C400 Diagoniz Quiz

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400

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Feb 20, 2024

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• n 1 2 out of 2 points Which of the following occurs immediately following receipt of an order? Selected Answer: b. Confirmation Brief Response Feedback: FM 6-0, Commander and Staff Organization and Operations, C2, Apr 16, Paragraph 12-8 • Question 2 0 out of 2 points Which term refers to integration of government and nongovernment entities with military operations to achieve unity of effort? Selected Answer: : Unified Action Response Feedback: ADP 3-0, Operations, Jul 19, Page 1-6 • Question 3 0 out of 2 points In opposing force tactics, what is a battle zone? Selected Answer: d. A zone where a battle occurs Response Feedback: TC 7-100.2, Opposing Force Tactics, Dec 11, Page 2-14, Paragraph 2-42 • Question 4 2 out of 2 points What fundamental of stabilization includes gaining buy-in, coordinating training and operations, and conducting foreign military sales with the host-nation government? Selected Answer: c. Building host-nation capacity and capabilities Response Feedback: ADP 3-07, Stability, Paragraphs 1-13 and 1-14 • Question 5 2 out of 2 points What are the primary US Army stability operations tasks? Selected Answer: d. establish civil security, support civil control, restore essential services, support to governance, support to economic and infrastructure development, and conduct security cooperation Response Feedback: ADP 3-07, Stability, Jul 19, Paragraphs, 2-52 to 2-54 • Question 6 2 out of 2 points What are the major elements of the sustainment warfighting function? Selected Answer: a. Logistics, financial management, personnel services, and health service support Response Feedback: ADP 4-0, Sustainment, Jul 19, Paragraphs 1-1 to 1-5

• Question 7 2 out of 2 points With respect to mission type orders, what are the key components of a plan? Selected Answer: b. Mission statement, commander’s intent, and concept of the operations Response Feedback: ADP 5-0, The Operations Process, Jul 19, Paragraphs 2-123 to 2-126 • Question 8 2 out of 2 points What are the characteristics of the offense? Selected Answer: a. Surprise, concentration, Tempo, audacity. Response Feedback: ADP 3-90, Offense and Defense, Jul 19, Page 3-1, Paragraph 3-3 • Question 9 2 out of 2 points What are the main elements contained in the commander’s intent? Selected Answer: c. Purpose, key tasks, end state Response Feedback: ADP 5-0, The Operations Process, Jul 19, Paragraphs 2-103 to 2-105 • Question 10 2 out of 2 points What type of variables are filtered to focus on specific elements during mission analysis? Selected Answer: d. Mission variables Response Feedback: ADP 3-0, Operations, Jul 19, Page 1-2 • Question 11 2 out of 2 points Army logistics includes which functional elements? Selected Answer: a. Transport of Personnel, Medical and Health service support; acquisition or furnishing of services; acquisition or construction, MAINT, disposition, design, development, storage, evacuation. Response Feedback: ADP 4-0, Sustainment, Jul 19, Paragraph 1-5 • Question 12 2 out of 2 points What are the elements of combat power? Selected Answer: d. Leadership, fires, intelligence, movement and maneuver, protection, sustainment, information, command and control Response Feedback: ADP 3-0, Operations, Jul 19, Paragraph 4-11 • Question 13 2 out of 2 points What term means sustained combat operations involving multiple corps and divisions?

Selected Answer: d. Large-scale ground combat operations Response Feedback: ADP 3-0, Operations, Jul 19, Page 1-2 • Question 14 2 out of 2 points What are the types of defensive operations? Selected Answer: a. Area defense, mobile defense, retrograde Response Feedback: ADP 3-90, Offense and Defense, Jul 19, Paragraphs 4-15 to 4-20 • Question 15 2 out of 2 points The main difference between security operations and reconnaissance operations is that security operations orient on the protected force or facility, while reconnaissance is focused on? Selected Answer: c. Enemy and terrain oriented Response Feedback: FM 3-98, Reconnaissance and Security Operations, Jul 15, Intro to Chapter 6 • Question 16 2 out of 2 points What primary factor should the BCT staff consider regarding the location of the brigade support area (BSA)? Selected Answer: b. Near to or in close proximity with an MSR Response Feedback: ATP 4-90, Brigade Support Battalion, Jun 20, Paragraph 4-6 • Question 17 2 out of 2 points In which step of MDMP does the staff develop evaluation criteria? Selected Answer: a. Mission analysis Response Feedback: FM 6-0, Commander and Staff Organization and Operations, C2, Apr 16, P. 9-3 • Question 18 2 out of 2 points Which of the following are purposes of the defense? Selected Answer: b. force or deceive the enemy into attacking under unfavorable circumstances; Gain time; Retain key terrain; Defeat or Destroy enemy attack; support Ops; Regain the initiative offense. Response Feedback: ADP 3-90, Offense and Defense, Jul 19, Paragraph 4-2 • Question 19 2 out of 2 points What is the purpose of designating something as an essential element of friendly information?

