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CHAPTER 2. GROSS INCOME: THE SCOPE OF SECTION 61 ................................................................................................ 3 1. Gross Income ...................................................................................................................... 3 i. Cesarini v. U.S .................................................................................................................. 3 ii. Commissioner v. Glenshaw Glass Co. (1955) ................................................................. 4 iii. Old Colony Trust Co. v. Commissioner ......................................................................... 5 2. Defining Fair Market Value ................................................................................................ 6 3. Income Without Receipt of Cash or Property ..................................................................... 6 ii. Dean v. Commissioner .................................................................................................... 7 CHAPTER 3. THE EXCLUSION OF GIFTS AND INHERITANCES ............................................................................................. 8 B. G IFTS ...................................................................................................................................... 8 CHAPTER 4. EMPLOYEE BENEFITS .................................................................................................................................. 11 B. E XCLUSIONS FOR M EALS AND L ODGING ............................................................................. 16 i. Hatt v. Commissioner ..................................................................................................... 18 CHAPTER 5. AWARDS .................................................................................................................................................... 20 A. P RIZES .................................................................................................................................. 20 CHAPTER 6. GAIN FROM DEALINGS IN PROPERTY ........................................................................................................ 22 B. D ETERMINATION OF B ASIS ................................................................................................... 22 i. Philadelphia Park Amusement Co. v. U.S ...................................................................... 23 2. Property Acquired by Gift ................................................................................................. 26 i. Taft v. Bowers (1929) ..................................................................................................... 29 ii. Farid-Es-Sultaneh v. Commissioner (1947) .................................................................. 29 3. Property Acquired Between Spouses or Incident to Divorce-IRC § 1041 REGS: § 1.1041-1T(a) & (d) ................................................................................................................ 30 4. Property Acquired from a Decedent - IRC § 1014(a), (b)(1) and (6), (e). REGS: § 1.1014-3(a); 20.2031-1(b) .................................................................................................... 32 C. A MOUNT R EALIZED - IRC § 1001( B ). REGS: § 1.1001-1( A ), -2( A ), ( B ), ( C ) E X . (1) AND (2). .................................................................................................................................................. 33 i. International Freighting Corp. v. Commissioner (1943) ................................................ 33 ii. Crane v. Commissioner ................................................................................................. 33 iii. Commissioner v. Tufts ................................................................................................. 34 CHAPTER 8. - DISCHARGE OF INDEBTEDNESS (DOI) ....................................................................................................... 39 i. United States v. Kirby Lumber Co. (1931) .................................................................... 39 CHAPTER 9. – DAMAGES AND RELATED RECEIPTS ......................................................................................................... 42 i. Raytheon Production Corporation v. Commissioner ...................................................... 43 B. O VERVIEW OF G OODWILL : ................................................................................................... 44 C. D AMAGES AND O THER R ECOVERIES FOR P ERSONAL I NJURY .............................................. 45 i. Revenue Ruling 79-313 .................................................................................................. 48 CHAPTER 14 – BUSINESS DEDUCTIONS .......................................................................................................................... 49 B. T HE A NATOMY OF THE B USINESS D EDUCTION W ORKHORSE : S ECTION 162 ....................... 49 i. Welch v. Helvering ......................................................................................................... 50 ii. Tizard Case .................................................................................................................... 51 iii. Hundley ........................................................................................................................ 52 1
2. “Expenses” ....................................................................................................................... 54 3. The Regulations ................................................................................................................. 55 A. A MOUNTS P AID TO A CQUIRE /P RODUCE T ANGIBLE P ROPERTY – R EG . §1.263( A )-2 ........... 55 i. Commissioner v. Idaho Power Co .................................................................................. 55 B. R EPAIRS V ERSUS I MPROVEMENTS ....................................................................................... 55 i. Midland Empire Packing Co. v. Commissioner ............................................................. 56 ii. Mt. Morris Drive-In Theatre Co. v. Commissioner ....................................................... 56 C. A MOUNTS P AID TO A CQUIRE OR C REATE I NTANGIBLE P ROPERTY ..................................... 58 D. D EPRECIATION ..................................................................................................................... 60 2. Accelerated Cost Recovery System (ACRS) ...................................................................... 61 i. Reg. § 1.1016-382 .......................................................................................................... 65 D. M ISCELLANEOUS B USINESS D EDUCTIONS ........................................................................... 66 1. Business Losses: IRC §§ 165(c)(1); 280B ........................................................................ 66 E. S PECIFIC B USINESS D EDUCTION ( PG . 369) ........................................................................... 67 i. Exacto Springs Corp. v. Commissioner .......................................................................... 67 ii. Harolds Club v. Commissioner ..................................................................................... 68 2. Travel “Away From Home” .............................................................................................. 72 i. Reg. § 1.162-2(e) Traveling expenses (Pg. 973 Tax/Reg. Book) ................................... 72 ii. Reg. 1.62-2: Traveling Expenses ................................................................................... 72 i. Rosenspan v. United States (1971) ................................................................................. 78 ii. Andrews v. Commissioner (1991) ................................................................................. 79 iii. Revenue Ruling 99-7 (Pg. 398-401)— ......................................................................... 80 3. Business Meals and Entertainment ................................................................................... 80 CHAPTER 21 – CAPITAL GAINS AND LOSSES ................................................................................................................... 83 1. Capital Gains .................................................................................................................... 83 2. Capital Gains and Capital Losses Illustrated (For Individual) ........................................ 84 B. T HE M EANING OF “C APITAL A SSET ................................................................................... 85 i. Malat v. Riddell .............................................................................................................. 87 C. § 1231 (HOTCHPOT) RECHARACTERIZATION ........................................................... 88 CHAPTER 22 – CHARACTERIZATION ON THE SALE OF DEPRECIABLE PROPERTY - §1245 ................................................ 94 C HAPTER 2. G ROSS I NCOME : T HE S COPE OF S ECTION 61 A. Equivocal Receipt of Financial Benefit 2
1. Gross Income IRC § 61(a) “Gross income means all income from whatever source derived...” (pg. 62 Tax/Reg. Book). - The courts interpret this language broadly, in order “to exert the full measure of Congress’s taxing power under the 16th Amendment to the U.S. Constitution.” Cesarini v. U.S. i. Cesarini v. U.S . – presumption that everything is gross income, unless otherwise excluded by the statute Facts: 1. π’s (husband and wife) purchased a piano in 1957 for $15 for their daughter to use for piano lessons. 2. In 1964, πs discovered that the piano had $4,500 in it. 3. πs had to exchange the $4,500 at a bank b/c it was in old currency, and thus included it on their income tax return. 4. However, πs filed an amended return, asking for a refund, asserting that the $4,500 did not constitute “gross income.” π arg. # 1: The $4,500 was not includible as gross income b/c it constitutes a gift under §102. Reg. § 1.61-1(a) “Gross income means all income from whatever source derived, unless excluded by law. Gross income includes income realized in any form, whether in money, property, or services.” (pg. 917 in Tax/Reg. Book). Held 1: Nowhere in §102 is treasure trove listed as a gift. §61(a) specifically provides that “Except as otherwise provided in this subtitle...” Treasure trove is not specifically listed as an exception from gross income anywhere in the Code. Thus, the $4,500 is not a gift, and found money/treasure trove is covered under §61(a) gross income. π arg. 2: If any tax was due, it was due in 1957 when the πs purchased the piano. Now that it’s 1964, the gov’t is blocked from collecting it by the statute of limitations. Held 2: Issues of property possession are governed by state law, and in this case, Ohio does not have a statute specifically dealing w/ finders of treasure trove. Thus, common law applies, and under common law, the cash is treated as property when they find it. Takeaway: 1. When determining whether something constitutes gross income, always start with §61, and then look for exceptions. 2. Reg. §1.61-14(a) requires taxpayers finding treasure trove to include it in gross income when reduced to undisputed possession. Problems on pg. 60: (1) Would the results to the taxpayers in the Cesarini case be different if, instead of discovering $4,467 in old currency in the piano, they discovered that the piano, a Steinway, was the first Steinway piano ever built and it is worth $500,000? Held 1: Economically speaking, Mr. Cesarini has earned a benefit here (he is certainly better off in 1964 than he was in 1954), but the government would not tax him for this, at least not until the piano was sold because the value of the piano is not realized until then. 3
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Concept of Realization: The value of most things fluctuates (goes up and down) and the increase in value of the piano is not realized until it is sold. Note: You only pay tax on the amount it increased in value. If the value of the property had decreased, then you would not be taxed on it at all. Change Facts of Problem (1): What if instead of finding $ in the piano, Cesarini found the original Mona Lisa. Held: Prob. 1 Changed Facts: There are a liquidity and valuation issues, i.e., would have to sell the painting to afford to pay the taxes on it. However, this is different b/c this is not the same item they actually purchased. They purchased a piano and this is the Mona Lisa, something completely different. Therefore, if you find something that is different than what you actually purchased, you have to include that in your gross income and pay taxes on it immediately (not when or if the item is sold ). - When you acquire something that you did not anticipate (painting) it is considered an increase in income and therefore you need to include it in your gross income. ii. Commissioner v. Glenshaw Glass Co. (1955) –“ accession to wealth, clearly realized, over which the taxpayer has a complete dominion” Facts: 1. ∆-taxpayer manufactures glass bottles and containers. 2. ∆ was suing another company for fraud and ultimately settled w/ the company for $800,000. 3. Of the $800,000, $324,000 represented payment of punitive damages for fraud. 4. ∆ did not report this as income in their tax return for the year and the Commissioner initiated these proceedings against ∆. Issue: Were the punitive damages includible in the taxpayer’s gross income? Rule: Gross income is defined as “undeniable accessions to wealth, clearly realized, and over which the taxpayers have complete dominion.” (3-PRONG RULE). (Galler adds- regardless of source) Held: Yes. If a taxpayer has: - an accession of wealth; - clearly realized; - the taxpayer has complete control over it; and - no matter its source; it must be included as gross income. Takeaway: 1. Reg. § 1.61-14(a) (pg. 901 Tax/Reg. Book) provides that “punitive damages, such as treble damages under the antitrust laws and exemplary damages for fraud are gross income.” 2. Galler sort of adds a fourth element to the test: “Regardless of the source.” *** THE SOURCE DOES NOT MATTER *** Problem 3 on Page 60 : Employee has worked for Employer’s business for 5 years at a salary of $80,000 per year. Another company is attempting to hire Employee but Employer persuades Employee to agree to stay at least 2 more years by giving Employee 2% of the company’s stock ($100,000), and by buying Employee’s wife a new car ($30,000). Issue: How much income does Employee realize from these transactions? Held: The Employee: (i) realizes $80,000 income for his salary; (ii) realizes $100,000 for the stock; and (iii) realizes $30,000 for the car.* *Who’s taxable on the car? See Old Colony Trust . “It is immaterial that the taxes were directly paid over to the Government.” (still were in exchange for his services). Employee is taxable on the car. It is taxable to the 4
employee b/c the wife is receiving the car as part of a BARGAIN between the employee and the employer FOR his services. iii. Old Colony Trust Co. v. Commissioner Facts: 1. Wood was the president of the American Woolen Company from 1918-1920. 2. On 8/3/1916, the American Woolen Co. adopted a resolution, which provided that the company would pay “any and all income taxes” due on the salary of Mr. Wood. 3. Pursuant to the resolution, the American Woolen Co. paid the IRS Mr. Wood’s fed. income tax on his salary. Issue 1: Did the employer’s payment of the taxes constitute additional gross income to Mr. Wood? Held 1: Yes. The satisfaction of a taxpayer’s obligation (taxes) by another person constitutes an economic benefit to the taxpayer, which results in income to the taxpayer. Issue 2: Was this a gift? Held 2: No, this was compensatory payment for services, no donative intent, not given from pure generosity. Problems on Page 60: Problem 4 Insurance Adjuster refers clients to an auto repair firm that gives Adjuster a kickback of 10% of billings on all referrals. (a) Does Adjuster have gross income? Yes. Glenshaw Glass “accession to wealth” and “complete dominion.” (b) Even if the arrangement violates local law? Yes. James v. U.S. (illegal gain is income). See also Reg. § 1.61-14(a) (Tax/Reg. book pg. 901). Problem 5 Owner agrees to rent Tenant her lake house for the summer for $4,000. (a) How much income does Owner realize if she agrees to charge only $1,000, if Tenant makes $3,000 worth of improvements to the house? $4,000. See Reg. §1.61-8(c) (pg. 899 Reg. and Tax Book). The Regulation provides that “If a lessee places improvements on real estate which constitute, in whole or in part, a substitute for rent, such improvement constitutes rental income to the lessor.” Note The $3,000 spent has nothing to do w/ the value of the house going up. Ex: Galler paints her son’s room black, costs $ but decreases value. (b) Is there a difference in result to Owner in (a), if Tenant effects exactly the same improvements but does all the labor himself and incurs only a total cost of $500? No difference. Still received $4,000 in value regardless of the incurred costs. (c) Are there any tax consequences to Tenant in part (b)? Tenant has $2,500 worth of income. It’s as if the landlord hired him. Takeaway: Cannot contract around the tax law by doing a non-cash payment. 2. Defining Fair Market Value - What a reasonable person, in the market for a product, would pay for the item. 5
Reg. § 20.2031-1(b) “The fair market value is the price at which property would change hands between a willing buyer and a willing seller, neither being under any compulsion to buy or sell and both having reasonable knowledge of relevant facts.” (pg. 1606 Tax and Reg. Book). Problem 2: You and a friend attend the taping of an Oprah Winfrey show, during the show Opera has all of the people in attendance reach under their seats to find keys to brand new automobiles worth over $28,000. Issue: Is this gross income? Held 2: Yes. See Glenshaw Glass. Additional Issue: What about fair market value for the car? If the car’s sticker price is $28,000, would you be taxed at $28,000 of gross income? No one ever pays full sticker price for a car. Prof. Galler: The bottom line we are stuck with is the sticker price b/c that number represents the most concrete proof of the value of the car. Note: It might be a different situation if the person immediately sold the car to a person willing to pay reasonable market value. 3. Income Without Receipt of Cash or Property i. Revenue Ruling 79-24 Situation 1 Facts: 1. In return for legal services performed by a lawyer for a painter, the painter agreed to paint the lawyer’s house. 2. Both the lawyer and the painter are members of a barter club, an organization that annually furnishes its members a directory of members and the services they provide. 3. All the members of the club are professional/trade persons. 4. Members contact other members directly and negotiate the value of the services to be performed. Situation 2 Facts: An owner of an apartment building received a work of art created by a professional artist in return for the rent-free use of an apartment for 6 months by the artist. Applicable Law: IRC § 61(a) applies (i.e., what constitutes “gross income.”) and Reg. § 1.61-2(d)(1) (pg. 896 Tax/Reg. Book) applies (i.e., how to calculate “gross income” when services are exchanged it’s FMV of the services are your gross income). Held 1: The fair market value of the services received by the lawyer and the painter are includible in their gross incomes under § 61(a). Held 2: The fair market value of the work of art and the 6 months fair rental value of the apartment are includible in the gross incomes of the apartment-owner and the artist under § 61(a). ii. Dean v. Commissioner Facts: 1. The taxpayer and his wife are the sole shareholders in a personal holding company called the Nemours Corporation. 6
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2. The real estate in issue was owned by the taxpayer’s wife prior to their marriage. 3. The wife and taxpayer continued to stay at the home after they married and the wife continued making improvements to the property. 4. In 1931, the Nemours Corp. was indebted to a bank for a large sum and the bank insisted that the house be transferred to the corporation. 5. The taxpayer and his wife did so, and continued to live at the house afterwards. Issue: Now that the house is “owned” by the Corporation, and the taxpayer and his wife are still living there, does the fair rental value that they would have to normally pay to live there constitute “gross income” which the taxpayer must realize as income? Reasoning: “We think that the real estate deeded to the corporation would clearly have been held to belong to it had the bank had occasion, which it did not, to take advantage of the corporation’s title to the property.” Held: Yes, we think the fair value of the occupancy of the home owned by the corporation was income to him. Ruling of Tax Court affirmed. Problem 1, pg. 63: Vegy grows vegetables in her garden. Does Vegy have gross income when : (a) Vegy harvests her crops? No. (b) Vegy and her family consume $100 worth of vegetables? No, this is imputed income. Imputed income is the value one experiences from performing services for oneself or using one’s own property. Imputed income is not considered income under our tax system. Not selling it, no income coming in (c) Vegy sells her vegetables for $100? Yes, accession to wealth. (d) Vegy exchanges $100 worth of vegetables for $100 worth of tuna? Yes, this income b/c you do not need to sell for a realization to occur. She is getting something of value which she otherwise would have to pay for. Problem 2, pg. 66: Doctor needs to have his income tax return prepared. Lawyer would like a general physical check up. Doctor would normally charge $200 for the physical and Lawyer would normally charge $200 for the income tax return preparation. (a) What tax consequences to each if they simply swap services w/out any money exchanging hands? Barter for services, $200 in income. See Revenue Ruling 79-24. (b) Does Lawyer realize any income when she fills out her own tax return? No, imputed income, i.e., a taxpayer’s performance of services for his/her personal benefit. C HAPTER 3. T HE E XCLUSION OF G IFTS AND I NHERITANCES A. Rules of Inclusion and Exclusion IRC §102: Gifts and Inheritances 7
(a) General Rule: Gross income does not include the value of property acquired by gift, bequest, devise or inheritance. (b) Income: Subsection (a) shall not exclude from gross income… (1) income from any property referred to in subsection (a); OR (2) where the gift, bequest, devise or inheritance is of income from property, the amount of such income. Where the payment, crediting or distribution of the gift, bequest, devise or inheritance out of income from property is made at intervals it shall be treated as income from property as defined in subsection (b)(2). (c) Employee Gifts: (1) In general: Subsection (a) shall not exclude from gross income any amount transferred by or for an employer to, or for the benefit of an employee. (2) Cross References Under §132(e), certain traditional retirement gifts are treated as de minimis fringe benefits; and under §74(c) certain employee achievement awards are non-taxable. Example 1: Uncle Harry died and left his securities worth $10,000 to his niece. The niece does not have gross income under §102(a). Example 2: The securities that Uncle Harry left his niece now produce dividends for the niece. The niece has gross income from the dividends under §102(b)(1). Example 3: What if Uncle Harry left her the right only to the income from the securities under a trust in which the securities themselves were retained by a third party but would give the income from the securities to the niece? The niece has gross income under §102(b)(2). B. Gifts 1. The Income Tax Meaning of Gift i. Commissioner v. Duberstein Fact Pattern 1 (Duberstein): 1. Taxpayer was President of the Duberstein Iron & Metal Company. 2. Taxpayer’s company did business w/ Mohawk Metal Corporation. 3. The President of Mohawk Metal Corporation was named Berman. 4. While conducting business, Berman asked the taxpayer if he knew of any potential customers, and the taxpayer provided Berman with a list of customers. 5. Berman called back the taxpayer and said that the list of customers was so helpful that he wanted to give the taxpayer a Cadillac as a gift. 6. The taxpayer testified that he did not think Berman would have sent him the Cadillac if he had not provided Berman with the list of customers. Berman also deducted the cost of the Cadillac as a business expense. (bad fact for taxpayer). Proc. Post.: The taxpayer did not include the value of the Cadillac in gross income for 1951, deeming it a gift. The Commissioner asserted a deficiency for the car’s value against the taxpayer, and the Tax Court affirmed the Commissioner’s determination.6th Circuit reverses. Fact Pattern 2 (Stanton): 1. Taxpayer was employed at Trinity Church as comptroller of the Church and was President of Trinity Operating Company, which the Church had set up as a fully owned subsidiary to manage its real estate holdings. 2. The taxpayer resigned in 1942 and the Church gave the taxpayer $22,000 as “gratuity.” 8
