BIO-327-Cell-Biology-FA-2021-exam4_A-KEY
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Bio 327 Fall 2021
Exam 4
Version A
Name
___________________
All 42 questions are worth 1.25 points
SU ID ____________________
Circle/indicate the one correct answer on both your exam booklet and scantron answer sheet.
1. True/False: Channels as opposed to carrier proteins in ion transport are the same as gap junctions in that they
are non-selective and when open allow many, many ions to pass at once?
a. True
b. False
2. True/False: Plant cells orient their cellulose synthesis relative to stomata found in the cell cortex
a. True
b. False
3.
A type of stem cell can give rise to several different types of intestinal cells, but no other types of cells.
Therefore, we label this type of stem cell:
a. Induced
b. Totipotent
c. Unipotent
d. Multipotent
e. Pluripotent
4. Which of the following represents the most well-proven use of human stem cells to cure or treat a human
disease?
a.
Human embryonic stem cells to treat Parkinson's Disease
b.
Neural stem cells to repair spinal cord injuries
c.
Bone marrow transplants to treat leukemia
d.
Bone marrow cells to treat heart attack patients
e.
Both B and D are well-proven uses.
5.
Tumor suppressors are defined as genes whose loss of function leads to cancer development. Which of the
following is/are well known tumor suppressors?
a.
RNA polymerase
b. Ras
c. Rb
d. p53
e.
C and D
6. True/False: CAR-T cells are promising as cancer therapeutics because once introduced to a patient these cells
will typically target essentially all types of tumors and cancer cells arising in the body
a. True
b. False
7. NADPH and Acetyl CoA are examples of a class of molecules called _________ that cells use to create a
favorable (that is a net ________) change in free energy, delta-G, for many otherwise energetically unfavorable
reactions that occur in the cell.
a.
activated carriers; negative
b.
reducers; negative
c.
polymerases; positive
d.
ions; positive
e.
oxidizers; positive
8.
The function of a signal sequence found in a secreted eukaryotic protein is to be recognized by the
___________ which pauses translation by the ribosome until it is docked on the __________ membrane where
the nascent polypeptide can be translocated into the lumen of that compartment via a translocation channel.
a.
v-SNARE; nuclear
b.
signal recognition particle (SRP); plasma
c.
COP coat protein; mitochondrial
d.
v-SNARE; t-SNARE
e.
signal recognition particle (SRP); endoplasmic reticulum (ER)
9. The phosphorylation of a protein is typically associated with a change in activity, the assembly of a protein
complex, or the triggering of a downstream signaling cascade. The addition of ubiquitin, a small polypeptide, is
another type of covalent modification that can affect the protein function. Ubiquitylation often results in
______________.
a.
protein degradation
b.
membrane association
c.
protein secretion
d.
protein refolding via chaperones
e.
nuclear translocation
10. RTKs are a class of cell surface receptors. They are activated by:
a.
Glycosylation
b.
GTP/GDP nucleotide binding and hydrolysis
c.
proteolysis
d. dimerization and subsequent phosphorylation on tyrosine residues
e.
None of the above
11.
Proteins such as Ras, Ran and Rab, as well as G
α
are all regulated by
a.
glycosylation
b.
GTP/GDP nucleotide binding and hydrolysis
c.
proteolysis
d.
phosphorylation on Ser, Thr, or Try residues
e.
None of the above
12.
What type of amino acid is shown in the figure?
a.
acidic amino acid
b.
fatty amino acid
c.
uncharged polar amino acid
d.
basic amino acid
e.
hydrophobic amino acid
13. Protein phosphatases remove phosphate groups that have been added to substrate proteins by kinases. In
doing so they:
a.
Activate (turn on) the substrates
b.
Inactivate (turn off) the substrates
c.
Target the substrate proteins for degradation by the proteasome
d.
Depending on the target protein and site, they may either inactivate or activate substrates
e.
None of the above
14. FRAP:
a.
Is a cell cycle checkpoint that acts to prevent the replication of damaged DNA.
b.
Is a microscopy method to study the mobility or dynamics of proteins in cells over time.
c.
Is a class of protein involved in vesicle trafficking.
d.
Is a method of identifying proteins based on masses after specific fragmentation.
e.
Is a complex that acts as a master controller of the cell cycle in all eukaryotes.
15. A type of interaction that helps maintain the secondary and tertiary structures of many proteins that reside
on the outside surface, or function outside of the cell, is that of _________ occurring between _________
residues.
a.
Van der Waals interactions between the COOH termini of proteins : tyrosine
b.
formation of intrapolypeptide or interpolypeptide disulfide linkages : cysteine
c.
dipole interactions of the NH2 end of the protein with water molecules : phenylalanine
d.
covalent linkage of R-groups to water molecules : phenylalanine
e.
van der Waals interactions between the COOH termini of proteins : cysteine
16. Multiple Choice: Which of the following proteins is NOT a GTP binding protein?
a.
