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[QUESTION]
Instead of using the expected return on the market portfolio and the risk-free rate in a CAPM
approach to estimating the required return on equity, how would one use the firm’s debt cost in a
CAPM-type approach to estimate the firm’s required return on equity?
[ANSWER]
The firm’s before-tax cost of debt is used as a base to which a risk premium is added. The risk
premium is the difference in required return between stocks and bonds. For companies overall,
this premium averages about 3 percent. However, it will vary by the company. If a company
could borrow at 13 percent and the premium were 3 percent, the required return on equity would
be 16 percent. The before-tax cost of debt funds will exceed the risk-free rate due to the presence
of risk of default in corporate bonds.
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Related Questions
Which statement is false regarding the Capital Asset Pricing Model?
A. The beta coefficient of a stock is constant.
B. The risk free rate is usually based on the treasury bill yield.
C. Market risk premium is the difference between market return and the risk free rate.
D. The cost of retained earnings is equal to the cost of new shares issued.
arrow_forward
Which of the following statements are CORRECT?
Check all that apply:
The aftertax cost of debt decreases when the market price of a bond increases.
A decrease in a firm's WACC will increase the attractiveness of the firm's investment options.
Cost of capital is also known as the minimum expected or required return an investment must offer to be attractive.
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Which one of the following statements related to the Security Market Line approach to equity valuation is correct? Assume the firm includes debt in its capital structure.
Group of answer choices
This model considers a firm's rate of growth.
The model will never produce the same cost of equity as the dividend growth model.
The model is dependent upon a reliable estimate of the market risk premium.
This approach generally produces a cost of equity that equals the firm's overall cost of capital.
The model applies only to non-dividend-paying firms.
arrow_forward
Which of the below statements does the MM Proposition I predict?
A. In a perfect market, the value of a firm is independent of its capital structure
B.In a perfect market, the discount rate depends on the capital structure
C.In a perfect market, the value of a firm decreases in leverage
D.In a perfect market, the NPY of investments depends on the existing debt/equity mix
arrow_forward
Assume that the risk-free rate increases, but the market risk premium remains constant. What impact would this have on the cost of debt? What impact would it have on the cost of equity? How should the capital structure weights are used to calculate the WACC be determined?
arrow_forward
Which of the following statements is correct?(a) The quickest way to determine whether the firmhas too much debt is to calculate the Timesinterest-earned ratio.(b) The best rule of thumb for determining the firm’sliquidity is to calculate the current ratio.(c) From an investor’s point of view, the price-toearnings ratio is a good indicator of whether ornot a firm is generating an acceptable return tothe investor.(d) The operating margin is determined by subtracting all operating and non-operating expensesfrom the gross margin.
arrow_forward
a.Distinguish between systematic and unsystematic risk and explain the significance of the distinction portfolio analysis
b. Describe the assumption in CAPM analysis that corporate debt as a zero beta value
c. Based on both the CAPM and Modigliani- Miller proposition (11), explain the support of relevant equations, how changes in the debt equity ratio can change a firm's equity beta
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Explain the effect of D/E on asset returns, equity returns (assuming that cost of debt is not affected), asset beta and equity beta (assuming that debt beta is zero). Should an investor choose to invest in a stock of a company with high or low D/E, or why expected returns on these stocks are equivalent, although they are not equal?
arrow_forward
If a firm cannot invest retained earnings to earn a rate of returngreater than or equal to the required rate of return on retained earnings, it should return those funds to its stockholders.
The cost of equity using the CAPM approach
The current risk-free rate of return (rRFrRF) is 4.67% while the market risk premium is 5.75%. The Burris Company has a beta of 0.78. Using the capital asset pricing model (CAPM) approach, Burris’s cost of equity is .
The cost of equity using the bond yield plus risk premium approach
The Taylor Company is closely held and, therefore, cannot generate reliable inputs with which to use the CAPM method for estimating a company’s cost of internal equity. Taylor’s bonds yield 11.52%, and the firm’s analysts estimate that the firm’s risk premium on its stock over its bonds is 3.55%. Based on the bond-yield-plus-risk-premium approach, Taylor’s cost of internal equity is:
18.84%
15.07%
14.32%
18.08%
The…
arrow_forward
Which statement is correct, all else held constant?