3. Director of the Operating Company said that “we were all unanimous in wishing to make Mr. Stanton a gift,” because he had loyally and faithfully served the Church. 4. However, there was also suggestions of some ill-feeling between the taxpayer and the directors, due to issues arising out of the recent termination of another employee. Proc. Post.: The Commissioner asserted a deficiency against the taxpayer after the taxpayer failed to include the payments in question in gross income. The taxpayer paid off the deficiency and then sued in the E.D.N.Y. for a refund. The trial judge, sitting w/out a jury, made the finding that the payments were a “gift” and entered judgment for the taxpayer. 2nd Circuit reversed. Gov’t (Commissioner) arg.: The Court should apply a new test to determine whether or not something constitutes a gift. The proposed test is: “Gifts should be defined as transfers of property made for personal as distinguished from business reasons.” Reasoning: Court rejects the government’s proposed test. Gift (Rule 1): Proceeds from a “detached and disinterested generosity, out of affection, respect, admiration, charity or like impulses.” The most critical consideration... is the transferor’s intention. Factor: Whether the corporation who transferred the property treats the payment as a business deduction. But the conclusion whether a transfer amounts to a “gift” is one that must be reached on consideration of all the factors. Rule 2: Decision of the issue presented in these cases must be based ultimately on the application of the fact- finding tribunal’s experience with the “mainsprings of human conduct to the totality of the facts of each case.” (whether a transfer of money/property constitutes a gift within the exclusion of §102(a) is an issue of fact to be determined by the trial court/jury). Rule 3: Appellate review of determinations in this field must be quite restricted. Where a jury has tried the matter upon correct instructions, the only inquiry is whether it cannot be said that reasonable men could reach differing conclusions on the issue. Where the trial has been by a judge without a jury, the judge’s finding must stand unless clearly erroneous. Held 1: Applying the test to Duberstein, it cannot be said that the conclusion of the Tax Court was “clearly erroneous.” The Tax Court was warranted in concluding that despite the characterization of the transfer of the Cadillac by the parties and the absence of any obligation, even of a moral nature, to make it, it was at bottom a recompense for Duberstein’s past services, or an inducement for him to be of further service in the future. Held 2: Applying the test to Stanton, it is critical that the District Court made only the simple and unelaborated finding that the transfer in question was a “gift.” Such conclusory, general findings do not constitute compliance w/ FRCP 52’s direction. Remanded to the D.C. for further proceedings to give a more detailed finding. (D.C. finds it was a gift). Takeaway: 1. Professor says Stanton would probably now fall under §102(c). 2. Under §274(b), if Berman gives the car to Duberstein and says “this is a gift,” Berman cannot deduct the cost as a business expense. If Berman gives Duberstein the car and deducts it as a business expense, Duberstein cannot avoid paying taxes by claiming it is a gift. 9
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3. Corporations cannot make gifts b/c they are not “real people.” (can give to charity, i.e., Ronald McDonald House for policy reasons). Problem 2 (pg. 76): At the Heads of Eye Casino in Vegas, Lucky Louie gives the maître d’ a $50 tip to assure a good table, and gives the croupier a $50 “toke” after a good night with the cubes. Does either the maître d’ or the croupier have gross income? Both of the employees at the casino have gross income because these tips are not given through pure generosity. See Olk v. U.S. Problem 1 (pg. 78): Employer gives all her employees, except her son, a case of wine at Christmas, worth $120. She gives Son, also an employee, a case of wine worth $700. Does Son have gross income? Under Reg. §1.102-1(f)(2) (pg. 931 in Tax/Reg. Book), Son would have to prove that the wine was transferred to him and is substantially attributable to the familial relationship of the parties and not their employment. Factors to consider for Problem 1 (i) what position does the son occupy, i.e., janitor vs. manager; (ii) did it come from Mom’s business or personal account?; (iii) did company take a deduction?; (iv) where/when did he get the wine, i.e., office party or under tree on Xmas? Employee Gifts: Anything an employee receives by an employer is includible Employer can take a deduction, so the employee must include C HAPTER 4. E MPLOYEE B ENEFITS A. E XCLUSION FOR F RINGE B ENEFITS 10
- Section 132 of the IRC is typically implicated whenever there is an employer-employee relationship, and the principal question is whether a particular expense qualifies under §132 (or some other fringe benefit exclusion rule). IRC § 132: Certain Fringe Benefits Contains seven categories of fringe benefits (which include employee benefits other than salary) IRC § 132(a) lists them and the subsequent sections define what they are: (1) no-additional-cost service (2) qualified employee discount (3) working condition fringe (4) de minimis fringe (5) qualified transportation fringe (6) qualified moving expense reimbursement (7) qualified retirement planning services ** Remember, IRC § 132 is an example of a Gross Income Statutory EXCLUSION ** Policy: One policy reason to tax fringe benefits is to prevent certain employees from getting away with free things just because they work for a particular employer (ex: Saks fifth employee). Argument not to include benefits in Gross Income is that employers often provide these benefits for business reasons and not a form of compensation to employees. Valid business reasons that benefit for the employer Ex: Saks benefits heavily from having its employees wear its merchandise. ** A Fringe Benefit MUST fit into one of the categories, otherwise it’s likely taxable ** IRC § 132(j)(1) Non-discrimination rule Only applies to 132(a)(1) & 132(a)(2) (No additional cost & qualified employee discount). Does not allow benefits to be given unless it is offered on substantially the same terms to each member of a group of employees without discrimination Benefit CANNOT only be given to highly compensated employees (defined by § 414(q)), and not other groups. - In the first 2 classifications of fringe benefits under §132(a)(1)-(2) (no-additional-cost services and qualified employee discounts) the definition of an “employee” is expanded to include not only persons currently employed, but also retired and disabled ex-employees, the surviving spouses of employees or retired or disabled ex-employees, as well as spouses and dependent children of employees. See §132(h). §132(a)(1) No-Additional-Cost Services. - The first type of fringe benefit excluded from an employee’s gross income is services provided to an employee by an employer. - Applicable regulation is Reg. §1.132-2(a). - A no-additional-cost-service is one regularly provided to the public by the employer: (i) The value is excluded from gross income if the services are offered for sale to customers in the same line of business as that in which the employee is performing services. §132(b)(1); (ii) which the employer can provide to the employee w/out incurring substantial additional cost. §132(b) (2); and (iii) in the case of highly compensated employees, the services are provided on a nondiscriminatory basis. §132(j)(1). Factors for determining “substantial” additional cost: (i) amount of revenue an employer loses b/c of providing the service to the employee rather than to a paying customer; and (ii) the amount of time spent by the other employees in providing a service for the employer. 11
Examples: (i) airline tickets to a stewardess; (ii) hotel rooms to employees of the hotel; (iii) free telephone service to the telephone company employees. - The services must be provided in the same line of business that the employee is employed in. Thus, if an employee is a stewardess for an airline owned by a company that also owns a cruise ship, free standby flights for the employee, his spouse and his dependents are excludable, but a free cruise is not. - However , employers may enter into reciprocal arrangements , in writing, that all their respective employees to take advantage of each other’s benefits. §132(i)(1)-(2). Thus, a stewardess could exclude the value of standby flights on another airline, if there is the requisite written agreement between the airlines and neither airline incurs any substantial additional cost. §132(a)(2) Qualified Employee Discounts. - There are 3 requirements for a qualified employee discount: (i) An employee discount: This is the amount of the discount to employees, determined by comparing the price paid by the employees to the price paid by the general public. §132(c)(3); (ii) Qualified property or services: These are services and property (other than real estate and securities) that the employer sells in the ordinary course of business. §132(c)(4); and (iii) Limitation on discount: For services, the discount must not be in excess of 20% of the price at which the services are offered by the employer to customers. §132(c)(1)(B). For property, the discount must not be greater than the “gross profit percentage” at which the property is sold to the public. §132(c) (1)(A). - With regards to property , “gross profit percentage” is determined as follows: aggregate sales price MINUS cost (sale discount) aggregate sales price §132(a)(3) Working Condition Fringe. - This is a benefit to the employee that, if they had paid for it personally, would have generated a business deduction as a trade or business expense under §162 or as depreciation under §167 . See §132(d). - §162 allows taxpayers to deduct all the “ordinary and necessary” expenses paid or incurred during the taxable year in carrying on any trade/business. - §167 allows taxpayers to take depreciation deductions on property used in a trade/business or held for the production of income. Examples: (i) use of a company car or airplane for business purposes; (ii) an employer’s subscription to a business periodical for the employee; (iii) a bodyguard provided to an employee for security reasons; or (iv) on- the-job training provided by an employer. §132(a)(4) De minimis fringe. Reg. §1.132-6(e) Provides examples (i) occasional parties; (ii) occasional theater/sporting event tickets; (iii) coffee; (iv) doughnuts; (v) soft drinks; and (vi) local telephone calls. §132(e)(1)-(2) De minimis fringe defined. 12
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(1) “ De minimis fringe” means any property or service the value of which is so small as to make accounting for it unreasonable or impracticable. (2) The operation by an employer of any eating facility for employees shall be treated as a de minimis fringe if: (A) such facility is located on/near the business premise of the employer; AND (B) revenue derived from such facility normally equals/exceeds the direct operating costs of such facility. This section involves a provision of goods or services to the employee with a value so small that the accounting for the benefit would be unreasonable or administratively impractical. §132(e)(1). However, a cash payment cannot be a de minimis fringe benefit regardless of amount. §132(a)(5) Qualified Transportation Fringe. - This includes employer-provided transit passes, transportation by van from home to office, or parking near the employer’s premises, within specific dollar limits . §132(f)(1). - Qualified Parking is defined as parking provided to an employee on/near the business premises of the employer. §132(f)(5)(c). - A commuter highway vehicle must have a seating capacity of at least 6 adult passengers (not including the driver) and at least 80% of the expected mileage of the vehicle must be incurred in transporting employees to and from work. §132(f)(5)(b). (A taxi or limo with a driver thus is not a commuter highway vehicle). - Qualified bicycle commuting reimbursement means reimbursement of an employee’s reasonable annual expenses to purchase, maintain, or store a bicycle that the employee regularly uses to commute from home to work. §132(f)(5)(F)(i). - §132 caps the exclusion for qualified transportation fringe benefits. If the transportation benefit received by the employee exceeds the exclusion limits, the employee is taxed on the excess. §132(f)(2), (f)(5)(F)(ii). §132(j)(4) On-premises athletic facilities. - The value of the facility to the employee may be excluded if it is on the business premises of the employer, is operated by the employer, and is used mostly be employees. §132(j)(4). §132(l) Indicates that if another Code section provides an exclusion for a type of benefit, Section 132 is generally inapplicable to that type of benefit; an ad hoc provision prevails over the general rules of Section 132. Problem 1 – pg. 99-100 : (a) Employee of a national hotel chain stays in one of the chain’s hotels in another town rent-free while on vacation. The hotel has several empty rooms. Excludable? -This is a no additional cost service under §132(a)(1). Under §132(b), the room is a service provided by the employer and it’s in the same line of business in which they work. Also, the employer has not incurred a substantial additional cost b/c there are extra rooms. (b) Same as (a), above, except that the desk clerk bounces a paying guest so Employee can stay rent-free. -This does not constitute a no additional cost service. Under §132(b)(2), this is now a substantial cost that the 13
Employer is incurring. Under Reg. §1.132-2(a)(5) (pg. 954 Tax/Reg. Book), the hotel is incurring a substantial additional cost by forgoing revenue when they remove the guest from their hotel room to host the employee. (c) Same as (a), above, except that Employee pays the bill and receives a cash rebate from the chain. -Same outcome as in (a). Under Reg. §1.132-2(a)(3) (pg. 954 Tax/Reg. Book), the “exclusion also applies if the benefit is provided through a partial or total cash rebate of an amount paid for the service. (d) Same as (a), above, except that Employee’s spouse and dependent children travelling without Employee use the room on their vacation. -Same outcome here as in (a) b/c under §132(h)(2), spouses and dependent children are treated as employees for purposes of §132(a)(1) and are thus included in the “no additional cost” fringe benefit exclusion. (e) Same as (a), above, except that Employee stays in the hotel of a rival chain under a written reciprocal agreement under which employees pay 50% of the normal rent. -Same outcome here as in (a) b/c under §132(i), all the rules of §132(b) apply AND there needs to be a written agreement b/twn the 2 employers. Also, see Reg. §1.132-2(b)(1-3): (1) the service provided to such employee by the unrelated employer is the same type of service generally provided to nonemployee customers by both businesses; (2) both employers are parties to a written reciprocal agreement; and (3) neither employer incurred any substantial additional cost. (pg. 955 Tax/Reg. Book). (f) Same as (a), above, except that Employee is an officer in the hotel chain and rent-free use is provided only to officers of the chain and all other employees pay 60% of the normal rent. -Under §132(j)(1), no additional cost services provided to “highly compensated” employees of a company must be provided on substantially equal terms to other employees. Under Reg. §1.132-8(a)(2)(i ), the employee must include the entire value of renting the room in his gross income. (pg. 964 Tax/Reg. Book). NOTE Being an officer does not necessarily mean you are a “highly compensated” employee. (e.g., banks have so many vice presidents, that does not make them “highly compensated”). (g) Hotel chain is owned by a conglomerate which also owns a shipping line. The facts are the same in (a) above, except that Employee works for the shipping line. -The cost of the employee’s stay in the hotel is includible in their gross income. This does not satisfy the “same line of business” standard in §132(b)(1), so it does not qualify as a “no additional cost” fringe benefit. (h) Same as (g), above, except that Employee is comptroller of the conglomerate. -Under Reg. §1.132-4(a)(1)(iv), the employee may exclude this rent-free stay from his gross income b/c he performs “substantial services that directly benefit more than one line of business.” (pg. 958 Tax/Reg. Book). (i) Employee sells insurance and employer Insurance company allows Employee 20% off of the $1,000 cost of the policy. -Employee may exclude this from their gross income as a “qualified employee discount” under §132(a)(2) b/c it’s a service that the employer regularly provides and is not in excess of 20% of their policy rate. See §132(c). 14
NOTE Galler argues imputed income is a possibility here as well. Kind of like a lawyer filing their own tax returns. (j) Employee is a salesman in a home furnishings store. The prior year the store had $1,000,000 in sales and a $600,000 cost of goods sold. Employee buys a $2,000 sofa from Employer for $1,000. -Under §132(c)(1)(A), the Employer’s gross profit percentage = 40%. ($1,000,000 aggregate sales price MINUS $600,000 DIVIDED by $1,000,000 aggregate sales price). See §132(c)(2)(A)(i)-(ii) (formula). The Employer can thus offer its employees tax free discounts of up to 40%. Here, the employee is receiving a 50% discount, so the employee must report $200 in his gross income when he buys the couch. See also Reg. §1.132-3(e). (k) Employee attends a business convention in another town. Employer picks up Employee’s costs. -Employee may exclude this from gross income under §132(a)(3) as a “working condition fringe.” Employee may exclude the cost b/c under §162(a)(2), the employee would be able to deduct this as a “traveling expense.” To be excludable under §132(d), the Employer must have paid for this for the employee. If employee had paid for this herself, it’s deductible under §162. (l) Employer has a bar and provides the Employees with happy hour cocktails at the end of each week’s work. -Employee may not exclude this as a “ de minimis fringe benefit” under §132(a)(4) b/c under Reg. §1.132-6(e) (1) the exclusion applies only to “occasional cocktail parties.” A cocktail party at the end of every week is not “occasional.” §132(e) defines “ de minimis fringe benefit” and states that it takes into account the “frequency with which similar fringes are provided...” Here, this is occurring ever week. (m) Employer gives Employee a case of scotch each Christmas. - Employee may not exclude this as a “ de minimis fringe benefit” under §132(a)(4) b/c under Reg. §1.132-6(e) (1) the exclusion only applies to “traditional birthday or holiday gifts of property with a low fair market value.” (pg. 963 Tax/Reg. Book). NOTE Key b/twn high and low value is whether its “administratively impracticable” to keep track of. (e.g., cookies on a tray at a party vs. cases of scotch). (n) Employee is an officer of corporation which pays Employee’s parking fees at a lot one block from the corporate headquarters. Non-officers pay their own parking fees. Assume there is no post-2001 inflation. - Under §132(a)(5) , this constitutes a qualified transportation fringe if all of the following are met: Under §132(f)(1)(C), qualified parking is encompassed w/in the definition of a qualified transportation fringe. Under §132(f)(5)(C), qualified parking must be on or near the business premise of the Employer, or near a location from which the employee commutes to work. Under §132(f)(2)(B), there is a $175 limit on parking per month. NOTE Inflation adjustment under §132(f)(6) now allows $255 to be excludable. Caution: Although it seems that there is a non-discrimination problem here, the non-discrimination provision DOES NOT apply b/c § 132(j)(1) discrimination rule only applies to no additional cost and qualified employee discount fringes. 15
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(o) Employer provides Employee w/ $185 worth of vouchers each month for commuting on a public mass transit system. Assume there is no post-2001 inflation. -Employee must include $10 for the year in his gross income b/c under §132(f)(2)(A), the employee cannot exceed $175 per month in transit pass $ from their employer. BUT, if accounting for inflation under §132(f)(6), it would all be excludable b/c $255 is now the limit. (p) Employer puts in a gym at the business facilities for the use of the employees and their families. -Under §132(j)(4)(B)(i)-(iii) , the employees may exclude the value of their use of the gym b/c it is: (i) on the premises of the business; (ii) operated by the employer; and (iii) is substantially used by the employees and their families. Change facts of (p) Google provides massages to its employees. It’s gross income, but is it excludable? -No. This would not constitute an athletic facility for purposes of §132(j)(4). B. Exclusions for Meals and Lodging IRC § 119(a): Meals or lodging furnished for the convenience of the employer Meals and lodging furnished to employee, his spouse, and his dependents pursuant to his employment shall be excluded from employee’s gross income but only if: 1. In the case of meals, they are furnished on the business premises of the employer. 2. In the case of lodging, the employee is required to accept such lodging on the business premises of his employer as a condition of his employment. Meals: IRC § 119 grants an exclusion from gross income of the value of meals furnished to an employee (and family) if: 1. Meals are furnished on the business premises 2. Meals are furnished for the convenience of the employer. Lodging: IRC § 119 grants an exclusion from gross income of the value of lodging furnished to an employee (and family) if three conditions are met: 1. Lodging is on the business premises of the employer; Ownership is not the test of business premises, the term means either at a place where the employee performs a significant portion of his duties or where the employer performs a significant portion of his business; 2. Employee is “required to accept such lodging as a condition of his employment.” The “condition of his employment” means that the employee must “be required to accept the lodging in order to enable him properly to perform the duties of his employment.” AND 3. Lodging is furnished for the convenience of the employer. Lodging will be regarded as furnished to enable the employee properly to perform the duties of his employment when, for example, the lodging is furnished because the employee is required to be available for duty at all times. Problem 1 – pg. 103 Employer provides Employee and Spouse and Child a residence on Employer’s business premises, having a rental value of $15,000 per year, but charging Employee only $6,000. 16
(a) What result if the nature of Employee’s work does not require Employee to live on the premises as a condition of employment? - Under §119(a)(2), the job must require the employee to accept housing as a condition of employment. Thus, the employee must include this in gross income. (b) What result if Employer and Employee simply agreed to a clause in the employment contract requiring Employee to live in the residence? - Under §119(b)(1), the language of the contract is not determinative. IRS will look at the nature of the job to see if employees are actually required to live on the premises. Thus, Employee must include this in gross income. (c) What result if Employee’s work and contract require Employee to live on the premises and Employer furnishes Employee and family $6,000 worth of groceries during the year? - The lodging is okay under §119(a)(2). However, there is a jurisdictional split as to whether groceries constitute “meals” w/in the meaning of §119(a)(1). (d) What result if Employer transferred the residence to Employee in fee simple in the year that Employee accepted the position and commenced work? Does the value of the residence constitute excluded lodging? - No. §119(a)(2) requires the lodging to be “on the business premises” of the Employer, and the property now belongs to the Employee. Problem 2 – pg. 104 Planner incorporated her motel business and the corporation purchased a piece of residential property adjacent to the motel. The corporation contract “required” Planner to use the residence and also furnished her meals. Planner worked at the motel and was on call 24 hours a day. May Planner exclude the value of the residence or the meals or both from her gross income? First, Planner is an employee, b/c although she incorporated the business, the corporation is now a separate entity for purposes of the law. Second, need to look at why she is being provided with meals and lodging, which is a factual question. 1. On the Business Premises: Certain facts could likely establish that even though the residence is adjacent to the motel, it is still on the business premises. We would need to examine all of the facts to ascertain whether business activity occurs on that adjacent residence. Could be customary in the industry. 2. Convenience of the Employer? If employee owns 100% of the stock and she incorporated the business, then who is convenience for? See Hatt case (custom of industry again). If she needs to be on call 24 hours/day, then could be for convenience of employer 3. Condition of Employment? This element is met, as illustrated in the facts. i. Hatt v. Commissioner Facts: 17
