Biochemistry Practice Final Exam Answers
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Course
352L
Subject
Chemistry
Date
Jan 9, 2024
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ractice
Quiz
1:
Water
—
Solvent
of
Life
1.
An
unusual
characteristic
of
H,O
is:
6.
The
hydrophobic
effect:
A.
greater
density
in
solid
form
(ice)
than
in
liquid
form
A.
only
occurs
with
amphipathic
molecules.
(water).
high
heat
of
vaporization.
C.
low
specific
heat.
D.
not
readily
forming
intermolecular
interactions.
2.
Which
atom
does
NOT
commonly
form
hydrogen
bonds
between
or
within
biological
molecules?
A.
oxygen
B.
hydrogen
|
carbon
D.
nitrogen
3.
Which
statement
about
hydrogen
bonds
is
false?
@
They
only
occur
between
water
molecules.
B.
They
are
weak
compared
with
covalent
bonds.
C.
They
cause
acid-base
reactions
in
aqueous
solutions
to
be
very
rapid.
D.
They
have
an
optimal
geometry.
4
Dissolving
table
sugar
into
iced
tea
is
an
energetically
favorable
reaction
due
to
a(n):
A.
increase
in
enthalpy
as
heat
moves
into
the
sugar.
B.
decrease
in
free
energy
due
to
broken
weak
interactions
between
sugar
molecules.
@
increase
in
entropy
as
the
sugar
dissolves.
D.
increase
in
free
energy
because
there
is
no
longer
~
a
solvation
layer
around
the
sugar
crystal.
5.
Nonpolar
compounds:
A.
force.surrounding
H20
molecules
to
become
disordered.
-
B.
increase
entropy
(AS)
when
dissolved
in
water.
@
decrease
enthalpy
(AH)
when
dissolved
in
water.
D.
interfere
with
the
hydrogen
bonding
among
H,0
molecules.
B.
does
not
occur
in
biological
membranes.
D.
results
from
attractive
forces
between
hydrophobic
molecules.
is
driven
by
an
increase
in
entropy
of
water
molecules.
7.
Weak
noncovalent
interactions:
A.
always
involve
water.
can
have
a
large
cumulative
effect.
C.
do
not
include
ionic
interactions.
D.
combine
to
form
covalent
interactions.
8.
I
need
to
calculate
the
osmotic
pressure
of
a
solvent.
|
know
the
concentration
of
the
solute
and
the
temperature
of
the
solution.
What
else
do
|
need?
@
whether
the
solute
dissociates
into
2+
ion
species
B.
the
vapor
pressure
of
the
solvent
C.
the
boiling
point
of
the
solvent
D.
whether
the
solute
is
hydrophilic
or
hydrophobic
9.
Osmosis
occurs:
A.
when
a
cell
is
in
an
isotonic
solution
relative
to
its
cytosol.
B.
because
osmotic
pressure
is
applied.
C.
because
cells
need
H.O0.
because
diffusion
of
H20
from
high
concentration
to
low
is
thermodynamically
spontaneous.
10.Which
condition
would
cause
red
blood
cells
to
burst
due
to
excess
water
passing through
the
plasma
membrane?
A.
Placing
the
cells
in
a
solution
of
higher
osmolarity
than
is
present
within
the
cells.
B.
Placing
the
cells
in
a
solution
of
amphipathic
molecules.
C.
Adding
a
charged
solute,
such
as
NaCl,
to
the
cell
suspension.
@Placing
the
cells
in
a
hypotonic
solution.
Quiz
1:
Water
—
Solvent
of
Life
11.Carbonic
acid
(H2CQ3),
is
formed
from
dissolved
(aq)
carbon
dioxide
and
water,
in
a
reversible
reaction:
COz(aq)
+
H20
—
H2C03
The
equilibrium
constant
for
this
reaction
is:
[H,0]
[H,CO,]
"
[H,C0,]
@
[CO,
(aq)
|[H,0]
5
[CO,
(aq)
][H,0]
[H,CO,]
-
[H.C0,]
o]
12.
What
is
the
concentration
of
H*
in
a
solution
of
0.01
M
NaOH?
Because
NaOH
is
a
strong
base,
it
dissociates
completely
into
Na* and
OH-.
A.0.01M
B.
102
M
C.
10
M
B
102m
13.
What
is
the
pH
of
a
0.1
mM
solution
of
hydro-
chloric
acid
at
37
°C?
14.
The
pH
of
an
aqueous
solution:
A.
must
remain
at
7.
B.
is
not
affected
by
added
OH".
C.
depends
solely
on
the
ionization
of
water.
@
is
a
function
of
hydrogen
ion
concentration
(to
a
reasonable
approximation).
15.
When
H20
ionizes:
A.
the
AG°=
0
kJ/mol.
it
has
a
measurable
Keg.
C.
its
concentration
(7
M)
does
not
appreciably
change.
D.
free
H"
ions
are
present
in
solution.
16.
Weak
acids:
@only
partially
ionize
in
water.
B.
hav.e
apKa<T7.
C.
react
very
slowly
with
bases.
D.
are
formed
by
dilution
of
strong
acids.
17.
The
pK,
of
a
weak
acid:
A.
is
a
function
of
its
concentration.
B.
is
the
pH
at
which
it
has
no
net
charge.
C.is<OatpH>7.
@can
be
determined
from
its
titration
curve.
18.
What
is
the
actual
function
of
a
buffer
system
such
as
acetate/acetic
acid?
to
maintain
a
constant
pH
in
the
event
that
the
concentration
of
an
acid
or
base
increases
B.
to
maintain
the
solution
at
the
pKa
|
C.
to
ensure
that
the
solution
has
no
free
H*
or
OH"
within
a
specific
range
D.
to
keep
the
solution
within
one
pH
unit
of
the
pKa.
19.
|
need
to
calculate
the
pH
of
a
weak
acid.
|
know
the
concentration
of
the
acid
and
its
conjugate
base,
and
my
solution
is
at
30
°C.
Using
the
Henderson-
Hasselbalch
equation,
what
else
do
|
need?
A.
the
Ky
for
H*
of
the
acid
B.
the
total
H*
concentration
(that
is,
free
and
bound
to
the
acid)
C.
the
free-energy
change
for
the
release
of
the
H*
@the
pKa
of
the
acid.
20.
Which
statement
about
buffers
is
false?
@They
have
maximum
buffering
capacity.
B.
They
are
weak
acids
and
bases.
C.
[A7]
=
[HA]
when
pH
=
pK;
D.
They
can
sometimes
be
biological
macromolecules.
21.The
pH
of
blood
is
not
affected
by:
A.
fasting
and
starvation,
which
force
the
use
of
fatty
acids
as
fuel.
the
pKa
of
acetic
acid
or
acetate.
C.
consuming
large
amounts
of
sodium
bicarbonate.
D.
hyperventilation.
22.
Generally,
physiological
pH:
A.
must
be
within
one
pH
unit
of
its
pK..
B.
is
determined
from
its
titration
curve.
@
is
near
7.
D.
is
between
9.35
and
9.45.
-G
Quiz
2:
Amino
acids
and
Peptides
1.
Which
amino
acid
has
three
pKa
values?
A.leucine
B.proline
C.
glycine
D.
threonine
@cysteine
2.
Which
amino
acid
would
MOST
likely
be
found
in
the
interior
of
a
globular
protein?
@Ala
B.D
C.glutamate
D.cysteine
E.Lys
6.
The
cytoskeletal
component
filamentous
actin
is
made
of
many
subunits,
all
of
which
are
globular
actin.
Which
term
refers
to
globular
actin
in
this
context?
A.
prosthetic
group
protomer
C.
ligand
D.
cofactor
E.
polymorphism
7
Which
statement
is
correct
about
proteins?
@
Proteins
can
consist
of
more
than
one
polypeptide
chain.
3
Given
that
all
20
common
amino
acids
have
at
least
g
proteins
consist
solely
of
polymerized
amino
acids.
two
oppositely
charged
groups,
which
statement
is
NOT
correct?
A.
Solutions
of
amino
acids
can
act
as
buffers.
B.
All
amino
acids
are
zwitterions.
C.
All
amino
acids
carry
at
least
one
charge
across
the
full
range
of
their
titration
curves.
D.
Amino
acid
isoelectric
points
should
be
near
neutrality.
@lt
is
not
possible
to
fully
deprotonate
amino
acids.
4.
At
what
pH
values
will
histidine
have
charge?
A.
below
1.82
B.
between
1.82and
6.0
@between
6.0and
9.17
D.
above
9.17
E.
There
are
no
pH
values
net
neutral
charge.
where
histidine
will
have
a
5.
Which
statement
is
correct
about
peptides?
A.
Peptides
have
no
a-carboxyl
groups.
Peptides
have
their
amino
acid
sequences
written
from
the
N-terminus.
C.
Peptides
do
not
have
isoelectric
points.
_\D.
Peptides
are
not
biologically
active.
.
E.
Peptide
bonds
are
broken
through
condensation
reactions.
a
net
neutra
C.
Proteins
all
have
similar
amino
acid
compositions.
D.
Proteins
can,
by
definition,
consist
of
no
more
than
2,000
amino
acid
residues.
E.
Proteins
do
not
have
ionizable
groups.
8.
Which
component
is
absolutely
necessary
for
the
purification
of
a
protein?
A.
column
chromatography
B.
the
gene
sequence
of
the
protein
@
a
means
of
detecting
the
protein
D.
a
centrifuge
9.
Which
protein
would
elute
first
from
a
gel
filtration
column?
A.
protein
A,
with
Mr=
27,000
protein
B,
with
M:
=
58,400
C.
protein
C,
ahomodimer
with
protomer
Mr=11,300
D.
protein
D,
with
M:r=15,600
10.
A
new
protein
resembling
myosin
was
reported.
Unlike
myosin,
it
binds
calcium.
Its
isoelectric
point
and
inolecular
weight
are
very
similar
to
those
of
myosin.
Which
method
would
BEST
separate
the
new
protein
from
myosin
if
those
two
proteins
were
in
the
same
buffer
solution?
A.
ion-exchange
chromatography
B.
size-exclusion
chromatography
@affinity
chromatography
D.
dialysis
E.
fractionation
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Quiz
2:
Amino
acids
and
Peptides
11.
The
specific
activity
of
a
protein
in
crude
cellular
extract
is
15
units/mg.
Following
a
purification
process,
involving
precipitation
with
ammonium
sulfate
and
multiple
chromatography
steps,
the
specific
activity
of
the
protein
is
12,000
units/mg.
What
is
the
purification
factor?
A.
180,000
800
E.
12,000
D.
15
C.
0.00125
12.
Denaturing
gel
electrophoresis
separates
proteins
based
on
differences
in:
@size
and
shape.
C.
charge.
B.
molecular
mass.
D.
amino
acid
content.
13.
What
measurement
increases
during
purification
of
an
enzyme?
A.
activity
@
specific
activity
14.
What
is
the
highest
level
of
protein
structure
in
human
insulin,
which
has
two
polypeptides
of
different
mass
linked
by
several
disulfide
bonds?
B.
total
protein
D.
fraction
volume
A.
primary
B.
secondary
@
quaternary
15.
Trypsin
catalyzes
the
hydrolysis
of
peptide
bonds
in
which
a
Lys
or
Arg
residue
contributes
a
carbonyl
group
LL-37,
an
antimicrobial
peptide
with
37
residues
has
6
Lys
residues
and
5
Arg
residues.
How
many
smaller
peptides
will
LL-37
yield
upon
trypsin
cleavage?
©12
C.
tertiary
A.©6
D.
37
B.5
E.
11
16.
Which
statement
is
true
about
mass
spectrometry?
A.
Mass
spectrometry
can
be
performed
on
analytes
in
the
liquid
phase.
B.
Mass
spectrometry
can
obtain
the
sequences
of
multiple
polypeptide
segments
of
100
residues
each.
C.
The
mass
(m)
of
an
analyte
is
used
to
deduce
the
mass-to-charge
ratio,
m/z,
with
high
precision.
D.
MALDI
MS
requires
treatment
of
proteins
with
a
protease
before
injection
into
a
mass
spectrometer.
Mass
spectrometry
can
monitor
changes
in
the
cellular
proteome
as
a
function
of
metabolic
state.
17.
Chemical
synthesis
of
peptidesby
the
Merrifield
method:
A.
involves
synthesizing
the
peptide
and
then
attaching
itto
a
solid
support.
B.
is
nearly
as
efficient
as
peptide
bond
synthesis
in
biochemical
systems.
C.
has
a
practical
upper
limit
of
a
polymer
of
~500
amino
acid
residues.
proceeds
fromthe
carboxyl
terminus
to
the
amino
terminus.
18.
Which
statement
is
false?
A.
protein
structure
is
commonly
defined
at
four
levels
between
organisms.
B.
The
function
of
a
protein
is
aresult
of
its
amino
acid
sequence.
@
Orthologs
are
homologs
found
in
the
same
species.
D.
Itis
possible
to
change
the
amino
acid
sequence
of
a
protein and
have
no
effect
on
its
function.
19.
The
amino
acid
sequences
of
proteins:
@can
be
used
to
establish
evolutionary
relationships
between
organisms.
B.
are
an
example
of
tertiary
structure.
C.
are
similar
within
a
given
organism.
D.
are
also
referredto
as
“consensus
sequences.”
20.
A
D-Amino
acid
would
interrupt
the
a-helix
of
an
all
L-amino
acid
composed
peptide.
Another
naturally
occurring
hindrance
to
the
formation
of
an
a-helix
is:
A.
a
negatively
charged
Arg
residue
B.
a
nonpolar
residue
near
the
C-terminus.
C.
a
positively
charged
Lys
residue.
@
a
Proresidue
E.
two
alanine
residues
side
by
side.
Quiz
3:
3D
structure
of
proteins
1.
Which
item
is
the
predominant
factor
i
i
stability?
In
protein
A.
disulfide
bonds
the
hydrophobic
effect
C.
salt
bridges
D.
nonpeptide
covalent
bonds
2.
Which
statement
regarding
protein
structure
is
true?
A.
Entropy
is
generally
not
a
consideration
when
determining
stability.
B.
Van
der
Waals
interactions
are
insignificant.
C.
Hydrophilic
side
chains
are
never
found
in
the
interior.
@
Hydrophobic
side
chains
are
usually
in
the
interior
of
the
native
structure.
3.
Why
is
there
very
little
allowable
rotation
around
the
peptide
bond?
A.
Peptide
bonds
are
amide
bonds.
B.
The
R
group
prevents
rotation
about
the
peptide
bond,
except
in
glycine.
C.
The
C—N
bond
is
shorter.
D.
Peptide
bonds
are
only
formed
in
the
cis
configuration.
he
partial
double-bond
character
makes
the
peptide
bond
planar.
6.
The
a
helix
is:
affected
by
the
identities
of
the
residues
near
each
end.
B.
stabilized
by
amino
acid
R-group
interactions.
C.
a
left-handed
helix
with
3.6
amino
acids
per
turn.
D.
stabilized
primarily
by
the
hydrophobic
effect.
7.
The
B
sheet:
A.
can
be
either
parallel
or
perpendicular.
B.
has
strands
in
which
the
R
groups
of
the
amino
acids
are
all
on
the
same
side
of
the
sheet.
C.
is
composed
of
amino
acid
residues
all
very
near
each
other
in
the
primary
structure.
@
is
primarily
stabilized
by
hydrogen
bonds.
8.
Which
is
the
more
stable
B
sheet:
parallel
or
antiparallel?
@antiparallel
due
to
more
linear
hydrogen
bonds
B.
parallel
due
to
the
alignment
of
all
terminal
amino
groups
on
one
side
and
all
carboxyl
groups
on
the
other
side
C.parallel
due
to
a
high
concentration
of
proline
residues,
promoting more
linear
hydrogen
bonds
D.
antiparallel
due
to
a
more
elongated
structure
than
parallel
sheets
E.
antiparallel
because
g
turns
can
join
the
strands,
an
arrangement
that
is
not
possible
with
parallel
sheets
4.
Given
that
an
«
helix
has
3.6
amino
acids
per
turn
9.
Ramachandran
plots
measure
which
dihedral
angles?
and
a
rise
of
5.4 A
per
turn,
what
is
the
length
per
amino
@
-
acid
of
the
«
helix?
A.3.6
A
B.54A
T)15A
D.
19.4
A
5.
Which
amino
acid
would
destabilize
an
amphipathic
a
helix
if
placed
in
the
middle
of
one?
A.
glycine
B.
proline
C.
glutamate
D.
valine
All
of
these
amino
acids
would
potentially
destabilize
an
phi)
and
y
(psi)
angles
B.
y
(psi)
and
w
(omega)
angles
C.
¢
(phi)
and
w
(omega)
angles
D.
¢
(phi),
w
(psi),
and
w
(omega)
angles
10.
