Practice Quiz 6A
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Jan 9, 2024
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Practice Quiz 6
1.
A composite rating of 5 is the rating for the soundest financial institutions.
a.
True
b.
False ***
2.
Banks have higher leverage than most manufacturing firms.
a.
True ****
b.
False
3.
The provision for loan loss account is the actual loan losses less loan recoveries in a
given time period.
a.
True
b.
False ****
4.
The allowance for loan and lease losses is bank management's estimate of the amount of
gross loans and leases that may not be repaid to the bank.
a.
True ****
b.
False
5.
Loans are the major asset on a bank's balance sheet, and they generate the largest amount
of revenue.
a.
True ****
b.
False
6.
Rate-sensitive funding sources at a bank are termed core deposits.
a.
True
b.
False ****
7.
For securities firms, income from investment and wealth management is more stable than
income from underwriting or trading activities.
a.
True ****
b.
False
8.
Diversified full-line investment banks act as both broker-dealers and securities
underwriters.
a.
True ****
b.
False
9.
The process of creating a secondary market for securities or contracts is termed
brokerage.
a.
True
b.
False ****
10.
In a best efforts offering, the investment banker acts as an agent for the issuer rather than
as a principal.
a.
True ****
b.
False
11.
A market maker buys IBM at $185 for his own account and sells the stock later in the day
at $187. He is acting as a broker in this transaction.
a.
True
b.
False ****
12.
For the trading desk of an investment bank buying large blocks of securities and holding
them until the price rises sufficiently to warrant a sale is an example of position trading.
a.
True ****
b.
False
13.
An example of a pure arbitrage strategy is to simultaneously buy and sell the same
security in two different markets at different prices.
a.
True ****
b.
False
14.
A stockbroker acts as a principal on behalf of the customer.
a.
True
b.
False ****
It acts as an agent. An underwriter acts as a principal.
15.
Program trading is the simultaneous buying and selling of at least 15 stocks worth a total
of $1 million or more.
a.
True ****
b.
False
16.
The share price of Walmart has appreciated significantly relative to the share price of
Target in the last 30 days. The trading desk takes a long position in shares of Target and a
short position in Walmart. This is an example of a risk arbitrage strategy.
a.
True ****
More specifically, this is called a statistical arbitrage (stat arb) strategy,
which is a special case of a risk arbitrage strategy.
b.
False
17.
Angel investors tend to be more active investors compared to venture fund investors.
a.
True
b.
False ****
18.
An advantage of private placements is that there is no requirement to register with the
SEC since the placements are made only to large, sophisticated investors; therefore, the
cost of issuance is lower.
a.
True ****
b.
False
19.
Firms underwriting securities assist corporate clients in selling them in secondary
markets.
a.
True
b.
False ****
They assist in selling them in the primary markets.
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20.
Core deposits are deposits that are:
a.
at the bank solely for the interest rate earned.
b.
very stable funds sources. ****
Also, called rates insensitive funding.
c.
typically for larger denominations than hot money sources.
d.
very frequently turned over.
21.
Purchased funds include all but which one of the following?
a.
Brokered deposits.
b.
Wholesale CDs.
c.
Fed funds purchased.
d.
Repurchase agreements.
e.
Demand deposits. ****
22.
Core deposits typically include all except one of the following.
a.
Demand deposits
b.
NOW accounts
c.
Money Market Deposit Accounts (MMDAs)
While these are somewhat rate sensitive,
they are much smaller compared to negotiable CDs and are less rate sensitive.
d.
Eurodollar deposits ****
e.
Passbook savings accounts
23.
Which of the following is not an off-balance sheet activity?
a.
Commercial letter of credit
b.
Standby letter of credit
c.
Swap transaction
d.
Futures contract
e.
Consumer loans ****
24.
Diversified full-line securities firms engage in all but which one of the following?
a.
Trading and brokerage of existing securities
b.
Corporate restructuring and advice
c.
Issuing new securities
d.
Raising money via insured deposits ****
Commercial banks do this.
25.
A best-efforts offering is one in which:
a.
the underwriter bears the risk of an unsuccessful offering.
b.
the investment banker acts as a principal for the issuer.
c.
the investment banker acts only as a distribution agent. ****
d.
the issue can only be privately placed.
26.
If an underwriter overestimates the demand for a firm's securities in a firm commitment offering,
the underwriter can:
a.
sell the shares back to the issuing firm at a discount.
b.
lower the bid price to the issuing firm.
c.
increase the fees charged to the issuing firm.
d.
cancel the issue and refund the fees paid by the issuing firm.
e.
None of these options are correct. ****
27.
You buy euros in New York from Deutsche Bank and simultaneously sell them in London to
Barclays for a gain. This is an example of:
a.
position trading.
b.
program trading.
c.
risk arbitrage.
d.
pure arbitrage. ****
e.
hedging.
28.
An entrepreneur looking for the first outside funding to get her small business up and running
should probably consider:
a.
an IPO.
b.
a SPAC transaction.
c.
a syndicated loan.
d.
an angel investor. ****
Subsequent funding rounds when the business is larger could
attract venture funds.
e.
a venture fund.
29.
Which one of the following statements about venture capitalists is not correct?
a.
Venture capitalists contribute to equity financing rather than make loans.
b.
Venture capitalists are passive investors.
****
c.
Most private venture capitalists are organized as limited partnerships.
d.
Most venture capitalists will grow their portfolio companies through acquisitions.
30.
When the investment banker sells the new securities on commission without guaranteeing the sale
of the whole issue, the process is called:
a.
private placement.
b.
best effort.