1. In 1957, taxpayer (Hatt) married Dorothy Echols, who was the President and majority stockholder of Johann Corporation. 2. After their marriage, Dorothy transferred 130 shares to Hatt, and Hatt then became the President and general manager of Johann Corporation. 3. Hatt moved into an apartment located in the building used by Johann for its funeral home business and Hatt resided there from 1957-1962. 4. Johann Corporation’s main phone line was in Hatt’s apartment and the office. Hatt answered the phone in the apartment when the office was closed and met there with customers after regular business hours. Issue: Is Hatt taxable on the fair rental value of the apartment, or is it excludable from gross income under §119(a)(2) as lodging? Gov’t arg.: The taxpayer cannot satisfy the last two requirements, because the taxpayer owns the business in issue and thus he determines what is “convenient.” IRC §119(a)(2) §119 grants an exclusion from gross income of the value of lodging furnished to an employee if three conditions are met: (1) The lodging is on the business premise of the employer; (2) the employee is required to accept such lodging as a condition of his employment; and (3) the lodging is furnished for the convenience of the employer. Held: Excludable under §119(a)(2). The fact that Hatt was the president/majority stockholder of Johann Corp. necessitate careful scrutiny of the arrangement but does not alone disqualify Hatt for the exclusion. The funeral business is of such character that it requires someone to be in attendance 24 hours a day to answer phone calls, etc. Takeaway: 1. Court looks at the nature of the job. Hatt’s control over the business did not disqualify him from the exclusion. 2. With regards to “on the business premises” requirement, Prof. Galler says that the text is oversimplified in Commissioner v. Anderson. Prof. Galler says that living two blocks away from the business would be okay, so long as it’s being used for the business. Problem 3 – pg. 104 Facts: 1. Kowalski was a NJ state trooper who, while on call, was required to eat his meals at a public eating place within his assigned patrol area. 2. Kowalski received meal allowances in an amount equal to approximately 19% of his cash wages. Issue: Are such cash reimbursements included in his gross income, or are they excluded under §119(a)(1)? (1) Business premises? (2) For convenience of employer? Held 1: Circuit split on this issue. However, Prof. Galler believes that the “business premises” here would be the precinct to which the officer is assigned. Held 2: Want to keep cops on the highway at all times in case of a call, so this element arguably could be satisfied if business premises element is. Takeaway: 18
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1. Under Reg. §1.119-1(a)(2)(i) (Tax. & Reg. Book pg. 939), meals furnished by an employer will be regarded as furnished for the convenience of the employer if such meals are furnished for a “substantial non- compensatory business reason.” 2. Under Reg. §1.119-1(a)(2)(ii), meals will be regarded as furnished for a “substantial non- compensatory business reason” of the employer when the meals are furnished to the employee during his working hours to have the employee available for emergency call during his meal period. 3. Court in this case ruled that the meal allowances (essentially cash payments) don’t count as meals under the statute. Problem 4 – pg. 104 Facts: 1. Doodle, a high-tech firm in Silicon Valley, hires Jacques and his staff from an exclusive restaurant to provide gourmet meals at its offices around the clock to its employees. 2. Doodle believes the meals will incentivize employees to work longer hours, shorten the time for meal breaks, attract new employees, and help it remain competitive with other Silicon Valley high-tech firms. Issue: Are the employees’ meals excluded under §119(a)(1)? - Issue here is to determine if this is for the convenience of the employer? Held: Under Reg. §1.119-1(a)(2)(iii), this is not excludable b/c “meals will be regarded as furnished for a compensatory business reason of the employer when the meals are furnished to the employee to promote the morale or goodwill of the employee, or to attract prospective employees.” Here, the facts show the employer clearly did this to promote morale. 19
C HAPTER 5. A WARDS A. Prizes IRC § 74: Prizes and Awards IRC § 74(a) General Rule: - Gross income includes amounts received as prizes and awards. IRC § 74(b) Exception for certain prizes and awards transferred to charities: - Gross income does not include amounts received as prizes and awards made primarily in recognition of religious, charitable, scientific, educational, artistic, literary, or civic achievement but only if… (1) Recipient was selected without any action on his part to enter the contest or proceeding; (2) Recipient is not required to render substantial future services as a condition to receiving the prize or award; AND (3) Prize or award is transferred by payor to a governmental unit described in (1) or (2) of section 170(c) pursuant to a designation made by recipient. ** Prizes/Awards usually not considered gifts because no detached & disinterested generosity ** Galler Hypos from Class: If an Olympic Athlete wins the Gold Medal and additionally receives $25,000 for winning the gold, is it included in his Gross Income? Under §61(a), the general rule, its gross income. But is it excluded under IRC §74(b)? Sports is not listed as an achievement under IRC §74(b). An argument could be made that the award is made in recognition of a civic achievement, BUT , IRC §74(b)(1) would NOT ALLOW the Olympic athlete to exclude the winnings from Gross Income because there is clearly an action on the athlete’s part to enter the contest. TAKEAWAY Under IRC §74(d), “gross income shall not include any award, or any prize money won in the Olympics.” 2. President Obama won the Nobel Peace Prize and was also given $1.4 million. Obama donated the prize/money to an approved charity, which he designated, so he was excluded from including the award/prize in his Gross Income pursuant to IRC §74(b). If Obama kept the money, he would have had to include the $1.4 million in his Gross Income. The only way the winner can escape an inclusion in gross income is never to receive award. However, the designation of the recipient can be made before or after the taxpayer is aware of being the recipient of the award. Problem 1 –pg. 110 Facts: 1. Each year national sportswriters get together and select the single most outstanding amateur athlete in the country and award that person a check for $5,000. 2. Michael, a talented swimmer, has been selected for this year’s award. 3. The award is given with the stipulation that the winner deliver a 15 minute “acceptance speech” at an awards banquet. 4. Michael, essentially giving an acceptable rejection “acceptance speech,” designates the Special Olympics, a charity under §170, to receive the $5,000 award. 5. The sportswriters send the check to the Special Olympics. 20
Issue: Will Michael be able to exclude the $5,000 from his gross income? Held 1: It arguably falls under the category of civic achievement in §74(b). Held 2: It was selected without any action on Michael’s part to enter the contest pursuant to §74(b)(1). Held 3: The prize is being transferred to a charity pursuant to §74(b)(3). Held 4: It is NOT LIKELY that the acceptance speech is substantial future service as a condition to receiving the award under §74(b)(2). Key here is to assume that the award is made primarily in recognition of civic achievement. Bottom line: Michael’s award will be excluded from Gross Income pursuant to IRC §74(b). i. McDonnell v. Commissioner Facts: 1. DECO is a sales company which sold coolers door to door through territorial salesmen and also employed home office salesmen. 2. DECO created a competition for territorial salesmen only, which provided a trip to Hawaii for the top 11 salesmen. 3. DECO decided that 1 home office salesmen would be picked at random for every 3 contest winners to go on the trip to make sure every contest winner enjoyed themselves. 4. The wives of the home office salesmen were also invited b/c DECO felt it would be impossible for the salesmen alone to host a trip for couples. Issue: Was the home office salesman’s trip (taxpayer) includable in gross income under §74(a) as a prize or award? Holding: The Expenses for a trip issued to an employee are not includable in gross income where an employee’s duties are substantially connected to business affairs even if he was selected randomly. Just b/c it’s called a trip/award does not make it so for tax purposes. Analysis: The mere fact that this couple was selected at random does not automatically make it a prize. The method of selection was founded on a sound business reason (to choose those who were to serve DECO’s business objectives) The fact that the trip was a vacation for contest winners does not necessarily make it a vacation for petitioners. The right to go carried with it the duty to go. There is not the slightest suggestion that the trip which the petitioners took was conceived of as disguised remuneration to them, in fact it was essentially a command performance to work. The Court found it noteworthy that neither went swimming or shopping in their determination that this was a business trip. “Petitioners herein were expected to devote substantially all of their time on the trip to the performance of duties on behalf of DECO in order to achieve DECO’s business objectives.” B. Qualified Scholarships - §117 General Rule: Gross income does not include any amount received as a qualified scholarship by an individual who is a candidate for a degree at an educational organization described in section 170(b)(1)(A)(ii). Note: Similar to awards, there must be no obligation to do anything to be considered as a qualified scholarship. If the receiver of the award is obligated to perform, it will be included in gross income. If purely out of good will, will be excluded. 21
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C HAPTER 6. G AIN F ROM D EALINGS IN P ROPERTY A. Factors in the Determination of Gain IRC §1001(a): Determination of amount of and recognition of gain or loss Gain from the sale or disposition of property is the excess of the “amount realized” over the “adjusted basis.” GAIN = A/R – A/B LOSS = A/B – A/R Loss is the excess of the adjusted basis over the amount realized. IRC § 1001(b): “Amount Realized” - Defined (Pg. 604 in Tax/Reg. Book). - In order to calculate the realized gain or loss, the amount realized must be determined. The amount realized is the total value that the taxpayer receives in the transaction in exchange for the property transferred. The taxpayer can receive cash, property, services, and the assumption of liabilities as part of the exchange. See also Reg. §1.001-1, -2. (excluding money for real property taxes—see statute). Foreshadow: According to §1001(c): There is a presumption that all gains realized are recognized, but losses are not recognized unless there is a specific section so providing (this comes into play in transactions between spouses). IRC § 1011: Adjusted Basis for determining gain or loss - The adjusted basis of property is its basis when acquired by the taxpayer (§1012) and adjusted thereafter as required by §1016. Adjusted basis is the way the IRS keeps track of a taxpayer’s unrecovered economic investment in property for purposes of calculating the taxpayer’s gain or loss upon sale or exchange of the property. IRC § 1012: Basis of property – Cost The basis of property shall be the cost of such property. B. Determination of Basis 1. Cost as Basis: Hypo: LG is swapping stock with AF. The FMV of LG’s stock is $25,000 but she purchased it for $19,000. AF bought her stock for $30,000 and it is now only worth $25,000. Analysis: LG A/B = $19,000 A/R = $25,000 Gain = $6,000 There is a realization event here b/c this is an arm’s length transaction that was bargained with best interests in mind. LG has realized a gain when they swap stocks b/c AF has given her something worth $25,000. LG’s basis is the FMV of the stock on the date received. Note: This is different than the piano case (where you have cash in hand) b/c stock values fluctuate. If LG, at the time of the swap, reported the gain of $6,000, the swap is considered a transaction…then your new adjusted basis is $25,000 b/c you already paid taxes on the $6,000. AF would report a loss of $5,000 at the time of the swap and now his adjusted basis is $25,000. Basis (cost), in a tax context, has its own meaning. Basis is a mechanism for making sure that the same dollars aren’t taxed twice, and in some cases the mechanism that the proper amount is taxed once. AF A/B = $30,000 A/R = $25,000 Loss = $5,000 22
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i. Philadelphia Park Amusement Co. v. U.S. Facts: 1. Taxpayer built the Strawberry Bridge over a river in Philadelphia, PA at a cost of $381,000. 2. In 1934, it deeded the bridge to the city of Philadelphia in exchange for a 10-year extension of its franchise to operate a passenger railway over the bridge. 3. In 1946, w/ 3 years left in the franchise, the taxpayer abandoned their railway franchise on the bridge and arranged for bus transportation for their visitors to get to their amusement park. 4. Taxpayer (amusement park) then asserted a loss upon the abandonment of the remaining 3- year franchise. Issue: What is the taxpayer’s adjusted basis in the 10-year railroad franchise at the time that the Philadelphia Amusement Co. acquired the rights to it and transferred ownership of the bridge to the City? Analysis: The transaction was a taxable event b/c Philadelphia Park realized either a gain or a loss. In order to avoid the double counting of a gain or loss, the cost basis of the property received in a taxable exchange is the FMV of the property received in the exchange. All you need is the value of 1 to determine the value of the other (it’s the same) In this case, the court realized that they could figure out the value of the bridge in some way, shape or form and the franchise’s value can then be assumed as the same. The court also stated that if, for some reason, you cannot value the property, the original basis can be used as the basis for the newly acquired property. Holding: When two unrelated parties engage in an ARMS LENGTH property for property exchange it is appropriate to conceive that the parties are both acting in their best interest, therefore all that is needed is the value of ONE of the pieces of property and the value of the other will be PRESUMED THE SAME and used as the basis for both in the property. Takeaway: Thus, in this case, you only need to determine the value of the one property (bridge). Court says you can bring in experts about the value of the bridge and that will determine its FMV. Once the FMV of the bridge is determined at the time of the transaction, then the FMV of the franchise will be the same, and that will be the taxpayer’s basis. Problem 1 - Pgs. 120-121 1. Owner purchases some land for $10,000 and later sells it for $16,000. (a) Determine the amount of Owner’s gain on the sale. A/R = $16,000 A/B = $10,000 Gain = $6,000 Note: When you sell, you are always talking about adjusted basis. Look at the original basis, then take into account any other adjustments made, which here, there were none. (b) What difference in result in (a), above, if Owner purchased the land by paying $1,000 for an option to purchase the land for an additional $9,000 and subsequently exercised the option? Same result b/c anything that it costs somebody in order to acquire the item is included in basis. SO, A/B = $10,000 ($9,000 PLUS $1,000) A/R = $16,000 Therefore there is still a taxable gain of $6,000. So, NO DIFFERENCE. (c) What result to Owner in (b), above, if rather than ever actually acquiring the land, Owner sold the option to Investor for $1,500? 23
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The option itself becomes the property that is sold. A/R = $1,500 A/B = $1,000 Gain = $500 (d) What difference in result (a), above, if Owner purchased the land by making a $2,000 cash payment from Owner’s funds and an $8,000 payment by borrowing $8,000 from the bank in a recourse mortgage (on which Owner is personally liable)? Would it make any difference if the mortgage was a non-recourse liability (on which only the land was security for the obligation)? The basis is still $10,000, amount realized is still $16,000, and gain is still $6,000 The amount you put down in cash and the amount you borrow in a mortgage COMBINE to form your basis. Based on the fact that you have an obligation to pay back the mortgage. As we see later, no difference between nonrecourse and recourse mortgages. (e) What result in (a), above, if Owner purchased the land for $10,000, spent $2,000 in clearing the land prior to its sale, and sold it for $18,000? According to §1016: Adjustments to Basis: §1016(a)(1) Increase in basis for capital expenditures: When you pay something that improves the property in some way, that amount is allowed to be added to basis. Therefore in this case the amount realized would be $18,000 and the adjusted basis would be $12,000 (Cost of $10,000 PLUS $2,000 improvement). Therefore the realized gain would still only be $6,000 (18K – 12K). §1016(a)(2) Decrease in basis for depreciation. IRC § 1016: Adjustments to Basis - Proper adjustments to basis shall be made for expenditures, receipts, losses, or other items, properly chargeable to capital account, but no adjustment shall be made for taxes or other carrying charges in §266, or for expenditures in §173, for which deductions have been taken by the taxpayer. (f) What difference in result (e), above, if Owner had previously rented the land to Lessee for five years for $1,000 per year cash rental and permitted Lessee to expend $2,000 clearing the property? Assume that, although Owner properly reported the cash rental payments as gross income, the $2,000 expenditures were properly excluded under §109. See §1019. Here, the improvements to the property are not a substitute for rent, so the improvements are properly excluded from Owner’s gross income under §109. Main question is whether the improvements made by the Lessee are included in the Lessor’s gross income? The value of the improvements are EXCLUDED from the Lessor’s Gross Income pursuant to IRC §109. Lessor does not have income when a Lessee (tenant) makes improvements- pursuant to IRC §109. Justification for no income is that when the Lessor sells the house, it will presumably sell for more money based on the improvements that were made, so he will end up having a bigger gain and thus pay the tax then. §109 says that landlord does NOT have gross income during the lease NOR when the lease terminates. Presumably, the tax is accounted for when landlord sells the property, because he will end up having a higher A/R. There was no negotiation of the rent in this problem. The adjusted basis in this case is still $10,000. The improvements are excluded from the lessor’s gross income under §109, and are not included in his basis under §1019. The lessor will end up being taxed on these improvements when he sells the property b/c the improvements presumably raised the FMV of the property by $2,000. §109: Improvements by lessee on lessor’s property Where the lessee makes improvements to the Lessor’s land, not in compensation for rent, the lessor does NOT include the improvements in gross income. 24
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§1019: Property on which lessee has made improvements This statute corresponds with §109, in that the cost of the improvements made by the lessee to the lessor’s land is NOT ALLOWED to be added into the ADJUSTED BASIS. Answer A/R = $18,000 LESS A/B = $10,000 = TAXABLE GAIN OF $8,000. (g) What difference in result (a), above, if when the land had a value of $10,000, Owner, a real estate salesperson, received it from Employer as a bonus for putting together a major real estate development, and Owner’s income tax was increased $3,000 by reason of the receipt of land? This is the economic equivalent of the employer giving the employee $10,000 to buy the property, in which case, the basis should be $10,000. If we give a basis other than $10,000, then we risk taxing the same dollars twice! SO, we use the FMV of the property as the basis. Answer is the same regardless of the Owner’s income tax. How much he paid in tax is irrelevant to the basis issue. GAIN = $6,000. (h) What difference if Owner is a salesperson in an art gallery and owner purchases a $10,000 painting from art gallery, but is required to pay only $9,000 for it (instead of $10,000) because owner is allowed a 10% employee discount which is excluded from gross income under §132(a)(2) and owner later sells the painting for $16,000? The question is whether §132 is an exclusion or a deferral? One argument would be if they didn’t specifically say it, they should not be taxed for that and the basis is 10,000 b/c you have an exclusion for the qualified employee discount. Employee would say that her basis should be $10,000 because she got the discount exclusion and she SHOULDN’T have to pay tax on that when she sells the painting. On the other hand, the basis should be $9,000 b/c discounts aren’t ordinarily given for property that is held for investment. It can be argued that despite the $1,000 employee discount, the employee will profit $1,000 when she sells the painting IF HER BASIS IS $10,000. It can be argued that the employee’s basis should be $9,000 to reflect the discount she received and this makes her include that amount as a gain when she decides to sell the painting and make a profit. If employee’s basis is $10,000, then she has a $6,000 Gain. If her basis is $9,000, then she has a $7,000 Gain. EMPLOYEE WANTS HER BASIS TO BE $10K SO THAT SHE HAS LESS OF A GAIN! No concrete answer on this problem though as to what the employee’s basis should be. Not applicable here: Reg. §1.132-3(a)(2)(ii) (Tax&Reg. Book pg. 955): You cannot get a qualified employee discount on real property, or on personal property that is ordinarily purchased for investment. Takeaway: This problem is different from (f), above, b/c in (f) we had an exclusion from gross income rule (§109) and a companion provision (§1019) providing that it would also be excluded from the taxpayer’s basis. In contrast, here, all we have is an exclusion from gross income provision (§132) but we do not have any companion provision. Thus, Prof. Galler says she would make the argument that this is includible in the taxpayer’s basis here (i.e., employee’s basis is $10,000). This analysis would benefit the employee b/c now the analysis is A/R = $16,000 LESS A/B = $10,000 TAXABLE GAIN = $6,000. 2. In an arm’s-length exchange, Sharp exchanges some land with a cost basis of $6,000 and a value of $9,000 with Dull for some non-publicly traded stock which Dull owns and in which Dull has a basis of $8,000 and is worth $10,000 at the time of the exchange. (a) Consider Sharp and Dull’s gains on the exchange and their respective cost basis in the assets they receive. 25
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Sharp o A/B = $6,000 o A/R = $10,000 o Gain = $4,000 o New Basis = $10,000 (b) What results in (a), above, if the value of Dull’s stock cannot be determined with any reasonable certainty? Value Dull’s shares at $9,000, which is the FMV of Sharp’s land, since this is an arms-length transaction and the values of the properties being exchanged are presumed to be the SAME. See Philadelphia Park Amusement Co. If this were the case, and the FMV is $9,000, then obviously Sharp’s gain would change as well as his basis. Sharp’s new Gain would be $3,000 (9K – 6K) Sharp’s new Basis would be $9,000 Everything for Dull remains the same as in (a) above. 2. Property Acquired by Gift IRC § 1015(a). See § 1015(d)(1)(A), (4) and (6). IRC § 1015(a): Basis of property acquired by gifts and transfers in trust Donee TAKES the Donor’s basis in the property. CARRY-OVER BASIS. “Basis shall be the same as it would be in the hands of the donor or the last preceding owner.” Under IRC § 1015(a), if the donor’s basis is greater than the FMV of the property at the time the gift is made, then for the purpose of determining loss , the basis for the gift is its FMV at the time the gift was made. Reg. §1.1015-1(a): Basis of property acquired by gift ** When property is sold between fair market value and adjusted basis (carry-over basis) you recognize neither a gain nor loss. ** (KNOW THIS, THIS IS IMPORTANT) ***FURTHERMORE, this is ONLY the case when basis is GREATER THAN FMV*** Reg. §1.1015-1(a)(2) If there is a situation where a loss is clear but fmv would then give donee a gain, then donee receives neither a gain nor a loss Problem 1 - Pg. 128 Donor gave Donee property under circumstances that required no payment of gift tax. What gain or loss to Donee on the subsequent sale of the property if: (a) The property had cost Donor $20,000, had a $30,000 fair market value at the time of the gift, and Donee sold it for: (1) $35,000? Amount realized = $35,000 Basis (carry-over from Donor) = $20,000 Gain = $15,000 (b) The property had cost Donor $30,000, had a $20,000 fair market value at the time of the gift, and Donee sold it for: (1) $35,000? this is the exception part of §1015(a) Amount realized = $35,000 Dull o A/B = $8,000 o A/R = $9,000 o Gain = $1,000 o New Basis = $9,000 (2) $15,000? Amount realized = $15,000 Basis (carry-over from Donor) = $20,000 Loss = $5,000 (3) $25,000? Amount realized = $25,000 Basis (carry-over from Donor) = $20,000 Gain = $5,000 26