Circular
dichroism
can
NOT:
A.
provide
a
rough
estimate
for
the
fraction
of
the
protein
made
up
of
the
two
common
secondary
structures.
B.
monitor
the
denaturation
of
a
protein.
C.
monitor
conformational
changes
in
a
protein.
@
obtain
a
high-resolution
three-dimensional
structure.
Quiz
3:
3D
structure
of
proteins
11.
Which
statement
regarding
the
tertiary
structure
of
proteins
is
false?
A.
Amino
acid
residues
far
apart
in
primary
structure
may
interact
with
each
other
in
the
tertiary
structure.
The
tertiary
structure
of
a
protein
is
destabilized
by
the
hydrophobic
effect.
C.
Many
proteins
can
be
classified
as
either
globular
or
fibrous
(but
not
both).
D.
Quaternary
structure
is
the
description
of
how
the
tertiary
structures
in
a
multisubunit
protein
are
arranged
with
respect
to
each
other.
12.
a-Keratin
proteins
constitute
almost
the
entire
dry
weight
of
horns
and
hooves
in
mammals.
The
strength
of
a-keratin
proteins
comes
from:
@cross-linking
of
a
helices
by
disulfide
bonds.
B.
a
close
packing
of
B8
sheets.
C.
a
triple
helix.
D.
high
concentrations
of
charged
amino
acids.
13.
Collagen:
@
has
fibrils
consisting
of
cross-linked
triple
helices
of
polypeptide
chains.
B.
dose
not
have
quaternary
structure.
C.
consists
of
a-helical
subunits.
D.
has
a
primary
structure
of
repeating
—Glu-X-Y-.
14.
A
motif
in
the
glycolysis
enzyme
hexokinase
could
NOT
contain:
A.a
B
turn.
B.
a
3
sheet.
C.
an
«
helix.
D.
disulfide
bonds
@AII
of
these
could
be
found
in
a
motif.
15.
Which
feature
is
NOT
associated
with
globular
proteins?
A.
domains
B.
motifs
C.
classified
as
either
all
a
or
all
8
@
intrinsically
disordered
regions
of
structure
16.
Quaternary
structure:
A.
describes
how
oligomers
are
assembled
into
protomers.
B.
refers
to
proteins
with
identical
subunits.
C.
refers
to
proteins
with
four
subunits.
@.
refers
to
an
arrangement
of
tertiary
protein
subunits
in
a
three-dimensional
complex.
17.
Which
characteristic
of
protein
is
NOT
associated
with
proteostasis?
(A
structure
B.
synthesis
C.
refolding
D.
degradation
18.
Denaturing
followed
by
renaturing
of
a
protein:
A.
always
results
in
the
protein
regaining
its
function.
@demonstrates
that
primary
structure
dictates
tertiary
structure.
C.
requires
heat.
D.
requires
breaking
and
reforming
disulfide
bonds.
19.
What
important
function
do
molecular
chaperones
perform?
A.
assemble
protein
subunits
into
a
quaternary
structure
fold
proteins
into
a
native
conformation
C.
transport
proteins
to
either
the
plasma
membrane
or
release
them
from
cells
to
the
extracellular
space
D.
add
cofactors,
coenzymes,
or
prosthetic
groups
to
proteins
as
they
are
synthesized
E.
move
proteins
from
endoplasmic
reticulum
to
the
Golgi
apparatus
20.
Which
statement
about
protein
folding
is
false?
@
It
requires
protein
disulfide
and
peptide
prolyl
cis-
trans
isomerases.
B.
It
is
a
stepwise
process.
C.
It
is
sometimes
assisted
by
proteins
known
as
chaperones.
D.
It
is
driven
by
changes
in
free
energy.
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Quiz
4:
Protein
function
1.
The
heme
prosthetic
group:
@
consists
of
protoporphyrin
and
aniron
(ll)
ion.
B.
is
found
only
in
myoglobin
and
hemoglobin.
C.
contains
a
single
iron
atom
in
its
ferrous
(Fe?*)
state
that
has
a
total
of
4
coordination
bonds.
D.
is
only
found
bound
to
protein.
2.
Myoglobin:
A.
has
quaternary
structure.
B.
contains
a
pocket
for
binding
heme
that
is
made
up
of
largely
the
C
and
D
helices.
C.
contains
multiple
binding
sites
for
O2.
@consists
mostly
of
a
helices.
3.
Protein
A
has
a
binding
site
forligand
L
with
a
Ka
of
105
M-,
Protein
B
has
a
binding
site
forligand
L
with
a
Ka
of
108
M-'.
Which
protein
has
the
higher
affinity
for
ligand
L?
8.
The
T
—
R
transitionis
triggered
by:
A.
ion
pairs
forming
between
residues
and
O2
at
the
a132
(and
a21)
interface.
B.
the
structures
of
the
individual
subunits
changing.
@
O,
causing
the
heme
to
assume
a
more
planar
conformation,
shifting
the
position
of
His
F8
and
the
F
helix.
D.
aB
subunit
pairs
sliding
past
each
other
and
rotating,narrowing
the
pocket
between
the
a
subunits.
9.
Leghemoglobin
is
an
oxygen-binding
protein
in
root
nodules
that
contain
bacteria
and
fix
atmospheric
nitrogen.
Which
statement
is
true
if
leghemoglobin
is
like
myoglobin
and
not
hemoglobin?
A.
There
are
four
oxygen-binding
sites.
The
oxygen-binding
curve
is
hyperbolic.
C.
There
is
cooperative
oxygen
binding.
D.
The
oxygen-binding
curve
is
sigmoidal.
E.
Oxygen
binding
changes
the
heme
configuration
from
T
to
R.
A.
protein
A
B
proteinB
10.
Which
molecule
is
a
homotropic
modulator
of
oxygen
C.
It
is
not
possible
to
determine
based
only
on
Ka
binding
to
hemoglobin?
values.
@
oxygen
B.
H*
C.
carbondioxide
4.
Protein
A
has
a
Ka
=
6.0
uM-"
for
binding
ligand
L,
and
D-
hemoglobin
E.
carbon
monoxide
the
proteinB
has
a
Ka=4.0
yMforbindingligand
L.
Based
11,
A
newly
discovered
protein
has
multiple
subunits,
each
on
this
information,
which
statement
is
true?
A.
Protein
B
binds
L
with
higher
affinity.
B.
Protein
A
is
half-saturated
with
L
when
[L]
is
6.0
yM~".
@
The
Kaof
protein
B
forLis
0.25
yM-".
D.
When
[L]
=1
uM,
Y
=0.17
for
protein
A.
5.
When
the
partial
pressure
of
oxygen
is
equal
to
the
Pso
of
myoglobin,
what
is
the
value
of
Y?
A.00
B.025
@o.so
D.0.75
E.1.0
6.
Oxygen
carried
by
whole
blood
in
animals
is
bound
and
transported
by
hemoglobin
in
what
type
of
cell?
A.
hemocytoblasts
@erythrocytes
C.
white
blood
cells
D.
stem
cells
E.
neurons
7.
The
a
and
B
subunits
of
hemoglobin:
A.
each
contain
4
heme
prosthetic
groups.
B.
contain
several
stretches
of
identical
amino
acids.
C.
are
both
tetramers.
@
have
high
structural
similarity
to
each
other.
E.
differin
structure
and
sequence.
with
a
single
ligand-binding
site.
Binding
of
ligand
to
one
site
increases
the
binding
affinity
of
other
sites
for
the
ligand.
The
Hill
coefficient
(nH)
is:
A.
equal
to
1.
greater
than
1.
C.
less
than
1.
D.
not
able
to
be
calculated.
12.
There
are
two
binding
sites
for
acetylcholine
onits
receptor.
What
would
be
the
shape
of
a
Hill
plot
if
there
were
cooperativity
of
binding?
A.
hyperbolic
B.
linear
sigmoidal,
with
a
sharp
change
in
slope
D.
two
sigmoidal
areas
linked
together,
one
for
each
binding
event
E.
two
sigmoidal
lines,
one
higher
than
the
other
onthe
graph
13.
Regarding
the
models
of
cooperativity:
A.
the
concerted
model
and
sequential
model
only
apply
to
tetramers.
B.
the
concerted
model
and
the
sequential
model
are
mutually
exclusive.
C.
the
concerted
model
is
based
on
the
T
state
and
the
sequential
on
the
R
state.
@T
state
is
low
affinity
and
R
state
is
high
affinity.
Quiz
4:
Protein
function
14.
In
peripheral
tissues:
A.
the
affinity
of
hemoglobin
for
oxygen
increases
and
the
protein
binds
more
Oa2.
B.
CO2is
excreted.
C.
the
structural
effects
of
H*
and
CO2
binding
to
hemoglobin
favor
the
R
state.
O2is
released.
15.
What
is
the
actual,
significant
effect
of
2,3-bis-
phosphoglycerate
on
oxygen
binding
by
hemoglobin?
There
is
an
increase
in
Kd
for
oxygen
in
peripheral
tissues.
B.
A
higher
concentration
of
oxygen
can
bind
at
high
altitudes
compared
to
low
altitudes.
C.
The
affinity
of
hemoglobin
for
oxygen
in
peripheral
tissues
increases
at
high
altitudes.
D.
Heme
further
decreases
affinity
for
both
CO2
and
H*
in
lungs,
allowing
more
O2
to
bind.
E.
It
has
no
effect
on
Oz
affinity,
but
it
forces
heme
into
the
R
state.
16.
The
molecular
structure
for
which
an
individual
antibody
or
T-cell
receptor
is
specific
is
known
as:
@
an
epitope.
B.
its
target.
C.
animmune
response.
D.
an
immunoglobulinfold.
17.
Which
statement
is
false?
A.
Hemoglobin
can
be
considered
a
dimer
of
aB
dimers.
@Og
binding
to
myoglobin
is
allosteric
but
not
cooperative.
C.
2,3-bisphosphoglycerate
decreases
the
affinity
of
hemoglobin
for
O2.
D.
Fetal
hemoglobin
has
a
lower
affinity
for
BPG
than
normal
adult
hemoglobin.
E.
The
GIu®
to
Val®
that
causes
sickle
cell
anemia
produces
a
hydrophobic
patch
on
hemoglobin’s
surface@
18.
Which
statement
is
false?
@
T
lymphocytes
produce
immunoglobulins.
B.
Immunoglobulins
target
foreign
bacteria
and
viruses
for
destruction.
C.
Memory
cells
allow
the
body
to
quickly
respond
to
viruses
i
has
encountered
before.
D.
Clonal
selection
increases
the
number
of
immune
system
cells
that
can
respond
to
a
particular
pathogen.
@
troponin|
E.
Vaccines
stimulate
the
production
of
memory
cells.
19.
Which
description
is
associated
with
immunoglobulin
G?
A.
consists
of
two
Fc
fragments
and
two
Fab
fragments
B.
consists
of
one
heavy
and
one
light
chain
@
most
abundant
immunoglobulin
D.
importantin
the
allergic
response
20.
Which
biochemical
principle
is
NOT
true
of
immunoglobulins
as
examples
of
protein
structure
and
function?
A.
Disulfide
linkages
strengthen
the
quaternary
structure.
Because
the
antigen-binding
domain
has
high
affinity,
there
is
no
observed
induced
fit.
C.
Amino
acid
chain
flexibility
and
bond
rotation
permit
optimal
epitope
binding.
D.
There
are
two
specific
and
identical
binding
sites
with
high
affinity
on
the
same
molecule.
E.
There
is
100%
sequence
homology
between
the
two
antigen-binding
sites.
21.
Polyclonal
antibodies:
A.
are
synthesized
by
a
population
of
identical
B
cells.
B.
all
recognize
the
same
epitope.
C.
are
identical
to
monoclonal
antibodies.
@
are
used
as
analytic
reagents
in
Western
blot
assays.
22.
Which
biochemical
structure
is
NOT
present
in
myosin?
A.
a
motif
B.
a
fibrous
region
C.
a
globularregion
@a
prosthetic
group
E.
an
enzyme
23.Thin
filaments:
A.
consist
of
only
F-actin.
B.
are
the
only
type
of
filament
in
the
A
band.
assemble
as
successive
monomeric
actin
molecules
add
to
one
end.
D.
are
rodlike
structures.
24.
Which
of
the
major
proteins
involved
in
muscle
contraction
hydrolyzes
ATP?
A
?ctin
B.
troponin
@myosin
D.
tropomyosin
25.
What
prevents
binding
of
myosin
to
actin?
B.
troponinC
C.
troponin
A
D.
troponin
M
=
A
__
A
transition
state
()
Quiz
5:
Enzymes
1.
Enzymes:
@
are
proteins
(with
few
exceptions).
B.
can
be
denatured
and
still
retain
full
activity.
C.
have
names
always
ending
in
“-ase.”
D.
are
also
referred
to
as
“coenzymes.”
2.
In
enzymes,
which
inorganic
ion
does
NOT
serve
as
a
cofactor?
A.
Zn2*
B.
Cu2*
@
Ca2*
D.
Mg2*
3.
An
apoenzyme:
A.
is
the
nonprotein
component
of
a
holoenzyme.
B.
always
requires
an
inorganic
ion
for
its
activity.
@
requires-a
cofactor
for
its
activity.
D.
is
an
enzyme
consisting
of
RNA
rather
than
protein.
4.
Some
enzymes
require
an
inorganic
ion
for
catalytic
function.
When
this
inorganic
ion
is
very
tightly
or
covalently
bound
by
the
enzyme
it
is
called
a(n):
prosthetic
group.
D.
catalyst.
A.
apoenzyme.
C.
holoenzyme.
9.
is
NOT
an
E.C.
class
name
for
enzymes.
@Polymerases
D.
Isomerases
_A.
Transferases
C.
Lyases
6.
What
is
the
free-energy
starting
point
for
areverse
reaction
designated
as?
ground
state
C.
biochemical
standard
D.
activation
energy
(AG#)
free
energy
7.
The
conversion
of
sucroseto
CO2
and
water
has
a
very
large
and
negative
AG".
Why
is
the
conversion
NOT
spontaneous?
A.
Only
some
reactions
have
a
negative
AG".
B.
Conversion
requires
heat
and
O2.
C.
Conversion
requires
the
presence
of
cofactors.
@
There
is
a
very
large
activation
energy
barrier.
8.
What
does
an
enzyme
change
relative
to
an
uncatalyzed
reaction?
A.
the
equilibrium
constant
the
rate
of
the
reaction
C.
the
pH
D.
the
free
energy
change
of
the
reaction
9.
Which
statement
is
true
regarding
the
relationship
between
biochemical
standard
f
ree-energy
change
and
the
equilibrium
constant
Keq?
AG"
==RT
In
K’eq
A.
The
relationship
between
f
ree-energy
change
and
equilibrium
is
exponential.
B.
A
decrease
in
Keq
translates
into
a
more
negative
free
energy.
C.
The
higher
the
temperature,
the
less
the
reaction
favors
product
formation.
Small
changes
in
free
energy
can
lead
to
large
changes
in
equilibria.
10.
If
a
first-order
reaction
for
the
unimolar
reaction
S
—
P
has
a
rate
constant
k
of
0.05s~',
how
is
this
interpreted
qualitatively?
A.
0.05%
of
the
available
S
will
be
converted
to
P
in
1
second.
5%
of
the
available
S
will
be
converted
to
P
in
1
second.
C.
0.05%
of
the
available
P
will
be
converted
to
S
in
1
second.
D.
5%
of
the
available
P
will
be
converted
to
S
in1
second.
12.
How
does
the
concept
of
“induced
fit’
support
the
current
theory
of
substrate-enzyme
interaction?
A.
Enzyme
structure
is
rigid,
allowing
for
competition
for
the
active
site
and
easy
ejection
of
the
final
product.
B.
Enzyme
conformational
changes
demonstrate
feedback
regulation
of
the
enzyme
and
the
ability
to
“turn
off”
activity.
C.
Having
a
rigid
structure
allows
the
enzyme
to
bind
the
substrate
and
stabilize
the
ES
complex.
Enzyme
conformation
changes
allow
additional
stabilizing
interactions
with
the
transition
state
and
enhance
the
activity.
13.
Binding
energy
is
defined
as
the:
energy
derived
from
noncovalent
enzyme-substrate
interaction.
B.
energy
derived
from
release
of
the
product
and
release
from
the
EP
interaction.
C.
energy
released
from
the
conversion
of
ES
to
EP.
D.
difference
in
the
uncatalyzed
activation
energy
and
catalyzed
activation
energy.
14.
What
is
the
primary
source
of
the
energy
enzymes
used
to
reduce
activation
energies?
A.
desolvation
of
the
substrate
B.
kinetic
energy
from
the
transition
state
@
noncovalent
enzyme-substrate
interaction
D.
covalent
enzyme-product
interaction
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—
o
—
e
A.Gly
Quiz
5:
Enzymes
15.
