Genetics Exam 4 Questions to Practice
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Genetics Exam 4 Questions to Practice
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Section 1: Slide Questions
These questions were derived from the course pre-lecture and lecture slides, as well as some created by us (the TAs). Note that there may be extra answer options or slightly increased difficulty compared to the original question in the slides!
1 point
RT-PCR
CR-PCR
Sequence DNA
Make mutations in a protein of interest
Amplify a DNA sequence of interest
Make mutations in a sequence of interest
Determine genotype of an organism
Real-time PCR
Amplify RNA
Genetics Exam 4 Questions to Practice
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Which of the following are uses for PCR? (There are 6 correct choices)
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1 point
Plasmids are naturally found in viruses. A cloning vector is a genetically engineered plasmid used in the laboratory for cloning.
Plasmids are naturally found in human cells. A cloning vector is a genetically engineered plasmid used in the laboratory for cloning.
Plasmids are naturally found in bacteria. A cloning vector is a genetically engineered plasmid used in the laboratory for cloning.
1 point
5′-A T G G T A-3′
5′-A T G A T G-3′
5′-A T G C A T-3′
5′-T A T C G C-3′
1 point
The ability to carry very large D N A fragments
The ability to be replicated
Restriction site(s) for the insertion of a foreign D N A fragment
A selectable marker gene
The ability to be isolated from the host cell
What is a bacterial cloning vector with respect to a plasmid?
Which of these DNA sequences is palindromic when double-stranded?
Which is the following is not
a necessary feature of a good cloning vector?
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1 point
Southern blot
Western blot
Quantitative PCR
Transgenic female animals
Next-generation sequencing
1 point
Single Stranded
Multiple Cloning Site
Selective Marker
Origin of Replication
Must be a Plasmid
You are interested in knowing whether the addition of estrogen to cultured cells induces expression of mRNA from a gene of interest. Of the following choices, a good way to determine that is using __________.
What are the three necessary features of a cloning vector?
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1 point
mean; variances
variance; means
covariance; variances
standard deviation; central tendencies
Below are two histograms representing yields of the same strain of soybean in two different fields. These samples have the same ________ but different ________.
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1 point
they are under less genetic control.
they have more genetic variation.
they are more influenced by the environment.
they have lower rates of mutation.
they have been more subject to natural selection.
1 point
population
consanguinity
hybrid vigor
population genetics
cytogenetics
1 point
p^2+2pq+q^2=2
p^1+pq+q^2=1
p^2+2pq+q^2=1
p+2pq+q=1
Traits that are essential to survival have lower heritabilities than other traits because
What is the term given to a group of individuals belonging to the same species that live in a defined geographic area and actually or potentially interbreed?
The Hardy-Weinberg equation is:
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1 point
P and q change randomly from generation to generation.
The environment has no effect on the frequency of alleles, so p and q remain the same from generation to generation.
There are no forces changing allele frequencies, so p and q stay the same from generation to generation.
1 point
the size of the sample population
the frequency of the heterozygotes
the frequency of homozygous recessive genotype
the mutation rate in the population
1 point
0.1
0.8
0.9
0.2
If a population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what will happen to p and q from generation to generation?
In the case of complete dominance in a population in equilibrium, we cannot tell which individuals are homozygous dominant and which are heterozygous. What information is needed to determine the frequencies of homozygous dominant and heterozygous genotypes?
Given an inheritance pattern of incomplete dominance and 81 flowers that are red (
R1R1
), 18 flowers that are pink (
R1R2
), and 1 flower that is white (
R2R2
), what is the frequency of the R1
allele in this generation?
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1 point
9%
58%
91%
42%
1 point
100
10,000
19,800
980,100
999,900
Assume that a trait is caused by the autosomal homozygous recessive genotype for the gene. Nine percent of the individuals in a given population express the phenotype caused by this gene. What percentage of the individuals would be heterozygous for the gene? Assume that the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
Albinism is an autosomal recessive trait in humans. Assume that there are 100 albinos (
aa
) in a population of 1 million. How many individuals would be expected to be homozygous wild-type (
AA
) under equilibrium conditions?
