D) farmworkers.
23)
The International Labor Organization (ILO) identifies child labor by which factors?
A) a child’s age
B) the work hours
C) the child’s work experience
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D
) Both “a child’s age” and “the work hours” are correct.
24)
Environmental concerns for supply chain managers may be mitigated by
A
) adopting a policy of local sourcing.
B) sourcing raw materials from online firms.
C) switching from seaborne to overland transport.
D) dumping all toxic chemicals locally.
25)
Which of these statements is not
true about supply chain transparency?
A) A firm's social, ethical, and environmental responsibilities are revealed.
B) The use of technology is enhancing supplier transparency.
C) Brand loyalty among consumers is diminished by a firm’s revelations.
D) Recent audits and certifications are publicized.
26)
Nongovernmental institutions that govern economic activities are referred to as
A) voluntary auditors.
B) public governance.
C
) private regulation.
D) civic control.
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27)
The lack of jurisdiction of home country governments over supplier behavior is exemplified by
A
) the United States Department of Labor having no control over safety in Indonesia.
B) OSHA being unable to enforce laws in Alabama and Oklahoma.
C) Business elites in developing countries effectively blocking regulation.
D) the Global Compact having moral authority but no enforcement power.
28)
Why has private regulation become more important in recent years?
A) weak governmental regulations in developing nations
B) lack of government interest in supply chain management
C) limited enforcement power of human rights organizations
D
) Both the answers “weak governmental regulations in developing nations” and “limited
enforcement power of human rights organizations” are correct.
29)
What is one condition that can cause private governance of a business to emerge?
A) when small lead firms have too much leverage over larger suppliers
B) when large lead firms have limited leverage over larger suppliers
C) when the public is satisfied with a firm’s social and environmental performance
D
) when firms have highly visible brands and are more vulnerable to reputational damage
30)
Codes of conduct are accurately described by which statement?
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A
) Most early codes of conduct were developed by individual companies.
B) The adoption rate of industry-specific codes of conduct is currently decreasing.
C) Standard-setting organizations have failed to influence industries and individual firms.
D) The costs of building common industry standards have become prohibitive.
31)
Which groups often collaborate when developing industry-wide codes of conduct?
A) government officials
B) nongovernmental organizations
C) business organizations
D
) All of these choices are correct.
32)
Richard M. Locke argues that global supply chains are best managed through a combination of public and private governance because
A) government-enforced laws give legitimacy to demands for workplace changes.
B) regulators benefit from record keeping required by private companies’ codes of conduct.
C) public and private organizations are able to share the enforcement workload.
D
) All of these choices are correct.
33)
Which type of supplier audit is being used when a company hires and trains its own staff of auditors?
A) external
B) third-party
C) factory
D) internal
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34)
Which of the following type of audit is perceived by stakeholders as more objective and reliable?
A) internal
B
) third-party
C) government
D) crowd-pleasing
35)
What is one drawback of conducting supplier audits?
A) Workers trust the auditors to the point of giving away company secrets.
B) Audits scale so well across the supply chain that only general averages can be collected.
C
) On-site inspections are both expensive and time-consuming, and do not scale.
D) On-site inspections are so fast that teams must conduct hundreds of them in a single day.
36)
A type of supply chain inspection that bypasses the factory and relies instead on worker feedback, is called a
A) virtual inspection.
B) crowdsourced audit.
C) cloud-based audit.
D) consumer review.
37)
What is one trend in supply chain auditing?
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A) Companies are working together to audit major suppliers.
B) Suppliers are increasingly enduring audit fatigue.
C) Physical inspections across all industries are on the rise.
D) More and more workers are trusting in-factory audits.
38)
When a lead firm invests in supplier resources or offers training, this is an example of
A) root cause analysis.
B
) supplier development.
C) supply chain auditing.
D) shared value.
39)
What is a cost-effective way for a lead firm to improve a supplier’s performance when the cost to replace the supplier is high?
A) engage the supplier in capability building
B) acquire the supplier and force them into compliance
C) report the supplier to the Better Business Bureau
D) build the supplier's products internally
40)
Studying the underlying cause of repeated supplier violations is called
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A) capability-building.
B) supplier scoring.
C) root cause analysis.
D) supply chain auditing.