How
does
the
induced
fit
mechanism
of
enzyme
catalysis
work?
A.
The
enzyme
assumes
a
conformation
identical
to
the
substrate.
B)
The
enzyme
undergoes
a
conformational
change
to
maximize
weak
interactions
to
the
substrate.
C.
The
substrate
binds
the
active
site
of
the
enzyme.
D.
The
enzyme
undergoes
entropy
reduction
to
accommodate
substrate.
16.
Which
statement
about
enzymes
is
false?
A.
They
lower
the
activation
energy
of
areaction.
g
They
alter
the
overall
thermodynamics
of
a
reaction.
C.
A
substantial
amount
of
their
catalytic
power
results
from
binding
of
the
substrate(s)
through
weak
interactions.
D.
They
increase
the
rates
of
reactions
by
105fold
to
10"
fold
17.
Which
amino
acid
might
be
expected
to
have
the
LEAST
effect
on
the
function
of
an
enzyme
if
it
replaces
a
Glu
residue
in
the
enzyme?
B.lLys
C.His
18.
Which
statement
is
NOT
associated
with
covalent
catalysis
by
enzymes?
A.
When
the
reaction
is
complete,
the
enzyme
returns
to
its
original
state.
It
never
involves
coenzymes.
C.
Atransient
covalent
bond
is
formed
between
the
enzyme
and
the
substrate.
D.
A
new
pathway
from
substrate(s)
to
product(s)
is
formed
that
is
faster
than
the
uncatalyzed
reaction.
19.
An
enzyme
accepts
H*
from
hydronium
and
transfers
an
amine
group
of
the
substrate.
The
result
is
an
increase
iff
the
rate
of
release
of
the
product.
This
is
an
example
of:
A.
metal
ion
catalysis.
B/
general
acid
catalysis.
C.
covalent
catalysis.
D.
specific
acid
catalysis.
20.
After
you
mix
a
substrate
and
enzyme
together,
there
is
an
initial
transient
period,
the
pre—steady
state.
What
happens
during
the
pre—steady
state?
A.
[Et]
decreases
until
it
reaches
a
constant
level.
B.
[S]
decreases
until
it
reaches
a
constant
level.
C.
[P]
increases
until
it
reaches
a
constant
level.
@
[ES]increases
until
it
reaches
a
constant
level.
21.
Which
statement
is
false
about
the
saturation
effect?
A.
The
maximum
initial
rate
of
the
catalyzed
reaction
is
observed.
B.
Virtually
all
of
the
enzyme
is
present
as
the
ES
complex.
!t
is
responsible
for
the
linear
increase
of
Vo
with
an
INcrease
in
[S].
D.
Further
increases
in
[S]
have
no
effect
on
rate.
22.
For
a
specific
enzyme/substrate
system,
which
condition
will
ALWAYS
result
in
an
increase
in
Vo
(assuming
nothing
else
changes)?
@
a
decrease
in
Km
and
an
increase
in
Vmax
-anincrease
In
pH
C.
anincrease
in
[S]
D.
a
decrease
in
[E{]
23.
In
deriving
the
Michaelis-Menten
equation,
what
is
the
steady-state
assumption?
A.
[P]is
negligible
and
k-2can
be
ignored.
The
rate
of
formation
of
ES
is
equal
to
the
rate
of
its
breakdown.
C.
The
amount
of
substrate
bound
by
the
enzyme
at
any
given
time
is
negligible
compared
with
the
total
[S].
D.
The
reaction
is
a
one-substrate
enzyme-catalyzed
reaction.
"
AE_P
=
——24_\What
is
the
definition
of
Km,
the
Mizhaelis
constant?
A.
the
rate
at
which
enzyme
is
turning
substrate
into
-
product
at
2
Vmax
B.
the
Vo
at
%2
maximal
[S]
C.
the
number
of
molecules
of
substrate
converted
to
product
per
second
he
concentration
of
substrate
at
which
the
enzyme
is
operating
at
half
its
maximal
velocity
25.
The
Kmon
a
Lineweaver-Burk
plot
is:
A.
equal
to
the
y
intercept.
B.
equal
to
the
slope
of
the
line.
C.
the
reciprocal
of
the
y
intercept.
he
negative
reciprocal
of
the
x
intercept.
it
8-
In
drug
design,
a
drug’s
affinity
for
a
selected
target,
such
S
an
enzyme,
is
an
important
factorin
assessing
adrug’s
potential.
The
higher
the
affinity,
the
better
the
candidate.
Under
conditions
where
Kd
measures
affinity,
which
drug
would
be
the
BEST
candidate?
Drug
A:
10~
Drug
C:
108
Drug
B:
1076
Drug
D:
10-10
A.
drug
A
B.
drug
B
C.drug
C
@drug
D
27.
The
rate-limiting
step
of
an
enzyme-catalyzed
reaction:
A.
is
always
the
last
step.
has
a
rate
constant
equal
to
Kcat.
C.
is
always
the
fastest
step.
D.
is
always
slower
than
the
rate
of
diffusion
of
the
substrate
to
the
active
site.
Quiz
6:
Carbohydrates
and
Glycobiology
1.
What
chemical
feature
determines
if
a
sugaris
an
7.
Cyclization
of
monosaccharides:
?
.
|
aldose
or
a
ketose:
|
|
@
is
the
reaction
of
hemiketal
or
hemiacetal
formation.
A.
the
direction
of
rotation
of
polarized
light
@
the
position
of
the
carbonyl
carbon
C.
if
the
enantiomers
resemble
either
glyceraldehyde
or
C.
creates
a
and
B
epicnsss.
dihydroxyacetone
D.
if
the
epimers
differin
configuration
around
one
carbon
or
more
than
one
carbon
B.
isirreversible.
D.
only
occurs
in
hexoses.
8.
Using
the
Fischer
projection
of
D-glucose,
identify
which
Fischer
projection
2.
Glucose
is
amonosaccharide
with
a(n):
statement
is
true
of
the
Haworth
perspective
formula
of
a-
aldehyde
functional
group
and
six
carbons.
D-glucopyranose.
‘clHo
B.
ketone
functional
group
and
six
carbons.
A.
The
terminal
—CH,OH
group
projects
downward.
H-*
?
—OH
C.
aldehyde
functional
group
and
seven
carbons.
@The
anomeric
hydroxyl
is
on
the
opposite
side
HO—’?
—H
.
4
D.
ketone
functional
group
and
seven
carbons.
from
C-6.
:—Si—z:
:
C.
The
hydroxyl
group
on
C-2is
placed
pointing
up.
[
3.
Why
does
(R,S)-aspartame
NOT
stimulate
the
sweet
y
ylgroup
P
P
ngup
éCH,0H
receptor?
D.
The
cyclic
structure
is
a
five-membered
ring.
o-Glucose
A.
Site
AH*
cannot
bind
the
partially
negative
oxygen
of
the
carboxylic
acid.
B.
Site
B~
cannot
hydrogen
bond
with
the
amine
A.
mutarotation
nitrogen.
B.
oxidation
to
an
aldonic
acid
C/
Site
X
cannot
accommodate
the
hydrophobic
benzene
ring.
D.
None
of
the
sites
caninteract
with
(R,
S)-aspartame.
9.
Which
reaction
is
one
thatis
NOT
common
of
glucose?
C.
oxidation
to
an
uronic
acid
@oxidation
by
reducing
sugars
‘
10.
What
term
is
given
to
carbohydrates
linked
by
their
4.
Which
statement
is
false
regarding
the
enantiomers
of
gnomeric
carbons?
glyceraldehyde?
@
nonreducing
sugars
B.
glycosides
A.
The
enantiomers
of
glyceraldehyde
are
mirrorimages
C.
anomers
D.
hemiketals
of
each
other.
:
B.
Because
glyceraldehyde
contains
one
chlral
center,
it
11.
Following
the
convention
for
CHZOHO
CHZOHO
has
two
enantiomers.
naming
reducing
W
V/H
C.
In
the
Fischer
projection
formula
for
D-
oligosaccharides,
whatis
the
{\J"
'/
Vi)
glyceraldehyde,
the
hydroxyl
group
is
on
the
right.
name
of
lactose,
as
shown.
H
OH
H
OH
|
Glyceraldehyde
does
not
occurin
optically
active
A.
a-L-glucopyranose-(1—6)-a-L-galactopyranosyl
isomeric
forms.
B.
B-D-glucopyranose-(1—4)--D-galactopyranosyl
@
B-D-galactopyranosyl-(1—4)-8-D-glucopyranose
5.
A
monosaccharide
with
a
ketone
functional
group
and
D.
a-L-galactopyranosyl-(1—6)-a-L-glucopyranose
seven
carbons:
A.
can
never
exist
in
cyclic
form.
is
a
ketoheptose.
12.
Which
of
these
sugars
is
nonreducing?
C.
is
the
monosaccharide
found
in
RNA
but not
DNA.
’@Trehalose
B.
glucose
C.
maltose
b
lactose
D.
has
a
single
chiral
center.
13.
Which
item
is
NOT
associated
with
disaccharides?
6.
What
name
is
given
to
monosaccharides
that
differin
A+
O-glycosidiclinkages
configuration
about
the
hemiacetal
carbon
atom?
B.
formation
of
a
ketal
or
acetal
A.
enantiomers
_isomers
@
never
having
free
anomeric
carbons
.
D.
sucrose
C.
epimers
D
anomers
Quiz
6:
Carbohydrates
and
Glycobiology
14.
Which
statement
is
false
regarding
homopolysaccharides
and
heteropolysaccharides?
A.
Homopolysaccharides
contain
a
single
monomeric
sugar
species.
B.
Some
homopolysaccharides
serve
as
structural
elements
in
animal
exoskeletons.
Heteropolysaccharides
serve
as
storage
forms
of
monosaccharides
that
are
used
as
fuel.
D.
In
animal
tissues,
the
extracellular
space
is
occupied
by
several
types
of
heteropolysaccharides.
15.
What
O-glycosidic
bond
is
commonly
found
in
amylose,
amylopectin,
and
glycogen?
@
(a1—4)
A.
(B1—4)
B.
(a1—6)
C.
(81—6)
16.
A
glycogen
molecule
with
28
branches
has
how
many
nonreducing
and
reducing
ends?
A.
28
nonreducing
ends
and
28
reducing
ends
29
nonreducing
ends
and
1
reducing
end
C.
1
nonreducing
end and
29
reducing
ends
D.
1
nonreducing
end and
1
reducing
end
17.
Why
is
it
logical
for
sugars
to
be
added
to
only
one
end
of
glycogen,
making
them
excellent
molecules
for
glucose
storage?
A.
Because
the
other
end
of
the
molecule
is
anchored
to
a
membrane
with
a
lipid.
B.
Because
it
is
the
reducing
end,
and
a
reduction
reaction
is
the
mechanism
for
adding
the
sugar.
C.
Because
it
has
the
hemiacetal
carbon,
the
one
carbon
to
which
more
sugars
can
be
attached.
Because
there
are
many
nonreducing
ends
on
one
molecule,
allowing
rapid
glucose
storage
and
release.
18.
Even
though
amylose
and
cellulose
are
made
of
similar
homopolysaccharide
chains,
they
have
very
different
properties.
Why?
The
B-glycosidic
linkage
of
glucose
molecules
in
cellulose
form
interchain and
intrachain
hydrogen
bonds
that
produce
straight,
stable
fibers
that
exclude
water.
B.
Cellulose
is
composed
of
galactose,
while
amylose
is
composed
of
glucose.
C.
The
a-glycosidic
linkage
of
glucose
molecules
in
amylose
causes
it
to
form
helices
that
exclude
water.
D.
Amylose
makes
alinear
polymer
which
cannot
make
hydrogen
bonds.
19.
Why
are
chitin
and
cellulose
hydrophobic
and
essentially
insoluble
in
an
aqueous
media?
A.
Because
polymers
of
these
molecules
pack
so
tightly
together,
there
is
no
geometric
space
left
for
water.
Because
they
form
many
internal
hydrogen
bonds,
they
leave
no
sites
for
binding
to
water.
C.
Because
there
are
no
enzymes
that
can
break
the
beta
linkages.
D.
Because
the
linear
polymer
cannot
make
hydrogen
bonds.
20.
Polysaccharides:
A.
do
not
fold
into
three-dimensional
structures.
are
glycans.
C.
must
be
homopolysaccharides.
D.
are
never
branched.
21.
Which
characteristic
is
NOT
one
that
is
true
of
glycosaminoglycans?
A.
found
in
extracellular
matrix
(B2
always
contain
sulfates
C.
are
heteropolysaccharides
D.
are
disaccharide
repeat
units
22.
The
glycosaminoglycan
hyaluronan:
A.isa
homopolysadcharide.
@
consists
of
alternating
residues
of
D-glucuronic
acid
and
N-acetylglucosamine.
C.
is
covalently
linked
to
specific
proteins.
D.
is
a
much
shorter
polymer
than
heparin.
23.
Which
statement
about
glycoconjugates
is
false?
A.
The
glycosaminoglycan
chain
of
the
proteoglycan
can
bind
to
extracellular
proteins
through
electrostatic
interactions.
Glycolipids
are
found
in
specific
organelles,
such
as
Golgi
complexes.
C.
Glycosphingolipids
play
arole
in
signal
transduction.
D.
The
oligosaccharide
portions
of
glycoproteins
are
very
heterogeneous.
24.
Which
statement
about
proteoglycans
is
false?
A.
They
contain
protein.
B.
They
can
affect
ligand-receptor
interactions.
@They
are
always
extracellular.
D.
They
contain
glycosaminoglycans.
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Ha
Quiz
7:
Nucleotides
and
Nucleic
Acids
1.
What
other
name
can
be
given
to
a
nucleotide?
A.
glycosylated
nucleoside
B.
purinated
pentose
C.
deoxyribonucleotide
@
nucleoside
phosphate
2.
Which
of
the
following
is
NOT
a
pyrimidine
base?
A.
Cytosine
B.
uracil
@
adenosine
D.
thymine
3.
Which
of
the
following
is
NOT
part
of
a
deoxyribo-
nucleotide?
"
B.
phosphate
@
ribose
4.
What
name
is
given
to
the
nucleotide
found
in
DNA
and
NOT
in
RNA?
A.
a
deoxyribonucleoside
C.
a
nitrogenous
base
B.
thymidine
@
deoxythymidylate
A.
Uridylate
C.
uracil
5.
Why
is
DNA
more
stable
than
RNA?
A.
RNA
can
never
be
double-stranded;
therefore,
DNA
is
more
stable.
@
The
2-hydroxyl
groups
in
RNA
(absent
in
DNA)
are
directly
involved
in
the
hydrolysis
of
oligonucleotides.
C.
Thymine
forms
more
stable
hydrogen
bonds
than
uracil.
D.
RNA
does
not
have
secondary
structure.
6.
A
strand
of
DNA
or
RNA:
A.
contains
5'
-
2'
phosphodiester
bonds.
might
be
an
oligonucleotide.
C.
has
a
C-terminus
and
an
N-terminus.
D.
has
no
charge.
7.
A
property
of
nucleotide
bases
that
affects
the
three-
dimensional
structure
of
nucleic
acids
is:
A.
their
weakly
acidic
nature.
B.
theirabsorption
of
UV
lightat
wavelengths
above
280 nm.
C.
their
hydrophilic
nature.
,@
their
existence
in
tautomeric
forms
depending
on
pH.
8
In
a
sample
of
DNA
isolated
from
an
unidentified
species
of
bacteria,
adenine
makes
up
28%
of
the
total
bases.
Which
statement
is
false
about
the
relative
proportions
of
the
bases
inthe
DNA
sample?
@
The
DNA
must
contain
28%
C.
~B.
Aand
T
bases
account
for
56%
of
the
bases.
C.
G
and
C
base
pairs
account
for
44%
of
the
bases.
D.
C.
T,
and
G
bases
account
for
72%
of
the
bases.
9.
Which
statement
is
true
about
the
three-dimensional
structure
of
DNA?
A.
Native
DNA
consists
of
two
parallel
chains
in
a
right-
handed
double-helical
arrangement.
B.
Complementary
base
pairs,
A=C
and
G=T,
are
formed
by
hydrogen
bonding
between
chains
in
the
helix.
C.
The
base
pairs
are
stacked
parallel
to
the
long
axis
of
the
double
helix.
@The
offset
pairing
of
the
two
strands
creates
a
major
groove
and
a
minor
groove
on
the
surface
of
the
duplex.
10.
Which
statement
regarding
bases
in
DNA
is
false?
A.
They
absorb
UV
light.
Pyrimidines
are
aromatic;
purines
are
not.
C.
They
have
vertical
stacking
interactions.
D.