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Basis (Carry-over) = $30,000 Gain = $5,000 (2) $15,000? Amount realized = $15,000 Basis (HERE, because this is a clearly a LOSS, i.e., Donor purchased it for $30,000 and it’s now worth only $20,000, we use FMV as basis) = $20,000 Loss = $5,000 (3) $24,000? Amount realized = $24,000 Is this a gain or loss? To determine gain, we use carry-over basis: $24,000 - $30,000 = Loss of $6,000 To determine loss, we use FMV as basis: $24,000 - $20,000 = Gain of $4,000 Answer = NO GAIN AND NO LOSS. See Regulation § 1.1015-1(a): There is ALWAYS “No gain and no loss” when the FMV is less than the donor’s basis and the amount realized (resale amount) falls between the FMV and Donor’s basis. See Reg. §1.1015-1(a). Reg. §1.1001-1(e): Transfers in part a sale and in part a gift (pg. 1500 Tax/Reg. Book) - Where a transfer of property is in part a sale and in part a gift , the TRANSFEROR has a gain to the extent that the amount realized by him exceeds his adjusted basis in the property. However, no loss is sustained on such a transfer if the amount realized is less than the adjusted basis. For the determination of basis of property in the hands of the TRANSFEREE. See Reg. § 1.1015-4. Examples included in the Regulation (Pg. 1500 Tax & Reg. Book) - (1) A transfers property to his son for $60,000. Such property in the hands of A had an adjusted basis of $30,000 (and a FMV of $90,000). A’s gain is $30,000 (Amount realized $60,000 – Adjusted Basis $30,000). There is a gain here: A realized $60,000 and his adjusted basis is $30,000, so his gain is $30,000. (2) A transfers property to his son for $30,000. Such property in the hands of A had an adjusted basis of $60,000 (and a FMV of $90,000). A has no gain or loss. No Gain: Here, the $30,000 that A realizes is less than his adjusted basis ($60,000). No Loss: Amount realized ($30,000) is less than adjusted basis ($60,000). (3) A transfers property to his son for $30,000. Such property in A’s hands had an adjusted basis of $30,000 (and a FMV of $60,000). A has no gain. No Gain: Amount realized ($30,000) is not more than the adjusted basis ($30,000). They are equal here! (4) A transfers property to his son for $30,000. Such property in A’s hands had an adjusted basis of $90,000 (and a FMV of $60,000). A has sustained no loss. No Gain: Amount realized ($30,000) is not more than the adjusted basis ($90,000). No Loss: Amount realized ($30,000) is less than the adjusted basis ($90,000). *** FOR THESE EXAMPLES, JUST SIMPLY READ THE REGULATION AND LOOK AT THE AMOUNT REALIZED AND ADJUSTED BASIS *** Reg. § 1.1015-4: Transfers in part a gift and in part a sale (Pg. 1509 Tax & Reg. Book): Where a transfer of property is in part a sale and in part a gift, the unadjusted basis of the property in the hands of the TRANSFEREE is the sum of: (1) whichever of the following is greater: 27
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(i) the amount paid by the transferee for the property, or (ii) the transferor’s adjusted basis for the property at the time of the transfer, and (2) The amount of any increase in basis for a gift tax paid. Examples (1) If A transfers property to his son for $30,000, and such property at the time of the transfer had an adjusted basis of $30,000 in A’s hands (and a FMV of $60,000), the unadjusted basis of the property in the hands of the son is $30,000. Here, the amount paid by the transferee for the property is equal to the transferor’s adjusted basis for the property. (2) If A transfers property to his son for $60,000, and such property at the time of transfer had an adjusted basis of $30,000 in A’s hands (and a FMV of $90,000), the unadjusted basis of the property in the hands of the son is $60,000. Here, unadjusted basis for the son is $60,000 because the amount paid by the transferee ($60,000) is greater than transferor’s adjusted basis ($30,000). (3) If A transfers property to his son for $30,000, and such property at the time of transfer had an adjusted basis in A’s hands of $60,000 (and a FMV of $90,000), the unadjusted basis of such property in the hands of the son is $60,000. Here, unadjusted basis for son is $60,000 because the transferor’s unadjusted basis for the property ($60,000) is greater than the amount paid by the transferee ($30,000). Reg. § 1.1011-2(b): Bargain sale to a charitable organization; Apportionment of adjusted basis. Where a transfer of property is in part a sale and in part a gift to a charitable organization, transferor has gain under an exercise in apportionment. Problem 2 - Pg. 128 Father had some land that he had purchased for $100,000 but which had increased in value to $200,000. He transferred it to the daughter for $100,000 in cash in a transaction properly identified as in part a gift and in part a sale. Assume no gift tax was paid on the transfer. (a) What gain to Father and what basis to Daughter under Reg. §§1.1001-1(e) and 1.1015-4(a)(1)? The Father has no gain in this transaction b/c his basis was $100,000 (what he paid for it) and his amount realized was $100,000 (amount he received from daughter in the sale). His A/R is equal to his A/B ($100,000) The daughter’s basis is $100,000. Here, the amount she paid for the property ($100,000) is equivalent to the transferor’s basis ($100,000). There is no difference in the two amounts. See Regulation § 1.1015-4. (b) Suppose the transaction were viewed as a sale of two-thirds of the land for full consideration and an outright gift of the other one third. How would this affect Father’s gain and Daughter’s basis? Is it a more realistic view than the regulations above? – NEED CLARIFICATION Conceptually, the Father (Donor’s) adjusted basis is $80,000 in the 2/3 of land; however he has an amount realized of $120,000 in cash and therefore a taxable gain of $40,000. Caution: Remember, this is only conceptually, in actuality the Father will have an adjusted Basis of $120,000 in the property, amount realized of $120,000 and no gain. 28
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Conceptually, the Daughter has an adjusted basis of $120,000 for 2/3 of the land (what she paid for the 2/3) plus she must assume the carryover adjusted basis of $40,000 in the other 1/3 of the land, therefore her adjusted basis in the land after the transfer is $160,000. Caution: Remember, this is only conceptually, in actuality the Daughter has an adjusted basis of $120,000 (the amount she paid) not $160,000 therefore if she turned around and sold the property she would have a taxable gain of $60,000 as opposed to only $20,000. The general concept is called deferral, “I’ll gladly pay you on Tuesday for a hamburger today.” The reason why taxpayer’s always want to defer is b/c of the time value of money. Example: When G was a kid and hanging out in the neighborhood there was a store where she would buy a bottle of coke and candy for 25 cents. The same things now would cost about two dollars. Analysis: This is b/c the value of money has gone down since that time. What happens is that as the value of money goes down, the tax for the money back in the day is worth less. i. Taft v. Bowers (1929) Facts: 1. Donor paid $1,000 for stock. FMV at the time of the gift to Donne was $2,000. Donee sold it for $5,000. 2. Gov’t claims that under § 1015(a), Donee must pay income tax upon $4,000, as realized profits. 3. Donee claims that only $3,000 – the appreciation during her ownership – can be regarded as income. Holding: Donee accepts the position of the Donor in respect to the property received by a gift and therefore assumes his basis. Thus, Donee’s basis is $1,000 LESS Donee’s amount realized of $5,000 and thus $4,000 TAXABLE GAIN. ii. Farid-Es-Sultaneh v. Commissioner (1947) Facts: 1. Pre-nuptial agreement in which the wife received 1,800 shares w/ a FMV of $330 per share, in exchange for the wife giving up her marital rights (dower). 2. After the two got divorced, the wife sold some of the shares. 3. The gov’t determined a deficiency when the wife sold her shares on the grounds that the shares were acquired by gift within the meaning of § 1015(a), and as such, the gov’t asserted that the wife should have used the husband’s basis as her own. Issue: For the wife’s basis, should it be the carryover basis of the husband or the FMV at the time of transfer? These are the two options: (1) If this is classified as a gift, the wife’s basis would basically be 0, b/c the husband started this company and built it from the ground up. Thus, her taxable gain would be very high. (2) If this is classified as a normal “arms-length” transaction, then it should be considered as a “property for property” swap, i.e., her dower rights for the shares. Holding: If a transfer b/twn spouses is given for fair consideration then it is not a gift. As such, this was not a gift b/c the wife gave up her dower rights for the shares and thus the FMV of the property when acquired (received) should be used as the wife’s basis. Takeaway: 1. Philadelphia Park Amusement had not been decided at this point, but this case could be used for that principle of law too, i.e., in a property for property exchange, assume that the FMV of one property is equal to 29
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the other which was given in exchange. (e.g., her dower rights are equal to the FMV of the shares she received at the time of the agreement). 2. THIS GENERAL CONCEPT OF TAXING B/TWN SPOUSES IS NO LONGER GOOD LAW. At the time this case was decided, U.S. v. Davis had held that a transfer of property during a divorce or during a marriage was a TAXABLE event. However, Congress enacted §1041 which overruled Davis and made these events NON-TAXABLE. 3. DESPITE the enactment of §1041 , Prof. Galler says that this case would not have come out differently b/c this was an ante-nuptial agreement which does not count as a transaction b/twn spouses or spouses getting divorced. 3. Property Acquired Between Spouses or Incident to Divorce-IRC § 1041 REGS: § 1.1041-1T(a) & (d). Introduction Property acquired by purchase has a cost basis to the buyer in the amount of what the buyer paid for it. o Depending on the nature of the property, the seller’s gain or loss is determined by whether the amount realized by the seller exceeds or is less than seller’s adjusted basis in the property. In general and in contrast to the gift of property, the sale or exchange of property is not a tax neutral transaction. Property that is acquired by gift costs the donee nothing ; it is not even includable in the donee’s gross income under §102(a). Therefore, the basis of property in the hands of a donee is the same basis the property had in the hands of the donor. § 1041: Transfers of Property b/twn Spouses or Incident to Divorce (Pg. 622 Tax/Reg. Book) (a) General Rule: No gain or loss shall be recognized on a transfer of property from an individual to (1) a spouse, or (2) a former spouse, but only if transfer is incident of divorce. Note: The § 1041 transferee-spouse or former spouse always takes a transferred (carry-over) basis, even when computing loss. This is an example of what is referred to as a non-recognition provision , “no gain or loss shall be recognized…” ANY GAIN REALIZED BY THE TRANSFEROR IS NOT RECOGNIZED (EXCLUDED FROM GROSS INCOME). Even though the transfer of property might result in a gain or loss that will be realized, it will not show up as a gain or loss that is recognized b/c usually, the gain or loss that is not recognized in the transaction is accounted for in carry-over basis. The carryover basis will reflect the unrecognized gain or loss since the spouse who acquires the property (transferee) will assume the basis of the transferor and be taxed if and when she sells the property. SPOUSE RECEIVING PROPERTY GETS A CARRY-OVER BASIS. Hypo: Husband and Wife are getting divorced. Do you give the Wife $800,000 worth of stock that has an adjusted basis of about $12,000? Analysis: Yes, b/c the husband will not pay the tax on that b/c the wife will have to pay the difference b/twn the sale price and the adjusted basis of $12,000 when she sells the stock. Under §1041 , the husband recognizes no gain in giving wife the stock as part of the divorce obligations. 30
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AND, under §1041 , the wife assumes husband’s basis of $12,000 (carry-over), meaning that when she sells it for $800K, she would recognize a gain of 788K!!! If husband were to sell the stock and then pay the wife $800,000, then he would have to recognize the $788K gain and pay taxes on this amount. Bottom line = More favorable for husband to give wife the stock as part of the divorce. Problem 1- Pg. 130 1. Andre purchased some land ten years ago for $40,000 cash. The property appreciated to $70,000 at which time Andre sold it to his wife Steffi for $70,000 cash, its fair market value. (a) What are the income tax consequences to Andre? No tax consequences to Andre b/c it is a realization event but NOT a RECOGNIZED event under § 1041. Although he realizes a gain of $30,000 he does not get taxed on it. (b) What is Steffi’s basis in the property? Steffi’s basis is $40,000 b/c she automatically assumes the basis (carry-over) of her husband (transferor) and he bought the land for $40,000. (c) What gain to Steffi if she immediately resells the property? A $30,000 gain, b/c the property’s FMV is $70,000 (Amount Realized here) and her adjusted basis is $40,000 ($70,000 - $40,000 = $30,000). (d) What results in (a)-(c) if the property had declined in value to $30,000 and Andre sold it to Steffi for $30,000? No tax consequences b/c although there is a loss realized of $10,000, it is not recognized under § 1041. Steffi’s basis in the property is still the $40,000 pursuant to § 1041’s language that “the basis of the transferee in the property shall be the adjusted basis of the transferor.” No gain, it would be a loss of $10,000 to Steffi upon her sale of the property o $30,000 (Amount Realized) - $40,000 (Basis) = $10,000 Loss. (e) What results (gains, losses and basis) to Andre and Steffi if Steffi transfers other property with a basis of $50,000 and value of $70,000 (rather than cash) to Andre in return for his property? Andre Assumes a $50,000 basis from his wife. No recognition of the gain. Steffi Assumes a $40,000 basis from her husband. No recognition of the gain. o On the surface this is an exchange of two pieces of property with equal value, however Andre is getting an extra $10,000 in basis and Steffi is losing $10,000 in basis o If both were to sell the property to a third party outside of the marriage, then Steffi will have to pay taxes on a $30,000 gain (sells property for $70,000 less the $40,000 adjusted basis assumed from her husband) and Andre would have to pay taxes on only a $20,000 gain (sells property for $70,000 less the $50,000 adjusted basis assumed from his wife), therefore this is not an even exchange. Better for Andre! o Neither of them recognizes their gain or loss at the time of the transfer between them (because its between spouses!). The realized gain or loss will be recognized upon the sale to a 3rd party. 4. Property Acquired from a Decedent - IRC § 1014(a), (b)(1) and (6), (e). REGS: § 1.1014-3(a); 20.2031- 1(b). § 1014: Basis of property acquired from a decedent (Pg. 606 Tax/Reg. Book)- “stepped up basis” When heirs receive property through inheritance the basis of the property is not carried over, instead, the FMV of the property at the time of the decedent’s death is used as the basis. 31
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This is referred to as a “STEPPED UP BASIS.” Basis becomes the FMV as of the date of the decedent’s death. Not a carryover basis. The heirs receive a very valuable gift from Uncle Sam b/c they get to assume a higher basis. ** Higher basis means you get to report a lower gain! ** This explains why a lot of older people who have depreciating assets hold on to them until they die b/c the basis and the estate will be “stepped up” upon their death by virtue of the FMV basis. It is really good tax planning for a really old and sick person not to sell things or give them as gifts but to actually wait until death because then basis to heirs is the FMV. If property is given as a gift before the decedent dies, then the basis to the heir is a carryover basis of the decedent’s basis. ** Often times, having FMV as a basis can result in practically zero gain on a transaction! ** **Death is the greatest tax shelter!** Section 1014(e)(1)- will be a carryover basis if decedent received gift within 1 year Problem 1 - Pg. 133 1. In the current year, Giver holds two blocks of identical stock, both worth $1,000,000. Giver purchased the first block years ago for $50,000 and the second block more recently for $950,000. Giver plans to make an inter vivos gift of one block and retain the second until death. Which block of stock should Giver transfer inter vivos and why? Block 1 Basis = $50,000 FMV = $1,000,000 Block 2 Basis = $950,000 FMV = $1,000,000 o Giver should transfer Block 2 inter vivos as the donee’s basis would be $950,000 (carryover). Therefore, transferring Block 1 upon death gives the heir a basis of $1,000,000 (the FMV) rather than a carryover basis of $50,000. o If Giver were to give Block 1 inter vivos , then the transferee would have a basis of $50,000 (carryover) and would pay taxes on a gain of $950,000, assuming he sold the stocks for $1,000,000. That’s insane! o Bottom line = Make inter vivos gift of Block 2, since it has a WAY higher basis. o Transfer the block with the smaller basis upon death. C. Amount Realized - IRC § 1001(b). REGS: § 1.1001-1(a), -2(a), (b), (c) Ex. (1) and (2). i. International Freighting Corp. v. Commissioner (1943) Facts: 1. Involved a corporation named IFC which was a subsidiary of duPont. 2. IFC had an international bonus plan in which employees could receive shares of stock in the parent corporation (duPont) for outstanding performance. 32
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3. The FMV of the 150 shares issued was $25,000 and the adjusted basis of the 150 shares was $16,000. 4. All employees reported and paid taxes on their shares of stock. 5. IFC deducted $25,000 and the government contests that they should have only deducted $16,000 or if the $25,000 was a correct deduction, then the corporation should have reported a $9,000 gain when they transferred the stock to their employees. Issue: Why does IFC have to recognize a gain on the transfer of these stocks? Holding: If a corporation disposes shares to employees as part of a bonus package for valid consideration, equal to at least the market value of the shares when delivered, then the difference b/twn the cost of the shares and their fair market value is a realized taxable gain. B/c IFC transferred these stocks as a bonus, it’s as if they sold the stock. Had IFC sold the stock and then used the cash to fund their bonus plan, they would clearly have a gain. Analysis: The court stated that the value of the stock granted to the employees was exchanged for adequate consideration (services performed)—This is a Philadelphia Park argument. The bottom line for this case is that where someone uses appreciated property (basis is less than the value) to pay an expense or satisfy an obligation, there is a realization event. You are treated as if you had sold the appreciated property and then paid cash for what you received. Here, this was a realization event because it was the equivalent of selling the stock for $25K and using the proceeds (appreciate property) to pay the employees. ii. Crane v. Commissioner Facts: 1. Mrs. Crane’s husband died but he left her an apartment building and the land under the apartment building, however the entire property was subject to a non-recourse mortgage. 2. The principal due under the mortgage at the time of Mr. Crane’s death was $255,000. The fair market value of the property at the date of his death was $262,000. This is exactly equal to the amount due on the mortgage at the time he died ($255,000 for the principal left on the mortgage + $7,000 for late payments). 3. Mrs. Crane also took depreciation deductions totaling $28,000. 4. She found a buyer who was willing to give her $3,000 for the property and would assume the mortgage; during this process she incurred $500 in lawyer’s fees. Issue: The question is how do we determine her amount realized and her adjusted basis in this property in order to figure out her taxable gain? Held: If a taxpayer sells property encumbered by a recourse or non-recourse mortgage (in this case non- recourse), computation of amount realized must include the principal amount left on the mortgage (plus whatever cash was paid for the property). Additionally, the calculation for the adjusted basis is the FMV of the property (b/c this was an inheritance) less any depreciation deductions that may have been taken. Analysis: The opinion tells us that of the $262,000 appraisal, the land was worth $55,000 and the building was worth $207,000. Land is not a depreciating asset , however improvements on the land (BLDG) may be. Therefore, you are only allowed to take depreciation deductions on the building at a maximum of 2% a year. 2% of $207,000 is approx. $4,000 * 7 years gets you to the $28,000 deduction. This was a non-recourse loan b/c Mrs. Crane never told the bank that she would be personally liable in case of default. 33
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Why did Mrs. Crane claim that she had a zero basis in the property? Mrs. Crane says that when you inherit property the value is the FMV and the only basis she has in the property is the equity. She contests that the value of the property in excess of the value of property exceed liens (equity) was zero therefore she inherited equity of zero. The government says that the property Mrs. Crane inherited was not the equity but the property and the land. The value of the property at the time of her husband’s death was $262,000 and that is her basis. In the eyes of the government the total amount realized was $257,500 and the adjusted basis was $234,000 ($207,000 + $55,000 for the land’s worth – depreciation = $234,000). $257,500 (amount realized) - $234,000 (adjusted basis) = $23,500 gain which needs to be included in gross income. ** Key from Crane is that you include the amount of principal left on a mortgage that is being assumed by the purchaser in the AMOUNT REALIZED ** Hypo: 1. Galler buys a house on a recourse mortgage and she then sells her house to Tessa. 2. Principal loan outstanding (Galler owes to bank) = $300,000. 3. Tessa pays $200,000. 4. Tessa will write $200,000 check to Galler personally, and $300,000 check to the Bank. Issue: What’s the benefit to Galler? Held: $500,000. $200,000 cash to Galler and $300,000 she no longer has to pay to the Bank. Tessa satisfied a legal obligation that Galler had to the lender. Old Colony Trust. Galler’s A/R = $500,000 (her economic benefit). iii. Commissioner v. Tufts Facts: Tufts, a partnership formed in order to construct a 120-unit apartment complex in Texas, obtained a non- recourse loan for $1,851,500. Over the period of the loan the partnership made capital contributions of $44,212 (add to basis b/c capital expenditures) and took deductions ($439,972) that brought their adjusted basis down to $1,455,740. Subsequently, they sold the partnership for nothing except sales expenses to a third party who agreed to assume the non-recourse mortgage. On the date of transfer, the FMV of the property went down to $1.4 million. Tufts arg.: Tufts argues a loss of $55,740. (A/R = $1,400,000 MINUS A/B = $1,455,740 = LOSS OF $55,740). Gov’t arg.: The Commissioner determined that the sale resulted in a partnership gain of approx. $400,000. (A/R = $1,851,500 MINUS A/B = $1,455,740 = GAIN OF $400,000). Held: If a taxpayer sells property encumbered by a non-recourse mortgage, computation of amount realized must include the principal amount left on the mortgage regardless of whether the FMV of the property is less than the amount left on the loan. FMV IS IRRELEVANT! Analysis: Taxpayer Argument There was a loss on the transfer. We originally paid $1,851,500 and put in a little more $44,212 (totals to a basis of $1,895,712) but then took depreciation deductions totaling $439,972 therefore adjusted basis should be $1,455,740. Since amount realized was only $1.4 million (FMV of the property at time of sale) they claim they had an additional loss of $55,740 ($1,455,740 - $1.4 million). Government’s Argument There was a gain on the transfer. The way we read Crane, is that the amount realized equals the total principal amount due on the loan [subject to the mortgage] less depreciation deductions. Additionally, it 34
