ECON 203 Assignment 3

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University of Calgary *

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Economics

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Feb 20, 2024

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Assignment 3 Questions 1. Which of the following best describes changes in the average well-being in a country? a. The growth rate of real GDP per person 2. Which statement best characterizes the variations in real GDP per person and its rate of growth across countries? a. Real GDP per person and the growth rate of real GDP per person vary widely across countries 3. Last year, real GDP in Oceania was $620 billion and the population was 2.3 million. The year before, real GDP was $502 billion and the population was 2.0 million. What was the approximate growth rate of real GDP per person? a. 7% 4. What is the correct way to measure productivity? a. Divide output by the number of hours worked 5. Laurie works 8 hours and produces 7 units of goods per hour. Iris works 6 hours and produces 10 units of goods per hour. What can we conclude? a. Iris’ productivity and output are greater than Laurie’s 6. What do economists call the equipment and structures available to produce goods and services? a. Physical capital 7. What best defines human capital? a. The knowledge and skills that workers acquire through education, training, and experience 8. Which list contains, in this order, natural resources, human capital, and physical capital? a. For a railroad: fuel; railroad engineers; railroad tracks 9. In a market economy, what is scarcity of resources most clearly reflected in? a. Market prices 10. Which statement best defines technological knowledge? a. It is available information on how to produce things 11. Suppose you bake cupcakes. One day, you double the time you spend baking and double the sugar, flour, eggs, and all the other inputs in order to bake twice as many cupcakes. What kind of production function is this? a. Constant returns to scale 12. Suppose that an economy with constant returns to scale doubled its physical capital stock, doubled its available natural resources, and doubled its human capital, but kept the size of the labour force the same. How does the change in output compare to the change in productivity? a. Output and productivity would increase but by less than double 13. Suppose that over the past ten years productivity grew faster in Oceania than in Landia and the population of both countries was unchanged. What can we conclude? a. Real GDP per person grew faster in Oceania than in Landia 14. Which statement best explains how investment and growth rates relate across countries? a. They are positively related 15. Suppose Mexico increases its saving rate. What will happen in the long run? a. Productivity and real GDP per person will increase 16. Which statement best explains the logic behind the catch-up effect?
a. New capital adds more to production in a country that doesn’t have much capital than in a country that already had much capital 17. In the 1800s, Europeans purchased stock in Canadian companies, which used the funds to build railroads and factories. What type of investments did the Europeans make? a. Foreign portfolio investments 18. What factor did economic historian Robert Fogel focus on as one determinant of long-run economic growth? a. Nutrition 19. Once one person discovers an idea, the idea generally enters society’s pool of knowledge. Therefore, knowledge is generally what kind of good? a. A public good 20. Which of the following goods does a patent turn a new idea into? a. A private good, which increases the incentive to engage in research 21. Reggie’s income exceeds his expenditures. Which statement best describes Reggie? a. He is a saver who supplies money to the financial system 22. Suppose Microsoft sells a bond to the public. What is the company doing? a. Borrowing directly from the public 23. Which list of bonds is ordered from the most interest to the least interest? a. Corporate bond, municipal bond, federal government bond 24. Bella Roma Italian Market sells common stock. What type of financing are they using? a. They are using equity financing, and the return shareholders earn depends on how profitable the company is 25. What does a general, persistent decline in stock prices signal about an economy? a. That the economy s about to enter a recession because low stock prices may mean that people are expecting low corporate profits 26. Which term refers to the profits paid out to shareholders? a. Dividends 27. What is a dividend yield? a. It is the dividend as a % of the stock price 28. Suppose Sarah Lee Corporation stock has a P/E ratio of 10. Which statement best describes this P/E ratio? a. The P/E ratio is low, indicating that buyers may expect earnings to fall 29. Which of the following is a financial intermediary? a. A mutual fund 30. Which equation most simply represents GDP in a closed economy? a. Y = C + I + G 31. In a closed economy, how does national saving compare with investment? a. national saving is equal to investment 32. Suppose that in a closed economy GDP is equal to 15000, taxes are equal to 2500, consumption is equal to 7500, and government expenditures are equal to 3100. What is public saving? a. -600 33. The country of Aquilonia does not trade with any other country. Its GDP is $30 billion. Its government purchases $5 billion worth of goods and services each year, collects $7 billion in