****
c.
brokered sale.
d.
underwriting.
e.
syndicate offering.
31.
Tier 1 Capital to Risk-Weighted Assets ratio is likely to be used in which area of CAMELS
evaluation method?
a.
Capital Adequacy ****
b.
Asset Quality
c.
Earnings
d.
Liquidity
e.
Sensitivity to markets.
32.
Bank examiners most likely consider the industry concentration of a bank's loans and other assets
in which area of CAMELS evaluation method?
a.
Capital Adequacy
b.
Asset Quality ****
c.
Earnings
d.
Liquidity
e.
Sensitivity to markets.
33.
Bank examiners most likely consider the relative size of a bank’s core deposits in which area of
CAMEL evaluation method?
a.
Capital Adequacy.
b.
Asset Quality.
c.
Earnings.
d.
Liquidity. ****
e.
Sensitivity to markets.
34.
The risk that interest rates on a bank's assets and liabilities may change at different times due to
differences in maturity is most likely examined in which area of the CAMELS evaluation
method?
a.
Capital Adequacy
b.
Asset Quality
c.
Earnings
d.
Liquidity
e.
Sensitivity to markets ****
35.
The trading desk of an investment bank purchases shares in a company that is a target of takeover
before the takeover is finalized. This is an example of
a.
Position trading
b.
Pure Arbitrage Trading
c.
Risk Arbitrage Trading. ****
Also called merger arbitrage
d.
Program Trading
e.
Statistical Arbitrage Trading
36.
What is the role of limited partners (LPs) in a venture fund?
a.
They are the junior partners of the venture firm.
b.
They are the minority shareholders in the venture firm.
c.
They are the primary investors of a venture fund.
****
d.
They are the founders of portfolio companies when a venture fund invests in them.
e.
They are responsible for the management of each venture fund.
37.
What is the role of general partners (GPs) in a venture fund?
a.
They are the junior partners of the venture firm.
b.
They are the minority shareholders in the venture firm.
c.
They are the primary investors of a venture fund.
d.
They are the founders of portfolio companies when a venture fund invests in them.
e.
They are responsible for the management of each venture fund. ****
38.
What is Dry Powder?
a.
The amount of capital that investors have promised to provide to a venture fund.
b.
The portion of the committed capital that the fund has asked its partners to provide.
c.
The portion of the drawdown capital that the fund has not yet deployed.
d.
The portion of the committed capital that the fund has not yet called. ****
e.
The capital available for follow-on investments in portfolio companies.
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39.
What are the Provisions of Loan Losses and how they are related to Allowance for Loan and
Lease Losses?
The PLL is the amount that appears on the income statement and is deducted from income (like
an expense). The amount of the PLL is added to the outstanding balance of the bank’s ALLL,
which appears on its balance sheet.
40.
What is the J-curve and its four different stages?
It refers to the patterns of cash flows generated by a startup or a venture fund. The cash flows are
negative initially and then slowly increase into the positive territory.
The four stages are Seed or
Angel Investment, Early-Stage VC Investment, Late-stage or Growth VC Investment, and Exit.
The cash flows are typically negative in the first two stages and positive in the last two.
41.
The securities and investment banking industry can be broken into three major subdivisions.
What are they?
The industry can be broken down into three major subdivisions:
(a) Commercial bank holding companies that operate diversified national full-line firms that
serve both retail and corporate customers (e.g., Bank of America and JPMorgan Chase).
(b) National full-line firms specializing in corporate finance such as Goldman Sachs. They offer
a full range of investment banking, asset management, and consulting services.
(c) Large national investment banks such as Lazard Ltd and Greenhill & Co. They are more
specialized and offer a narrower range of investment banking services.
42.
Activities of investment banks can be broken into four broad categories. What are they?
The activities are (a) underwriting, (b) market making (c) trading, and (d) advisory and M&A.
43.
A private company can choose three paths for going public. What are they?
They are (a) traditional IPOs, (b) SPAC transactions, and (b) direct listings.
The last method
allows the firm to go public without raising additional funds.
44.
Investment banks can get involved in both buy-side and sell-side activities in the M&A area.
What are the key differences between the two sets of activities?
On the buy side, the IB is helping a corporate client acquire another firm. In this regard, they
value the target and evaluate the acquirer’s goals. Also, they contact the target firm and lead the
negotiations.
On the sell side, the IB is helping a corporate client to sell itself. Typically, there are no acquirers
and therefore the IB will help the client to identify potential acquirers. The IB will examine
various ways that the firm could be sold (e.g., as a whole or in pieces). Once a potential buyer is
identified, the IB will lead the negotiations.
45.
What is the management fee in a venture fund?
It is the fee (usually around 2%) that is applied to the committed capital each year and paid by
the LPs.
46.
What is the carried interest in a venture fund?
It is the performance fee (usually around 20%) that is calculated as a percentage of the fund’s
profits. Normally, a hurdle rate has to be met before GPs can collect this fee from the LPs.
47.
What is Capital Adequacy in the context of the CAMELS rating method?
See slides and additional readings on CAMELS.
48.
What is Asset Quality in the context of the CAMELS rating method?
See slides and additional readings on CAMELS.
49.
What is Earnings Quality in the context of the CAMELS rating method?
See slides and additional readings on CAMELS.
50.
What is Liquidity management in the context of the CAMELS rating method?
See slides and additional readings on CAMELS.
51.
What is Sensitivity to Market Risk in the context of the CAMELS rating method?
See slides and additional readings on CAMELS.
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