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doesn’t matter if we are dealing with recourse or non-recourse loans b/c you have received a tax benefit that needs to be accounted for. o Original Basis = $1,851,500 (Amount of Nonrecourse Mortgage) o Adjusted Basis = $1,455,740 (after calculating capital contributions and depreciation deductions) o Amount Realized = $1,851,500 (amount of NRM being assumed) o So, $1,851,500 – $1,455,740 = $395,760. o Gain = 395,760. There wasn’t a gain in the sense of the value of the property going up, however the partners put no money into the investment and took depreciation deductions which were reflected in their adjusted basis — a tax benefit which the partners are not economically entitled to. Difference b/twn Tufts and Crane Tufts says that it really comes down to a tax issue: You only get to claim a loss if you have actually suffered an economic loss . If you claim a depreciation deduction when you haven’t actually lost anything, then you need to be taxed on it as a gain. *** You used the amount of NRM in your original basis, which afforded you the opportunity to take large deductions (here, roughly $400K). SO, when you sell the property subject to the mortgage, you need to include that amount in your Amount Realized, regardless of the FMV, because the tax system is symmetrical and the deductions need to be accounted for. *** Takeaways from Crane & Tufts We always treat recourse and non-recourse loans the same! Assumption by a purchaser of the principal left on a recourse or nonrecourse loan MUST be included in the seller’s AMOUNT REALIZED. IT DOES NOT MATTER IF THE FMV OF THE PROPERTY IS LESS THAN THE PRINCIPAL AMOUNT LEFT ON THE LOAN. Concurrence O’Connor Agreed in the outcome of the case, but thought that the Court should split this into two separate transactions. (A sale of property and a discharge of indebtedness). (1) Property Transaction (2) Discharge of Debt Transaction A/R = $1,400,000 (FMV) Face amount of debt = $1,851,500 A/B = $1,455,740 Debt satisfied = $1,400,000 Loss on sale = - $55,740 Discharge of debt = $451,500 - In O’Connor’s method, you get the same result as the majority, i.e., $395,760 taxable gain. However, the character of the loss and gain are different. The sale transaction produces capital gain or loss, while the discharge of debt is ordinary income. This could lead to problems, as we will see later on, b/c the result will not always be the same under this method. Discharge of indebtedness income is taxable at a higher rate than capital gains income, so it produces a different result, despite the “$395,760” taxable gain O’Connor arrived at. Hypo Examples: Galler buys a piece of non-depreciable property for $100, and sells it for $100: Amount realized = $100 Adjusted basis = $100 Gain = 0 Now let’s say the FMV goes down… Amount realized = $80 (Galler only sold it for $80) 35
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Adjusted basis = $100 Loss = $20 Now, Galler borrows $100 on a nonrecourse basis (no income). Galler uses this $100 to buy a piece of non-depreciable property. The value of the property stays exactly the same. Galler wants to sell it. How much is this person going to buy it for? Person will pay nothing, but will take the property subject to the loan. Amount realized = $100 Adjusted basis = $100 Gain/Loss = 0 Now, let’s say Galler borrows $100 on a nonrecourse basis to buy the property which cost her $100. Galler takes depreciation deductions of $60 over the course of her ownership. Galler now sells the property subject the loan. The FMV of the property is still $100 and Galler hasn’t made any payments on the loan (still $100). Fred comes and takes the property off Galler’s hands, but doesn’t pay her any cash. Amount Realized = $100 (loan still not paid off, which Fred assumed) Adjusted Basis = $40 (Original basis adjusted under §1016 for depreciations) Gain = $60. Problem 1 – pg. 154 Mortgagor purchases a parcel of land from Seller for $100,000. Mortgagor borrows $80,000 from the Bank and pays that amount and an additional $20,000 of cash to Seller giving Bank a non-recourse mortgage on the land. The land is the security for the mortgage which bears an adequate interest rate. (a) What is Mortgagor’s cost basis in the land? $100,000. ($80,000 loan PLUS $20,000 cash). (b) Two years later the land has appreciated in value to $300,000 and Mortgagor has paid only interest on the $80,000 mortgage. Mortgagor takes out a second non-recourse mortgage of $100,000 with adequate rates of interest from Bank again using the land as security. Does Mortgagor have income when she borrows the $100,000? No. When a loan is taken out, non-recourse or recourse, it is treated as a normal loan event and there is no event that can be taxed yet. ***BOTTOM LINE = LOANS ARE NOT INCOME!*** DS Note : if there was no $80,000 loan, the mortgager would have $220,000 in equity (c) What is Mortgagor’s basis in the land if the $100,000 of mortgage proceeds are used to improve the land? Increases the Mortgagor’s basis b/c it’s a capital improvement. A/B = $200,000. (d) What is the basis in the land if the $100,000 of mortgage proceeds are used to purchase stocks and bonds worth $100,000? You wouldn’t be increasing the basis on the property. However, you would have a NEW basis of $100,000 in the stocks and bonds. Purchasing the stocks is a new property, so it gets its own new basis and the basis in the house is not impacted. (e) What result under the facts of (d), above, if when the principal amount of the two mortgages is still $180,000 and the land is still worth $300,000, Mortgagor sells the property subject to both mortgages to Purchaser for $120,000 cash? What is Mortgagor’s cost basis in the land? Why would a purchaser only give $120,000 in cash? From the buyer’s perspective, the property is worth $300,000. Therefore he would only be willing to pay $300,000. Since he is assuming $180,000 in mortgages he would only be willing to pay the $120,000 in cash. 36
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The gain realized is $200,000 b/c the amount realized is $300,000 and the adjusted basis is $100,000 (300K – 100K = 200K). Here, the amount realized by the seller consists of the $120,000 paid in cash AND the $180,000 of mortgages that will be assumed by the buyer. So total is 300K. BASIS IS $100,000 FROM THE FACTS ABOVE. The fact that the buyer only has $120,000 in cash doesn’t matter. For tax purposes the $200,000 increase in the value of the property must be taxed regardless b/c the economic profit in the deal must be reflected in the taxable gain. This is b/c under Crane the cash plus the principal amount left on the mortgage must be included in the amount realized. Remember, the principal amount left on any mortgage (recourse or non-recourse) must be included in the amount realized. Purchaser’s cost basis is $300,000. (f) What result under the facts of (d), above, if instead Mortgagor gives the land subject to the mortgages and still worth $300,000 to her Son? What is Son’s basis in the land? There is $180,000 of debt in the property. Mortgagor has given the property as a gift subject to the mortgage. Even though she is making a gift, if we treat non-recourse and recourse debts the same, it is not just a gift for nothing b/c she is being relieved of a liability. In a sense the son is giving her $180,000 in realization; therefore this is a realization event and not a gift. In effect, she is selling her property to her son for below FMV (selling if for $180,000 when it’s worth $300,000). Mom is realizing a gain of $80,000 ($180,000 - $100,000), meaning that her son’s basis needs to reflect the remaining $120,000 Therefore, under the part sale/part gift ( reg. 1.1001-1(e) ) rules the Son’s basis is $180,000. It is as if the Son paid his mother $180,000 in cash for the property. His basis is also $180,000 because it is the greater of either (1) what he paid ($180,000) or (2) The transferor’s (mom’s) adjusted basis ($100,000). Here, $180K is greater. When the son sells the property at a FMV of $300,000, and his A/B = $180,000, he’s going to realize a gain of $120,000. So, this works. (g) What results under the facts of (f) if Mortgagor gives the land to her Spouse rather than to her Son? What is Spouse’s basis in the land? What is Spouse’s basis in the land after Spouse pays off the $180,000 of mortgages? § 1041 non-recognition transaction, the gain recognized is ZERO b/c of the b/twn spouses rule . Spouse’s basis in the land is $100,000 b/c it is a carryover basis (assumes basis of spouse). The Spouse’s basis in the land after the Spouse pays off the $180,000 in mortgages would STILL be $100,000 b/c Paying off the debt doesn’t get reflected in basis. Paying off mortgages does NOT change basis. (h) What results to Mortgagor under the facts of (d) if the land declines in value from $300,000 to $180,000 and Mortgagor transfers the land by means of a quitclaim deed to Bank? Regardless of the value of the property going down, she still has an amount realized of $180,000. Since her adjusted basis is $100,000 she needs to be taxed on the remaining $80,000 gain. THIS IS CRANE . You must include the principal amount left on the NRM when calculating Amount Realized. $180K (Amount Realized from NRM Loan) - $100K (Basis) = $80K Gain. (i) What results to Mortgagor under the facts of (h) if the land declines in value from $300,000 to $170,000 at the time of the quitclaim deed? Nothing changes, Mortgagor still has an $80,000 Gain. Nothing has really changed b/c Tufts tells us that amount realized is equivalent to the principal amount on the debt regardless of the underlying property value. Since the principal amount on the debt is still $180,000 it doesn’t matter that the value of the property has declined to $170,000. She still needs to pay taxes on the $80,000 gain ($180,000 - $100,000). THIS IS TUFTS. Galler Hypo: 37
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Mom has a basis of $100,000. A non-recourse mortgage in the amount of $180,000 exists. The FMV of the property is $170,000. Mom dies and son inherits the property at her death. Son then transfers the house, with the mortgage, back to the bank. In other words, Bank is assuming the house and the mortgage. What is the son’s basis, amount realized, and gain? Basis = FMV of the property at the date mom died ( Sec. 1014- Step Up Basis ). Here that is $170,000. Amount realized = Amount left on the NRM mortgage, which is $180,000. Remember, under Tufts, it is irrelevant if the FMV of the property is less than the principal amount of the NRM. Amount Realized is still $180,000 b/c that is the amount of the debt! Gain = Amount Realized ($180,000) – Basis ($170,000) = $10,000 Gain. Problem 2 – Pg. 154 Investor purchased three acres of land, each acre worth $100,000 for $300,000. Investor sold one of the acres in year one for $140,000 and a second in year two for $160,000. The total amount realized by Investor was $300,000 which is not in excess of her total purchase price. Does Investor have any gain or loss on the sales? See Regulation § 1.61-6(a). (Pg. 920 Tax/Reg. Book). “When a PART of a LARGER property is sold, the cost or other basis of the entire property shall be equitably apportioned among the several parts, and the gain realized or loss sustained on the part of the entire property sold is the difference between the selling price and the cost or other basis allocated to such part.” The sale of each part is treated as a separate transaction and gain or loss shall be computed separately on each part. Thus, gain or loss shall be determined at the time of sale of each part and not deferred until the entire property has been disposed of. Here, each acre of land has a basis of $100,000. o Year One Sale: $140,000 - $100,000 = $40,000 Gain in Year One. o Year Two Sale: $160,00 - $100,000 = $60,000 Gain in Year Two. C HAPTER 8. - D ISCHARGE OF I NDEBTEDNESS (DOI) IRC: §§ 61(a)(12); 102(a); 108(a), (b)(1)-(3), (d)(1)-(5), (e)(1) and (5); 1017(a), (b)(1), (2), (3)(A) and (B). See §§ 108(c), (f), and (g); 385 REGS: § 1.61-12(a);1.1001-(2)(a), 2(c) Ex. (8) i. United States v. Kirby Lumber Co. (1931) —pg. 167 Facts: 1. Kirby Lumber issued its own bonds for $12,126,800 for which it received par value. 2. Later in the same year it purchased some of the same bonds back at less than par in the open market. 3. The difference of price was $137,521.30. Issue: The question is whether or not this difference is a taxable gain or income for Kirby? 38
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Holding: If a corporation, after issuing securities, turns around and purchases the same securities, at a price less than the issuing price or face value, then the excess of the issuing price or face value over the purchase prices is a gain or income for the tax year. Analysis: The Supreme Court felt that the difference was a gain that had to be taxed b/c, as a result of going out and purchasing these bonds, they had money that was no longer offset by the liability to pay it off. There was no offsetting obligation. Problem 1 – pg. 184 Poor borrowed $10,000 cash from Rich several years ago. What tax consequences to Poor if Poor pays off the so far undiminished debt with: (a) A settlement of $7,000 of cash ? He has been enriched (relieved of his obligation) by $3,000 and needs to be taxed as discharge or indebtedness income. Here, Poor is only paying $7,000 to extinguish a $10,000 debt. Since $3,000 is discharged, it is included in gross income under §61(a)(12). (b) A painting with a basis and a fair market value of $8,000? There is a $2,000 discharge of indebtedness income. It is the equivalent of selling the painting to a 3rd Party for $8,000 and then using the $8K to settle the debt with Rich. (c) A painting with a value of $8,000 and a basis of $5,000? A total of $5,000 would have to be taxed (difference b/w the basis and the amount borrowed), constituting $2,000 of discharge of indebtedness income and $3,000 gain on the painting. It is the equivalent of selling the painting for $8,000 then using the $8K to settle the debt with Rich. You would include $3,000 in GI (capital gains income) from the gain on the painting going up in value and $2,000 (ordinary income) from discharge of indebtedness. ( d) Services, in the form of remodeling Rich’s office, which are worth $10,000? He is not getting discharge of indebtedness income here b/c the value of the services offsets his debt but he is performing services in exchange for something of value. Therefore, it is seen as regular gain income and is taxed as a $10,000 worth of gross income (not for discharge of indebtedness though just a normal gain). It is as if he performed services for $10,000 in cash which he spent to pay back his loan. Galler calls this “Compensation Income” (Income for the performance of services). (e) Services that are worth $8,000? In this case $10,000 would still be taxable, constituting $8,000 in regular gross income (from the services) and $2,000 in discharge of indebtedness income. (f) Same as (a), above, except that Poor’s Employer makes the $7,000 payment to Rich, renouncing any claim to repayment by Poor. Total income of $10,000 to Poor. It is like the employer is giving a $7,000 cash bonus to Poor which is taxable as compensation income and an additional $3,000 is taxable as discharge of indebtedness income. Equivalent of Employer paying Poor $7,000 and then Poor using that $7,000 to pay off the debt. Problem 2 – pg. 184 Mortgagor purchases a parcel of land held for investment from Seller for $100,000 with $20,000 of cash paid directly by Mortgagor and $80,000 paid from the proceeds of a recourse mortgage incurred from Bank. Mortgagor is personally liable for the loan and the land is security for the loan. When the land increases in value to $300,000, Mortgagor borrows another $100,000 from Bank again incurring personal liability and again with the land as security. Mortgagor uses the $100,000 of loan proceeds to purchase stocks and bonds. Several years 39
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later when the principal amount of the mortgages is still $180,000, the land declines in value to $170,000, Mortgagor transfers the land to the Bank, and the Bank discharges all of the Mortgagor’s indebtedness. (a) What are the tax consequences to Mortgagor? See Reg. §§ 1.1001-2(a), and 1.1001-2(c) ex. 8. (Pg. 1478 Tax/Reg. Book) The amount realized is the $170,000 FMV of the property at the time of the transfer and the adjusted basis is the $100,000 he originally paid for it, therefore $70,000 is taxable as a capital gain. The $10,000 difference is still owed to Bank and seller is PERSONALLY liable to the Bank for this amount, however if the transfer of property is enough to satisfy the bank, the $10,000 difference would be taxed as discharge of indebtedness income. This is b/c the original debt was $180,000 and he is being relieved of this obligation by transferring property worth only $170,000 ($10,000 discharge). Look at Example 8 in Regulation § 1.001-2(c) o KEY IN THIS PROBLEM IS THAT IT WAS A RECOURSE LOAN. o SINCE ITS RECOURSE, DOI INCOME EXISTS. o IF YOU HAVE A RECOURSE LOAN, THE AMOUNT REALIZED CANNOT BE MORE THAN THE FMV. (b) What are the tax consequences to Mortgagor if liabilities had been non-recourse liabilities? The Mortgagor is no longer personally liable for the $10,000 difference in the property, therefore the Bank can foreclose on the property since that is their security interest for the debt. The amount realized is now the principal amount left on the mortgage (Crane, Tufts) and the basis in the property is still $100,000 therefore there is a taxable capital gain of $80,000 and NO discharge of indebtedness income. Problem 3. Student recd 20k to used for law school used in tuition and books, what result if loan is forgiven in 2022? Section 108(f)(1) if gvt is going to forgive debt for govt, work, govt can forgive the taxes. 108(f)(5): for any reason student loan is discharged, (b) services is worth 20k, so student is wroth every penny 3(c) services is worth 6k.6k in compesnsation income, lender is getting 6k of services, 14k worth of in debt ness (d) statute doesn’t apply, person has either no exclusion or discard in debt Problem 4- pg. 185 Decedent owed Friend $5,000, and Nephew owed Decedent $10,000: (a) At Decedent’s death, Friend neglected to file a claim against Decedent’s estate in the time allowed by state law and Friend’s claim was barred by the statute of limitations. What result to Decedent’s estate? Estate has $5,000 in discharge of indebtedness income. Neglect is not an intention to make a gift. This amount is realized after the SOL has run. Until SOL runs, Friend can still pursue claim. (b) What result to the estate in (a), above, (with Decedent still in cold storage) if instead Friend simply permitted the statute to run stating that she felt sorry for Decedent’s widow, the residuary beneficiary of his estate? Very likely this is a gift. Friend “feeling sorry” is analogous to being generous. 40
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** Important to think about why the debt is being forgiven ** Remember, when determining whether something is a gift, we run the “detached, disinterested” test and ALWAYS look into intent and motivation. See Duberstein . Motivation here (feeling sorry for widow) makes this seem like a gift. (c) Now, what result to Nephew if Decedent’s will provided that his estate not collect Nephew’s debt to the estate? This is also likely a gift. If estate is forgiving Nephew’s debt out of generosity, then it’s likely a gift/inheritance ( Sec. 102a ) and the gain from not having to pay the debt would be excluded from gross income. ***REMEMBER, A DISCHARGE OF A DEBT COULD, UNDER CERTAIN CIRCUMSTANCES AND FACTS, BE A GIFT, IN WHICH CASE NO DOI INCOME WOULD EXIST*** C HAPTER 9. – D AMAGES AND R ELATED R ECEIPTS A. Damages in General 41
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§104(a) excludes from gross income amounts received as compensation for personal physical injury or physical sickness. This exclusion applies to recoveries for medical expenses, lost wages, and pain and suffering. Policy : Because the taxpayer is merely placed back in their original (undamaged) state, the taxpayer has no benefit and therefore no income from the transaction. Statutory Analysis - §104 1. General Rule A taxpayer may exclude from their gross income amounts received for personal physical sickness in the form of workers’ compensation payments, damages received, and certain amount received from health insurance not in excess of medical expenses. IRC §104(a). a. Damages – Method of payment The exclusion applies whether the damages are received in a lump sum or as periodic payments. IRC §104(a)(2). b. Damages – Suit or Settlement Damages may be received either as a judgment or in settlement of a claim. IRC §104(a)(2). If in settlement, the proper allocation of damages among claims and types of damages is a question of fact. Ex: Ian slips and falls on his neighbor’s icy steps, and injures his back. His neighbor’s insurance company pays Ian $5,000 in settlement of his claim for injury. Ian may exclude the $5,000 from his gross income. 2. Definitional Issues: a. “Personal” physical injury/sickness Only amounts received on account of “personal physical injuries” or “physical sickness” are excludable and this requires a direct causal link between the physical injury and the damage recovery. IRC §104(a)(2). Business injuries and personal nonphysical injuries, such as discrimination, are not excluded. If the compensation is received for lost profits, for example, the recovery will be taxed as ordinary income. If the compensation is received for the destruction of a capital asset, capital gains treatment will apply. b. “On account of” the injury Damages must be received as a result of the injury, i.e., there must be a direct causation between the injury and the damages incurred and received. c. Emotional Distress Damages for emotional distress from a nonphysical injury are not excludable. This is true for physical symptoms of emotional distress. But if a sickness is physical, emotional distress events can exacerbate it, which may lead to excludable recoveries. However, amounts received and expended on medical care for emotional distress are excludable, even if the source is a nonphysical injury. IRC §104(a); Reg. §1.104-1(c)(1) (pg. 950 Tax/Reg. Book). 3. Special Rules and Exceptions: a. Punitive Damages Punitive damages are included in gross income even if received on account of personal physical injury or physical sickness. IRC §104(a)(2). The one exception to this rule is that punitive damages received for wrongful death under a state statute that does not allow for compensatory damages will be excludable. IRC §104(c). b. Previously Deducted Medical Expenses The exclusion does not apply to amounts the taxpayer has deducted as medical expenses under §213. IRC §104(a). c. Interest on Judgments Interest earned on damages received is taxable under §61(a)(4), but if payments are received over a period of years, the entire recovery is excluded from income – even if the payments to be made in the future include implicit interest as compensation for the delay in payment §104(a)(2). i. Raytheon Production Corporation v. Commissioner Facts: Taxpayer settled a lawsuit under the federal anti-trust laws against R.C.A. and the issue is whether the settlement was required to be included in the taxpayer’s gross income? 42
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Holding: Recovery of damages for reimbursement of lost profits represent gross income and are taxable. Policy: Since the profits, if earned, would have been taxable income, the proceeds of litigation which are their substitute are taxable in like manner. Recovery of damages for injury to goodwill represents a return of capital and are generally not taxable, however they are taxable to the extent that the damages exceed the cost or other basis of the goodwill prior to illegal interference. Policy: Although the injured party may not be deriving a profit as a result of the damage suit itself, the conversion thereby of his property into cash is a realization event, therefore the excess gain is taxable. Example: “A” buys Blackacre for $5,000, it appreciates in value to $50,000. “B” tortiously destroys it by fire and A recovers $50,000 in tort damages. Although no gain was derived by A from the suit, his prior gain due to the appreciation in value of the property is realized when it is turned into cash by the money damages and is therefore taxable. Amount Realized of $50,000 – Adjusted Basis of $5,000 = Taxable Gain of $45,000. Analysis: The determinative factor is the nature of the basic claim from which the compromised amount was realized (“in lieu of what were the damages awarded?”) Damages for violation of the anti-trust acts are treated as income to the extent that they represent compensation for lost profits; however this case was NOT the sort of anti-trust suit where the plaintiff’s business and property still exists and the injury was merely for lost profits. The allegations were that R.C.A.’s illegal conduct completely destroyed the profitable interstate and foreign commerce of the plaintiff making the tube business and property goodwill of the plaintiff totally destroyed at a time when it had a present value in excess of $3 million. In this case, the allegations and evidence as to the amount of profits were necessary in order to establish the value of the good will and business. Note: The usual earnings before the injury, as compared to those afterward, is only an evidential factor in determining actual loss and not an independent basis of recovery. Since this suit was brought to recover damages for the destruction of the business and goodwill, the recovery represents a return of capital and is generally not taxable, however compensation for the loss of goodwill in excess of its cost is taxable gross income. Problem 1 – pg. 190 Plaintiff brought suit, and unless otherwise indicated, successfully recovered. Discuss the tax consequences in the following alternative situations: (a) Plaintiff’s suit was based on a recovery of an $8,000 loan made to Debtor. Plaintiff recovered $8,500 cash, $8,000 for the loan plus $500 of interest. No taxes for the $8,000 since it is simply recovering his loan but would have to pay taxes on the $500 b/c it is a realized gain. Recovery of $8,000 was a return of capital, so it is not taxed! (b) What result to Debtor under the facts of (a), above, if instead Debtor transferred some land worth $8,500 with a basis of $2,000 to Plaintiff to satisfy the obligation? What is Plaintiff’s basis in the land? The Debtor’s tax consequences would be $6,500 b/c his amount realized is $8,500 (how much he sold it for) and his adjusted basis is $2,000 (amount he paid for it). Here, Debtor is satisfying an obligation with appreciated property. It is the equivalent of selling the property to a 3rd Party for $8,500 and then giving this amount to Plaintiff to satisfy the obligation. Either way, it is a realization event for Debtor, who realizes the value ($8,500) of his land. Thus, he has a gain of $6,500. ($8,500 - $2,000 = $6,500). See Int’l Freighting. The Plaintiff’s basis would be $8,500 b/c that is how much the land is worth. 43