41)
An integrated supplier scorecard uses which measurement(s)?
A) environmental performance
B) product quality
C) number of employees.
D) Both “environmental performance” and “product quality” are correct.
42)
When firms invest in suppliers to exchange knowledge and collaborate on improvements,
they create shared value for
A) the supplier only.
B) the lead firm only.
C
) both the supplier and the lead firm.
D) neither the lead firm nor the supplier.
43)
What is the first step that lead firms take to develop their suppliers?
A) creating shared value
B) capability building
C
) supplier monitoring
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D) publicizing the results
44)
Which critical environmental challenge did IKEA face within its cotton supply chain, as mentioned in the case “IKEA’s Sustainable Cotton Supply Chain”?
A) A large amount of soot was produced throughout the chain.
B) Child labor was used extensively across the entire supply chain, and the industry.
C
) A single pair of jeans used 3,000 gallons of water, depleting surface and groundwater supplies.
D) Women earned about 25 percent less than men, many with poverty-level incomes.
45)
In the discussion case, “IKEA’s Sustainable Cotton Supply Chain,” which statement accurately describes IKEA’s supply chain?
A) Nearly 100 percent of IKEA’s cotton was sourced from just two countries, India and China.
B
) The long and complex chain involved farming, ginning, spinning, weaving, and stitching.
C) The supply chain was long but all steps flowed easily across only a few locations.
D) The company’s supply chain was self-contained with IKEA owning all steps in the process.
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SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
46)
Define suppliers and explain their interests and power, especially as related to lead firms. How has globalization affected the supply chain?
Supplier are the organization that provides goods or services to another organization
Interest:-Make money
-Use their productive capacity efficiently
- Build long-term, stable relationship with business customers
Power:- Economic & Informational
The term supply chain refers to the multiple steps involved in the movement of a product or service from the most distant supplier to the customer.
47)
Select a common product and create a supply chain map showing the product movement from source to consumer.
48)
Discuss the social, ethical, and environmental issues that affect suppliers. Provide three examples of suppliers that are currently raising concerns for their lead firms.
Social Issues: Global supply chains significantly affect employee wages, working conditions, and safety. E.g., Child labour
Ethical Issues:
49)
Explain why some companies are establishing their own forms of private regulation.
50)
Describe the three types of supplier audits: internal, third-party, and crowd-sourced.
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51)
Walmart, Monster Beverage, and Patagonia are presented as three examples of firms capturing the extraordinary complexity of the business-supplier relationship. Identify the major components of these examples as a model for other firms to follow in managing their supplier stakeholder relationship.
52)
Under what conditions might a lead firm choose to develop a supplier rather than replace them?
Student name:18-
TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.
1)
The term community refers to a company’s area of business influence.
⊚
tr
ue
⊚
false
2)
The term community
is sometimes improperly used to refer to a range of groups that are affected by an organization's actions, whether or not they are in the immediate vicinity.
⊚
true
⊚
fa
lse
3)
The community relies heavily on business, but business is not mutually dependent on the community.
⊚
true
⊚
fa
lse
4)
Civic engagement is a major way in which companies carry out their corporate citizenship mission.
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⊚
tr
ue
⊚
false
5)
Social capital refers to the norms and networks that enable collective action.
⊚
tr
ue
⊚
false
6)
Community relations departments work primarily on the national level to link the corporation to community stakeholders.
⊚
true
⊚
fal
se
7)
The top goal of a community relations manager is to promote business investments that generate more social capital.
⊚
tr
ue
⊚
false
8)
Corporations are prohibited from giving more than 10 percent of their income for philanthropic purposes.
⊚
true
⊚
fa
lse
9)
Foreign-owned corporations typically establish and use corporate foundations less frequently than U.S. firms.
⊚
tr
ue
⊚
false
10)
Corporate charitable donations are defined as gifts of products or services.
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⊚
true
⊚
fal
se
11)
Many companies have turned to technology to improve the amount and effectiveness of employee volunteerism.
⊚
tr
ue
⊚
false
12)
Strategic philanthropy emphasizes the links between corporate contributions and business
goals, such as creating demand for a product or service.
⊚
tru
e
⊚
false
13)
All corporate contributions benefit the donors directly.