A. If you have both the dividend growth and the security market line's costs of equity, you should use the higher of the two estimates when computing WACC.
B. The aftertax cost of debt increases when the market price of a bond increases.
C. A decrease in a firm's WACC will increase the attractiveness of the firm's investment options.
D. Beta is used to compute the return on equity and the standard deviation is used to compute the return on preferred.
arrow_forward
Answer the following a) When will the different DCF methods use the same discount rate? b) The cost of debt (ka) will change as the capital structure of a firm changes. Why or
why not? c) Why does the cost of equity (k.) increase as the amount of debt in the capital structure of a firm increases? Why? d) Freebie Inc.'s common stock has a beta of 1.3. If
the risk-free rate is 4.5% and the expected return on the market is 12%, what is its cost of equity capital? e) Why do branded food companies command the highest EBIT
multiple (about 8) and transportation companies the lowest (about 3)? f) Should a firm use its cost of capital as a hurdle/discount rate to value all internal divisions? Why or why
not? g) An option can have more than one source of value. Consider a mining company. The company can mine for ores today or wait another year (or more) to mine. What real
options can you identify here? h) Do you consider dividend payments by the firm in calculating cash flows? Why or why not? i)…
arrow_forward
Which one of the followings is incorrect regarding to cost of equity:
On average, it is higher than cost of debt.
It moves in the same direction with tax rates.
It is affected by return on market portfolio.
For a dividend paying company, it is sensitive to growth expectations for future dividends.
It is highly dependent on risk level of the firm and growth rate.
For calculating cost of equity, we can rely on dividend growth model or SML approach. Both models might suffer from the assumption that past is a good predictor of future.
True
False
Percy's Wholesale Supply has earnings before interest and taxes of €106,000. Both the book and the market value of debt is €170,000. The unlevered cost of equity is 15.5 per cent while the pre-tax cost of debt is 8.6 per cent. The tax rate is 28 per cent. What is the firm's weighted average cost of capital? Show your steps.
arrow_forward
a) Distinguish between systematic risk and unsystematic risk, and explain the significance of the distinction in portfolio analysis. b) Explain what is meant by a share’s beta value. c) Outline the main practical problems in using the CAPM in capital investment decisions. d) Discuss the assumption in CAPM analysis that corporate debt has a zero beta value
arrow_forward
according to capm the expected return on equity includes a reward for:
a. market risk and specific risk
b. Specific risk only
c. Time value of money and market risk
d. Diversification and portfolio risk
e. Time value of money and specific risk
arrow_forward
Which of the following statements is true?
A.
Because of flotation costs, dollars raised by retaining earnings must work harder than dollars raised by selling new shares.
B.
All other things being equal, a call option price will increase, and a put option price will decrease if an exercise price increases.
C.
Security market line (SML) plots return against total risk which is measured by the standard deviation of returns.
D.
Because potential long-term returns, income from rent-payments, diversification, and inflation hedge, real-estate would be a good investment.
arrow_forward
Which statement is NOT correct?
The distribution of returns does not affect the expected average rate of return.
To find the dividend yield, we can subtract the capital gain yield from the total
stock return.
Average geometric return is a better indicator than the average arithmetic return
for the growth.
Wider the distribution of return, riskier is the investment.
The current risk premium for U.S. Treasury bills is 0%.
arrow_forward
Which of the following businesses are most exposed to interest rate risk? *
A. A company with a high equity to debt ratio
B. A company with a large amount of floating rate debt
C. An al-equity company
D. An investment company with an investment portfolio that matches its investment horizon.
arrow_forward
According to the capital asset pricing model (CAPM), fairly priced securities should have __________.
Select one:
a.
A fair return based on the level of systematic risk.
b.
A beta of 1.
c.
A return equal to the market return.
d.
A fair return based on the level of unsystematic risk.
arrow_forward
In a CAPM world, what do you need to know in order to estimate an asset's expected return?
Group of answer choices
The risk free rate, the market risk premium, and the asset's standard deviation
The risk free rate, the market risk premium, and the asset's beta
The corporate bond rate, the expected return on the S&P 500 and the asset's Beta
Market sentiment, historical stock returns and the risk free rate
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