Rab
b.
RTK
c.
G alpha
d.
Ras
e.
Rho
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17. Protease activities are known to be used to ensure the correct assembly/disassembly and functioning of the
following proteins for each of the following processes EXCEPT:
a.
Correct docking of transport vesicles to their appropriate target membrane
b. Correct assembly and processing of proinsulin into mature/functional insulin
c.
Correct processing and assembly of procollagen into mature/functional collagen
d.
Caspases involved in apoptosis
e.
Cyclin-mediated progression of the cell cycle
18. Which of the following is false?
a.
all eukaryotic cells contain at least one nucleus
b.
In humans, some cells contain more than one nucleus
c.
The Central Dogma of Molecular Biology DNA >RNA>Proteins is common to all living organisms
d.
All cells require energy
e.
All of these answers are true
19. Why are glycolipids and glycosylated regions of membrane resident proteins found on the extracellular, but
not the cytoplasmic, surface of the plasma membrane?
a.
Flippases transport them from the cytosolic face.
b.
The oligosaccharides on glycolipids are cleaved off by enzymes found only in the cytosol.
c.
They can flip spontaneously, after incorporation, due to the hydrophilic sugar head groups.
d.
The enzymes that add the sugar groups are confined to the inside of the endoplasmic reticulum and
the Golgi apparatus.
e.
The enzymes that produce them are present only on the extracellular surface of the plasma
membrane.
20. Phospholipids can form bilayer membranes because they are ________. The fluidity and permeability of
membranes are most directly related to __________ and __________, respectively.
a.
Hydrophobic : phospholipid tail unsaturation : membrane protein/lipid content ratios.
b.
Amphipathic : phospholipid tail unsaturation : cholesterol content
c.
Amphipathic : phospholipid tail unsaturation : membrane protein/lipid content ratios.
d.
Hydrophilic : phospholipid tail length : cholesterol content
e.
Hydrophobic : phospholipid tail length: membrane protein/lipid content ratios.
21.
What proteins help provide the energy to deform the underlying membrane during the process of vesicle
formation?
a.
t-SNARE
b.
coat proteins
c.
v-SNARE
d.
flippase
e.
chaperone
22.
Which statement of the following about enzymes is FALSE?
a.
Enzymes can work by positioning two substrates close to one another to promote their reaction.
b.
An enzyme can direct a molecule along a particular reaction pathway by selectively lowering the
energy necessary to make the reaction occur.
c.
Enzymes can work by changing the equilibrium constant of reactants that form a product to make the
equilibrium constant more favorable.
d.
Most enzymes are proteins although some are RNAs.
e.
Their ability to associate with their substrate can be described by the Michaelis Menten value of Km.
23. If DNA is damaged or incompletely replicated, what key protein senses this and when activated causes
expression of p21 protein, thereby pausing the cell cycle so that the DNA can be repaired before continuing on
in the cell cycle?
a.
p53
b.
S-Cdk
c.
ORC
d.
Cdc6
e.
Cdc25
24. What must happen for a Cdk to be active?
a.
It must be switched on by proteolysis
b.
It must bind to its cyclin partner.
c.
It must dissociate from its bound cyclin.
d.
It must translocate from the cytoplasm to the nucleus.
e.
It must increase in concentration at a specific time in the cycle.
25.
Soon after nerve growth factor (NGF) was discovered, investigators injected newborn mice with antibodies
that inactivated it. Compared to control mice, those that received the antibody showed massive amounts of
nerve cell death. After a week of daily antibody injections, up to 99% of the neurons in certain parts of the
nervous system of these mice were gone. What do these results suggest?
a.
NGF signaling is sufficient for survival of developing neurons.
b.
NGF cannot protect developing neurons from death by apoptosis.
c.
NGF is a mitogen that promotes the proliferation of developing neurons.
d.
NGF is a survival factor for developing neurons.
e.
NGF triggers apoptosis in developing neurons.
26. In cells undergoing apoptosis, nuclear lamins are cleaved by which of the following?
a.
initiator caspases
b. nucleases
c.
executioner caspases
d.
procaspases
e.
b and e are correct
27.
What process occurs during S phase of the cell cycle?
a.
separation of the daughter cells (cytokinesis)
b.
replication of chromosomal DNA
c.
separation of chromosomes via the mitotic spindle
d.
nuclear envelope reformation
e.
c and d are correct
28.
If a cell is deprived of mitogens for a prolonged period of time, it will enter a non-proliferating state in which
it may remain for how long?
a.
hours
b. days
c.
weeks
d.
the remaining lifetime of the cell
e.