⊚
true
⊚
fa
lse
14)
A firm that is civically engaged is usually able to respond quickly to changing stakeholder demands.
⊚
tru
e
⊚
false
15)
A license to operate refers to a formal license every firm must obtain from local municipalities to conduct business there.
⊚
true
⊚
fa
lse
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MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
16)
Communities depend on business for
A) schools.
B) health care.
C) the arts.
D) All of these choices are correct.
17)
How do businesses support their community’s civic needs?
A) through partnerships with noncommunity businesses
B) through donations of money, goods, and time
C) by frequent use of the local transportation system
D) by calling for local police and fire protection when needed
18)
People who buy from or follow a company online represent which type of community?
A) site community
B) virtual community
C) community of interest
D) employee community
19)
The relationship between business and the community is accurately described by the following:
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A
) The relationship is one of mutual interdependence.
B) Business and communities are independent of one another.
C) Communities possess more social power than businesses do.
D) Business dominates community using economic power.
20)
The term civic engagement describes
A
) the active involvement of businesses and individuals in improving communities.
B) the collective set of cultural and artistic activities in a community.
C) strong governmental regulation to control businesses at the municipal level.
D) a close and collaborative business–government relationship.
21)
A good way for a business to express its commitment to corporate citizenship is
A) by establishing community relations programs.
B) by behaving responsibly toward all its stakeholders.
C) by correcting problems associated with its operations.
D
) All of these choices are correct.
22)
How are firms typically affected when they get involved with the community?
A
) They often win the loyalty of customers, employees, and neighbors.
B) Unfortunately, their reputations frequently suffer and decline.
C) They usually find it more difficult to respond to changing stakeholder demands.
D) Generally speaking, the government steps in and institutes new regulations.
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23)
Social capital
is a phrase that refers to all of the following, except
A) the goodwill that is engendered by the fabric of social relations.
B) a close relationship between companies and groups in the community.
C) the norms and networks that enable collective action.
D
) company funds set aside for employee events.
24)
What is the primary goal of a community relations department?
A) to improve the company’s financial bottom line
B) to build relationships with important community groups
C) to collaborate with other company teams to create policy
D) "Both "to build relationships with important community groups" and "to collaborate with the other company teams to create policy" are correct."
25)
This business role interacts with locals, manages donations, and encourages employee volunteerism.
A) chief financial officer
B) director of human resources
C
) community involvement manager
D) vice president of marketing
26)
What is one reason that firms partner with communities to increase economic development?
A) to expand environmental sustainability
B
) to develop workplace skills
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C) to control the rate of entrepreneurship
D) to avoid paying higher taxes
27)
Why might a company help a community with its housing needs?
A) so they could use the space for offices
B) to receive a discounted tax rate
C
) to improve the quality of the community
D) to fix up and resell the properties
28)
Minority enterprises often do business in locations with
A) low crime rates.
B) excellent transportation.
C
) low-quality public services.
D) high-income clientele.
29)
Minority, women, and disabled veteran–owned firms are accurately described by which of these?
A) They often operate at an economic advantage.
B) They have a medium rate of business failure.
C) They face limited competition from more established firms.
D
) They often partner with larger firms in a diversity supplier role.
30)
Besides being helpful, firms often contribute to disaster relief funds to
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A) offset damages to the environment they themselves caused.
B
) build loyalty from those grateful for the assistance.
C) prevent death among the cheapest labor forces in the world.
D) enhance the company’s overall financial position.
31)
Another term for corporate giving
is corporate
A) welfare.
B) goodwill.
C
) philanthropy.
D) citizenship.
32)
In 2020, the smallest source of philanthropic contributions in the United States came from which organization?
A) individuals
B) foundations
C) corporations
D) bequests
33)
What was the primary motivator for corporate giving, according to the National Bureau of Economic Research?
A) financial
B) philanthropical
C) political influence
D) popularity
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34)
The share of all giving made up by in-kind contributions of products and services has been
A
) rising steadily over the past decade.
B) declining steadily over the past decade.
C) remaining relatively constant over the past decade.
D) declining sharply over the past decade.
35)
How do companies encourage their employees to volunteer their time?
A) by sponsoring specific projects
B) by offering recognition for service
C) by publicizing opportunities to serve
D) All of these choices are correct.