They
hydrogen
bond
between
two
or
more
complementary
DNA
strands.
11.
Some
effort
has
been
made
to
extract
DNA
from
fossilized
dinosaur
bones
that
have
been
buried
for
many
million
of
years
in
arid
climates.
In
what
form
is
this
DNA
MOST
likely
to
be
found?
@A
B.B
C.Z
D.
completely
denatured
12.
Telomeres
are
noncoding
sequences
on
the
ends
of
chromosomes.
They
contain
a
high
concentration
of
guanosine.
Given
this
information,
what
other
structure
may
be
in
telomeres?
A.
cyclobutane
dimers
B.
a
high
concentration
of
triplexes
@
tetraplexes
D.
A-form
DNA
13.
Which
of
the
following
is
NOT
associated
with
DNA
structure?
A.
Z-DNA
B.
G
tetraplexes
@
three
hydrogen
bonds
between
A
and
T
D.
pyrimidines
in
the
anti
conformation
Quiz
7:
Nucleotides
and
Nucleic
Acids
14.
Which
statement
regarding
mRNA
s
false?
@
It
is
always
monocistronic.
B.
It
carries
genetic
information
to
the
ribosomes.
C.
It
is
formed
by
transcription.
D.
It
can
be
of
varying
lengths.
15.
Which
structure
is
found
in
RNA
but
would
be
the
result
of
a
mutation
of
faulty
annealing
in
DNA?
A.
Hairpin
B.
double-stranded
helix
C.
cruciform
@
bulge
16.
Which
statement
is
false
regarding
a
solution
of
DNA
subjected
to
extremes
of
pH?
A.
The
viscosity
of
the
solution
will
decrease
sharply.
B.
Hydrogen
bonds
between
paired
bases
will
be
disrupted.
@Covalent
bonds
in
the
DNA
will
be
broken.
D.
Base-stacking
interactions
will
be
disrupted.
17.
The
process
of
separating
strands
of
a
DNA
double
helix
is
known
as:
A.
separation.
denaturation.
C.
annealing.
D.
replication.
18.
A
graduate
student
carefully
heated
DNA
to
about
80°C
and
then
prepared
it
for
electron
microscopy.
She
observed
several
small
open
loops
of
DNA.
What
conclusion
did
she
CORRECTLY
make
from
her
observation?
A.
The
openloops
contain
DNA
mutations,
such
as
cyclobutane
dimers
and
deaminations.
B.
The
denatured
DNA
is
the
site
of
genes,
and
the
annealed
DNA
is
the
site
of
noncoding
DNA.
@
The
openloops
contain
DNA
with
a
high
A-T
content.
D.
The
openloops
contain
denatured
DNA
that
is
being
transcribed.
19.
Which
statement
is
false
about
nucleotides
and
nucleic
acids
undergoing
nonenzymatic
transformations?
A.
Several
nucleotide
bases
undergo
spontaneous
loss
of
their
exocyclic
amino
groups.
B.
Hydrolysis
of
the
N-3-glycosyl
bond
between
the
base
and
the
pentose
creates
a
DNA
lesion
called
an
AP
site.
@
lonizing
radiation
induces
the
condensation
of
two
ethylene
groups
to
form
a
cyclobutene
ring.
D.
UV
irradiation
can
result
in
a
6-4
photoproduct,
atype
of
pyrimidine
dimer.
20.
Mutations
in
DNA
can
result
from:
A.
deamination
of
ribose:
B.
UV-induced
purine
dimers.
61
alkyiation
of
the
phOSphOd
ieste
@
oxidation
of
deoxyribose.
rbond.
21.
In
its
simplest
form,
polymerase
chain
reaction:
A.
is
remarkably
insensitive
to
contamination.
B.
requires
reverse
transcriptase.
@
requires
two
oligonucleotide
primers.
D.
requires
@
minimum
of
10,000
copies
of
DNA
to
be
amplified.
22.
Sanger
sequencing
was
performed
on
DNA
from
chloroplasts
of
a
new
plant
species
discovered
in
the
rain
forest
of
Puerto
Rico.
The
x-ray
film
showed
bands
in
the
A,
C,
and
T
lanes,
but the
G
lane
was
blank.
What
is
the
MOST
likely
explanation
for
this
unexpected
result?
@
ddG
was
not
added
to
the
reaction
tube.
B.
Different
template
DNA
was
added
to
the
reaction
tube.
C.
The
template
DNA
contained
no
G.
D.
The
template
DNA
contained
no
C.
23.
Which
method
is
NOT
associated
with
DNA
sequencing?
A.
Sanger
sequencing
B.
electrophoresis
C.
alignment
@
Maxam
and
Watson
sequencing
24.
Which
statement
is
true?
A.
Hydrolysis
of
the
a,
B,
and
S,
y
phosphoester
bonds
of
a
nucleotide
is
used
as
a
source
of
chemical
energy.
B.
dATP
is
the
most
common
source
of
chemical
energy
in
cells.
@
CTP
hydrolysis
can
be
a
source
of
chemical
energy.
D.
Hydrolysis
of
ATP
to
ADP
and
phosphate
releases
about
14
kJ/mol
of
free
energy.
25.
Which
nucleoside
is
the
one
MOST
commonly
found
as
part
of
coenzymes?
@Adenosine
B.
guanosine
C.
cytosine
D.
inosine
Quiz
8:
Lipids
1.
Fatty
acids:
@
can
be
branched
or
unbranched.
B.
are
highly
oxidized
storage
forms
of
hydrocarbons.
C.
are
referred
to
as
“saturated”
if
they
have
one
or
more
C—-C
double
bonds.
D.
never
exceed
20
carbons
in
length,
by
definition.
2.
Which
statement
regarding
linoleic
acid
[18:2(A%'?)]
is
false?
A.
It
has
one
carboxylic
acid
functional
group.
B.
It
has
two
double
bonds.
@
It
has
20
carbons.
D.
It
has
a
C—C
double
bond
between
carbons
9
and
10.
3.
Triacylglycerols:
A.
always
have
at
least
one
fatty
acid
with
a
trans
double
bond.
B.
consist
of
glycerol
and
three
different
fatty
acids.
C.
consist
of
glycerol
and
three
identical
fatty
acids.
@
are
a
major
energy
storage
form.
4.
Where
do
we
store
triacylglycerol
(triglyceride)?
A.
in
the
lumen
of
the
ER
B.
in
the
mitochondria
@
in
the
lipid
droplet
D.
in
the
nucleus
5.
What
is
the
advantage
of
storing
energy
in
the
form
of
triacylglycerol
over
glycogen?
A.
Triacylglycerol
has
a
lower
melting
temperature.
B.
Glycogen
hydrolysis
is
poorly
regulated.
C.
Because
triacylglycerol
is
bigger,
it
takes
up
more
space
inside
the
cell.
Because
triacylglycerol
is
hydrophobic
and
excludes
water,
it
takes
up
less
space.
6.
Which
statement
is
false?
A.
Naturally
occurring
fatty
acids
usually
have
an
even
number
of
carbons.
B.
Wax
esters
contain
long
chain
fatty
acids
and
long
chain alcohols.
Triacylglycerols
are
polar
due
to
their
ester
functional
groups.
D.
The
number
of
C—C
double
bonds
in
a
fatty
acid
affects
its
melting
point.
7.
Glycerophospholipids
do
NOT
contain:
A.
fatty
acids
B.
ester
linkages
C.
g?&cerol
@
a
mono-
or
disaccharide
8.
W‘\ich
statement
is
false?
A.
Glycerophospholipids
are
named
as
derivatives
of
the
parent
compound,
phosphatidic
acid.
B.
ElLer
lipids
may
be
saturated
or
contain
a
double
bond.
C.
Platelet-activating
factor
is
a
glycerophospholipid.
The
stroma
of
the
chloroplast
is
rich
in
galactolipids,
composed
of
a
diacylglycerol
with
one
or
two
linked
gelactose
residues.
a
parent
compound
or
compounds
9
of
sphvingolipids.
A.
Phospholipases
are
B.
Glycerol-3-phosphate
is
C.
Sphingomyelins
are
@
Ceramides
are
10.
Which
sphingolipids
have
a
single
monosaccharide
as
a
component?
@cerebrosides
B.
gangliosides
C.
gioq‘osides
D.
plasmalogens
iy
P
Whaflfit
are
the
products
of
phospholipase
D
degradation
of
phosphatidylethanolamine?
A.
diacyiglycerol
and
phosphocholine
B.
diacylglycerol
and
phosphoethanolamine
/
phesphatidate
and
ethanolamine
D.
phosphatidate
and
choline
12.
Which
statement
regarding
cholesterol
is
false?
A.
It
is
the
precursor
for
steroid
hormones.
B.
It
is
the
precursor
for
bile
acids.
@It
is
not
usually
a
component
of
eukaryotic
membranes.
D.
It
has
a
hydrophilic
functional
group.
13.
Membrane
lipids
do
NOT
include:
A.
glycerophospholipids.
@
triacylglycerols.
C.
sphingolipids.
D.
glycolipids.
14.
Which
statement
regarding
eicosanoids
is
false?
A.
They
are
produced
from
arachidonate.
They
are
classified
as
neither
prostaglandins
nor
thromboxanes.
C.
They
act
as
paracrine
hormones.
D.
They
have
many
different
effects.
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Quiz
8:
Lipids
15.
Which
statement
is
false?
\
A.
Phosphorylated
derivatives
of
phosphatidylinositol
regulate
cell
structure
and
metabolism.
B.
Extracellular
signals
activate
a
specific
phospholipase
C
in
the
membrane,
which
hydrolyzes
PIP;
to
release
two
products
that
act
as
intracellular
messengers.
:
C.
Formation
of
PIP3
in
response
to
extracellular
signals
brings
the
proteins
together
in
signaling
complexes
at
the
surface
of
the
plasma
membrane.
|
PIP3
is
a
potent
regulator
of
protein
kinases.
16.
A
novel
subclass
of
thromboxane
was
discovéred
in
lipids
isolated
from
a
newly
discovered
poison
dart
from
the
Amazon
valley.
What
unique
structural
feature
is
likely
present
in
these
lipids?
A.
four
conjugated
double
bonds
a
six-membered
ring
C.
a
long-chain
alcohol
bound
to
a
double
ring
-
D.
a
five-membered
ring
17.
Which
statement
is
false
regarding
a
solution
of
DNA
subjected
to
extremes
of
pH?
{
A.
The
viscosity
of
the
solution
will
decrease
sha‘"r’n,[y,
B.
Hydrogen
bonds
between
paired
bases
will
be
disrupted.
:
[©)
covalent
bonds
in
the
DNA
will
be
broken.
D.
Base-stacking
interactions
will
be
disrupted.
-
18.
Steroid
hormones:
A.
act
locally.
B.
travel
through
the
bloodstream
on
lipid
carriers.
bind
to
receptor
proteins
in
the
nucleus
to
change
metabolism.
D.
have
low
affinity
for
their
receptors.
19.
Which
statement
is
false
regarding
vitamin
D37
A.
Vitamin
D3
serves
as
a
hormone
precursor.
B.
Vitamin
D3
forms
from
a
photochemical
reaction
driven
by
UV
light.
@Vitamin
Ds
is
biologically
active
in
the
intestine,
kidney,
and
bone.
D.
Vitamin
D3
is
a
cure
for
the
disease
rickets.
20.
Vitamin
A1
and
its
derivatives:
are
involved
in
regulating
cell
growth
and
differentiation.
B.
contain
only
trans
C—C
double
bonds.
C.
are
not
stored
in
the
body
in
significant
amounts.
D.
act
as
antioxidants.
21.
Which
statement
is
true?
A.
Vitamin
E
is
a
hormone
precursor.
B.
Vitamin
D
regulates
milk
production
in
mammary
glands.
C.
Prostaglandins
are
found
only
in
the
prostate
gland.
@
Membrane
sphingolipids
can
be
used
to
produce
intracellular
messengers.
22.
How
do
the
features
of
vitamins
E
and
K
cause
them
to
be
in
a
different
cellular
location
than
vitamins
B
and
C?
A.
They
are
synthesized
in
the
endoplasmic
reticulum,
unlike
vitamins
B
and
C,
which
are
made
in
the
cytosol.
B.
They
have
receptors
on
the
plasma
membrane,
whereas
vitamins
B
and
C
have
nuclear
receptors.
They
are
hydrophobic,
so
they
are
located
in-————
-membranes,
rather
than
in
the
cytosol,
like
vitamins
B
and
C.
D.
Their
mass
is
too
large
to
move
through
membrane
transporters,
unlike
vitamins
B
and
C.
23.
Which
statement
is
false?
A.
Ubiquinone
is
involved
in
electron
transport.
B.
Natural
pigments
are
often
lipids
with
conjugated
double
bonds.
C.
Many
lipids
have
structures
based
on
repeating
isoprene
units.
@Vitamin
K
is
essential
for
the
dissolution
of
blood
clots.
22.
Polyketides:
A.
are
synthesized
from
five-carbon
isoprene
derivatives.
B.
anchor
attached
sugars
to
the
membrane,
where
they
participate
in
sugar-transfer
reactions.
@
include
antibiotics,
antifungals,
and
statins.
D.
are
compounds
that
are
central
to
an
organism’s
metabolism.
23.
Lipids
were
extracted
from
plasma
membranes.
What
method
could
be
used
to
separate
them
by
exploiting
differences
in
volatility?
@
gas
chromatography
B.
adsorption-column
chromatography
C.
thin-layer
chromatography
D.
mass
spectroscopy
Quiz
9:
Membranes
and
Membrane
Transport
1.
Micelles
were
constructed
for
delivery
of
a
hydrophobic
7.
An
ampbhitropic
protein:
chemotherapeutic
drug.
What
change
would
INCREASE
the
diameter
of
the
micelles?
A.
has
both
basic
and
acidic
surfaces.
B.
switches
from
one
face
of
a
membrane
to
the
A.in
'
i
creasing
the
concentration
of
cholesterol
other.
increasing
the
length
of
the
acyl
chains
used
to
make
them
C.
increasing
the
concentration
of
polyunsaturated
fatty
acids
D.
using
lipids
with
head
groups
having
greater
polarity
@
is
sometimes
associated
with
a
membrane
and
sometimes
not.
_
.
D.
is
never
a
peripheral
membrane
protein.
2.
Which
amphipathic
lipid
aggregate
is
favored
to
form
st
il
iy
.
.
"
when
glycerophospholipids
are
mixed
with
water?
8.
Whick
stateiiant
[
tiie?
A.
No
aggregate
will
form.
B.
micelle
A.
Monotopic
integral
proteins
have
small
hydrophilic
Bilayer
D.
vesicle
(liposome)
domains
that
hold
the
proteins
to
the
membrane.
B.
Bitopic
proteins
span
the
bilayer
twice.
3.
Which
statement
is
false?
.
.
.
.
.
@A
hydrophobic
sequence
of
20
amino
acid
residues
will
@AII
biological
membranes
have
the
same
composition.
span
the
lipid
bilayer
when
in
the
a-helical
conformation.
B.
All
biological
membranes
contain
lipids.
D.Membrane
proteins
do
not
co-crystallize
-
with
C.
Amphipathic
molecules
may
form
micelles
rather
than
phospholipids.
bilayers,
depending
on
their
structures.
D.
Biological
membranes
typically
contain
proteins.
9.
Which
statement
is
true
regarding
hydropathy
plots?
:
o
A.
A
negative
hydropathy
index
indicates
the
residue
number
4.
What
is
the
general
sequence
of
membrane
trafficking
is
hydrophobic
for
an
extracellular
protein?
)
)
.
@A
region
with
more
than
20
residues
of
high
hydropathy
A.
endoplasmic
reticulum,
Golgi
apparatus,
endosome,
index
is
presumed
to
be
a
transmembrane
segment.
secretory
vesicle,
secretion
from
cell
C.
Anintegral
protein
must
have
at
least
one
sequence
of
20
B.
endoplasmic
reticulum,
trans
Golgi,
secretory
vesicle,
hydrophilic
residues.
—_—
cis
Golgi,
secretion
from
cell
C.
Golgi
apparatus,
endoplasmic
reticulum,
secretory
vesicle,
secretion from
cell
@
endoplasmic
reticulum,
cis
Golgi,
trans
Golgi,
secretory
10.
Which
statement
is
true?
vesicle,
secretion
from
cell
D.
Hydropathy
plots
plot
residue
number
(y-axis)
against
average
hydropathy
index
(x-axis).
A.
Hydropathy
analysis
provides
a
measure
of
H-bonding
within
the
transmembrane
portion
of
a
membrane-
spanning
protein.
For
all
glycoproteins
of
a
plasma
membrane,
the
|
5.
Which
statement
is
false
regarding
lipid
transfer
proteins
(LTPs)?
A.