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1 point
Gene frequencies can only fluctuate if there is a mutation or some other genetic change; sampling error is not a factor.
Sampling error would cause random and possibly significant fluctuations in determination of gene frequencies.
Sampling error only affects gene frequencies in non-random ways, so significant fluctuations are unlikely to occur.
Gene frequencies are entirely unaffected by sample size, so fluctuations in gene frequencies do not occur due to sampling error.
1 point
Mouse A
Mouse B
1 point
differences in reproductive success
differences in reproductive isolation mechanisms
similarities in viability or reproductive success
decreased predation
differences in viability
One of the Hardy-Weinberg assumptions states that the population is infinitely large. What influence might a small population size have on a Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
Mouse A has 100 offspring and is killed by a predator at 1 year of age. Mouse B has 50 offspring and is killed by a predator at 2 years of age. Which mouse has better fitness, according to the biological definition?
Natural selection occurs when there is nonrandom elimination of genotypes from a population due to ________. Choose the BEST answer.
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1 point
Genetic drift is the only force that affects allele frequencies in large populations, so natural selection is not a concern.
Sampling error has no effect on small populations, so genetic drift cannot cause significant fluctuations in allele frequencies.
Natural selection has no effect on small populations, so genetic drift is the only force that affects allele frequencies.
Natural selection has the greatest force on a large population. Genetic drift has a big effect on small populations due to sampling error.
1 point
Revertants
Founder mice
Wild-type mice
Somatic mutants
Suppressor mutants
Mutation and migration introduce new alleles into populations. What is the most likely principal force that will shift allelic frequencies within large populations?
As the PI of a lab, you design a transgenic mouse model and send that design to a company that will engineer the mice. The mutation is in a gene called TRX1
, which encodes a mitochondrial thioredoxin, a protein important for proper oxidative stress response. The company microinjects CRISPR-Cas9 into mouse embryos, which are then implanted into the uterus of a surrogate mouse, eventually resulting in pups that harbor the mutation. The resulting adult mice are sent to you six weeks later. You receive one mouse of each sex, both heterozygous for mutant trx1 (denoted TRX1-/+
) to propagate your mouse colony. These two mice can BEST
be described as….
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1 point
toward an extreme of the phenotype
away from either extreme of the phenotype
toward both extremes of the phenotype
toward the mean of the extremes of the phenotype
1 point
Postzygotic barriers only result in viable and fertile offspring, while prezygotic barriers result in inviable or infertile offspring.
Prezygotic barriers are only related to ecological and seasonal factors, while postzygotic barriers are related to behavioral, mechanical, and physiological factors.
Postzygotic mechanisms are barriers that occur before fertilization, and prezygotic barriers occur after fertilization.
Prezygotic barriers only occur in animals, while postzygotic barriers only occur in plants.
Postzygotic mechanisms are barriers that occur after fertilization and result in inviable or infertile offspring. Prezygotic barriers occur before fertilization and can be behavioral, ecological, seasonal, mechanical, or physiological.
Directional selection generates a phenotypic shift ________.
Two species that have experienced several thousand years of isolation from one another are now incapable of producing viable offspring despite mating efforts. What type of reproductive isolating mechanism likely developed between the two species?
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1 point
Speciation occurs primarily through hybridization between different species, not through the generation of reproductive isolating mechanisms.
The generation of reproductive isolating mechanisms–geographic, behavioral, physiological, and mechanical–provides common factors in the speciation process.
Reproductive isolating mechanisms are purely behavioral and have no genetic basis, so they cannot contribute to speciation.
Reproductive isolating mechanisms are not common factors in the speciation process, as they vary widely between different taxa and evolutionary lineages.
1 point
Inbreeding actually decreases the proportion of homozygotes in a population, so there is a decrease in homozygotes.
For a given allele, inbreeding decreases the proportion of homozygotes in a population, so there is a decrease in homozygotes.
For a given allele, inbreeding increases the proportion of homozygotes in a population.
Inbreeding has no effect on the proportion of homozygotes in a population, so there is no increase in homozygotes.
What single event is common to all occurrences of speciation?
What are the genetic consequences of inbreeding?