36)
Which industry has consistently given the most in-kind contributions?
A) pharmaceutical companies
B) high-technology companies
C) grocery retailers
D) publishing houses
37)
When Fidelity partnered with the Capital Good Fund to service loans to disadvantaged communities, this was an example of
A) an in-kind contribution.
B
) skills-based volunteerism.
C) community-based philanthropy.
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D) organizational support.
38)
A corporate philanthropic strategy that provides free goods or services to the community is trying to
A) enhance the supply of untrained workers.
B) align corporate and community goals.
C) increase demand for the product or service.
D) align employee and corporate goals.
39)
Which of the following is not
a strategy to help companies get the most benefit from their
contributions?
A) Use targeted business methods to assess the impact of gifts.
B) Align company priorities with employee interests.
C) Establish priorities even if they conflict with the firm’s core values.
D) Draw on the unique competencies of the business.
40)
Measurements used to calculate the return on social investment should include
A) the changes in both share price and dividends.
B
) the amount of corporate donations and volunteer hours.
C) the increases or decrease in overall labor productivity.
D) the before and after inventory capacity.
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41)
The most difficult element of the social investment cycle to measure is
A) inputs.
B) outputs.
C) impacts.
D) value creation.
42)
Voluntary agreements among business, government, and society to achieve goals are called
A
) collaborative partnerships.
B) community relations.
C) social capital.
D) social investment.
43)
Why might a firm invest in improving educational opportunities in a community?
A) to satisfy local government regulations
B) to build a skills-based talent pool
C) as one way to lower their corporate tax rate
D) Businesses rarely invest in community education.
\
44)
Which of these is an example of business supporting their community, as described in the
case “Salesforce's 1+1+1 Integrated Philanthropy Model”?
A) Salesforce employees received seven days a year of paid time off to volunteer.
B) The Philanthropy Cloud project allowed employees to track their volunteer hours.
C) The company donated millions to public education in its home community.
D) In 2021, Salesforce had a market capitalization of almost $200 billion.
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45)
Which form of corporate giving did Tableau’s COVID-19 dashboard take, according to the case “Salesforce's 1+1+1 Integrated Philanthropy Model”?
A) gift of money
B) in-kind contribution
C) skills-based volunteerism
D) unskilled volunteerism
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
46)
Discuss both the community services desired by businesses and the requests made to communities by businesses.
47)
Analyze why a business may wish to get involved in community relations. What benefits accrue to businesses that actively participate in their communities?
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48)
In your opinion, what are the most pressing and significant concerns facing communities today? Why do you think so? How would a business’s community relations department address those concerns?
49)
Discuss the three forms of gifts typically made by corporations and their foundations. Which form of gift do you think is most valuable, and why?
50)
Explain two strategies that businesses can use to help them get the most benefit from their contributions. Cite examples of companies that adopt these strategies.
51)
Describe the four elements of a complete assessment of the return on social investment. How might each of these elements be measured? Which would be the hardest to measure, and why do you think so?
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52)
Describe a collaborative partnership between a business and community that attempts to address a social problem. What strengths does each party bring to the collaboration?
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Student name:_19
TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.
1)
How the general public perceives a business firm can have a major effect on its performance.
⊚
tr
ue
⊚
false
2)
The public may pressure a firm to take a stand when the issue is important enough to the community.
⊚
tru
e
⊚
false
3)
The way an organization presents itself to its stakeholders is known as the corporate reputation.
⊚
true
⊚
fal
se
4)
Companies that have name recognition also have a good reputation.
⊚
true
⊚
fa
lse
5)
The public relations department manages the firm’s public image and its relationship with
the public.
⊚
tr
ue
⊚
false
6)
An example of direct communications is through a company website.
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⊚
tr
ue
⊚
false
7)
The variety of communications channels for public relations departments has decreased due to combined technology options.
⊚
true
⊚
fal
se
8)
A firm must constantly reestablish its brands in order to maintain their reputation.
⊚
tru
e
⊚
false
9)
A company’s name and logo have little impact on its reputation.
⊚
true
⊚
fa
lse
10)
The public scrutiny following a corporate crisis can have a political, legal, financial, and governmental impact on its business.