All of the above are possible
29. DNA replication begins at what locations in chromosomes?
a.
origins
b.
promoters
c.
spliceosomes
d.
miRNA binding sites
e.
tight junctions
30. What is the difference between a malignant and benign tumor?
a.
A benign tumor grows from a single cell, whereas a malignant tumor arises from multiple cells,
making it more difficult to eradicate.
b.
A malignant tumor grows into a large destructive mass, whereas a benign tumor remains very small.
c.
A malignant tumor invades and colonizes other tissues, while a benign tumor does not
d.
A benign tumor can be treated, while a malignant tumor cannot.
e.
A malignant tumor proliferates in defiance of normal constraints, while a benign tumor does not.
31.
Which type of protein in a fibroblast's plasma membrane attaches to the extracellular matrix on the outside
of the cell and (through adapter molecules) to actin inside the cell?
a.
fibronectin
b.
collagen
c.
integrin
d.
proteoglycan
e.
cadherin
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32. The expression levels of different ___________ fluctuate throughout the cell cycle.
a.
phosphates
b.
cyclins and Cdks
c.
cyclins
d.
Cdks
e.
a and b are correct
33.
Which of the following animal tissues is characterized by a plentiful extracellular matrix?
a.
nervous
b.
connective
c.
epithelial
d.
muscular
e.
none of the above
34. Hemidesmosomes serve what function?
a.
connect adjacent cells to one another in a tissue to help maintain mechanical integrity
b.
connect cells to basal lamina to help a tissue maintain mechanical integrity
c.
connect cells to one another to allow movement of small molecules between cells in a tissue
d.
connect cells to one another in an epithelium to create a tight seal between the cells
e.
all of the above
35. Which of the following are the plant equivalent of a gap junction?
a.
desmosomes
b.
plasmodesmata
c.
tight junctions
d.
adherens junctions
e.
c and d are correct
36. Stem cells hold great promise both for studying cell fate determination and organ development and for
clinical use, such as blood stem cell transplants to treat patients whose own immune systems have been
severely impaired. Clinicians also hope that stem cells can be coaxed into specific cell types to treat diseases in
which that cell type is damaged, such as replacing neurons in Parkinson’s disease. In 2008, researchers assessed
the ability of neurons derived from reprogrammed fibroblasts to ameliorate the symptoms of Parkinson s
disease in a rat model. Based on your knowledge of stem cells and cell differentiation, what intermediate step
was necessary to convert fibroblasts into neurons?
a.
converting fibroblasts into embryonic stem cells via introduction of transcription factors
b.
converting fibroblasts into induced pluripotent stem cells
c.
converting fibroblasts into organoids in culture
d.
converting fibroblasts into embryonic stem cells via introduction of tumor suppressor genes
e.
putting the cells inside a plant’s stem for three days
37.
In most cases, about how many mutations are required for a normal cell to turn into a cancer cell?
a.
generally, only one
b.
more than three
c.
thousands in different genes
d.
Cancers are not caused by mutations.
e.
please enjoy your break and do not pick this choice
38.
Which type of mutation would not typically convert a proto-oncogene into an oncogene?
a.
chromosomal deletion of the region containing the proto-oncogene
b.
chromosomal rearrangement that leads to overproduction of the normal proto-oncogene protein
c.
chromosomal rearrangement that leads to the production of a hyperactive protein
d.
a mutation in the coding sequence that leads to the production of a hyperactive protein
e.
gene amplification
39. True/False: For an Action Potential to occur, the incoming electrical signal must exceed a threshold potential
wherein Na
+
channels open abruptly causing Vm to depolarize towards E
Na
, after which the Na
+
channels are
inactivated, and special K
+
channels open.
a.
True
b.
False
40. Na+ is kept at a low concentration within cells by the activity of what?
a.
active transport by Na+ / K+ pumps
b.
passive diffusion through the plasma membrane
c.
active transport through Na+ channels
d.
passive diffusion through Na+ channels
e.
b and c are correct
41.
Bonus –The apical villi seen on polarized epithelial cells and the cristae made up of invaginations of the
mitochondrial membrane are both examples of which principle discussed in this course?
a.
combinatorial control
d.
the Central Dogma of Molecular Biology
b.
information movement and transfer
e.
parallel analyses
c.
form follows function
42.
Bonus – When proteins are composed of more than one polypeptide chain such as the structure of
hemoglobin containing two alpha subunits and two beta subunits, or the heterotrimeric G protein associated
with GPCR signaling, this level of protein structure refers to the:
a. primary structure
d. quaternary structure
b. secondary structure
e.
Lego structure
c. tertiary structure
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