taxes, and provides $3 billion in transfer payments to households. Private saving in Aquilonia is $5 billion. What is consumption? a. $21 billion 34. Who would a macroeconomist consider as investment? a. Anita builds a new house 35. What does the slope of the demand for loanable funds curve represent? a. The negative relation between the real interest rate and investment 36. If there is shortage of loanable funds, what is most likely to happen? a. Neither curve shifts, but the quantity of loanable funds supplied increases and the quantity demanded decreases as the interest rate rises to equilibrium 37. If the nominal interest rate is 14 percent and the real interest rate is 2 percent, what is the inflation rate? a. 12% 38. Suppose that the government were to replace the income tax with a consumption tax. What would happen to the interest rate and investment, respectively? a. Decrease and increase 39. Recently, the Canadian government has gone from a surplus to a deficit. Assuming other things remain the same, what does this change mean? a. That the supply of loanable funds shifted left 40. Suppose that interest rates and investment both rise. Which statement best explains these changes? a. The government has instituted an investment tax credit 41. What is cyclical unemployment closely associated with? a. short -run ups and downs of the economy 42. Which statement is characteristic of the natural rate of unemployment? a. It is the amount of unemployment that the economy normally experiences 43. Which of the following lists includes all the categories into which Statistics Canada divides the adult population? a. Employed, unemployed, not in the labour force 44. Who would NOT be included in the labour force? a. Jeremiah, who plans to travel for a few months before looking for work 45. In 2014 in the United Kingdom, the adult population was about 65 million, the labour force participation rate was 62 percent, and the unemployment rate was 5.7 percent. What was the number of people unemployed? a. 2.3 million 46. Prime Minister Bigego is running for re-election against Finance Minister Pander. Bigego proclaims that more people are working now than when he took office. Pander says that the unemployment rate is higher now than when Bigego took office. What can you conclude? a. Both of them could be telling the truth if the labour force grew faster than employment 47. Suppose that some people are counted as unemployed when, to maintain unemployment compensation, they search for work only at places where they are unlikely to be hired. If these individuals were counted as out of the labour force instead of as unemployed, how would the labour statistics change? a. The unemployment rate and the labour force participation rate would be lower
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48. How are discouraged workers counted in unemployment statistics? a. They are counted as part of the adult population, but not as part of the labour force 49. Who is considered unemployed? a. Sandy, who is on temporary layoff 50. Tom is looking for work after school, but everywhere he fills out an application he is told that so have lots of others. Simon has a law degree. Several firms have made him offers, but he thinks he might be able to find a firm where his talents could be put to better use. Which category of unemployment do Tom and Simon belong to? a. Tom is structurally unemployed, and Simon is frictionally unemployed 51. What is most likely to cause frictional unemployment? a. A worker leaving a job to find one with better benefits 52. The government operates programs for job training and job information intended to reduce unemployment. Which statement best describes how economists feel about such programs? a. Some economists claim that the government can do these things no better than firms, and individuals could do them for themselves 53. According to most economists, what would be an effect of eliminating unemployment insurance? a. It would cause a decrease in unemployment, but economists disagree about whether economic well-being would be enhanced by a such a change 54. What is the effect of minimum-wage laws on unemployment? a. minimum -wage laws probably increase teenage unemployment 55. When a union bargains successfully with an employer, what happens to unemployment and wages in that industry? a. Unemployment and wages increase 56. Suppose that in some country neither textile workers nor shoemakers are a. The supply of shoemakers will rise, and their wages will fall 57. What does the theory of efficiency wages explain? a. Why it may be in the best interest of firms to offer wages that are above the equilibrium level 58. Aaron is the owner of a firm that produces wind power in southern Alberta. There are many such firms in the area. Aaron decides that if he pays his workers a wage higher than the going market wage, his profits will increase. What is a likely explanation for his decision? a. The higher the wage, the less often his workers will choose to leave his firm 59. Which cause of unemployment is NOT associated with an excess supply of labour? a. Job search 60. In 2014, Madeleine opens up a new interior design business and creates five additional jobs in her firm. If net employment growth in 2014 was zero, what was a likely explanation for this? a. Job destruction was equal to job creation in 2014 Self-Assessment #3 1. Which statement best explains the importance of real GDP per person? a. It is a useful measure of well-being 2. Over the past 100 years, Canadian real GDP per person has doubled about every 35 years. If in the next 100 years it doubles every 25 years, then what will Canadian real GDP per person be a century from now?