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Same as Plaintiff buying the land for $8,500 (cost). π’s gain is still $500 from the interest. (c) Plaintiff’s suit was based on a breach of a business contract and Plaintiff recovered $8,000 for lost profits and also recovered $16,000 of punitive damages. Plaintiff has a gain of $24,000 and this needs to be included in Gross Income. The $8,000 would be included as gross income b/c for tax purposes it is treated as if there had been no breach and profits were made. Plaintiff would also have to pay taxes on the $16,000 b/c punitive damages are included in gross income per Glenshaw Glass. DAMAGES FROM LOST PROFITS ARE ALWAYS INCLUDED IN GROSS INCOME. B. Overview of Goodwill: Goodwill of a business includes the amount of money brought in simply from the reputation of the business. Value of the physical assets is not all that important in evaluating the business. Instead you would look at profit records and ask yourself what it’s worth to pay for such profits. Goodwill is an intangible asset (we all know it’s out there but not really sure what it’s worth). It’s the expectation of continued profitability (based upon things such as reputation, brand loyalty, etc…). For tax purposes, GW is treated as an asset. Basis in goodwill can only be determined when somebody actually purchases it. o Ex: Buy a restaurant for $10,000 but have determined that the price of every tangible object (furniture, ovens, etc…) is worth $6,000 the extra $4,000 is presumed to be the goodwill of the restaurant. (d) Plaintiff’s suit was based on a claim of injury to the goodwill of Plaintiff’s business arising from a breach of a business contract. Plaintiff had a $4,000 basis for the goodwill. The goodwill was worth $10,000 at the time of the breach of contract. (1) What result to Plaintiff if the suit is settled for $10,000 in a situation where the goodwill was totally destroyed? Can analogize this to a sale. Basis was originally $4,000 but now getting $10,000 for it so P would have to pay taxes on the excess $6,000. Going forward, basis in goodwill is zero. HERE, YOUR USING UP ALL OF YOUR BASIS IN GOODWILL. THE KEY IN THESE 3 PROBLEMS IS TO USE UP ALL OF YOUR BASIS IN GOODWILL IN ORDER TO LOWER YOUR GAIN ON THE RECOVERY. AS YOU USE UP THE GOODWILL, BASIS IN GOODWILL DECREASES. (2) What result if Plaintiff recovers $4,000 b/c the goodwill was partially destroyed and worth only $6,000 after the breach of the contract (damage to the goodwill but it was only partially destroyed and not completely destroyed)? Some may argue that since it’s goodwill we just don’t know how to allocate it and we are going to let you end up with the total basis (meaning amount realized was $4,000 and adjusted basis is the full $4,000 leaving you with a ZERO basis). Here, tax law lets you use up all of your basis. Your gain on the sale is 0 ($4,000 - $4,000) AND since you use the $4,000 of your basis, your basis is also 0! (3) What result if Plaintiff recovers only $3,000 b/c the goodwill was worth $7,000 after the breach of the contract? In this case, where the number would not wipe out the entire original basis in goodwill, you can report that there was no gain and the newly adjusted basis in goodwill is simply $1,000. No gain because A/R = $3,000 and A/B = $4,000 ($3,000 - $3,000 = 0) USING $3,000 OF $4,000 YOU HAVE IN GOODWILL BASIS. 44
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So, gain is 0. And, adjusted basis is now $1,000 ($4,000 - $3,000 = $1,000). ** The key thing to remember in all of the above problems is that tax law allows you to use all of your basis when computing gain on recoveries for goodwill, until there is no more basis left! **å Essentially, when recovering $ for claims of injury to goodwill, you could have no gain and just a corresponding decrease in your basis! Distinguish from earlier problem If your complaint sues for a loss of profits, it’s entirely taxable. However, if you sue for loss of goodwill, you’re only taxed on the amount you recover in excess of your goodwill basis. ** OFFSET ALL YOUR BASIS IN GOODWILL AGAINST AMOUNT REALIZED IN A LAWSUIT FOR RECOVERY OF GOODWILL, UNTIL YOU RUN OUT OF GOODWILL BASIS ** C. Damages and Other Recoveries for Personal Injury IRC § 104(a) Gross Income does not include: (1) Amount received under workmen’s compensation act as compensation for personal injuries or sickness; Amount in question must be paid for death or injury that is job-related, not merely under a statute entitled “worker’s compensation law.” (2) The amount of any damages (other than punitive damages) received (whether by suit or settlement agreement and whether as lump sums or as periodic payments) on account of personal physical injuries or physical sickness; (3) Amounts received through accident or health insurance for personal injuries or sickness (other than amounts received by an employee, to the extent such amounts are (A) attributable to contributions by the employer which were not includible in the gross income of the employee OR (B) are paid by the employer. For purposes of this section, emotional distress shall not be treated as a physical injury or physical sickness. *** Damages for nonphysical personal injuries, such as defamation, First Amendment rights, and sex and age discrimination are NOT EXCLUDABLE from gross income. However, damages recovered for emotional distress incurred ON ACCOUNT of physical injury are excludable from gross income. The nature of the underlying action must be for physical injuries, and emotional distress damages can sometimes follow.*** IRC § 106(a) Section 106(a) EXCLUDES from an employee’s gross income an employer’s contributions to accident and health plans set up to pay compensation to employees for injuries or sickness. This exclusion relates, NOT to amounts paid to employees who are sick or injured, but to amounts paid by employers for insurance premiums or into funded plans to set up benefits for employees in case of future sickness or injury. BASICALLY, THIS IS HEALTH INSURANCE FROM EMPLOYER (EXCLUDED). Like a fringe benefit here. IRC § 105(a) Section 105(a) addresses taxpayers who as employees receive some financial benefit arising out of their employer’s concern for their health. Amount that an employee receives through accident or health insurance is includible in gross income. These amount are expressly includible if: (1) Attributable to an employer’s contributions to a plan which were not taxed to the employee under Section 106(a); or (2) Simply paid directly by the employer. 45
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IRC § 105(b) Gross Income does not include amounts referred to in 105(a) if such amounts are paid, directly or indirectly, to the taxpayer to REIMBURSE the taxpayer for expenses incurred by him for the medical care of the taxpayer, his spouse, and his dependents. If an employer directly or indirectly reimburses an employee for expenses of medical care for the employee or the employee’s spouse or dependents, the amount received is excluded from gross income under Section 105(b). The term “reimburse” limits the I.R.C. § 105(b) exclusion. Note that here it is the amount of medical care actually paid for which measures the exclusion. This exclusion is limited to the amount of reimbursement for ACTUAL EXPENSES. Problems Pg. 199 1. Plaintiff brought suit and successfully recovered in the following situations. Discuss the tax consequences to Plaintiff. (a) Plaintiff, a professional gymnast, lost the use of her leg after a psychotic fan assaulted her with a tire iron. Plaintiff was awarded damages of $100,000. Under § 104(a)(2), the $100,000 of damages is excludable from gross income b/c it is a physical injury. Here, even if the damages were for lost profits, it is still excluded under 104(a)(2) because the language of statute is broad. An injury that affects one’s ability to earn wages will affect damages. (b) $50,000 of the recovery in (a), above, is specifically allocated as compensation for scheduled performances Plaintiff failed to make as a result of the injured leg. The 50K would be considered LOST PROFITS (business) and would therefore be EXCLUDED. “Any damages . . . on account of . . . personal physical injuries” Key is “any damages” pursuant to § 104(a)(2) Very broad statutory language. (ANY MEANS ANY). If the physical injury resulted in business injuries, those damages are covered! Once your in personal physical injury realm, ANY DAMAGES except punitive are excludable. SO, same result as in (a), $100,000 completely excluded. (c) The jury also awards Plaintiff $200,000 in punitive damages. Punitive damages must always be included as taxable gross income ( GLENSHAW GLASS ) “Any damages” does NOT include punitive damages. See also §104(a)(2). (d) The jury also awards Plaintiff damages of $200,000 to compensate for Plaintiff’s suicidal tendencies resulting from the loss of the use of her leg. It could be argued that the emotional harm flows from the physical injury and therefore should be part of it and excluded under § 104(a)(2). Professor: As long as there is a physical injury, then if there is a connected emotional injury as well, any damages afforded to that emotional injury come within the statutory exclusion of § 104(a)(2). Emotional distress damages here will be excluded because the distress results from the personal physical injury. (e) Plaintiff in a separate suit recovered $100,000 of damages from a fan who mercilessly taunted Plaintiff about her unnaturally high, squeaky voice, causing Plaintiff extreme anxiety and stress. Emotional distress itself is not a physical injury, despite the manifestation of physical symptoms, and recoveries arising out of emotional distress are included in gross income except to the extent that damages are received for amounts paid for medical care which is attributable to the physical injury. NO exclusion here, there is gross income. Here, the emotional distress DOES NOT arise from a connected physical injury. 46
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However, pursuant to the last sentence of § 104(a) (flush language) on page 108, damages for EMOTIONAL DISTRESS/INJURY are EXCLUDED to the extent they are paid for medical care. (f) Plaintiff recovered $200,000 in a suit of sexual harassment against her former coach? No exclusion from gross income. Damages arising from spoken words are NOT a physical injury and are included in gross income. Hypo: What if he had touched her but did not cause a physical injury (like a bruise)? Would that be enough to constitute a physical injury and fall within the exclusion? Analysis: This is a tricky area b/c according to the language, the damages have to be received on account of a physical personal injury and without it there is no exclusion, however this topic is debatable and we may be moving towards this constituting physical injury and non-taxable. (g) Plaintiff dies as a result of the leg injury, and Plaintiff’s parents recover $1,000,000 of punitive damages awarded in a wrongful death action under long-standing State statute? Damages are measured as punitive damages. That is the only type of suit the family has therefore it is treated as punitive and taxable. Note: There is an exception for punitive damages awarded in a wrongful death action under state law in effect on Sept. 12, 1995 if the punitive damages are the only wrongful death recovery. §104(c) SO, pursuant to the exception above, these punitive damages would be entirely EXCLUDED. Problem 2 – pg. 199 Injured and Spouse were injured in an automobile accident. Their total medical expenses incurred were $2,500. (a) In the year of the accident they properly deducted $1,500 of the expenses on their joint income tax return and filed suit against Wrongdoer. In the succeeding year they settled their claim against Wrongdoer for $2,500. What income tax consequences on receipt of the $2,500 settlement? § 104(a) reads: “Except in the case of amounts attributable to (and not in excess of) deductions allowed under § 213 . . .” So, anything already deducted cannot be excluded! Here, the exclusion only applies to $1,000 of the $2,500 settlement and $1,500 must be INCLUDED in gross income since it was already deducted. This must occur in order to prevent a double benefit (a deduction and an exclusion) (b) In the succeeding year Spouse was ill but, fortunately, they carried medical insurance and additionally Spouse had insurance benefits under a policy provided by Employer. Spouse’s medical expenses totaled $4,000 and they received $3,000 of benefits under their policy and $2,000 of benefits under Employer’s policy. To what extent are the benefits included in their gross income? Here, benefits received EXCEEDED the amount of the medical expenses. What amount of the $2,000 received from the employer’s funded policy may be excluded? We only care about the employer’s policy, because § 104(a)(3) ALWAYS excludes employee’s own policy. The amount of medical expenses to be considered paid by each policy is proportionate to the benefits received from each policy. Here, employee receives $2,000 from employer’s policy and $3,000 from own policy (total of $5,000). 2,000/5,000 or 2/5 of the medical expense is deemed paid by the employer’s policy. Therefore, 2/5 of the total $4,000 of medical expenses, or $1,600, will be considered as paid for out of the proceeds of the employer’s policy. It follows that of the $2,000 received from the employer funded policy only $1,600 is excluded by § 105(b), because the exclusion under § 105(b) is limited to the amount of reimbursement for ACTUAL EXPENSES. 47
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$400 of the $2,000 received is INCLUDED in the employee’s gross income. The $3,000 benefits under employee’s personal policy is excluded under § 104(a)(3) which has no such limitation. § 104(a)(3) always excludes the employee’s/individual’s own policy. Bottom line: Amount received by employer’s medical policy/fund is only excludable to the extent it is used to pay ACTUAL medical costs! (c) Under the facts of (b), above, may Injured and Spouse deduct the medical expenses? (See § 213(a).) NO! § 213 only covers expenses not compensated by insurance. Here, insurance covered the medical expenses, so no deduction is appropriate. Problem 3 – pg. 199 Injured, who has a 20-year life expectancy, recovers $1 million in a personal injury suit arising out of a boating accident. (a) What are the tax consequences to Injured if the $1 million is deposited in a money market account paying 5% interest? $1,000,000 is excluded under 104(a)(2). BUT, the 5% interest is INCLUDED in GI. 5% interest is not part of the damages recovery here. (b) What are the tax consequences to Injured if the $1 million is used by Injured to purchase an annuity to pay Injured $100,000 a year for Injured’s life? Same circumstances as the 5% interest above. The $1 Million settlement is EXCLUDED from gross income, HOWEVER any income derived from the annuity is INCLUDED in gross income. It’s not part of the damages award, so it’s INCLUDED. (c) What are the tax consequences to Injured if the case was settled, and in the settlement, Injured received payments from Defendant of $100,000 a year for life? Just to clarify, the settlement of $100,000 a year for life is in lieu of the $1,000,000 recovery stated in the facts above. Defendant can have discretion in crafting a settlement arrangement. A defendant could gamble and chance that injured would only live another 8 years, not 20! Here, the payments are all excluded, even if she were to live for 20 years and collect $2 million in total. All payments are excluded because it is part of a settlement related to physical injury. i. Revenue Ruling 79-313 (Pg. 201) is the authority for the proposition that payments from a settlement agreement are EXCLUDABLE from gross income under 104(a)(2). C HAPTER 14 – B USINESS D EDUCTIONS A. Introduction Gross Income – Deductions = Taxable Income Taxable Income x Tax Rate = Tax Liability We have deductions b/c they create certain incentives (e.g. charitable deductions, mortgage interest rate, etc…) 48
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The government is INDIRECTLY supporting the socio/political good-will of non-profit organizations and other “good” things Fairness: Levy based on the “ability to pay” The fundamental premise of our tax system is, and always has been, that taxes are assessed according to the “ability to pay” them—the more money you have the more able you are to assist with governmental costs (e.g. war in Iraq). We measure the ability to pay taxes by looking at how much the individual makes. Hypo: Suppose Teacher earns $100,000/year and someone else opens their own law practice and brings in income worth $100,000 for the year as well. Analysis: In theory they should both be taxed the same but in practice this is not so. It will cost Teacher very little to earn her income, whereas someone who has their own practice incurs more costs (e.g. building expenses, telephone expenses, etc…) If it costs him $40,000 to earn his $100,000 then we ought to be comparing $60,000 to the Teachers $100,000 salary. Taxpayers who have business activities are allowed to deduct these kinds of expenditures from their gross income leaving them with a net figure (instead of gross) that will be used to compare to others. The net amount is what should be compared. Business expenses made in the ordinary and necessary course of business are deductible, however capital expenditures which add value are taxable. ** Key Premise Nothing is presumed to be deductible unless we can find a specific deduction for it ** B. The Anatomy of the Business Deduction Workhorse: Section 162 1. “Ordinary and Necessary” § 162: Trade or Business Expenses : (a) In General: All ordinary and necessary expenses paid or incurred during the taxable year in carrying on any trade or business shall be allowed as a deduction, including— (1) a reasonable allowance for salaries or other compensation for services rendered; (2) Traveling expenses (including meals and lodging and such) while away from home in pursuit of a trade or business , AND (3) Rentals or other payments required to be made as a condition to the use or possession, for purposes of the trade or business, of property to which the taxpayer has not taken or is not taking title or in which he has no equity (b) Charitable contributions and gifts expected This does not include any charitable contribution or gift which would be allowable as a deduction under § 170. i. Welch v. Helvering Facts: 1. Taxpayer had been an executive in a bankrupt company. 2. When he became a commission agent in the same line of business, he voluntarily paid some of the company’s unpaid debts and deducted them as §162 expenses in order to restore his reputation. Issue: What does it mean to be “ordinary and necessary” expenses under §162 , and were these debt payments deductible? 49
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Held: The taxpayer cannot take a §162 deduction for the amounts paid on the discharged debts. Only ordinary and necessary business expenditures are deductible from gross income, and here, paying off the debt was not ordinary and thus it was not deductible. Analysis: *Ordinary: Something that is done in the ordinary/common course of business. The court found that this wasn’t an ordinary expense. It doesn’t have to be habitual or normal to the particular taxpayer but it has to be the kind of thing that people do in the community at large—the community the taxpayer is part of People, as a common matter, don’t normally pay off other people’s debts and therefore this was not ordinary. *Necessary: Means “appropriate and helpful” This wasn’t his debt, it was the company’s debt, therefore it may have been necessary for the company to pay them but not for Welch. The other key aspect of the opinion is that what Welch was essentially buying a business, buying a reputation, buying good-will and you can’t deduct it b/c it is a capital expenditure. Welch v. Helvering also holds that goodwill is a capital expenditure, a capital asset that increases basis and the value of one’s business, so it is not a deduction. If he had gone out and advertised, that would be deductible but he was creating an asset here, creating a value and that is taxable. Professor: Doesn’t think the court should be deciding whether or not a business decision was a good one. Problems on Pg. 314 1. Taxpayer is a businessman, local politician who is also an officer-director of a savings and loan association of which he was a founder. When, partially due to his mismanagement, the savings and loan began to go under, he voluntarily donated nearly one half a million dollars to help bail it out. Is the payment deductible under § 162? See Elmer W. Conti, 31 T.C.M. 348 (1972) The Court in Conti allowed for the deduction and would be at odds with the Welch case. To create a reputation/goodwill is a capital expense, but maintaining a reputation is deductible as a business expense (according to Conti Court). Maintenance of goodwill is an existing business asset, so it’s deductible. Distinction is between maintaining reputation/goodwill (deductible) and creating/buying goodwill (not deductible). RULE: If you’re protecting/defending/repairing a reputation you already have, you can deduct under §162. (See Conti & Twitty Burger ). If building a new reputation/creating goodwill, you cannot deduct, and it goes into basis. (See Welch ). Problems 1– pg. 342 1. Determine the deductibility under §§ 162 and 195 of expenses incurred in the following situations. (a) Tycoon, a doctor, unexpectedly inherited a sizeable amount of money from an eccentric millionaire. Tycoon decided to invest a part of her fortune in the development of industrial properties and she incurred expenses in making a preliminary investigation. Under § 162? You must be in or carrying on the trade or business in order to receive a deduction. In this case, she is not involved in this line of business yet, she is simply conducting preliminary investigations to decide whether she wants to be in this line of business. Expenses incurred during this time period are non- deductible. 50
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*** Must be carrying on an existing trade or business for § 162 to apply! *** Can’t take deductions until you are actually in the trade or business. Biz must be up and running and in existence before deductions are permitted under § 162. ALSO, it needs to be the SAME trade or business that you are already involved in. What about § 195? Note: Even under § 195, which allows you to amortize start-up deductions over a 6-month period, if you never start the business you are not allowed to take deductions either. Can only amortize the deductions after the business is created and operating. Hypo.: Husband and wife (older couple) were taking deductions on their trips from Long Island to go see plays on Broadway. Their argument was that “one day, we’re going to write a play.” HELD No deduction under §162 , not in a trade/business. ii. Tizard Case Facts: 1. Involved a TP who was in the Air Force. She then joined United Airlines, but she had to retire at age 65 per FAA regs. 2. TP decided to start up her own flying business. 3. In 2010, TP spent time traveling around the country and went to FL to buy the plane for her business. 4. She had an oral agreement w/ a man in FL to perform land surveys for him, but she never actually followed through on this agreement. 5. She drew up business plans and took a prospective client on a plane ride in AZ on her plane. 6. TP filed deductions for these expenses incurred under §162. IRS argues that this was improper. Held: The deductions were not allowed under §162. In 2010, everything the TP did was in preparation for the business. TP is not carrying on a trade/business, the business must be operating. Takeaway: 1. This is the reasoning applied in Problem 1(a). 2 . What about §195 deductions for TP in Tizard? Start-up expenses includes preliminary investigation, etc. You can take these deductions over 15 years (180 months), and it runs from the month you go into business. If you don’t elect to deduct under §195, the amount of expenses incurred just go into the basis of the business. iii. Hundley Facts: 1. Petitioner, who later became employed as a major league baseball player, was earlier taught the tools of his trade by his father, a former semi-professional baseball player. 2. As compensation for those services, it had been agreed that the petitioner (son) would pay his father 50% of any bonus that might be paid to petitioner under the terms of his baseball contract if he should later be signed. 3. Petitioner was subsequently signed with a bonus contract of which he paid his father half. Holding: The Tax Court found that this expense (payments to his father) was not paid/incurred prior to petitioner’s entering into the business of baseball, b/c the payment of compensation to the father was not due or incurred/payable until the petitioner was engaged in the business of baseball. Thus, the Court concluded that the payments were deductible under §162. 51