They
are
soluble
in
water.
glycosylated
domains
are
always
found
on.the
They
have
a
hydrophilic
pocket
for
binding
lipids.
extracellular
face
of
the
bilayer.
C.
In
some
cases,
ATP
is
needed
to
drive
the
process.
C.
Proteins
may
be
embedded
in,
but
never
span,
a
D.
The
rate
of
lipid
movement
from
one
membrane
to
biological
membrane.
another
in
vivo
is
significantly
greater
thanthe
rate
of
D,
Once
a
membrane
is
synthesized,
the
lipid
composition
of
vesicle
budding
and
fusion.
each
monolayer
does
not
change.
6.
Which
statement
is
true?
11.
Membrane
fluidity:
A.
The
fluid
mosaic
model
considers
biological
membranes
~
A.
is
maximal
when
the
membrane
lipids
are
in
the
Lo
state.
to
be
a
sea
of
lipids
floating
in
the
aqueous
fluid
of
the
is
a
function
of
temperature
if
composition
is
held
cytoplasm.
constant.
B.
Membrane
phospholipids
always
comprise
the
majority
C.
increases
with
saturated
fatty
acid
content.
(by
weight
%)
of
a
cel
membrane.
D.
is
not
affected
by
sterol
content.
C.
Allmembranes
in
a
given
cell
have
the
same
lipid
composition.
@.
Lipid
bilayers
are
essentially
impermeable
to
polar
solutes.
Quiz
9:
Membranes
and
Membrane
Transport
12.Liposomes
were
constructed
for
an
experiment
with
liver
cells
in
culture.
The
experiment
will
be
at
25 °C
and
not
37
°C.
Which
change
could
NOT
increase
liposome
fluidity
at
the
lower
temperature?
A.
increasing
the
concentration
of
sterols
B.
increasing
the
concentration
of
polyunsaturated
fatty
acids
in
phospholipids
C.
decreasing
the
concentration
of
saturated
fatty
acids
in
sphingolipids
@
increasing
the
concentration
of
triacylglycerol
in
liposomes
18.
Which
statement
regarding
caveolae
is
false?
A.
They
are
a
means
of
expanding
the
cell
surface.
B.
Their
extracellular
leaflets
are
lipid
rafts.
@They
tend
to
be
cholesterol
poor.
D.
They
result
from
the
formation
of
caveolin
dimers.
19.
What
can
be
learned
from
a
hydropathy
plot
of
caveolin?
A.
The
protein
may
have
several
a
helices
and
at
least
one
3
strand.
B.
There
is
a
calcium-binding
domain.
13.
A
cell
was
growing
happily
at
37
°C,
but
the
temperature
C-
There
are
three
polypeptides
in
the
functional
protein.
was
then
changed
to
40
°C.
What
modifications
to
the
plasma
membrane
could
a
cell
make
to
counteract
the
increase
in
temperature?
A.
Add
more
cholesterol
into
the
plasma
membrane.
B.
Introduce
more
saturated
fatty
acids
into
the
phospholipids.
C.
Decrease
the
number
of
double
bonds
in
fatty
acids
in
the
phospholipids.
D/
All
of
the
answers
are
correct.
14.
Which
movement
type
of
membrane
phospholipids
is
slowest?
@
transbilayer
diffusion
B.
lateral
diffusion
C.
scramblase-mediated
movement
D.
flippase-mediated
movement
15.
To
move
phospholipids
from
the
inner
leaflet
to
the
outer
leaflet
of
the
plasma
membrane,
which
enzyme
is
used?
A.
No
enzyme
is
necessary.
@floppase
16.
Lipid
rafts:
A.
tend
to
exclude
receptors
and
signaling
proteins.
are
enriched
intwo
kinds
of
integral
membrane
proteins.
C.
are
areas
of
lipids
ina
membrane
completely
surrounded
by
proteins.
D.
largely
consist
of
phospholipids
in
a
liquid-disordered
state.
B.
flippase
D.
scramblase
17.
What
type
of
membrane
transporter
would
most
likely
move
a
hydrophobic
molecule
from
a
high
concentration
to
a
low
concentration?
A.
passive
B.
active
@
no
transporter
needed
D.
secondary
active
—
It
provides
a
prediction
of
two
membrane-spanning
regions.
20.
Proteins
containing
BAR
domains
cause
local
membrane
curvature
and
mediate
the
fusion
of
two
membranes.
Which
process
is
not
accompanied
by
fusion
of
two
membranes?
B.
viral
invasion
D.
exocytosis
A.
Endocytosis
@transport
of
Na*
21.
Integrins,
cadherins,
and
selectins:
A.
are
never
all
found
in
the
same
cell.
B.
are
only
found
in
caveolae.
C.
are
sometimes
integral
and
sometimes
peripheral
membrane
proteins.
@allow
for
attachments
between
cells
or
between
a
cell
and
the
extracellular
matrix.
22.
Which
statement
is
NOT
consistent
with
facilitated
diffusion?
A.
There
is
rapid
movement
of
polar
molecules
across
a
membrane.
:
B.
Solute
movement
can
only
proceed
down
a
concentration
gradient.
C.
Two
different
solutes
can
move
through
the
same
transporter,
in
the
same
or
opposite
directions.
@Solute
movement
proceeds
against
a
concentration
gradient
as
long
as
there
is
a
specific
transporter.
23.
Which
statement
is
true
about
ion
channels
and
transporters?
A.
Transporters
have
a
transmembrane
pore
that
is
either
openor
closed.
When
the
gate
is
open,
ions
move
through
the
ion
channel
at
arate
limited
only
by
the
maximum
rate
of
diffusion.
C.
lon
channels
have
two
gates,
and
both
are
never
open
at
the
same
time.
D.
Channels
can
move
a
substrate
against
its
concentration
gradient.
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Quiz
10:
Metabolism
1.
Which
thermodynamic
quantity
relates
MOST
to
breaking
the
a(1—4)
O-glycosidic
linkages
between
the
two
glucose
molecules
in
maltose?
A.
Enthalpy
Entropy
C.
Gibbs
free
energy
D.
Equilibrium
2.
Areactionwith
AH <0
and
AS >0
is:
always
exergonic.
B.
at
equilibrium.
C.
Physically
impossible.
D.
always
endothermic.
3.
AG”
is:
A.
defined
as
AGwhen
T=25°C
and
P
=1
atm.
B.
an
expression
of
the
minimum
amount
of
free
energy
that
a
reaction
can
deliver.
@
always
0
kdJ/mol
when
a
reaction
is
at
equilibrium.
D.
is
a
constant,
with an
unchanging
value
for
each
given
reaction.
4.
Reaction
1
(A
—
B)
has
a
AG”
of
+3
kJ/mol,
reaction
2
(B
—
C)
has
a
AG”
of
-6
kJ/mol,
and
reaction
3
(C
—
D)
has
a
AG”
of
+1
kd/mol.
If
all
of
these
are
occurring
in
the
same
reaction
sample,
which
statement
is
false?
A.
A
—
D
is
thermodynamically
spontaneous.
B.
Reaction
2
is
driving
reactions
1
and
3
forward.
If
the
reactions
of
A
—
D
are
rearranged,
they
become
non-spontaneous.
D.ForD
—
A,
AG”
=+2
kJ/mol.
5.
Which
process
is
NOT
one
of
the
five
general
reaction
types
typically
found
in
biochemistry?
A.
group
transfers
B.
isomerizations
combustions
D.
oxidation-reduction
reactions
6.
Which
statement
is
false?
A.
A
carbanion
is
stabilized
by
an
adjacent
carbonyl
group.
@
A
carbanion
is
an
electrophile.
C.
In
homolytic
bond
cleavage,
each
atom
that
was
sharing
the
electron
pair
leaves
with
one
of
the
electrons.
D.
Carbon
atoms
can
exist
in
five
oxidation
states.
7.
Which
statement
is
FALSE
conceming
carbonyl
groups?
A.
Carbonyl
groups
can
function
as
electron
sinks.
B.
The
carbonyl
carbon
is
electrophilic.
@
The
carbonyl
oxygen
has
a
partial
positive
charge.
D.
Carbonyl
groups
can
stabilize
adjacent
carbanions.
@AMP
8.
The
citric
acid
cycle
includes
the
enzymes
citrate
synthase
and
succinyl-CoA
synthetase.
Which
of
these
enzymes
requires
a
nucleotide
triphosphate
for
the
synthetic
reaction?
A.
only
citrate
synthase
only
succinyl-CoA
synthetase
C.
both
citrate
synthase
and
succinyl-CoA
synthetase
D.
neither
citrate
synthase
nor
succinyl-CoA
synthetase
9.
ATP
hydrolysis:
A.
results
in
products
that
are
less
solvated
than
the
ATP.
B.
would
be
more
exergonic
if
phosphate
did
not
have
resonance
structures.
@is
usually
in
the
form
of
ATP
—
ADP
+
Pior
ATP
—
AMP
+
PPi.
D.to
ADP
or
Pi
is
the
most
common
mechanism
for
transferring
free
energy
to
drive
endergonic
reactions.
10.
Which
statement
regarding
phosphoryl
group
transfers
is
true?
@
The
enzymes
that
catalyze
these
reactions
using
ATP
are
known
as
kinases.
B.
Phosphoryl
groups
are
poor
leaving
groups.
C.
Phosphate
has
two
resonance
structures.
D.
Phosphorous
can
only
form
four
covalent
bonds.
11.
Thioesters:
have
resonance
stabilization
but
much
less
than
oxygen
esters.
B.
are
not
found
in
acetyl-CoA.
C.
have
positive
standard
free
energies
of
hydrolysis.
D.
are
formed
between
sulfhydryl
groups
and
aldehyde
groups.
12.
While
you
have
learned
in
many
classes
that
ATP
hydrolysis
powers
reactions
in
cells,
this
is
not
the
case!
What
is
the
MOST
common
biochemical
role
of
ATP?
A.
to
induce
a
conformational
change
in
a
protein
B.
to
release
energy
that
can
be
captured
foran
associated
reaction
to
be
a
source
forthe
transfer
of
part
of
the
ATP
to
another
molecule,
a
group
transfer
D.
to
donate
a
phosphate
group
to
a
chemical
reaction
13.
A
Group
transfer
reactions
from
ATP
are
common
in
biochemistry.
What
is
the
soluble
product
from
pyrophosphorylation
from
ATP?
A.
inorganic
phosphate
B.
pyrophosphate
D.
ADP
Quiz
10:
Metabolism
14.
Which
group
transferis
overall
the
MOST
favorable
thermodynamically
but
involves
two
different
enzymes?
A.
Phosphorolysis
B.
Pyrophosphorylation
C.
Phosphorylation
@
Adenylylation
15.
Which
statement
regarding
ATP
is
false?
A.
Most
enzymes
that
use
ATP
bind
itina
form
complexed
with Mg?2*.
Compared
with
other
phosphate-containing
compounds
in
biochemistry,
ATP
has
a
higher
free
energy
than
nearly
all
of
the
others.
C.
ATP
concentrations
in
a
cell
are
usually
much
higher
than
the
equilibrium
constants.
D.
ATP
can
act
as
a
group
donorin
adenylylation
reactions.
16.
By
which
method
are
electrons
NOT
transferred
from
one
molecule
to
another?
A.
directly
as
electrons
B.
as
hydrogen
atoms
@
through
direct
combination
with
nitrogen
D.
as
ahydrideion
17.
A
study
of
the
free-energy
change
for
a
hydride
transfer
from
an
aldehyde
to
a
flavin
nucleotide
does
NOT
require
which
value?
A.
Faraday’s
constant
B.
the
number
of
electrons
transferred
21.
Which
of
these
factors
can
produce
very
rapid
allosteric
changes
in
enzyme
activity?
A.
cytokine
signals
B.
hormonal
signals
@changes
in
local
product
concentration
D.
changes
in
gene
transcription
22.
Anincrease
in
Vo
from
10%
to
90%
Vmax
by
an
enzyme
with
no
cooperative
effects
requires:
A.
a
3-fold
increase
in
[S].
B.
a
9-fold
increase
in
[S].
@
an
81-fold
increase
in
[S].
D.
a
6,600-fold
increase
in
[S].
23.
Metabolic
regulation:
A.
maintains
all
reactions
in
a
pathway
near
the
equilibrium
of
each.
B.
is
the
same
thing
as
metabolic
control.
@is
the
maintenance
of
homeostasis
at
the
molecular
level.
D.
always
involves
changing
the
amount
of
enzyme
in
the
cell.
24.
The
reaction
catalyzed
by
phosphoglucoisomerase
has
a
K'eqof
4
x
10"
and
a
mass-action
ratio
(Q)
in
the
liver
of
3.1
x
10~'.
Which
statement
is
TRUE
about
this
reaction?
C.
the
half-cell
standard
reduction
potential
for the
flavin
@
It
is
close
to
equilibrium.
B.
Itis
far
from
equilibrium.
accepting
the
electrons
@
the
temperature
of
the
reaction
in
degrees
Kelvin
.
NADP*is:
the
oxidized
form
of
NADH.
the
reduced
form
of
NADPH.
C.
NAD*with
a
phosphorus
added.
@
a
hydride
ion
acceptor.
e
a5
C.
It
is
highly
endergonic.
D.
Itis
highly
exergonic.
25.
What
is
MOST
likely
to
serve
as
aregulatory
signal
that
a
cell
is
energy
depleted?
A.
high
[ADP]
B
high
[AMP]
C.
high
[ATP]
D.
high
[NADH]
19.
Which
electron
carrier
is
MOST
appropriate
for
accepting
two
electrons
as
a
hydride
ion
and
then
later
participating
in
an
anabolic
pathway?
A.
FAD*
C.
FMN
B
napP
D.
NAD*
20.
Of
these
options,
which
is
NOT
a
method
that
transfers
electrons?
@
as
hydrogenions
(H*)
C.
directly
as
electrons
B.
as
hydrogen
atoms
D.
as
hydride
ions
(H")
Quiz
11:
Glycolysis,
Gluconeogenesis
and
Pentose-P-Pathway
1.
What
product
of
the
preparatory
phase
of
glycolysis
is
required,
but
at
twice
the
concentration,
as
a
reactant
in
the
payoff
phase?
A.
dihydroxyacetone
phosphate
B.
pyruvate
2.
Which
enzyme
catalyzes
the
MOST
exergonic
reaction
of
glycolysis?
A.
hexokinase
B.
triose
phosphate
isomerase
C.
aldolase
D/
phosphofructokinase-1
E.
pyruvate
kinase
3.
How
s
glucose
6-phosphate
prevented
from
leaving
the
cell?
A.
It
is
prevented
from
leaving
by
active
transport
pump.
There
are
no
phospho-glucose
specific
transporters.
Glucose
6-phosphate
is
rapidly
converted
to
fructose
6-phosphate.
The
transporter
is
inhibited.
Glucose
6-phosphate
is
rapidly
converted
to
pyruvate.
C.
D.
E
4.
What
is
the
thermodynamic
advantage
for
regulating
glycolysis
at
hexokinase,
rather
than
at
phosphohexose
isomerase?
A.
salvaging
glucose
phosphates
that
can
be
used
for
other
fates
salvaging
one
ATP
C.
salvaging
one
NADH
D.
salvaging
two
ATP
E.
increasing
the
concentration
of
glucose
6-phosphate
and
its
byproducts
in
cells
5.Which
carbons
of
the
original
glucose
are
phosphoryl-
ated
in
the
2
molecules
of
glyceraldehyde
3-phosphate?
A.
C-1
and
C-2
B.
C-3and
C4
C.
C-5and
C-6
@
C-1and
C-6
E.C-1
and
C4
6.Which
reaction
of
glycolysis
includes
substrate-level
phosphorylation,
a
very
different
mechanism
than
oxidative
phosphorylation?
A.
Hexokinase
B.)
phosphoglycerate
kinase
C.
phosphofructokinase-1
D.
pyruvate
kinase
E.
PEP
carboxykinase
7.
Which
of
these
enzymes
catalyzes
a
reversible
reaction
in
glycolysis
under
typical
cellular
conditions?
A.
phosphofructokinase-1
B.
pyruvate
kinase
@phosphoglycerate
kinase
8.
Which
statement
about
carbohydrate
metabolism
is
false?
A.
C.
hexokinase
The
overall
strategy
for
metabolizing
the
common
monosaccharides
is
to
convert
them
into
glycolytic
intermediates.
B.
C.
D
9.
Which
sugar
could
be
transformed
into
fructose
6-
phosphate
if
glucose
and
glucose
phosphates
were
no
longer
available?
Galactose
metabolism
requires
a
nucleotide.
Mannose
is
phosphorylated
by
hexokinase.
Galactosemia
results
from
defective
or
absent
lactase
in
the
intestine.
A.
Galactose
B.
trehalose
C.
lactose
D.
amylose
mannose
10.