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Selected Answer: a. Prevent the enemy from discovering the location of a critical asset or capability that is essential to the fight Response Feedback: ADP 5-0, The Operations Process, Jul 19, Paragraph 1-41 • Question 20 2 out of 2 points From their understanding of the current situation, what do commanders develop to help their staff and subordinate commanders visualize the desired end state of a given operation? Selected Answer: a. Operational approach Response Feedback: ADP 3-0, Operations, Jul 19, Page 2-4 • Q uestion 21 While in the defense, why would the BCT commander direct an uncommitted force to attack an enemy force that appears to be at a reduced strength? Selected Answer: a. attacking with an uncommitted force is a preferred method of transitioning to the offense Response Feedback: ADP 3-90, Offense and Defense, Jul 19, Page 4-1, Paragraph 4-2, and page 4-19, Paragraph 4-124 • Question 22 2 out of 2 points Which of the following is an inherent strength of defensive operations? Selected Answer: a. Response Feedback: The defender can occupy positions before the attack and use the available time to prepare defense. • Question 23 2 out of 2 points What do commanders and staffs prepare to support planning, increase shared understanding of the operational environment, and update facts and assumption throughout the activities of the operations process? Selected Answer: d. Running estimates Response Feedback: FM 6-0, Commander and Staff Organization and Operations, C2, Apr 16, Paragraphs 8-2 to 8-5 • Question 24 2 out of 2 points What are the forms of reconnaissance operations? Selected Answer: c. Area, reconnaissance in force, route, special, and zone

Response Feedback: FM 3-98, Reconnaissance and Security Operations, Jul 15, Paragraph 5-28 • Question 25 2 out of 2 points A defeat mechanism is a method through which friendly forces accomplish the mission against enemy opposition. What are the defeat mechanisms? Selected Answer: a. Destroy, dislocate, isolate, disintegrate Response Feedback: ADP 3-0, Operations, Jul 19, Paragraph 2-11 to 2-17 • Question 26 2 out of 2 points What are the stability mechanisms through which friendly forces affect civilians to attain conditions for lasting peace? Selected Answer: c. Influence, control, compel, support Response Feedback: ADP 3-07, Stability, Paragraph 4-38 • Question 27 0 out of 2 points What is your commander describing if he tells the staff to conduct undetected movement through or into an area occupied by enemy forces to occupy a position of advantage behind those enemy positions while exposing only small elements to enemy defensive fires? Selected Answer: d. Infiltration Response Feedback: FM 3-90-1, Offense and Defense, Vol 1, C2, Apr 15, Page 1-10, Paragraph 1-38 • Question 28 2 out of 2 points When preparing an operations plan or order, which Army reference specifies format standards and information requirements? Selected Answer: a. FM 5-0 Planning and Orders Production Response Feedback: FM 5-0 Planning and Orders Production, Appendix D • Question 29 2 out of 2 points Which security operation should only be undertaken by a brigade level or higher formation? Selected Answer: a. security Response Feedback: FM 3-98, Reconnaissance and Security Operations, Jul 15, Paragraph 6-86 • Question 30 2 out of 2 points What are the forms of defense? Selected Answer: d. perimeter defense , linear obstacle and reverse slope.

Response Feedback: FM 3-90-1, Offense and Defense, Vol 1, C2, Apr 15, Paragraph 6-115 • Question 31 2 out of 2 points What are the principles of sustainment? Selected Answer: a. Integration, anticipation, responsiveness, simplicity, economy, survivability, continuity, and improvisation Response Feedback: ADP 4-0, Sustainment, Jul 19, Paragraphs 1-6 to 1-14 • Question 32 2 out of 2 points What are the characteristics of defense? Selected Answer: b. Disruption, flexibility, maneuver, mass and concentration, operations in depth, preparation, and security Response Feedback: ADP 3-90, Offense and Defense, Jul 19, Paragraphs 4-5 to 4-14; FM 3-90-1, Offense and Defense, Vol 1, C2, Apr 15, Paragraph 6-2 • Question 33 2 out of 2 points Under which condition would a BCT most likely transition from the offense? Selected Answer: a. The BCT reaches a culmination point Response Feedback: FM 3-90-1, Offense and Defense, Vol 1, C2, Apr 15, Pages 1-42 to 1-43, Paragraph 1-209 • Question 34 2 out of 2 points Commander’s security guidance focuses on what aspect of tempo? Selected Answer: d. Duration Response Feedback: FM 3-98, Reconnaissance and Security Operations, Jul 15, Paragraphs 4-58 and 6-14 • Question 35 2 out of 2 points During planning, what types of offensive operations would the 1/3ID ABCT commander and staff include in their initial feasible, acceptable, suitable (FAS) analysis? Selected Answer: c. Movement to contact, attack, exploitation, pursuit Response Feedback: ADP 3-90, Offense and Defense, Jul 19, Paragraphs 3-13 to 3-18 • Question 36 0 out of 2 points