a. 16 times higher than it is now 3. Last year, real GDP per person in Olympus was $6500. The year before, it was $5500. What was the growth rate of real GDP per person? a. 18.18% 4. How does productivity explain the differences in standard of living across countries? a. Productivity explains most of the differences across countries in the standard of living 5. Tom works 6 hours a day and Jerry works 8 hours. Tom can produce 6 baskets of goods while Jerry can produce 7 baskets. What can we conclude? a. Tom’s productivity is greater than Larry’s 6. What do economists call the inputs used to produce goods and services? a. Factors of production 7. Which of the following would NOT be considered physical capital? a. On-the-job training 8. Which of the following best describes natural resources? a. Production inputs such as land,rivers, and mineral deposits 9. In a market economy, when do we know that a resource has become scarcer? a. When its prices rises relative to other prices 10. Which statement best defines proprietary technology? a. It is knowledge that is known only by the company that discovers it 11. If your firm has constant returns to scale, what would happen to your firm’s output if you doubled all your inputs? a. It would double 12. If the production function for an economy had constant returns to scale, the labour force doubled, and all other inputs stayed the same, what would happen to real GDP? a. It would increase, but by something less than double 13. Which of the following does Y/L refer to? a. Productivity 14. How can a government encourage growth and, in the long run, raise the country’s economic standard of living? a. By encouraging saving and investment 15. Suppose a country were to increase its saving rate. In the long run, what would also increase? a. Its income and productivity levels 16. Which statement best defines the catch-up effect? a. It is the idea that it is easier for a country to grow fast and “catch up” with richer countries if it starts out relatively poor 17. If your Canadian-based firm opens and operates a new long board factory in Costa Rica, what type of investment is your firm engaging in? a. Foreign direct investment 18. What is an externality aspect of education? a. Education produces a return to society that is greater than the return to the individual 19. What is a valid policy to use for increasing the rate of economic growth? a. Encourage trade with neighbouring countries 20. What is the source of most technological progress? a. Private research by firms and individuals inventors
21. When a country saves a larger portion of its GDP, will it have more or less investment? a. It will have more investment, and so it will have more capital and higher productivity 22. Which term refers to a certificate of indebtedness that specifies the obligations of the borrower to the holder? a. Bond 23. In terms of riskiness, how do long-term bonds and short-term bonds compare? a. Short-term bonds are less risky and so pay lower interest 24. Which term refers to the sale of stocks and bonds to raise money? a. Equity finance for stocks, and debt finance for bonds 25. World Wide Delivery Service Corporation develops a way to speed up its deliveries and reduce its costs. What would we expect? a. This would raise the demand for existing shares of the stock, causing its price to rise 26. What is the single most important piece of information about a stock? a. Price 27. Stock in Synergistic Corporation is selling at $20 per share. It had earnings of $4 a share and a dividend yield of 5 percent. What is the dividend? a. $1.00 28. What does a low P/E for a stock indicate? a. People may expect earnings to fall in the future perhaps because the firms will be faced with increased competition 29. Which statement best defines financial intermediaries? a. They are financial institution through which savers can indirectly provide funds to borrowers 30. Which statement best defines a closed economy? a. It does not trade with other economies 31. In a closed economy, what does national saving equal? a. Income minus the sum of consumption and government expenditures 32. Suppose that in a closed economy GDP is equal to 12000, taxes are equal to 1500, consumption is equal to 6800, and government expenditures are equal to 3200. What is national saving? a. 2000 33. The country of Nemedia does not trade with any other country. Its GDP is $20 billion. Its government collects $4 billion in taxes and pays out $3 billion to households in the form of transfer payments. Consumption equals $13 billion, and investment equals $2 billion. What is the value of the goods and services purchased by the government of Nemedia? a. $5 billion 34. When is a budget surplus created? a. When the government spends less than the tax revenue? 35. What is the source of the supply of and demand for loanable funds, respectively? a. Saving and investment 36. If the current market interest rate for loanable funds is below the equilibrium level, what is most likely to happen? a. The quantity of loanable funds demanded will exceed the quantity of loanable funds supplied and the interest rate will rise 37. Which statement best defines the nominal interest rate?