How
are
glycolysis,
ethanol
fermentation,
and
lactate
fermentation
all
related?
A.
All
are
regulated
by
the
ATP/ADP
mass-action
ratio.
B.
All
three
produce
carbon
dioxide.
All
can
proceed
in
the
absence
of
oxygen.
D.
All
require
pyruvate.
E.
All
three
produce
NADH.
11.
Fermentation
is
needed
for
anaerobic
glycolysis:
A.
only
in
organisms
that
produce
ethanol.
B.
to
convert
lactate
to
pyruvate.
C.
only
in
anaerobic
organisms.
(D)
to
convert
NADH
back
to
NAD*.
12.
Which
statement
regarding
fermentation
is
false?
A.
At
least
one
form
of
fermentation
requires
an
enzyme
with
a
thiamine
pyrophosphate
coenzyme.
It
requires
one
enzyme
to
convert
pyruvate
to
ethanol
but
two
enzymes
to
convert
pyruvate
to
lactate.
C.
Anaerobic
glycolysis
coupled
to
fermentation
results
in
ATP
production
without
any
net
oxidation
or
reduction
of
the
glucose
carbons.
D.
Fermentation
produces
lactate
in
heavily
exercising
muscle.
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Quiz
11:
Glycolysis,
Gluconeogenesis
and
Pentose-P-Pathway
13.
Which
enzyme
is
specific
to
the
gluconeogenic
pathway?
A.
glucose
6-phosphatase
B.
pyruvate
carboxylase
C.
PEP
carboxykinase
D.
fructose
1,6-bisphosphatase
@
All
of
the
answers
are
correct.
14.
Which
enzyme
of
gluconeogenesis
requires
biotin
as
a
coenzyme?
A.
PEP
carboxykinase
C.
aldolase
E.
pyruvate
kinase
B.
glucose
6-phosphatase
pyruvate
carboxylase
15.
Which
enzyme
is
NOT
part
of
gluconeogenesis?
A.
glucose
6-phosphatase
B.
PEP
carboxykinase
pyruvate
decarboxylase
D.
fructose
1,6-bisphosphatase
16.
How
many
enzymatic
reactions
(i.e.
steps)
comprise
gluconeogenesis?
A.
12
11
C.10
D.9
ES
17.
Which
compound
is
NOT
glucogenic?
B.
oxaloacetate
C.
glutamate
@
acetyl-CoA
E.
All
of
these
compounds
are
glucogenic.
A.
Alanine
18.
Hexokinase
IV
(glucokinase):
A.
is
found
in
muscle
and
is
important
for
partitioning
glucose
between
glycolysis
and
gluconeogenesis.
B.
is
inhibited
by
glucose
6-phosphate.
@is
more
active
when
blood
glucose
concentrations
are
high.
D.
has
a
lower
Km
for
glucose
than
do
the
other
kinases.
19.
Phosphofructokinase-1
(PFK-1):
A.
converts
fructose
6-phosphate
to
fructose
2,6-bisphosphate.
transketolase
mutation
that
resulis
is
allosterically
inhibited
by
citrate.
C.
is
part
of
the
same
polypeptide
chain
as
FBPase-1.
D.
is
indirectly
stimulated
by
glucagon
in
the
liver.
21.
Which
statement
correctly
describes
the
regulatory
role
of
xylulose
5-phosphate
in
glucose
metabolism?
@
It
stimulates
glycolysis
and
inhibits
gluconeogenesis.
B.
It
inhibits
both
glycolysis
and
gluconeogenesis.
C.
It
stimulates
gluconeogenesis
and
inhibits
glycolysis.
D.
It
stimulates
both
glycolysis
and
gluconeogenesis.
22.
Which
pathway
would
be
MOST
important
to
produce
sugars
required
in
high
concentration
in
advance
of
mitosis?
@
pentose
phosphate,
oxidative
phase
B.
gluconeogenesis
C.
lactate
fermentation
D.
pentose
phosphate,
nonoxidative
phase
E.
None
would
contribute
the
specific
sugars
required
in
advance
of
mitosis.
23.
Which
pathway
leads
to
aloss
of
carbon,
which
is
undesirable
in
organisms
that
cannot
fix
carbon?
A.
glycolysis
B.
gluconeogenesis
@pentose
phosphate,
oxidative
phase
D.
pentose
phosphate,
nonoxidative
phase
E.
None
of
the
answers
is
correct.
24.
Transketolase
and
transaldolase:
A.
play
key
roles
during
the
oxidative
phase
of
the
pentose
phosphate
pathway.
B.
convert
glucose
6-phosphate
to
ribulose
5-phosphate
and
reduce
NADP*
to
NADPH.
@catalyze
the
interconversion
of
3-,
4-,
5-,
6-,
and
7-
carbon
sugars.
D.
are
located
in
the
mitochondria.
25.
What
should
individuals
avoid
if
they
have
a
inan
enzyme
with
a
lowered
affinity
for
thiamine
pyrophosphate
(TPP)?
@heavy
alcohol
consumption
B.
foodsrich
in
vitamin
B1
C.
favabeans
20.
It
is
uncommon
for
one
molecule
to
act
as
both
an
activator
and
inhibitor
in
metabolism.
Which
molecule
both
activates
glycolysis
and
inhibits
gluconeogenesis?
A.
NAD+
B.
ADP
C.
pyruvate
@
fructose
2,6-bisphosphate
E.
glucose
6-phosphate
D.
antimalarial
drugs
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Quiz
12:
TCA
cycle
1.
Coenzyme
A:
forms
thioester
acyl
groups.
B.
has
lipoic
acid
as
one
of
its
components.
C.
forms
esters
with
relatively
small
standard
free
energies
of
hydrolysis.
D.
can
have
pyruvate
linked
to
it
through
an
ester
linkage.
2.
Which
vitamin
is
a
coenzyme
to
the
pyruvate
dehydrogenase
(PDH)
complex?
A.
pantothenate
B.
thiamine
pyrophosphate
C.
niacin
D.
riboflavin
All
of
the
answers
are
correct.
.
Which
two
chemical
mechanisms
change
pyruvate
to
acetyl-CoA
in
the
pyruvate
dehydrogenase
complex?
A.
dehydrogenation
and
oxidation
B.
decarboxylation
and
condensation
C.
condensation
and
dehydrogenation
dehydrogenation
and
decarboxylation
E.
condensation
and
oxidation
4.
What
is
the
advantage
to
having
an
enzyme
complex,
as
in
pyruvate
dehydrogenase
(PDH)
complex?
A.
Multiple
steps
can
be
regulated
at
one
point.
7.
Which
two
other
enzyme
complexes
have
an
E
1—E>—
Es
structure
similar
to
that
of
the
pyruvate
dehydrogenase
(PDH)
complex?
a-ketoglutarate
dehydrogenase
and
branched-chain
a-keto
acid
dehydrogenase
B.
a-ketoglutarate
dehydrogenase
and
lactate
dehydrogenase
C.
branched-chain
a-keto
acid
dehydrogenase
and
lactate
dehydrogenase
D.
pyruvate
carboxylase
and
pyruvate
decarboxylase
8.
Which
enzyme
of
the
citric
acid
cycle
is
capable
of
a
substrate-level
phosphorylation?
A.
citrate
synthase
B.
aconitase
C.
succinate
dehydrogenase
D.
isocitrate
dehydrogenase
@
succinyl-CoA
synthetase
9.
Which
citric
acid
cycle
reaction
produces
FADH2?
>
.
succinyl-CoA
synthetase
B.
aconitase
C.
a-ketoglutarate
dehydrogenase
complex
D.
isocitrate
dehydrogenase
succinate
dehydrogenase
10.
Which
statement
regarding
the
citric
acid
cycle
is
B.
Products
do
not
need
to
diffuse
to
become
substrates
folan?
for
the
next
enzymatic
reaction.
C.
Products
cannot
be
scavenged
by
other
enzymes
or
pathways.
D.
Conservation
of
energy
drives
the
reactions.
@
All
of
the
answers
are
correct.
5.
The
citrate
synthase
step
of
the
citric
acid
cycle:
A.
is
freely
reversible
under
physiological
conditions.
B.
is
an
example
of
a
Ping-Pong
enzyme
mechanism.
@
does
not
involve
ATP
hydrolysis.
D.
is
considered
to
be
both
the
first
and
last
step
of
the
cycle:
6.
Which
statement
regarding
isocitrate
dehydrogenase
is
false?
A.
It
has
a
Mn?*
cofactor.
B.
In
eukaryotes,
there
is
an
NAD*-dependent
form
in
mitochondria
and
an
NAD*-independent
form
found
in
both
mitochondria
and
the
cytosol.
It
catalyzes
a
reversible
reaction
under
physiological
conditions.
D.
It
catalyzes
an
oxidative
decarboxylation.
The
PDH
complex
is
considered
to
be
an
enzyme
of
the
citric
acid
cycle.
B.
Succinate
dehydrogenase
is
an
integral
membrane
protein.
C.
Forthe
complete
conversion
of
glucose
to
COz2,
approximately
32
ATP
can
be
synthesized.
D.
Succinyl-CoA
synthetase
and
succinic
thiokinase
are
two
names
for
the
same
enzyme.
11.
How
many
reducing
equivalents
are
transferred
to
electron
carriers
after
one
turn
of
the
citric
acid
cycle?
A.
4
B.6
@8
D.
10
E.
16
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Quiz
12:
TCA
cycle
12.
Which
statement
regarding
the
energetics
of
the
citric
acid
cycle
is
true?
A.
The
cycle
in
animal
cells
directly
produces
one
ATP
instead
of
one
GTP.
B.
All
of
the
energy-producing
capacity
of
the
cycle
occurs
in
the
first
four
reactions;
the
remaining
reactions
serve
to
regenerate
oxaloacetate.
@
Production
of
FADH2
by
the
citric
acid
cycle
represents
the
energic
capacity
to
synthesize
about
1.5
ATP.
D.
Production
of
3
NADH
by
the
citric
acid
cycle
represents
the
energic
capacity
to
synthesize
about
2.5
ATP.
13.
Using
currently
accepted
P/O
ratios,
what
is
the
total
ATP
potential
yield
from
one
acetyl-CoA
in
the
citric
acid
cycle?
A.8
@10
C.24
D.32
E.
106
14.
How
many
NADH
molecules
are
generated
from
the
complete
oxidation
of
one
glucose?
A.5
B.7
@10
Eiok
D.16
15.
The
term
amphibolic
means:
—-—@
something
that
is
both
catabolic
and
anabaolic.
B.
nothing;
it
is
@
made-up
word.
C.
thermodynamic
coupling
of
catabolic
pathways
to
drive
anabolic
pathways.
D.
containing
both
polar
and
nonpolar
functional
groups.
16.
The
glyoxylate
cycle
is
remarkably
similar
to
the
citric
acid
cycle
but
differs
in
several
important
ways.
Which
important
molecule
is
conserved
by
the-glyoxylate
cycle
but
NOT
the
citric
acid
cycle?
A.
acetyl-CoA
B.
malate
C.
citrate
carbon
dioxide
E.
NADH
17.
Anaplerotic
reactions:
A.
are
also
known
as
cataplerotic
reactions.
B.
are
defined
as
those
that
have
oxaloacetate
as
a
product.
@.
never
involve
ATP
hydrolysis.
D.
replenish
all
citric
acid
cycle
intermediates.
18.
Which
enzyme
does
NOT
catalyze
an
anaplerotic
reaction?
A.
pyruvate
carboxylase
B.
PEP
carboxykinase
@
succinate
carboxykinase
D.PEP
carboxylase
E.
malic
enzyme
19.
The
power
of
the
citric
acid
cycle
is
partly
in
the
ability
to
shuttle
intermediates
out
for
the
synthesis
of
important
groups
of
molecules.
What
group
of
molecules
is
produced
from
citrate?
@Iipids
and
sterols
B.
nucleic
acids
(purines)
C.
a
number
of
amino
acids
D.
glucose
and
afew
amino
acids
E.
porphyrinrings
for
various
molecules
such
as
heme
20.
The
release
of
carbon
dioxide
from
the
complete
oxidation
of
pyruvate
can
pose
problems
for
cells.
Which
molecule
can
easily
be
formed
from
carbon
dioxide
that
can
serve
as
a
one-carbon
donor
and
double
as
a
biological
buffer?
A.
biotin
B.
acetate
C.
glyceraldehyde
3-phosphate
D.
glycine
bicarbonate
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Exam
1
-
Practice
Exam
/kgy__
Part
A:
Multiple
Choice
(40
points,
2
points
per
question)
1.
Which
of
the
following
statements
is
false?
K)
Collagen
is
a
protein
in
which
the
polypeptides
are
mainly
in
the
a-helix
conformation.
B)
Disulfide
linkages
are
important
for
keratin
structure.
C)
Gly
residues
are
particularly
abundant
in
collagen.
D)
Silk
fibroin
is
a
protein
in
which
the
polypeptide
is
almost
entirely
in
the
B
conformation.
E)
a-keratin
is
a
protein
in
which
the
polypeptides
are
mainly
in
the
a-helix
conformation.
2.
The
aqueous
solution
with
the
highest
pH
is:
A)
1
M
HCI.
B)
1
M
NH3
(pKa
=
9.25).
C)
0.5
M
NaHCO3
(pKa
=
3.77).
E)
0.1
M
NaOH.
E)
0.001
M
NaOH.
3.
Which
of
the
following
is
least
likely
to
result
in
protein
denaturation?
A)
Altering
net
charge
by
changing
pH
)
Changing
the
salt
concentration
C)
Disruption
of
weak
interactions
by
boiling
D)
Exposure
to
detergents
E)
Mixing
with
organic
solvents
such
as
acetone.
4.
One
method
used
to
prevent
disulfide
bond
interference
with
protein
sequencing
procedures
is:
A)
cleaving
proteins
with
proteases
that
specifically
recognize
disulfide
bonds.
B)
protecting
the
disulfide
bridge
against
spontaneous
reduction
to
cysteinyl
sulfhydryl
groups.
&)
reducing
disulfide
bridges
and
preventing
their
re-
formation
by
further
modifying
the
-SH
groups.
D)
removing
cystines from
protein
sequences
by
proteolytic
cleavage.
E)
sequencing
proteins
that
do
not
contain
cysteinyl
residues.
5.
Three
buffers
are
made
by
combining
a
1
M
solution
of
acetic
acid
with
a
1
M
solution
of
sodium
acetate
in
the
ratios
shown
below.
1M
Acetic
acid
1M
Na-acetate
Buffer
1
10ml
90ml
Buffer
2
50ml
50ml
Buffer
3
90ml
10ml
Which
of
these
statements
is
true
of
the
resulting
buffers?
A)
pH
of
buffer
1
<
pH
of
buffer
2
<
pH
of
buffer
3
B)
pH
of
buffer
1
=
pH
of
buffer
2
=
pH
of
buffer
3
X)
pH
of
buffer
1
>
pH
of
buffer
2
>
pH
of
buffer
3
D)
The
problem
cannot
be
solved
without
knowing
the
value
of
pKa.
E)
None
of
the
above.
6.
The
first
step
in
two-dimensional
gel
electrophoresis
generates
a
series
of
protein
bands
by
isoelectric
focusing.
In
a
second
step,
a
strip
of
this
gel
is
turned
90°,
placed
on
another
gel
containing
SDS,
and
electric
current
is
again
applied.
In
this
second
step:
K
proteins
with
similar
isoelectric
points
become
further
separated
according
to
their
molecular
weights.
B)
the
individual
bands
become
stained
so
that
the
isoelectric
focus
pattern
can
be
visualized.
C)
the
individual
bands
become
visualized
by
interacting
with
protein-specific
antibodies
in
the
second
gel.
D)
the
individual
bands
undergo
a
second,
more
intense
isoelectric
focusing.
E)
the
proteins
in
the
bands
separate
more
completely
because
the
second
electric
current
is
in
the
opposite
polarity
to
the
first
current.
7.
A
D-amino
acid
would
interrupt
an
a-helix
made
of
L-amino
acids.
Another
naturally
occurring
hindrance
to
the
formation
of
an
a-helix
is
the
presence
of:
A)
a
negatively
charged
Arg
residue.
B)
a
nonpolar
residue
near
the
carboxyl
terminus.
C)
a
positively
charged
Lys
residue.
lg
a
Pro
residue.
E)
two
Ala
residues
side
by
side.
8.
Which
of
the
following
statements
about
oligomeric
proteins
is
false?
A)
A
subunit
may
be
similar
to
other
proteins.
E)
All
subunits
must
be
identical.
C)
Many
have
regulatory
roles.
D)
Some
oligomeric
proteins
can
further
associate
into
large
fibers.
E)
Some
subunits
might
have
nonprotein
prosthetic
groups.
9.