⊚
tru
e
⊚
false
11)
Key employees must be identified in advance of a crisis so they are ready to address the issue.
⊚
tr
ue
⊚
false
12)
Experts say that the first 72 hours of a crisis are the most crucial.
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⊚
true
⊚
fa
lse
13)
It is recommended that businesses use the same tactics to communicate with all stakeholders.
⊚
true
⊚
fal
se
14)
The most important part of building a firm's reputation is winning trust from its key stakeholders.
⊚
tr
ue
⊚
false
15)
Board-level attention to a firm’s reputation has decreased in recent years.
⊚
true
⊚
fal
se
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
16)
The general public is accurately described by which statement?
A) They frequently deal with businesses through an economic exchange.
B) Organizational stakeholders consist of individuals and groups found in society.
C) They are unable to influence a firm’s positive or negative reputation.
D) They are internal market stakeholders of the organization.
17)
Through which stakeholder networks can the public demand a certain level of performance from a firm?
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A) consumer groups
B) community groups
C) labor unions
D
) All of these choices are correct.
18)
Which term refers to the collective means of communicating to an audience?
A) media
B) megaphone
C) blogging
D) pontificating
19)
Which of these situations is not
a reason for a firm to communicate through the media?
A) repairing a damaged image
B) ignoring or downplaying an organizational crisis
C) managing its public relations
D) engaging with multiple stakeholders
20)
The corporate reputation is accurately described by which statement?
A) refers to the way that a firm presents itself to an audience
B) refers to the way members believe others see the company
C) refers to stakeholders’ perceptions of the organization
D
) refers to the desirable and undesirable qualities of the firm
21)
The way organizational members believe others see the organization is called the corporate
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A) identity.
B) reputation.
C) image.
D) perception.
22)
The corporate reputation of distinction must be built
A) in an ongoing fashion over time.
B) during the firm’s startup period.
C) only after a major product release.
D) only after a corporate crisis.
23)
Building a positive and ethical reputation requires a firm to
A) offer products that are somewhat better than their competitors.
B) convey a compelling story about the firm and what it stands for.
C) avoid attention from news channels and social media.
D) pay opinion leaders to write positive reviews about them.
24)
Organizations with strong positive reputations are generally more successful because they
A) receive fewer opportunities to advance their interests.
B) are generally less immune to long-term criticism.
C) often get the benefit of the doubt in uncertain circumstances.
D) Both the answers “receive fewer opportunities to advance their interests” and “often get the benefit of the doubt in uncertain circumstances” are correct.
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25)
A firm with a reputation of distinction often obtains what over other companies in the same industry?
A) regulatory exemptions
B) a competitive advantage
C) a lower local tax rate
D) lower international trade fees
26)
Which company department manages a firm’s public image and its relationship with the public?
A) human resources
B) product marketing
C) information technology
D) media relations
27)
What is a social media influencer?
A) the group of CEOs that runs the major social media companies
B) government regulators from the Federal Communications Commission
C) a social media user with credibility in a specific industry or topic
D) the collective set of investors who focus on social media transactions
28)
Global businesses that have extended their public relations strategies worldwide should
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A) ensure that communications with local media take place in the area's native language.
B) never decentralize their global public relations programs to ensure the company has "one voice."
C) assume there is no anti-American sentiment in the countries where they have operations.
D) ignore local customs and emerging issues in the locations where they operate.
29)
Using techniques to increase the perceived value of a product or brand over time is called
A) public relations.
B
) brand management.
C) public service.
D) crisis management.
30)
Can social trends impact a company’s brands?
A) Yes, they can influence the public’s perception of a brand.
B) No, social trends rarely influence the public’s perception.
C) Unfortunately, there’s no way to measure the social impact.
D) The impact is felt only in companies with large government subsidies.
31)
How can a firm leverage its name and logo to improve its reputation?
A) They can make the company's signature widely recognizable.
B) They can create a public association with exceptional products.
C) They can develop a message that they are a trusted organization.
D) All of these choices are correct.
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32)
Brand management often involves conveying what about a product or service? A) the solutions it provides
B) its flaws and disadvantages
C) the experience it offers
D
) Both “the solutions it provides” and “the experience it offers” are correct.