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a. It is the interest rate as usually reported by banks 38. What would most likely happen in the market for loanable funds if the government were to increase the tax on interest income? a. The supply of loanable funds will shift left 39. What is the effect of an increase in budget deficit? a. It changes the supply of loanable funds 40. Which term refers to the fall in investment due to government borrowing? a. Crowding out 41. Which statement best defines the natural rate of unemployment? a. It is the amount of unemployment that the economy normally experiences 42. What does cyclical unemployment refer to? a. Year-to-year fluctuations of unemployment around its natural rate 43. How is the unemployment rate computed? a. By dividing the number of unemployed by the number of persons in the labour force 44. Who would be included in the labour force? a. Cody, who does not have a job, but is looking for work 45. A foreign governmental statistics agency recently reported that there were 47.6 million people over age 25 who had at least a bachelor’s degree. Of this number, 38.0 million were in the labour force and 35.9 million were employed. What was the unemployment rate in this group? a. About 5.5% 46. Last year, a government reported an increase in the number of people who were employed and an increase in the unemployment rate. Which statement would best explain the report? a. There was an increase in labour force 47. If an unemployed person quits looking for work, other things equal, which statement best describes the changes in the labour statistics? a. The unemployment rate decreases, and the labour-force participation rate decreases 48. Suppose that some people report themselves as unemployed when, in fact, they are working in the underground economy. If these persons were counted as employed, how would the labour statistics change? a. The unemployment rate would be lower, and the labour-force participation rate would be unaffected 49. How does Statistics Canada call a person who has a temporary, part-time job? a. Employed 50. What does the natural unemployment rate include? a. Both frictional and structural unemployment 51. What is most likely to cause frictional unemployment? a. Changes in the composition of demand among industries or regions 52. What would we predict if a country increases its unemployment compensation? a. The country would have longer duration spells of unemployment and it would have higher unemployment rate 53. What impact does employment insurance have on the labour market? a. It reduces search effort and raises unemployment 54. Which condition causes structural unemployment? a. Wages are kept above the equilibrium level
55. Which statement best defines collective bargaining? a. It is the process by which unions and firms agree on the terms of employment 56. What impact do employment insurance and unions have on unemployment? a. Unemployment insurance creates frictional unemployment, and unions create structural unemployment 57. Where is the unemployment rate more likely higher? a. Where EI benefits are higher, because people have less incentive to find jobs 58. Mary Sue is the newly appointed CEO of a company that manufactures USB flash drives on an assembly line. Her staff has told her that the output the firm produces, given the number of workers employed, indicates that some workers may be shirking. According to efficiency wage theory, what should she do? a. Pay all workers more than the equilibrium wage rate 59. Why did Henry Ford decide to pay $5 per day to his workers? a. He believed that %4 a day would increase worker productivity 60. Which law is most likely to reduce the natural rate of unemployment? a. A law that abolishes the minimum wage