In
a
mixture
of
the
five
proteins
listed
below,
which
should
elute
second
in
size
exclusion
(gel-filtration)
chromatography?
-7
based
on
5)2¢
,
(d'rga
pmh’u
elute
f
nF
A
Cytochrome
¢
M=13,000
fi
Immunoglobulin
G
Mr=145,000
C)
Ribonuclease
A
M=13,700
D)
RNA
polymerase
M=450,000
E)
Serum
albumin
M=68,500
10.
Phosphoric
acid
(H3sPOs)
has
three
dissociable
protons,
with
the
pKa's
shown
below.
Which
form
of
phosphoric
acid
predominates
in
a
solution
at
pH
4?
Explain
your
answer.
pKa
A)
H3PO4
2.14
H2PO4
6.86
C)
HPOs
12.4
2
[**probon
gome
@
k=214,
aud
2**
H
starkd
1o
lgve
—o
Hdamiin
{{Ormm
2Hs
15/{
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Exam
1
-
Practice
Exam
Part
A:
Multiple
Choice
(40
points,
2
points
per
question)
11.
Which
of
the
following
statements
about
aromatic
amino
acids
is
correct?
A)
All
are
strongly
hydrophilic.
B)
Histidine's
ring
structure
results
in
its
being
categorized
as
aromatic
or
basic,
depending
on
pH.
On
a
molar
basis,
tryptophan
absorbs
more
ultraviolet
light
than
tyrosine.
D)
The
major
contribution
to
the
characteristic
absorption
of
light
at
280
nm
by
proteins
is
the
phenylalanine
R
group.
E)
The
presence
of
a
ring
structure
in
its
R
group
determines
whether
or
not
an
amino
acid
is
aromatic.
12.
Which
of
the
following
is
true
about
the
properties
of
aqueous
solutions?
A)
A
pH
change
from
5.0
to
6.0
reflects
an
increase
in
the
hydroxide
ion
concentration
([OH-])
of
20%.
B)
A
pH
change
from
8.0
to
6.0
reflects
a
decrease
in
the
proton
concentration
([H+])
by
a
factor
of
100.
16.
For
the
study
of
a
protein
in
detail,
an
effort
is
usually
made
to
first:
A)
conjugate
the
protein
to
a
known
molecule.
B)
determine
its
amino
acid
composition.
C)
determine
its
amino
acid
sequence.
D)
determine
its
molecular
weight.
purify
the
protein.
17.
The
formation
of
a
peptide
bond
between
two
amino
acids
is
an
example
of
a(n)
reaction:
A)
cleavage
B)
condensation
C)
group
transfer
D)
isomerization
E)
oxidation
reduction
18.
To
determine
the
isoelectric
point
of
a
protein,
first
establish
that
a
gel:
A)
contains
a
denaturing
detergent
that
can
distribute
uniform
negative
charges
over
the
protein's
surface.
C)
Charged
molecules
are
generally
insoluble
in
water.
B)
exhibits
a
stable
pH
gradient
when
ampholytes
)
Hydrogen
bonds
form
readily
in
aqueous
solutions.
E)
The
pH
can
be
calculated
by
adding
7
to
the
value
of
the
pOH.
13.
By
adding
SDS
(sodium
dodecyl
sulfate)
during
the
electrophoresis
of
proteins,
it
is
possible
to:
A)
determine
a
protein's
isoelectric
point.
B)
determine
an
enzyme's
specific
activity.
C)
determine
the
amino
acid
composition
of
the
protein.
D)
preserve
a
protein's
native
structure
and
biological
activity.
)
separate
proteins
exclusively
on
the
basis
of
molecular
weight.
14.
An
octapeptide
composed
of
four
repeating
glycylalanyl
units
has:
A)
one
free
amino
group
on an
alanyl
residue.
B)
one
free
amino
group
on
an
alanyl
residue
and
one
free
carboxyl
group
on
a
glycyl
residue.
&)
one
free
amino
group
on
a
glycyl
residue
and
one
free
carboxyl
group
on
an
alany!
residue.
D)
two
free
amino
and
two
free
carboxyl
groups.
E)
two
free
carboxyl
groups,
both
on
glycyl
residues.
15.
The
pH
of
a
sample
of
blood
is
7.4,
while
gastric
juice
is
pH
1.4.
The
blood
sample
has:
A)
0.189
times
the
[H+]
as
the
gastric
juice.
B)
5.29
times
lower
[H+]
than
the
gastric
juice.
C)
6
times lower
[H+]
than
the
gastric
juice.
D)
6000
times
lower
[H+]
than
the
gastric
juice.
one
million
times lower
[H+]
than
the
gastric
juice.
become
distributed
in
an
electric
field.
C)
is
washed
with
an
antibody
specific
to
the
protein
of
interest.
D)
neutralizes
all
ionic
groups
on
a
protein
by
titrating
them
with
strong
bases.
E)
relates
the
unknown
protein
to
a
series
of
protein
markers
with
known
molecular
weights,
M.
19.
Roughly
how
many
amino
acids
are
there
in
one tum
of
an
a
helix?
20.
The
major
reason
that
antiparallel
B-stranded
protein
structures
are
more
stable
than
parallel
B
-
stranded
structures
is
that
the
latter:
A)
are
in
a
slightly
less
extended
configuration
than
antiparallel
strands.
B)
do
not
have
as
many
disulfide
crosslinks
between
adjacent
strands.
C)
do
not
stack
in
sheets
as
well
as
antiparallel
strands.
D)
have
fewer
lateral
hydrogen
bonds
than
antiparallel
strands.
)
have
weaker
hydrogen
bonds
laterally
between
adjacent
strands.
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Exam
2
-
Practice
Exam
-
l(e9'
Part
A:
Multiple
Choice
(40
points,
2
points
per
question)
1.
Identify
the
correct
statements
regarding
the
Bohr
effect
in
hemoglobin.
a)
The
Bohr
effect
shifts
the
fractional
02
saturation
curve
to
the
right as
pH
decreases.
b)
The
Bohr
effect
shifts
the
fractional
02
saturation
curve
to
the
right
as
the
pH
increases.
c¢)
The
Bohr
effect
favors
02
release
in
respiring
tissues.
d)
02
and
H*
compete
for
binding
to
Hb
K
aandc
B)
aandd
C)
bandc
D)
bandd
E)
b,c,andd
2.
Neuroglobin
is
a
member
of
the
globin
family
found
in
neurons.
It
is
a
monomeric
protein
that
helps
protect
the
brain
from
hypoxia
(low
02).
Identify
the
correct
statement(s)
about
neuroglobin
below.
a)
It
binds
02
with
a
hyperbolic
binding
curve.
b)
It
binds
02
with
a
sigmoidal
binding
curve.
c)
It
binds
02
with
higher
affinity
than
hemoglobin.
d)
It
binds
02
with
lower
affinity
than
hemoglobin.
aandc
§
aandd
C)
bandc
D)
bandd
E)
None
of
theabove
3.The
fundamental
cause
of
sickle-cell
disease
is
a
change
in
the
structure
of:
A)
blood.
B)
capillaries.
hemoglobin.
D)
red
cells.
E)
the
heart.
4.
Carbon
monoxide
(CO)
is
toxic
to
humans
because:
A)
it
binds
to
myoglobin
and
causes
it
to
denature.
B)
it
is
rapidly
converted
to
toxic
CO2.
C)
it
binds
to
the
globin
portion
of
hemoglobin
and
prevents
the
binding
of
02.
B)
it
binds
to
the
Fe
in
hemoglobin
and
prevents
the
binding
of
02.
E)
it
binds
to
the
heme
portion
of
hemoglobin
and
causes
heme
to
unbind
from
hemoglobin.
5.
Which
of
the
following
is
not
correct
concerning
cooperative
binding
of
a
ligand
to
a
protein?
A)
It
is
usually
a
form
of
allosteric
interaction.
B)
It
is
usually
associated
with
proteins
with
multiple
subunits.
XE)
It
rarely
occurs
in
enzymes.
D)
It
results
in
a
nonlinear
Hill
Plot.
E)
It
results
in
a
sigmoidal
binding
curve.
6.
In
the
binding
of
oxygen
to
myoglobin,
the
relationship
between
the
concentration
of
oxygen
and
the
fraction
of
binding
sites
occupied
can
best
be
described
as:
M
hyperbolic.
B)
linear
with
a
negative
slope.
C)
linear
with
a
positive
slope.
D)random.
E)
sigmoidal.
7.
Michaelis
and
Menten
assumed
that
the
overall
reaction
for
an
enzyme-catalyzed
reaction
could
be
written
as
k
I
5
E4S
g——ES
>
E+P
Using
this
reaction,
the
rate
of
breakdown
of
the
enzyme-substrate
complex
can
be
described
by
the
expression:
A)
k1
([Et]
-
[ES]).
B)
k1
([E1]
-
[ES])[S].
C)
k2
[ES].
R)
k-1
[ES]
+
k2
[ES].
E)
k-1
[ES].
8.
The
steady
state
assumption,
as
applied
to
enzyme
Kinetics,
implies:
A)
Km
=Ks,
B)
the
enzyme
is
regulated.
W)
the
ES
complex
is
formed
and
broken
down
at
equivalent
rates.
D)
the
Km
is
equivalent
to
the
cellular
substrate
concentration.
E)
the
maximum
velocity
occurs
when
the
enzyme
is
saturated.
9.
To
calculate
the
turnover
number
of
an
enzyme,
you
need
to
know:
A)
the
enzyme
concentration.
B)
the
initial
velocity
of
the
catalyzed
reaction
at
[S]>>
Km.
C)
the
initial
velocity
of
the
catalyzed
reaction
at
low
[S].
D)the
Km
for
the
substrate.
)
both
A
and
B.
10.
In
a
plot
of
1/V
against
1/[S]
for
an
enzyme-
catalyzed
reaction,
the
presence
of
a
competitive
inhibitor
will
alter
the:
A
curvature
of
the
plot.
intercept
on
the
1/[S]
axis.
C)
intercept
on
the
1/V
axis.
D)
pK
of
the
plot.
E)
Vmax
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Exam
2
-
Practice
Exam
Part
A:
Multiple
Choice
(40
points,
2
points
per
question)
11.
Enzyme
X
exhibits
maximum
activity
at
pH=6.9.
X
shows
a
fairly
sharp
decrease
in
its
activity
when
the
pH
goes
much
lower
than
6.4.
One
likely
interpretation
of
this
pH
activity
is
that:
A)
a
Glu
residue
on
the
enzyme
is
involved
in
the
reaction.
)
a
His
residue
on
the
enzyme
is
involved
in
the
reaction,
C)
the
enzyme
has
a
metallic
cofactor.
D)
the
enzyme
is
found
in
gastric
secretions.
E)
the
reaction
relies
on
specific
acid-base
catalysis.
12.
Phenyl-methane-sulfonyl-fluoride
(PMSF)
inacti-
vates
serine
proteases
by
binding
covalently
to
the
catalytic
serine
residue
at
the
active
site;
this
enzyme-
inhibitor
bond
is
not
cleaved
by
the
enzyme.
This
is
an
example
of
what
kind
of
inhibition?
X)
Irreversible
B)
Competitive
C)
Non-competitive
D)
Mixed
E)
pHinhibition
13.
Both
water
and
glucose
share
an-OH
that
can
serve
as
a
substratefora
reactionwith
the
terminal
phosphate
of
ATP
catalyzed
by
hexokinase.
Glucose, however,
is
about
a
million
times
more
reactive
as
a
substrate
than
water.
The
best
explanation
is
that:
A)
glucose
has
more
-OH
groups
per
molecule
than
does
water,
R)
the
larger
glucose
binds
better
to
the
enzyme;
it
induces
a
conformational
change
in
hexokinase
that
brings
active-site
amino
acids
into
position
for
catalysis.
C)
the
-OH
group
of
water
is
attached
to
an
inhibitory
H
atom,
while
the
glucose
-OH
group
is
attached
to
C.
D)
water
and
the
second
substrate,
ATP,
compete
for
the
active
site
resulting
in
a
competitive
inhibition
of
the
enzyme.
E)
water
normally
will
not
reach
the
active
site
because
it
is
hydrophobic.
14.
Which
of
the
following
statements
about
starch
and
glycogenis
false?
A)
Amylose
is
unbranched;
amylopectin
and
glycogen
contain
many
(a1=>
6)
branches.
B)
Both
are
homopolymers
of
glucose.
&)
Both
serve
primarily
as
structural
elements
in
cell
walls.
D)
Both
starch
and
glycogen
are
stored
intracellularly
as
insoluble
granules.
E)
Glycogen
is
more
extensively
branched
than
starch.
16.
Which
of
the
following
statements
about
hydrogen
bonding
in
glycogen
and
cellulose
is
true?
A)
Glycogen
forms
more
internal
H-bonds
than
cellulose.
B)
Extensive
internal
hydrogen
bonding
makes
cellulose
more
water
soluble
than
glycogen.
C)
Extensive
hydrogen
bonding
with
water
makes
cellulose
more
soluble
than
glycogen.
W)
Glycogen
primarily
forms
hydrogen
bonds
within
a
single
chain.
E)
The
hydrogen
bonding
in
cellulose
favors
a
helical
conformation.
16.
D-Glucose
is
called
a
reducing
sugar
because
it
undergoes
an
oxidation-reduction
reaction
at
the
anomeric
carbon.
One
of
the
products
of
this
reaction
is:
A)
D-galactose.
X)
D-gluconate.
C)
D-glucuronate.
D)D-ribose.
E)
muramic
acid.
17.
When
two
carbohydrates
are
epimers:
A)
oneis
a
pyranose,
the
other
a
furanose.
B)
oneis
an
aldose,
the
other
a
ketose.
C)
they
differin
length
by
one
carbon.
)
they
differ
only
in
the
configuration
around
one
carbon
atom.
E)
they
rotate
plane-polarized
light
in
the
same
direction.
18.
Starch
and
glycogen
are
both
polymers
of:
A)
fructose.
B)
glucose-1-phosphate.
C)
sucrose.
)
a-D-glucose.
E)
B-D-glucose.
19.
When
forming
the
disaccharide
maltose
from
two
glucose
monosaccharides:
A)
water
is
eliminated.
B)
a
hemiacetal
is
converted
to
an
acetal.
C)
the
resulting
dissacharide
is
no
longer
a
reducing
sugar.
)
Both
A
and
B.
E)
A,
B,
and
C
above.
20.
Which
of
the
following
is
not
a
reducing
sugar?
A)
Fructose
B)
Glucose
C)
Glyceraldehyde
D)
Ribose
)
Sucrose
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Exam
3
—
Practice
Exam
-key-
Part
A:
Multiple
Choice
(60
points,
2
points
per
question)
1.
The
difference
between
a
ribonucleotide
and
a
deoxyribonucleotide
is:
)
a
deoxyribonucleotide
has
an
-H
instead
of
an
-OH
at
C-2.
B)
a
deoxyribonucleotide
has
an
-H
instead
of
an
-OH
at
C-3.
C)
a
ribonucleotide
has
an
extra
-OH
at
C-4.
D)
a
ribonucleotide
has
more
structural
flexibility
than
deoxyribonucleotide.
E)
a
ribonucleotide
is
a
pyranose,
deoxyribonucleotide
is
a
furanose.
2.
The
phosphodiester
bond
that
link
adjacent
nucleotides
in
both
RNA
and
DNA:
A)
always
link
A
with
T
and
G
with
C.
B)
are
susceptible
to
alkaline
hydrolysis.
C)
are
uncharged
at
neutral
pH.
D)
form
between
the
planar
rings
of
adjacent
bases.
join
the
3’hydroxyl
of
one
nucleotide
to
the
&’
hydroxyl
of
the
next.
3.The
alkaline
hydrolysis
of
RNA
does
nof
produce:
A)
2-AMP
B)
2'.,3'-cAMP
C)
2-CMP
B)
3.,5-cAMP
E)
3-UMP
4.
For
the
oligoribonucleotide
pACGUAC
A)
the
nucleotide
at
the
3’
end
has
a
phosphate
at
its
3'-OH
group.
B)
the
nucleotide
at
the
3’
end
is
a
purine.
C) the
nucleotide
at
the
5’
end
has
a
5’-OH
group.
3)
the
nucleotide
at
the
5’
end
has
a
phosphate
on
its
5'-OH
group.
E)
the
nucleotide
at
the
5’
end
is
a
pyrimidine.
5.
Which
of
the
following
statements
concerning
the
tautomeric
forms
of
bases
such
as
uracil
is
correct?
A)
The
double-lactim
form
contains
a
ketone
group.
B)
The
lactam
form
contains
an
alcohol
group.
&)
The
lactam
form
predominates
at
neutral
pH.
D)
Formation
of
the
lactim
from
the
lactam
is
irreversible.
E)
The
lactim
and
double-lactim
forms
are
stabilized
at
high
pH.