33)
Why might the public justifiably assign an unflattering nickname to a firm or product?
A) The firm or product failed to meet public expectations.
B) The public just likes to have some fun with good products.
C) The public never ascribes negative names to organizations.
D) An unhappy employee’s false claim went viral on social media.
34)
A significant business disruption that stimulates extensive news media and social networking coverage is called a
A) corporate identity.
B) crisis plan.
C) corporate crisis.
D) public relations.
35)
This type of corporate crisis often involves a cover-up or lack of urgency.
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A) violent terrorism
B) “acts of God”
C) mechanical problems
D
) management indecision
36)
How might a corporate crisis affect an organization?
A) positively impact financials
B) negatively disrupt operations
C) create a governmental partnership
D) set a positive legal precedent
37)
Scenario-based press releases, key discussion points, and procedures to activate the organization's website are all part of which step in an effective crisis management plan?
A) Get ready before the crisis hits.
B) Communicate quickly, but accurately.
C) Use the Internet to reassure the public.
D) Do the right thing during the crisis.
38)
During crisis management, doing the right thing should include
A) accepting full responsibility.
B) expressing sincere regret.
C) making excuses for the problem.
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D
) Both “accepting full responsibility” and “expressing sincere regret” are correct.
39)
The last step of the crisis management process instructs organizations to
A) show sympathy for creating the problem.
B) prepare an emergency dark site.
C) seek to restore the firm’s reputation.
D) communicate promptly with the public.
40)
Why is media training especially important for executive-level employees?
A) Executives must learn to tell the company story in multiple languages.
B) Media training is not actually that important for executives.
C) Media training is only important when a company does international business.
D) Executives must be well-versed in communicating the corporate story.
41)
A firm who hires a public media spokesperson is following expert communications advice to be
A) current.
B) accessible.
C) helpful.
D) courteous.
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42)
Emphasizing key points and guiding the media reporter to them is called
A) hooking.
B) bridging.
C
) flagging.
D) gapping.
43)
The media control technique called bridging is exemplified by which phrase?
A) “We are undertaking a program to correct the situation.”
B) “Your listeners may not know that …”
C) “What I can tell you is …”
D) “This is important news because …”
44)
A customer tweeting about a recent bad shopping experience is using which type of media communication?
A) paid content
B) public service announcement
C) user-generated content
D) event sponsorship
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45)
What media technique is used to promote the general perception of a product or service, rather than promoting its functional attributes?
A) user-generated content
B) issue advertisements
C) public service announcements
D) image advertisements
46)
What happened to United Airlines’ reputation after several in-flight incidents were reported, according to the discussion case “United Airlines—Navigating a Social Media Storm”?
A) United’s reputation suffered, but not enough to fall behind Delta.
B) The company’s public rating dropped significantly.
C) The airline’s reputation improved ever so slightly.
D) After defending their actions, there was no effect on their reputation.
47)
According to the discussion case “United Airlines—Navigating a Social Media Storm,” in the Dr. Dao incident, did United do the right thing? Why or why not?
A) No. They blamed the entire violent incident on the doctor.
B) Yes. They apologized immediately and compensated Dr. Dao.
C) Partly. United changed their response three times before they got it right.
D) No. They were eventually charged with discrimination against Dr. Dao.
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SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
48)
Define the general public. How do firms and the public affect one another?
49)
How do firms develop a distinctive and positive reputation? How can the general public affect a company’s reputation? Identify an organization that has recovered from having a bad reputation and explain how the firm restored public confidence.
50)
Why do firms create public relations departments? Outline the structure and activities of a typical department.
51)
What new challenges emerge when public relations strategies take on a global perspective?
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52)
Discuss the value of a recognizable brand. What can a company do to foster brand appeal? What can customers do to voice dissatisfaction with a company’s products?
53)
Define a corporate crisis. Outline an effective crisis management plan for a public relations manager.
Get ready before the crisis hits by creating an internal communication system that can be
activated the moment a crisis occurs.
Communicate quickly, but accurately
Use the Internet to convey the message to minimize the public’s fears and provide assistance
Do the right thing
Follow up and, where appropriate, make amends to those affected.
54)
Evaluate public opinion–influencing strategies used by business organizations, such as image advertisements, paid content, and event sponsorship.
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