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What action would 1/3ID ABCT be executing if it cut off the 6201 BDET attempting to escape across the I435 Bridge in order to destroy it? Selected Answer: a. Block Response Feedback: ADP 3-90, Offense and Defense, Jul 19, Page 3-3, Paragraph 3-18 • Question 37 0 out of 2 points What are the four elements of the commander’s reconnaissance guidance? Selected Answer: b. focus, tempo, enagement/disenagement , Response Feedback: FM 3-98, Reconnaissance and Security Operations, Jul 15, Paragraph 4-38 • Question 38 2 out of 2 points According to OPFOR doctrine, what are preferred conditions for conducting an integrated attack? Selected Answer: d. The OPFOR possesses significant overmatch in combat power over enemy forces Response Feedback: TC 7-100.2, Opposing Force Tactics, Dec 11, Paragraph 3-67 • Question 39 2 out of 2 points What are the elements of the commander’s critical information requirements? Selected Answer: c. Friendly Force Intelligence Requirements (FFIR) Priority intelligence requirements (PIR), ( essential elements of friendly information (EEFI) Response Feedback: ADP 5-0, The Operations Process, Jul 19, Paragraphs 1-40 to 1-44 • Question 40 2 out of 2 points At the tactical level, which form of maneuver focuses on seizing terrain, destroying specific enemy forces, and interdicting enemy withdrawal routes? Selected Answer: a. E nvelopment Response Feedback: FM 3-90-1, Offense and Defense, Vol 1, C2, Apr 15, Page 1-3, Paragraph 1-11 • Question 41 2 out of 2 points What best describes how a commander communicates his/her broad approach to an operation? Selected Answer: a. By Commanders Intent Response Feedback: ADP 5-0, The Operations Process, Jul 19, Paragraph 1-37 • Question 42 0 out of 2 points

Who is the officer responsible for executing the distribution management process to ensure timely and accurate distribution of supplies, to include class VIII, and replacement personnel to supported units? Selected Answer: d. Brigade sustainment officer (S-4) Response Feedback: ATP 4-90, Brigade Support Battalion, Jun 20, Paragraph 1-70 • Q uestion 43 2 out of 2 points Following the mission analysis brief, the commander pulls the staff together and verbally describes the broad purpose of the operation and the conditions the unit, as a whole needs to achieve in order to be successful. What best describes what the commander conveyed to the staff? Selected Answer: d. Mission Analysis Response Feedback: ADP 5-0, The Operations Process, Jul 19, Paragraph 2-103 thru 2-105 • Question 44 2 out of 2 points What are the doctrinal steps of the military decision-making process? Selected Answer: d. recieve mission; mission analysis; COA; COA analysis; COA comparison, COA approval and orders production. Response Feedback: FM 6-0, Commander and Staff Organization and Operations, C2, Apr 16, Figure 9-1 • Question 45 2 out of 2 points Which tactical mission task physically renders an enemy force combat-ineffective until it is reconstituted? Selected Answer: c. Destroy Response Feedback: FM 3-90-1, Offense and Defense, Volume 1, C2, Apr 15, Appendix B, Page B-12 • Question 46 2 out of 2 points Which of the following is a correct statement about forms of maneuver? Selected Answer: Response Feedback: b Flank atttacks and envelopments destroy enemy in their FM 3-90-1, Offense and Defense, Vol 1, C2, Apr 15, Page 1-3, Paragraph 1-11 and Page 1-21, Paragraph 1-89 • Question 47 2 out of 2 points Regarding echelon support within the BCT, which types of trains best describes a movement from a combined arms battalion’s supporting FSC to the maneuver company area of operations? Selected Answer: c. Brigade Combat Team/ or DIV

Response Feedback: FM 4-0, Sustainment Operations, Jul 19, Figure 5-3 • Question 48 2 out of 2 points What are the primary forms of security operations? Selected Answer: c. Area security, cover , guard, and screen Response Feedback: FM 3-98, Reconnaissance and Security Operations, Jul 15, Paragraphs 6-21 to 6- 22 • Q uestion 49 What best describes the significant activities the force must perform as a whole to achieve the desired end state? Selected Answer: b. key tasks Response Feedback: ADP 6-0, Mission Command: Command and Control of Army Forces, Jul 19, Page 1-10 • Question 50 2 out of 2 points Which variation of the retrograde slows down the enemy’s advance without decisive engagement to trade space for time? Selected Answer: [ DELAY ] Response Feedback: ADP 3-90, Offense and Defense, July 19, Pages 4-3 to 4-4, Paragraphs 4-19 to 4-20

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C400 Diagoniz Quiz

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