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Takeaway: Payments made for employment seeking services, which are made contingent upon employment and do not become due until employment is secured, are considered to have been “carrying on a trade or business” expenses and are deductible. My Notes on IRC § 195 - Deductions § 195 applies to start-up expenditures. § 195 allows a deduction for start-up expenditures in the year in which an active trade or business ACTUALLY begins and starts . 1. Expenditures of $5,000 or Less The statute tells us that if start-up expenditures/expenses are less than $5,000, then it is ALL deductible in the year in which the business starts. 2. Between $5,000 and $50,000 (More than $5,000, less than or equal to $50,000) If start-up expenditures are $50,000 or less, then you take $5,000 deduction in the year in which the business begins and the rest is amortized over a 180-month period. 3. Expenditures of more than $50,000 but less than or equal to $55,000 ($50,001 - $55,000) So, say expenditures are $54,500. § 195(b)(1)(A)(ii) $5,000 reduced by the amount over $50,000. SO, amount over $50,000 is $4,500. $5,000 - $4,500 = $500 IMMEDIATE DEDUCTION. The remaining $54,000 is amortized over 180 months (15 years). See Cornell Sheet. SO, if it was $55,000, no deduction in first year, and all $55,000 is amortized over 180 months. ($5,000 reduced by amount over $50,000, which is $5,000 = 0). 4. $55,000 and over Anything $55,000 and over is completely amortized over 180 months. No immediate deduction in the first year in which the business begins. So, $450,000 in expenditures is completely amortized over 180 months. (b) The facts are the same as in (a), above, except that Tycoon, rather than having been a doctor, was a successful developer of residential and shopping center properties. Matters if the businesses are the same! If the businesses are the same, then § 162 deductions apply. If they are separate trades or businesses, then § 195 would apply. In this case, the deductions would begin after the business is created and begins. Argument 1 (§ 195): Argue that she is part of the residential and shopping center properties, and industrial properties are outside of the scope of her trade or business. Argument 2 (§ 162): Argue that since she is already in the business of developing residential shopping center properties, industrial properties is simply an extension of this same line of business (characterize it as real estate development) and therefore the expenses should be deductible. However, it all depends on whether or not industrial property development is included in the same line of business as residential property development. If it is determined to be the same line of business it will be deductible, if not it is non-deductible As Tycoon’s lawyer, you would probably use argument 2 so that you do not have to deal with the difficulties of § 195. (c) The facts are the same as in (b), above, except that Tycoon, desiring to diversify her investments, incurs expenses in investigating the possibility of purchasing a professional sports team. Not in the same trade or line of business, so no deductions under § 162. Possible deduction under § 195 election, when the business begins. 52
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Up to taxpayer whether he/she elects to get the deduction under § 195. (d) The facts are the same as in (c), above, and Tycoon purchases a sports team. However, after two years Tycoon’s fortunes turn sour and she sells the team at a loss. What happens to the deferred investigation expenses? Seems like the expenses would be deductible under § 195(b)(2)—b/c that section allows for start-up expenditures to be equally deducted over a period of 6 months or more but not less than 6 months Would start at § 195(b)(2) and then go to § 165(c)(2). Transaction entered into for profit, not connected with a trade or business. ISSUE 2 What happens to the deductions that she would get for the next 13 years? Under §195(b)(2), she can take all the deductions that would be/could be used. Problems 2– pg. 342 2. Law student’s Spouse completed secretarial school just prior to student entering law school. Consider whether Spouse’s employment agency fees are deductible in the following circumstances: (a) Agency is unsuccessful in finding Spouse a job. NO. Not carrying on a trade or business. Spouse hasn’t begun working yet. Under §162, she’s not yet in a trade/business. Hypo: If you are a tax lawyer and you work at home, you can take deductions for business expenses and such. What happens if the lawyer now is incurring expenses in the search to find another job at a law firm or something. In that case, the lawyer is in the trade or business already. In this case, the Spouse is not in the trade and business, so she would not be able to deduct these costs. (b) Agency is successful in finding Spouse a job. NO. She was not carrying out a trade or business when she incurred these costs, so she also could not take the deduction at the time the expenses occurred. Same as (a), above, because she hasn’t entered the business yet. Also, w/ regards to §195, no one has ever applied §195 to employees. ( c) Same as (b), above, except that Agency’s fee was contingent upon its securing employment for Spouse and the payments will not become due until Spouse has begun working. Hundley case: The expenses were deductible (pg. 365). ** Here, payments are contingent upon success, therefore not payable UNTIL Spouse STARTS working. Therefore, Spouse IS in the trade or business at the time the expenses are incurred. This is a § 162(a) deduction. (d) Same as (a) and (b), above, except that Spouse previously worked as a secretary in Old Town and seeks employment in New Town where student attends law school. Here, she was in the trade or business prior to this expense. So whether she spends the money and is successful or unsuccessful, she is allowed the deduction for expenses. Let’s say that you are outside the business for a long period of time, when are you outside the business or trade? Rev Ruling 75-120 (above and Pg. 366 text) 53
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No deductions allowed under § 162(a) for expenses incurred by individuals who have been unemployed for such a period of time that there is a substantial lack of continuity between their past employments and their endeavors to find new employments. But the length of time necessary to establish this substantial lack of continuity remains uncertain. (e) Same as (d), above, except that Agency is successful in finding Spouse a job in New Town as a bank teller. Is this the same trade or business? (Was as a secretary, now job is bank teller) She was not in the trade or business of bank telling prior to getting this job, so she would not be able to take the deductions for the Agency expenses. HOWEVER, there is an argument that she WANTED a position as a secretary, but the only thing that the Agency could come up with was bank teller job. Professor Galler says IRS probably won’t penalize you if you are searching for a job in a trade or business and end up taking a job in a different trade or business. Galler Hypos: 1. As a law student, can you deduct the cost of a bar review prep course? NO. You are not yet in the trade or business (not a lawyer yet). 2. Say you are a licensed attorney in NY and you want to take a NJ bar prep course to take the NJ bar. Is the cost of the course deductible? Yes. This is deductible because you are already in the trade or business (you are already a lawyer!). 2. “Expenses” DEDUCTIONS (§162) VERSUS CAPITAL EXPENDITURES (§263) §162(a) allows a taxpayer to deduct “expenses” paid or incurred during the taxable year. On the other hand, § 263(a) states that no deduction shall be allowed for “any amount paid out for new buildings or for permanent improvements or betterments made to increase the value of any property.” §263(a) basically denies a current deduction for “capital expenditures.” The IRC thus requires taxpayers to distinguish expenses that are currently deductible from capital expenditures that cannot be deducted when they are made. Main Issue: The question is really one of timing b/c, as a general rule, in a business the cost incurred will either be: (1) deducted immediately; (2) capitalized and written off over a period of time by way of depreciation or amortization deductions; or (3) taken into account on a realization of gain/loss from the property. 3. The Regulations The regulations can be broken down into the following rules regarding the distinction b/twn deductions and capital expenditures: (1) Amounts paid to acquire or produce tangible property, both real and personal; (Reg. §1.263(a)-2); see also Idaho Power. (2) Amounts paid to improve tangible property, both real and personal; (Reg. §1.263(a)-3); see also Midland; cf. Mt. Morris. 54
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(3) Amounts paid to acquire or create intangible property; (Reg. §1.263(a)-4); see also Welch. (4) Amounts paid/incurred to facilitate an acquisition of a trade or business and similar business transactions. (Reg. §1.263(a)-5); see also INDOPCO. A. Amounts Paid to Acquire/Produce Tangible Property – Reg. §1.263(a)-2 - When a taxpayer purchases tangible property, such as land or a building, the expenditure must be capitalized and the taxpayer obtains a cost basis in the property. Similarly, if a taxpayer purchases intangible property, like stocks or bonds, the same principle applies. i. Commissioner v. Idaho Power Co. Facts: A taxpayer uses equipment and pays employees’ wages in the construction process of a capital facility. The equipment/wages normally would qualify for depreciation deductions in the taxpayer’s business. Rule: Costs incurred in the acquisition of a capital asset are to be treated as capital expenditures. This principle has obvious application to the acquisition of a capital asset by purchase, but it has been applied as well to the costs incurred in a taxpayer’s construction of capital facilities. Held: The amount of depreciation deductions on the equipment must be capitalized (rather than deducted) as part of the basis of the constructed property. Costs incurred in the acquisition of a capital asset are to be treated as capital expenditures. Takeaway: The rule of Idaho Power has been generally codified in §263A, a section that deals with capitalization of costs to construct tangible personal property and real property. B. Repairs Versus Improvements - Main issue here is trying to draw a distinction b/twn repairs (currently deductible expenses) and expenditures that are improvements to the property (amount required to be capitalized). i. Midland Empire Packing Co. v. Commissioner Facts: 1. For 25 years prior to the taxable year, taxpayer had used the basement rooms of its plant as a place for the curing of hams and bacon and for the storage of meat and hides. 2. The basement had been entirely satisfactory for this purpose over the entire period in spite of the fact that there was some seepage of water into the rooms from time to time. 3. In the taxable year, oil started to seep through the concrete walls of the basement of the packing plant and the oil caused serious issues in the plant (odors, fire hazard, etc.) 4. Taxpayer undertook steps to oil-proof the basement by adding a concrete lining to the walls and also added concrete to the floor of the basement. 5. It is the cost of this work which the taxpayer sought to deduct as a repair. Issue: Whether an expenditure for a concrete lining in taxpayer’s basement to oil-proof it against an oil nuisance created by a neighboring refinery is deductible as an ordinary and necessary expense under §162(a) on the theory that it was an expenditure for a repair? 55
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Commissioner arg.: Concedes that the repair may be “necessary,” but argues that it was not “ordinary” w/in the meaning of §162(a). Rule: Ordinary in this context does not mean that the payments must be habitual or normal in the sense that the same taxpayer will have to make them often. The situation may be unique in the life of the individual affected, but not in the life of the group, the community, of which he is a part. Held: After the expenditures were made, the plant did not operate on a changed or larger scale, nor was it thereafter suitable for new or additional uses. The expenditure served only to permit the taxpayer to continue the use of the plant, and particularly the basement for its normal operations. The expenditure of $4,868 for lining the basement walls and floor was essentially a repair and thus was deductible as an ordinary and necessary business expense under §162(a). Analysis: In determining whether an expenditure is a capital expenditure or chargeable against operating income, it is necessary to bear in mind the purpose to which the expenditure is made. If it is something that adds value to the property or prolongs its life it is a capital expenditure and is taxable. If it doesn’t, it is a deductible repair. To repair is to restore to a sound state or to mend, while a replacement connotes a substitution. E.g. Shoring up a floor to achieve continuing utility may be a deductible expense, but the replacement of a floor, or possibly even of an important door, is a capital expenditure. Takeaway: Reg. §1.162-4(a) defers to the §263 capitalization regulations, by stating that a taxpayer is allowed to deduct amounts paid for repairs and maintenance of tangible property if those amounts are not otherwise required to be capitalized. ii. Mt. Morris Drive-In Theatre Co. v. Commissioner Facts: 1. The taxpayer was required by threat of a lawsuit by an adjacent property owner to expend money for a drainage system. 2. The new drainage system would protect the taxpayer’s neighbors from the flow of water from its land onto their land. Issue: Does this expenditure (extremely similar to the one made in Midland), constitute a “repair” and thus qualify as a deductible expense instead of a capital expenditure? Held: NO, this was not a “repair.” This was a nondeductible capital expenditure. Takeaway: The main issue in Midland and Mt. Morris is whether there was a “betterment” to the property that was an improvement which must be capitalized. In applying the factors to Midland: (1) the oil nuisance was NOT a defect that existed prior to acquisition of the property, b/c although water seeped through for years, the property was still operable and the oil had never leaked through before; (2) the lining of the basement did not constitute a “major addition to the property;” and (3) the lining did not “materially increase its capacity, productivity, strength or quality.” Thus, the work in Midland was a “repair.” 56
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In contrast to Midland, the construction of a new drainage system in Mt. Morris constitutes either (1) a production of tangible property or (2) would be a betterment to the building b/c it ameliorates a preexisting material condition or defect. Thus, the costs in Midland are treated as a capital expenditure. Foreseeability Exercise In Mt. Morris Drive-In Theatre case, the CT held that a drainage system installed on a field was a capital expenditure because the taxpayer should have known about the problem when the property was bought. CT said that if the drainage system were installed at the very beginning (when property was bought) it would clearly be a capital expenditure. Here, anticipation of the installation of the drainage system was key. CT ruled that b/c taxpayer should have anticipated that the drainage would have had to be built anyway, it should be treated as a capital expenditure. If you should have anticipated that you would build it, then it should be a capital expenditure. All about anticipating the need when you first build/buy the property/asset. Capitalization Issues Under the capitalization regulations, a taxpayer generally must capitalize amounts paid to improve a unit of property. § 263(a): Capital Expenditures No deduction shall be allowed for (1) any amount paid out for new buildings, permanent improvements or betterments made to increase the value of any property. Basically, when you spend money to IMPROVE the PROPERTY and it adds value to such property, you don’t get to deduct it. They are taxable expenditures that need to be added to your basis. A unit of property is considered improved if amounts are paid after the property is placed in service that: (1) result in the betterment of the property; See Reg. §1.263(a)-3(j) (2) restore the property; See Reg. §1.263(a)-3(k) OR (3) adapt the property to a new or different use. See Reg. §1.263(a)-3(l). Betterment The capitalization regulations provide that a betterment results only if an amount paid: (1) ameliorates a material condition or defect in the property that either existed at acquisition or arose during production of the property, (2) results in a material addition to the property, OR (3) is reasonably expected to result in a material increase in capacity, productivity, efficiency, strength, or quality of the property. Restoration A restoration of property includes situations where the amount paid: (1) returns the property to its ordinarily efficient operating condition after it deteriorated to a state of disrepair where it was no longer functional for its intended use, OR (2) is a replacement of a part or a combination of parts that comprise a major component or structural part of the property. Adapt the Property to a New/Different Use An amount that is paid to adapt a property to a new or different use must also be capitalized if the 57
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adaptation is not consistent with the taxpayer’s intended ordinary use of the property at the time it was originally placed in service by the taxpayer. C. Amounts Paid to Acquire or Create Intangible Property i. INDOPCO, Inc. v. Commissioner Facts: 1. Taxpayer was known at the time as National Starch and Chemical Corp., and the other company which was taking over the taxpayer was Unilever United States, Inc. 2. Taxpayer hired both investment bankers and legal counsel to deal w/ the takeover. It paid its investment bankers $2,225,586, paid its legal counsel $505,069, and paid $150,962 for miscellaneous items such as accounting, etc. 3. On its fed. tax return, National Starch claimed a deduction for the money paid to the investment banker. (eventually, taxpayer argued that all these expenses should be deductible). 4. The Commissioner asserted that the claimed deduction was not allowed. Issue: Whether certain professional expenses incurred by a target corporation in the course of a friendly takeover are deductible by that corporation are “ordinary and necessary” business expenses under §162(a)? Taxpayer arg.: B/c the disputed expenses did not “create or enhance a separate and distinct additional asset,” they cannot be capitalized and therefore are deductible under §162(a). Rule 1: Deductions are exceptions to the norm of capitalizations. This is so b/c deductions are specifically enumerated in the IRC under §162(a). Meanwhile, nondeductible capital expenditures are, by contrast, not exhaustively enumerated in the code. Rule 2: Although the mere presence of an incidental future benefit – “some future aspect” – may not warrant capitalization, a taxpayer’s realization of benefits beyond the year in which the expenditure is incurred is undeniably important in determining whether the appropriate tax treatment is immediate deduction or capitalization. Held: No. The expenses that the taxpayer incurred in Unilever’s friendly takeover do not qualify for deductions as “ordinary and necessary” business expenses under §162(a). The fact that expenditures do not create/enhance a separate and distinct additional asset is not controlling; the acquisition-related expenses bear the indicia of capital expenditures. Takeaway: 1. Here, b/c the takeover transaction “produced significant benefits that extended beyond the tax year in question,” the costs of the transaction were required to be capitalized. 2. Due to the broad holding in this case, many taxpayers became worried that many routine business expenditures traditionally recognized as deductions, may be characterized as capital expenditures b/c they could be viewed as producing future benefits. The Treasury responded to the unease following INDOPCO by issuing a series of revenue rulings to reassure taxpayers that the case has not put the deductibility of various traditional business expenses at risk. Problems on Pg. 334 1. Landlord incurs the following expenses during the current year on a ten-unit apartment complex. Is each expenditure a currently deductible repair or a capital expenditure? 58
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(a) $500 for painting three rooms of one of the apartments. It does not prolong the life or make the property more valuable, this would probably fall under normal repairs and be a current deduction. (b) $4,000 for replacing the roof over one of the apartments. The roof had suffered termite damage. This might depend on the amount of damage that has incurred from the termite damage. If you are replacing the ENTIRE roof when only a small part of the roof was in disrepair from the termite, it might be a capital expenditure. However, from the language of the problem, it is only a repair of ONE apartment and not the entire ten- unit apartment complex. So, this would properly be said to be a repair and therefore a current deduction under § 162(a). Professor: Some would say that repairing the entire roof would be a capital expenditure, however repairing only part of the roof would fall under a deductible expense. Issue seems to be whether the expense involves a “major component” of the asset/property. If it’s a major component Capital expenditure § 263(a). If it’s a small component § 162(a) deduction. What if you replaced 1/10 of the roof every year for 10 years? Galler says you can still get away w/ a deduction here. This would technically be a repair every year, and thus deductible under §162(a). (c) $1,000 for patching the entire asphalt parking lot area. Galler: Patching seems like repairing, so this is probably a deductible expense under § 162(a). Although there is no sign of disrepair to the parking lot, this is patching and repairing the parking lot and would be a repair. Weak argument, but maybe because it’s the entire area, it could be a capital expenditure. If you rip up the entire parking lot and dump in new asphalt, then you can say this is a capital expenditure under §263(a). (d) $3,000 for adding a carport to an apartment. This would be a clear capital expenditure under § 263(a). This is a MAJOR BETTERMENT, you’re adding a new asset. (e) $100 for advertising for a tenant to occupy an empty apartment. This would be an ordinary expense b/c it is something that would be ordinary and necessary in the renting of property. Advertising is almost always held as a deductible ordinary and necessary business expense under §162(a). D. Depreciation 1. Introduction IRC §§ 167(a), (c), 168(a), (b), (c), (e)(1) and (2), (f)(1) and (5), (g)(1), (2) and (7), (i)(1); 1016(a)(2). Section 62(a)(1) and (4); 168(d); 263(a); 263A. REGS §§ 1.162-4; 1.167-(a)-(1)(a), -10; 1.167(b)-0(a), -1(a), -2(a). § 167(a) and 168(a) restrict the depreciation deduction to either: (1) Property used in a TRADE OR BUSINESS; OR (2) Property held for the PRODUCTION OF INCOME § 167 Defines What is Depreciable: (1) Property used in a trade or business (2) Property held for the production of income 59
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Prof. Galler breaks down §167 like this If I buy an asset, in order for it to be depreciable it has to be either for (1) use in a trade/business OR (2) held for the production of income, AND (3) it must be subject to wear and tear. Therefore, inventory and property held for sale to customers are placed OUTSIDE the scope of the section. Note: Property that is held for personal use is also placed outside the scope, even though it declines in value over a period of time b/c unimproved realty is said to be non-depreciable. Ex: Galler’s car. She cannot take depreciation deductions b/c it’s for personal use. Ex: However, a delivery truck for UPS you can take depreciation deductions on b/c it’s for use in a trade/business. Also, the property/asset must be susceptible to wear & tear. Land is not depreciable because it is not subject to wear & tear, only the building and improvements are. Hypo: Professor is sick of being a tax law teacher and decides she is going to quit and become a solo practitioner. She needs to buy office space (rental payments), salary to an assistant, office supplies, furniture, and computer equipment. Analysis: (1) Cost of rent, salary to assistant and office supplies? Deductible under §162(a)(1) & (a)(3). (2) Furniture and computer equipment? These are capital expenditures under §263(a) b/c Galler will use these for a long time. So, how do we account for depreciation deductions of Galler’s desk in her new office? She would have to account for the value of the desk at the beginning of the year and then value the desk at the end of the year in order to determine her depreciation deductions. However much it went down in value that year would be the depreciation, same analysis w/ her computer equipment. In theory, that’s what Galler’s depreciation deductions should be. The problem is that you cannot honestly ask taxpayers to account for this amount b/c you never really know how much something like this is worth until you offer to sell it to someone. This led to Congress repealing the depreciation system, and creating ACRS. 2. Accelerated Cost Recovery System (ACRS) ACRS is the current version of depreciation. It is a way of recovering the entire cost (basis) of an asset. It is a way for a taxpayer to recover the entire cost of an asset over the number of years b/c it allows you to deduct the entire cost of the asset over a period of time. Professor: In most instances, either b/c the property either goes up in value or b/c you have taken all of these deductions, the basis is actually lower than the actual value of the property when you sell it, so you end up with a gain. Special Note: It is not technically correct to say ACRS deductions but it is commonly used, so she doesn’t care if we say that or depreciation deductions. Under the current system, every year that you take deductions you will deduct your basis downwards leaving you with a zero basis at the end. Basis is adjusted downward by ACRS depreciation deductions, until basis reaches 0. Note: A real depreciation system would almost never allow you to get your basis down to zero. Requirements for Property to be Depreciable: To determine amount depreciable in any certain year you need the following: 1. Basis 2. Applicable Recovery period (determined by the class life classification) 3. Applicable Depreciation method 60