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1 point
The presence of heterozygous individuals has no impact on the frequency of aberrant (mutant) phenotypes or mortality rates.
Homozygous dominant individuals are more likely to exhibit aberrant (mutant) phenotypes and have higher mortality rates than homozygous recessive individuals.
The frequency of aberrant (mutant) phenotypes and mortality rates would be unaffected by the number of homozygous recessive lethal genotypes present in a population.
A higher frequency of aberrant (mutant) phenotypes and higher mortality rates would result due to more homozygous recessive lethal genotypes.
1 point
Cytochrome c is found in the mitochondria of eukaryotes. Because of its vital role in aerobic metabolism, it has evolved very slowly. Differences signify vast distances in evolutionary relatedness, as can be diagrammed along a phylogenetic tree.
Cytochrome c is only found in bacteria, so it is not useful for studying evolutionary relationships among eukaryotes.
Because cytochrome c is involved in metabolism, it is not affected by genetic variation and cannot be used to study evolutionary relationships.
Differences in cytochrome c do not signify evolutionary relatedness, but rather environmental adaptations of different species.
In zoo animals, inbreeding often occurs because of a lack of a sufficient pool of breeding individuals. Under such conditions, what two characteristics are often exhibited among inbred organisms?
What type of evolutionary information can be gained by examining the DNA sequence of a gene for a protein such as cytochrome c, a protein essential for aerobic energy production?
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1 point
Mitochondrial DNA evolves quickly because it is not involved in any critical cellular functions and is free to evolve at an accelerated rate.
Mitochondrial DNA evolves relatively quickly due to proximity to free radicals produced during respiration, lack of mitochondrial DNA repair enzymes, and lack of histone-driven packing and protection.
Mitochondrial DNA evolves quickly due to the presence of protective enzymes that prevent damage from free radicals.
Mitochondrial DNA evolves quickly because it is more stable than nuclear DNA and less susceptible to mutations.
1 point
therapeutic D N A is transfected into cells that are inside the human body
therapeutic D N A is transfected into cells that are outside the human body; these cells are then returned to the patient
the correct version of the gene is used to repair (“edit”) the mutant allele of the gene at its exact genomic locus
bacteria such as E. coli are used to produce the defective human proteins (such as insulin)
cells are transferred from a healthy donor to the patient, where the D N A transfer can then occur
Based upon what you know about mtDNA, why do you think mtDNA is often used in construction of phylogenetic trees?
In ex vivo gene therapy, ____________.
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1 point
The sequences were easier to assemble
The universal primer needed to hybridize to a common sequence for each contig
To demonstrate reproducibility, each contig needed to be sequenced several times
The taq polymerase had better fidelity when using a cloned plasmid
1 point
Third generation sequencing involves a more accurate Taq polymerase
Third generation sequencing doesn’t involve shotgun cloning
The sequence resulting from third-generation sequencing doesn’t have to be reassembled
Next-generation sequencing involves a universal primer
Third-generation sequencing involves longer reads
1 point
Translocation
Inversion
Duplication
Deletion
HGP scientists could not sequence each contig by itself. Instead, they needed to create a human genomic library. Why did the HGP scientists need to clone the contigs into plasmid vectors?
Why is third-generation advantageous to next-generation sequencing? Choose all that apply.
Which of the following chromosome mutations would be difficult to detect using aCGH?
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1 point
High resolution G-banding
Fluorescence in situ hybridization
Spectral karyotyping
Array Comparative Genomic Hybridization
1 point
Spectral karyotyping
Array Comparative Genomic Hybridization
High resolution G-banding
Fluorescence in situ hybridization
1 point
Your patient has a duplication
Your patient has a translocation
Your patient has a deletion
Your patient has an inversion
Your patient has a point mutation
Page 2 of 3
Which of the following techniques would be most useful in visualizing a microdeletion?
Which of the following techniques could be used to visualize a translocation?
You are working as a clinical geneticist. You send a patient’s sample for array comparative genomic hybridization (aCGH). You label the patient DNA with Cy5 and control DNA with Cy3. The results show more Cy3 fluorescence at a 50kb region on chromosome 8 compared to Cy5. Which of the following is/are supported by the test results? Why?
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