6.
In
the
Watson-Crick
model
of
the
DNA
double-helix
(B-form)
the
A-T
and
G-C
base
pairs
share
which
one
of
the
following
properties?
K)
The
distance
between
the
two
base-sugar
bonds
is
the
same
in
both
base
pairs,
within
a
few
tenths
of
an
angstrom.
B)
The
molecular
weights
of
the
two
base
pairs
are
identical.
C)
The
number
of
H-bonds
formed
between
two
bases
of
the
base
pair
is
the
same.
D)
The
plane
of
neither
base
pairs
is
perpendicular
to
the
axis
if
the
helix.
E)
The
proton-binding
properties
in
both
base
pairs are
in
their
charged
or
ionized
form.
7.
Chargaff’s
rule
state
that
in
typical
DNA:
A)A=G
B)A=C
C)A=U
%A+T=G+C
A+G=T+C
8.
In
the
Watson-Crick
structure
of
DNA,
the
K)
absence
of
2'-OH
groups
allows
bases
to
lie
perpendicular
to
the
helical
axis.
B)
adenine
content
of
one
strand
must
equal
the
thymine
content
of
the
same
strand.
C)
nucleotides
are
arranged
in
the
A-form.
D)
purine
content
(fraction
of
bases
that
are
purines)
must
be
the
same
in
both
strands.
E)
two
strands
are
parallel.
9.
In
the
Watson-Crick
model
of
DNA
structure:
A)
both
strands
run
in
the
same
direction,
3'—5’,
they
are
parallel.
B)
phosphate
groups
project
toward
the
middle
of
the
helix,
where
they
are
protected
from
interaction
with
water.
C)
T
can
form
three
H-bonds
with
either
G
or
C
in
the
opposite
strand.
D)
the
distance
between
the
sugar
backbone
of
the
two
strands
is
just
large
enough
to
accommodate
either
two
purines
or
two
pyrimidines.
the
distance
between
two
adjacent
bases
in
one
strand
is
about
3.4
A.
10.
In
nucleotides
and
nucleic
acids,
syn
and
anti
conformations
relate
to:
A)
base
stereoisomers
B)
rotation
around
the
phosphodiester
bond
rotation
around
the
sugar-base
bond
D)
sugar
pucker.
E)
sugar
stereoisomers.
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Exam
3
-
Practice
Exam
Part
A:
Multiple
Choice
(60
points,
2
points
per
question)
11.
Triple-helical
DNA
structures
can
result
from
Hoogsteen
(non
Watson-Crick)
interactions.
These
interactions
are
primarily:
A)
covalent
bonds
involving
deoxyribose.
B)
covalent
bonds
involving
the
bases.
C)
H-bonds
involving
deoxyribose.
H-bonds
involving
the
bases.
E)
hydrophobic
interactions
involving
the
bases.
12.
Double-stranded
regions
of
RNA:
A)
are
les
stable
than
double-stranded
regions
of
DNA.
B)
can
be
observed
in
the
laboratory,
but
probably
have
no
biological
relevance.
'€)
can
form
between
two
self-complementary
regions
of
the
same
single
strand
of
RNA.
D)
do
not
occur.
E)
have
the
two
strands
arranged
in
parallel
(unlike
those
of
DNA,
which
are
antiparallel).
13.
When
double-stranded
DNA
is
heated
at
neutral
pH,
which
change
does
not
occur?
A)
The
absorption
of
ultraviolet
(260nm)
light
increases.
B)
The
covalent
N-glycosidic
bond
between
the
base
and
the
pentose
breaks.
C)
The
helical
structure
unwinds.
D)
The
hydrogen
bonds
between
A
and
T
break.
E)
The
viscosity
of
the
solution
decreases.
14.
The
ribonucleotide
polymer
(5')GTGATCAAGC(3’)
could
only
form
a
double-stranded
structure
with:
A)
(5')CACTAGTTCG(3)
B)
(5'\CACUAGUUCG(3)
C)
(5')CACUTTCGCCC(3)
(5'\GCTTGATCAC(3)
E)
(5)GCCTAGTTUG(3')
15.
In
the
lab,
several
factors
are
known
to
cause
alterations
of
the
chemical
structure
of
DNA.
The
factor(s)
likely
to
be
important
in
a
living
cell
is
(are):
A)
heat
B)low
pH
C)oxygen.
D)
UV
light
)
both
C
and
D.
16.
A
method
of
analyzing
DNA
sequence
in
a
professional
lab
is
by:
A)
Watson-sequencing.
B)
Sanger
sequencing.
C)
PCR.
D)
Gel
electrophoresis.
E)
Western
blotting.
17.
In
living
cells,
nucleotides
and
their
derivatives
can
serve
as:
A)
carriers
of
metabolic
energy.
B)
enzyme
cofactors.
C)
intracellular
signals.
%
precursors
for
nucleic
acid
synthesis.
all
of
the
above.
18.
Triacylglycerols
are
composed
of:
A)
a
glycerol
backbone.
B)
a
fatty
acid.
C)
amide
linkages
between
the
fatty
acids
and
the
glycerol.
B)
A
and
B
above.
E)
A,
B,
and
C
above.
19.
Biological
wases
are
all:
A)
triesters
of
glycerol
and
palmitic
acid.
B)
esters
of
single
fatty
acids
with
long-chain
alcohols.
C)
triesters
of
glycerol
and
three
long
chain
saturated
fatty
acids.
D)
sphingolipids.
E)
none
of
the
above.
20.
Which
of
the
following
statements concerning
fatty
acids
is
correct?
K)
A
fatty
acid
is
the
precursor
of
prostaglandins.
B)
Phosphatidic
acid
is
a
common
fatty
acid.
C)
Fatty
acids
all
contain
one
or
more
double
bonds.
D)
Fatty
acids
are
a
constituent
of
sterols.
E)
Fatty
acids
are
strongly
hydrophilic.
21.
Sphingosine
is
not
a
component
of:
K)
cardiolipin
B)
ceramide
C)
cerebrosides
D)
gangliosides
E)
sphingomyelin
22.
Which
of
the
following
is
not
a
glycerophospholipid?
A)
Phosphatidylcholine
B)
Phosphatidylethanolamine
C)
Phosphatidyiserine
D)
Cardiolipin
Ceramide
23.
A
compound
containing
N-acetylneuraminic
acid
(sialic
acid)
is:
A)
cardiolipin
ganglioside
GM2
C)
phosphatidyicholine
D)
platelet-activating
factor
E)
sphingomyelin
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Exam
3
-
Practice
Exam
Part
A:
Multiple
Choice
(60
points,
2
points
per
question)
24.
Which
of
the
following
statements
about
sterols
is
true?
K)
All
sterols
share
a
fused-ring
structure
with
four
rings.
B)
Sterols
are
found
in
the
membranes
of
all
living
cells.
C)
Sterols
are
soluble
in
water,
but
less
so
in
organic
solvents
such
as
chloroform.
D)
Cholesterol
is
the
principal
sterol
in
fungi.
E)
The
principal
sterol
of
animal
cells
is
ergosterol.
25.
Which
of
the
following
is
not
true
of
sterols?
A)
Cholesterol
is
a
sterol
that
is
commonly
found
in
mammals.
B)
Sterols
are
commonly
found
in
bacterial
membranes.
C)
Sterols
are
more
common
in
plasma
membranes
than
in
intracellular
membranes
(mitochondria,
lysosomes,
etc.)
D)
Sterols
are
precursors
of
steroid
hormones.
E)
Sterols
have
a
structure
that
includes
four
fused
rings.
26.
Non-steroidal
anti-inflammatory
drugs
(NSAIDS)
like
aspirin
and
ibuprofen
act
by
blocking
production
of:
A)
biological
waxes
B)
prostaglandins
C)
sphingolipids
D)
vitamin
D
E)
none
of
the
above.
27.
Which
vitamin
is
derived
from
cholesterol?
A)A
B)Biz
€D
D)E
E)K
28.
Which
of
the
following
techniques
is
not
commonly
used
to
analyze
lipid
composition?
A)
Selective
extraction
using
apolar
solvents.
B)
Adsorption
chromatography.
)
X-ray
crystallography
D)
Hydrolysis
using
enzymes
with
specificity
for
certain
linkages.
E)
Mass
spectroscopy.
29.
Which
of
the
following
best
describes
the
cholesterol
molecule?
&)
Amphipathic
B)
Nonpolar,
charged
C)
Nonpolar,
uncharged
D)
Polar,
charged
E)
Polar,
uncharged
30.
Which
vitamin
is
derived
from
cholesterol?
A)A
B)Biz
B)D
D)E
E)K
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Exam
4
-
Practice
Exam
Part
A:
Multiple
Choice
(60
points,
2
points
per
question)
1.
The
reaction
A
+
B
—
C
has
a
AG”
of
—20
kJ/mol
at
25°
C.
Starting
under
standard
conditions,
one
can
predict
that:
A)
at
equilibrium,
the
concentration
of B
will
exceed
the
concentration
of
A.
B)
at
equilibrium,
the
concentration
of
C
will
be
less
,.\than
the
concentration
of
A.
C)
at
equilibrium,
the
concentration
of
C
will
be
much
greater
than
the
concentration
of
A
or
B.
D)
C
will
rapidly
break
down
to
A
+
B.
E)
when
A
and
B
are
mixed,
the
reaction
will
proceed
rapidly
toward
formation
of
C.
2.
For
the
reaction
A
—
B,
the
Keq'is
10%.
If
a
reaction
mixture
originally
contains
1
mmol
of
A
and
no
B,
which
one
of
the
following
must
be
true?
.
..
81
{00g
@At
equilibrium,
there
will
be
far
more
B
t
an(/?.
/
)
The
rate
of
the
reaction
is
very
slow.
C)
The
reaction
requires
coupling
to
an
exergonic
reaction
in
order
to
proceed.
D)
The
reaction
will
proceed
toward
B
at
a
very
high
rate.
E)
AG"
for
the
reaction
will
be
large
and
positive.
3.
During
glycolysis,
glucose
1-phosphate
is
converted
to
fructose
6-phosphate
in
two
successive
reactions:
Glu-1—»
Frn-¢-F
Glucose
1-phosphate
—
glucose/%hosphate
AG"
=
-7.1
kJ/mol
Glucose
@phfisphate
—
fructose
6-phosphate
AG"
=
+1.7
kJ/mol
AG"
for
the
overall
reaction
is:
=-7.(
2
4
(22
=
et
B)
7.1
kJ/mol.
@—5.4
kJ/mol.
E)
+8.8
ki/mol.
A)
—8.8
ki/mol.
D)
+5.4
kJ/mol.
4.
All
of
the
following
contribute
to
the
large,
negative,
free-energy
change
upon
hydrolysis
of
“high-energy”
compounds
except:
A)
electrostatic
repulsion
in
the
reactant.
low
activation
energy
of
forward
reaction.
C)
stabilization
of
products
by
extra
resonance
forms.
D)
stabilization
of
products
by
ionization.
E)
stabilization
of
products
by
solvation.
5.
If
the
AG"
of
the
reaction
A
—
B
is
+40
kJ/mol,
under
standard
conditions
the
reaction:
A)
is
at
equilibrium.
B)
will
never
reach
equilibrium.
@
will
not
occur
spontaneously.
)
will
proceed
at
a
rapid
rate.
E)
will
proceed
spontaneously
from
left
to
right.
Gl
—e
LATP
+
Lactah
6.
The
anaerobic
conversion
of
1
mol
of
glucose
to
2
mol
of
lactate
by
fermentation
is
accompanied
by
a
net
gain
of:
mol
of
ATP.
A1l
))2
mol
of
ATP.
E)
none
of
the
above.
B)
1
mol
of
NADH.
D)
2
mol
of
NADH.
bl
—e=
PTP
¥
Lackak
7.
Which
of
the
following
statements
is
not
true
concerning
glycolysis
in
anaerobic
muscle?
@
Fructose
1,6-bisphosphatase
is
one
of
the
enzymes
of
the
pathway.
B)
It
is
an
endergonic
process.
C)
It
results
in
net
synthesis
of
ATP.
D)
It
results
in
synthesis
of
NADH.
E)
Its
rate
is
slowed
by
a
high
[ATP)[ADP]
ratio.
8.
The
first
reaction
in
glycolysis
that
results
in
the
form-
ation
of
an
energy-rich
compound
(i.e.,
a
compound
whose
hydrolysis
has
a
highly
negative
AG*)
is
catalyzed
by:
hexokinase.
C)
phosphofructokinase-1.
D)
phosphoglycerate
kinase.
E)
triose
phosphate
isomerase.
@glyceraldehyde
3-phosphate
dehydrogenase.
)
9.
Galactosemia
is
a
genetic
error
of
metabolism
associated
with:
A)
deficiency
of
galactokinase.
B)
deficiency
of
UDP-glucose.
deficiency
of
UDP-glucose:
galactose
1-phosphate-
uridylyltransferase.
D)
excessive
ingestion
of
galactose.
E)
inability
to
digest
lactose.
10.
Which
of
the
below
is
not
required
for
the
oxidative
decarboxylation
of
pyruvate
to
form
acetyl-CoA?
A))
ATP
B)
CoA-SH
Lipoic
acid
E)
NAD+
C)
FAD
11.
Which
of
the
following
is
not
true
of
the
citric
acid
cycle?
@AII
enzymes
of
the
cycle
are
located
in
the
cytoplasm,
except
succinate
dehydrogenase,
which
is
bound
to
the
inner
mitochondrial
membrane.
B)
In
the
presence
of
malonate,
one
would
expect
succinate
to
accumulate.
C)
Oxaloacetate
is
used
as
a
substrate
but
is
not
consumed
in
the
cycle.
D)
Succinate
dehydrogenase
channels
electrons
directly
into
the
electron
transfer
chain.
E)
The
condensing
enzyme
is
subject
to
allosteric
regulation
by
ATP
and
NADH.
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Exam
4
-
Practice
Exam
Part
A:
Multiple
Choice
(60
points,
2
points
per
question)
12.
Which
of
the
following
is
not
an
intermediate
of
14.
Conversion
of
1
mol
of
acetyl-CoA
to
2
mol
of
CO;
the
citric
acid
cycle?
and
CoA
via
the
citric
acid
cycle
results
in
the net
(A)
Acetyl-coA
B)
Citrate
production
of.
C)
Oxaloacetate
D)
Succinyl-CoA
A)
1
mol
of
citrate.
E)
a-Ketoglutarate
(g)
1
mol
of
FADH..
)
1
mol
of
NADH.
13.
In
mammals,
each
of
the
following
occurs
during
D)
1
mol
of
oxaloacetate.
the
citric
acid
cycle
except:
E)
7
mol
of
ATP.
A)
formation
of
a-ketoglutarate.
15.
The
reaction
of
the
citric
acid
cycle
that
produces
B)
generation
of
NADH
and
FADH2.
an
ATP
equivalent
(in
the
form
of
GTP)
by
substrate
C)
metabolism
of
acetate
to
carbon
dioxide
and
level
phosphorylation
is
the
conversion
of:
water.
C‘?)
net
synthesis
of
oxaloacetate
from
acetyl-CoA.
A)
citrate
to
isocitrate.
E)
oxidation
of
acetyl-CoA.
B)
fumarate
to
malate.
C)
malate
to
oxaloacetate.
D)
succinate
to
fumarate.
@
succinyl-CoA
to
succinate.
Part
B:
Free
Response
(40
points
total)
1.
(10
points)
In
glycolysis,
the
enzyme
pyruvate
kinase
catalyzes
this
reaction:
Phosphoenolpyruvate
+
ADP
—
pyruvate
+
ATP
a)
Given
the
information
below,
show
how
you
would
calculate
the
equilibrium
constant
for
this
reaction.
(R
=
8.315
J/mol-K;
T
=
298
K)
Reaction
1)
ATP
—»
ADP
+
P,
AG"
=-30.5
kJ/mol
Reaction
2)
phosphoenolpyruvate
—
pyruvate
+
P,
AG”
=-61.9
kJ/mol
(Ef
—
7}/
r
4/%
ADP+
pr—
ATP_
D&"'=
619
,%{
+3o.rf/‘34
-
34
K
b)
Name
two
ways
pyruvate
kinase
is
regulated
in
the
body
:
-
COMPACHIMUn
OROR
|
—Qlbarket.
tegpulahre
frachom
-
1,4
-bi
gphophaie
c)
Formulate
one
other
reaction
(simple
reaction
equation)
that
produces
a
molecule
of
ATP
in
glycolysis
L
b’“/”‘%
"
APP
—s
I
phapho-
|,
ATT
JY
s
#he
d)
Name
3
fates
of
pyruvate
produced
in
this
reaction
-
lactah
Ramentahon
—
TCA-
@m
-
blncongs
(s
)i
(
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