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4. Applicable Convention Must be property used in the trade or business or property held for the production of income Must be the type of property that is subject to wear and tear over its useful life Over time it wears out or at least decreases in value as it is used Note: That is why land is not depreciable b/c it doesn’t wear out, but pretty much everything else wears out including real estate (e.g., in buildings where the pipes wear out). Hypo: LG decides to leave Hofstra and open her own firm. She purchased furniture ($10,000) and computer equipment ($1,000). Determine her depreciation deductions. (1) Basis (Easiest Step) *** For the most part, basis is almost always going to be the cost of an asset/property *** ACRS is a way for the taxpayers to recover the cost of property. Thus, the maximum deduction that can be taken is the basis of the property. A/B = unrecovered cost of the property. It gets adjusted downward. To determine adjusted basis, subtract any depreciable amount from the original basis (regardless of whether the depreciation allowable was taken). If depreciation is not taken by property owner, the applicable method is the straight-line. Application to Hypo. 1: So, here basis in her office furniture is $10,000. Basis in her comp. equipment is $1,000. (2) Recovery Period (§ 168(e) Classification of property) In order to figure out the recovery period, we must first classify the property. First, look at 168(e)(3). If the exact property is not there, look at the general table in 168(e)(1), which provides how the property shall be treated based on the class life of the property. In this scenario, Galler would give us the class life of the property. Under 168(e)(1), the class life is determined by the type of property in the ADR (old booklet that provides class life for different types of property). Second, Once we have the class-life of the property, we look to § 168(e)(1) to determine how the property shall be treated (Ex: Is it 5-year property, OR is it 7-year property?) Finally, once we have the type of property (Ex: 5-year property), we go to § 168(c) to figure out the applicable recovery period. Each piece of property is classified under a table of class life (in years) of a certain amount. The classification will determine the applicable recovery period under § 168(c): Applicable recovery period. Application to Hypo. 1: So, here, under §168(e)(3)(B), the computer equipment has a class-life of 6 years and thus under §168(e)(1), it is classified as 5-year property. Galler says the furniture has a class-life of 10 years and thus under §168(e)(1), it is classified as 7-year property. Now go to §168(c) for the applicable recovery period. The applicable recovery period for the computer equipment is 5 years and the applicable recovery period for the furniture is 7 years. ** Now we have figured out (1) Basis and (2) Recovery Period. Next, we must figure out (3) Applicable depreciation method. ** (3) §168(b): Applicable depreciation method - There is a default method (§168(b)(1), which is an accelerated method). However, there are some exceptions. 61
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EXCEPTIONS: §168(b)(3) Straight-Line Method: The cost or other basis of the property, less its salvage value, is deducted in equal annual installments over the period of its estimated life. APPLIES TO non-residential real property; residential rental property (look to mid-month). Declining Balance Method: A uniform rate is applied to the unrecovered basis of the asset. Default Rule (IRC § 168(b)(1)): Except as otherwise provided, the applicable depreciation method is the 200% declining balance method switching to the straight-line method in the first year in which using the straight-line method will yield the larger deduction. The deductions start off being bigger and as the years go by, they become smaller. For purposes of calculating the ACRS deduction, you multiply the percentages [of the 200% declining method] by the original unadjusted basis (original cost of the item, e.g. $10,000 for the office furniture). Exceptions You can elect to use the 150% declining value numbers (different percentage tables, a little slower) under §168(b)(2), but Galler says we’re not worried about this method of depreciation. You can elect to use the straight-line method from the start Why would somebody want to slow it down (taking smaller deductions over a longer period of time) by electing to use the straight-line method? Usually occurs in a start up business or someone in a bad financial situation who wants to take advantage of taking deductions when he’s making more money (in the later years), rather than in the beginning. Application to Hypo. 1: So, here we use the §168(b)(1)(A) default rule for both. Taxpayers can elect to slow down the depreciation by switching from 200% to straight-line method. (4) § 168(d): Applicable Convention Default Rule (IRC § 168(d)(1)): a half-year convention applies (the property is treated as having been placed in service at the half-way point (midpoint) of the year for tax purposes). Treated as if you used the property in the trade or business for 6 months, regardless of how long you have actually used the property. SO, smart tax planning would be to put furniture in service in December, the last month of the year, because you would in essence receive 6 months of depreciation deductions even though you only used the property for one month. Exception is non-residential real property and residential rental property (mid-month). See IRC §168(d) (2). Under the Default Rule (Half-Year Convention) Defined in §168(d)(4)… The first year’s deduction is going to end up being half of what it would have been. The second year you are treated as if you had the item for the whole year and are entitled to the entire deduction. Calculated in 1st year, treat it as July 1st. This creates an interesting situation. The other half-year spills out into the year after the recovery year. The real recovery period of a 5-year period is 6 years (7 year periods will spill over into year 8, etc…) 62
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Mid-Quarter Convention EXCEPTION (Defined in §168(d)(4)(C)): Congress was concerned that people were going to place property in service at the end of the preceding year so that they could get the deduction for that year. Ex: Placing property in service in December (only 1 month), but receiving a larger deduction. Mid-Quarter Convention EXCEPTION (§ 168(d)(3)): Special rule where substantial property is placed in service during the last 3 months (last quarter) of the taxable year. If more than 40% of the aggregate basis of the property is placed in service in the last quarter of that year, then instead of the half-year convention applying, the mid-quarter convention will apply. Mid-point of the quarter is used instead of the mid-point of the year. Property is treated as being placed during/on the mid-point of a quarter in a taxable year. For example, for Quarter 1, the Mid-Quarter would be around February 15th. Mid-Quarter Convention Exception applies when… (Sum all basis of assets placed in service during a calendar year) * 40% (0.40) If the sum basis of the amount placed in service in the last 3 months is greater than the amount yielded above, then the mid-quarter convention will apply. If mid-quarter convention applies, then owner is entitled to depreciation reflection of only (1 ½ months) [(1/8) of the year] Application to Hypo 1: Use 7-year depreciation standard for office furniture. Use ACRS chart to determine. Result for Furniture (1) $1,429; (2) $2,449; (3) $1,749; (4) $1,249; (5) $893; (6) $892; (7) $893; (8) $446. ALL ADDS UP TO $10,000. Result for Comp. Equipment (1) $200; (2) $320; (3) $192; (4) $115.20; (5) $115.20; (6) 57.60. ALL ADDS UP TO $1,000. What happens if you sell computer in Year 4 for 500? Divide $115.20 in half b/c of the mid-year convention application. See IRC §168(d)(4)(A) (“or disposed of...”) - Result is $1,000 - $770 = $230 (Your A/B). $500 (A/R) - $230 (A/B) = gain of $270. Hypo 2: Suppose the property that was placed in service had an original basis (cost) of $1,000. The property was placed into service in year 2005 and it is a 5-year property. The weights that you receive from ACRS is 20% in year 1, 32% in year 2, 19.20% in year 3, 11.52% in year 4, 11.52% in year 5 and 5.76% in year 6. (per the ACRS chart). Analysis: What you end up having is a 6-year period even though it is a 5-year property b/c of the half-year convention ACRS Deductions: Year 1 1,000 * 20% = 200 Year 2 1,000 * 32% = 320 Year 3 1,000 * 19.2% = 192 Year 4 1,000 * 11.52% = 115.20 Year 5 1,000 * 11.52% = 115.20 Year 6 1,000 * 5.76% = 57.60 The half year convention EXPLAINS why the deduction is smaller in year 1 rather than in year 2 as well as why the deductions get smaller and smaller and then even out at 11.52% 63
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Note: The 6th year percentage is half of that 11.52% in years 4 and 5 b/c the people who make the ACRS tables are smart! This “half deduction” in year 6 also reflects the “half deduction” received in year 1 (via half-year convention). So, in total/actuality, it is really five full years of deductions, even though it is spread over 6 years (half deduction in year 1 and 6). The total deduction amount adds up to $1,000 over the 6-year period! You NEVER get depreciation deductions for more than original basis/cost! Facts Extended: You go ahead and sell the property on February 1st of 2007. Analysis: The basis must be adjusted according to the half-way point of the year you sold. *** Whatever convention applied to begin the deductions IS THE SAME convention applied when the property is SOLD *** The Year in which you sell the property only results in a half deduction (assuming half-year deduction applies). So . . . Year 1 = 200 Year 2 = 320 Year 3 = 96 (half of the 192 amount) Note: The buyer is going to get ACRS deductions on this property in year 2007 as well b/c the seller will get the 96 dollars for the half-year deduction and the buyer will take a deduction in the amount of the first years ACRS deduction percentages. ACRS is a taxpayer friendly provision that gives people a boost in order to get them to buy stuff. The presumption or justification underlying this transaction for the government is that the person buying wouldn’t have incentive to normally buy this depreciated piece of property and the person who is selling it will go out and buy a new one. i. Reg. § 1.1016-382 If you don’t take the ACRS deductions, then the amount that your basis will go down will reflect what the basis would be under the straight-line method. § 179: Election to expense certain depreciable business assets (BONUS Depreciation) Policy: Aimed at helping small businesses. Prof. Galler says this provision doesn’t even really help that much b/c it just “smushes” the deductions forward. It allows you to deduct $500,000 of otherwise ACRS deductions in Year 1. So, if a farmer buys a tractor worth $500,000, he can deduct the whole cost in Year 1. If he qualifies under §179, he doesn’t have to follow ACRS depreciation deductions, he can just deduct it all under §179(b)(1). But, if the farmer bought something worth over $2,000,000, then the amount deductible from the original $500,000 is reduced by the amount of $ spent over the $2,000,000 limit. See §179(b)(2). a. Qualifying assets A qualifying §179 asset is any tangible property that is §1245 property and that is acquired by purchase for use in the active conduct of a trade or business. See §179(d)(1). For example, trucks, computers, telephones, fax machines, and tools will qualify. b. Placed in service The taxpayer must actually deploy the asset in the trade or business during the taxable year in which the asset is purchased. c. Election Required The taxpayer must affirmatively elect to apply §179, and the election is irrevocable. Ex: In 2011, D&C purchased trucks at a cost of $2,300,000 for use in its concrete business. The maximum §179 deduction is $500,000, but this is reduced by the amount of qualifying property placed in service during 64
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the year that exceeds $2,000,000. This amount is $300,000. Thus, D&C can only claim a §179 deduction of $200,000. d. Taxable income limit The §179 deduction is limited to the amount of the taxpayer’s taxable income from the active conduct of a trade or business. See §179(b)(3)(A). Taxable income includes the net income from all the taxpayer’s active trade or businesses. Ex : In 2011, Mandie bought $50,000 worth of kennels and other equipment for her dog grooming business. In 2011, she had $25,000 of taxable income from her business, and $7,500 of dividends received from investments. Although Mandie had $50,000 of qualifying §179 purchases, she can only deduct $25,000, b/c that was her amount of taxable income from her trade/business. She cannot add the $7,500 of dividend income to the limit b/c that income is not derived from a trade/business. What if we are depreciating Real Estate? Same four steps apply: (1) Basis; (2) Recovery Period; (3) Method; (4) Convention. § 168(e)(2) 2 classifications of Real Property for purposes of depreciation deductions (1) Residential Rental Property (RRP) (2) Nonresidential Real Property (NRP) ** CLEARLY EXCLUDED FROM DEPRECIATION IS PERSONAL RESIDENTIAL HOME (NO TRADE OR BUSINESS) ** 1. Basis Cost. BUT, could also be an adjusted basis of the property. 2. Recovery Period for Real Estate IRC § 168(c) Recovery period for RRP & NRP RRP 27.5 year recovery period NRP 39 year recovery period 3. Method for Real Estate IRC § 168(b)(3) Straight-Line Method used for both types of Real Property (RRP & NRP) 4. Convention for Real Estate IRC § 168(d) Mid-month convention is used for both types of Real Property (RRP & NRP) D. Miscellaneous Business Deductions 1. Business Losses: IRC §§ 165(c)(1); 280B Gains are always includable in gross income, it just depends on whether it is a capital gain or gross income, however not all loses are deductible. Although § 165(a) seems to make all losses deductible an individual taxpayer may only deduct such losses that are identified in § 165(c). § 165(a) NO DEDUCTION if loss was compensated by INSURANCE. § 165(c)(1) limits the deduction by an individual to: 1. Any loss “incurred in a trade or business” 2. Losses incurred in any transaction entered into for profit, though not connected with a trade or business. 3. Except as provided in § 165(h), losses of property not connected with a trade or business or a transaction entered into for profit, if such losses arise from fire, storm, shipwreck, or other casualty, or from theft. Just as mere appreciation in the value of the property is not income subject to tax, so a mere decline in the value of property is not a loss that can be deducted. To be deductible under § 165(c)(1), a loss must be evidenced by a closed and completed transaction, such as a sale, or fixed by an identifiable event, such as a fire. If the § 165(c)(1) losses incurred in a business during the year, along with its other expenses, exceed its income, the business will be unprofitable and the owner will have an overall business loss for the year. 65
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The amount of the business loss can be deducted against other types of income such as income from investments, other businesses or salaries. If one has a business loss and no other income, or if the business loss exceeds one’s other income, so that the loss cannot be fully utilized to reduce taxable income, the person will get the benefit of a net operating loss carry-back or carryover to another taxable year. Problems on Pg. 392 1. Taxpayer has an automobile used exclusively in Taxpayer’s business which was purchased for $40,000 and, as a result of depreciation deductions, has an adjusted basis of $22,000. When the automobile was worth $30,000, it was totally destroyed in an accident and Taxpayer received $15,000 of insurance proceeds. (a) What is Taxpayer’s deductible loss under Section 165? A/B is $22,000 (A/B is the most that can be used to measure the loss) A/R is $15,000 (Insurance Proceeds) = $7,000 loss that is deductible under § 165. Note: Why start w/ the basis? He depreciated from 40,000 down to 22,000. What depreciation does is allow somebody to take into account what something is worth. Whatever depreciation deductions were taken are already gone. So, he paid 40,000 for it, but already got 18,000 in deductions, so start w/ A/B. Look at Reg. §1.165-7(b)(1)(i)-(ii) (pgs. 1023 Tax&Reg. Book). Applying the reg., you use §1.165-7(b)(1)(ii), which is the basis ($22,000) but then subtract $15,000 b/c the TP already got that in insurance proceeds. (b) What result in (a), above, if the automobile had not been totally destroyed but was worth $10,000 after the accident? See Reg. § 1.165-7(b)(1)? Adjusted Basis = $22,000 FMV pre-damage = $30,000 FMV post-damage = $10,000 Difference in FMV is $20,000 Reg. §1.165-7(b)(1)(i)-(ii) The amount of loss to be taken into account for purposes of § 165(a) shall be the lesser of either (i) The amount which is equal to the FMV of the property immediately before the casualty reduced by the FMV of the property immediately after the casualty (Here is $20,000) OR (ii) the amount of the adjusted basis (Here is $22,000). Here, the difference in FMV’s ($20,000) is less than adjusted basis ($22,000). So, using $20,000 we subtract the $15,000 of insurance proceeds, and the Taxpayer’s deductible loss is $5,000. Not On Exam -(c) What is Taxpayer’s adjusted basis in the automobile in (b), above, if Taxpayer incurs $17,000 fixing the automobile? $22,000 (adjusted basis) - $15,000 (insurance proceeds) - $5,000 (deductible loss) leaves you with an adjusted basis of $2,000. Now, you add the $17,000 (fixing the car, capital improvement) to that basis and you get an adjusted basis of $19,000. The reason that you subtract the $15,000 and the $5,000 from your A/B is b/c otherwise you would be receiving a double tax benefit. (i.e., you would retain a high basis when you sell the car later on which minimizes your taxable gain) E. Specific Business Deduction [-2, 23] 1. Reasonable Salaries IRC §162(a)(1); (m); 280G. Regs. §1.162-7, -8, -9. 66
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There shall be allowed as a deduction all the ordinary and necessary expenses paid or incurred during the taxable year in carrying on any trade or business, including – “A reasonable allowance for salaries or other compensation for personal services actually rendered.” See §162(a)(1). If an amount of $ is deemed unreasonable, then whatever “amount” is unreasonable (excess), is not deductible. The main concern of the government however, is salary being disguised as a dividend. DIVIDEND is NOT DEDUCTIBLE UNDER § 162. ONLY SALARY IS. i. Exacto Springs Corp. v. Commissioner Facts: 1. In 1993 and 94, Exacto a closely held corporation, engaged in the manufacture of precision springs, paid its co-founder, CEO, and principal owner WH, $1.3 and $1 million respectively in salary. 2. Commissioner argued that these amounts were excessive. Issue: The question is whether the salary is excessive? Holding: ( Independent Investor Test ) When, notwithstanding the CEO’s exorbitant salary, the investors in his company are obtaining a far higher return than the investors had any reason to expect, his salary is presumptively reasonable. Analysis: Here, 7th Circuit abandoned the multi-factor approach and adopted the “Independent Investor Test” as the exclusive method for determining whether a business may deduct compensation under § 162. Not all CTs have abandoned the multi-factor approach though. Galler thinks “IIT” is just another factor to the multi-factor approach, and is nothing new. The court uses the presumptively reasonable language b/c they can imagine cases in which the return, though very high, is not due to the CEO’s exertions. The government can prevail by showing that the salary indeed hid dividend payments. Or, suppose Exacto had been an unprofitable company that suddenly learned that its factory was sitting on an oil field, and when oil revenues started to pour in, its owner raised his salary from $50,000 a year to $1.3 million. Here, presumption of reasonable would be rebutted. ii. Harolds Club v. Commissioner Facts: 1. In years 1952 to 1956, Harolds Club paid Raymond I. Smith salary in annual amounts ranging from about $350,000 to $560,000. 2. Commissioner disallowed in part the corporation’s deductions based on these payments, claiming the salaries were unreasonable. 3. Smith was not a shareholder in the corporation, all the stock was owned by his two sons. 4. Smith was paid a salary plus a bonus which was determined at the end of each year. 5. The Corporation took deductions for the compensation paid to Smith which ranged from $1,367,029.88 to $2,098,906.01. Issue: Reg. §1.162-7(b)(2) (pg. 996 Tax/Reg. Book) says that even if a salary exceeds a reasonable amount, the payer of services can still deduct it so long as (1) contingent on profits of business and (2) was the result of a free bargain. Was this a “free bargain?” 67
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Holding: A corporation that is a separate entity (its own taxpayer) with one shareholder who distributes a dividend to the shareholder must include that amount in gross income and it cannot be deducted. Dividends are not deductible. Analysis: You are allowed to take deductions of “reasonable salaries” The Commissioner argued that the salary was not reasonable However, the Petitioner argues that you cannot measure reasonableness in exact dollars. This was a contract that was a result of a “free bargain.” If the parties freely bargained for this arrangement then it is reasonable The reasoning or rationale was that this compensation resulted from “free bargaining” Reg. §1.162-7(b) (pg. 996) Deals with contingent compensation (e.g. percentage of profits) *** Very Important Regulation *** “Generally speaking, if contingent compensation is paid pursuant to a free bargain between the employer and the individual made before the services are rendered, not influenced by any consideration on the part of the employer other than that of securing on fair and advantageous terms the services of the individual, IT SHOULD BE ALLOWED AS A DEDUCTION EVEN THOUGH IN THE ACTUAL WORKING OUT OF THE CONTRACT IT MAY PROVE TO BE GREATER THAN THE AMOUNT WHICH WOULD ORDINARILY BE PAID.” Basically says this: If its contingent compensation, and the arrangement is the result of a free bargain between the parties, then its ok if the amount of the compensation is unreasonable. Corporation can still take the deduction if its free bargain. Two Arguments from Taxpayer in Harold’s Club: 1. The agreement was made in 1941 and the IRS audited the books in the years following and never made an issue as to the salary being unreasonable. If the IRS thought the salary was reasonable in previous years, then it is still reasonable. 2. There was free bargaining (Better Argument). Taxpayer argued that it was a free bargain because his sons were adults and legally competent. The Court did not buy argument (1) b/c the IRS did not have a reason to look at these decisions b/c at the time that they were taking these deductions, the dad’s salary wasn’t this high. *** W/ respect to argument (2), You must look at all the circumstances surrounding the employer/employee relationship and one of the factors that the court looked at was the fact that there was a father/son relationship and therefore it may not have been the result of a free bargain. *** The CT said there was NO FREE BARGAIN in this case because of the dynamics of the family relationship, specifically, that the dad likely controlled and dominated the sons. But what is the problem with this case? The problem with this case is that instead of issuing a dividend, the corporation pays it out as compensation, however the only difference here is that the person being paid is not a shareholder (effectively he is but he does not own any of the shares probably b/c he had previously been convicted of violating gambling laws in California and is ineligible to be a shareholder). Basically, Mr. Smith was not a shareholder in the corporation, and is taking a % of the profits (essentially, a dividend, which the corporation should not be allowed to deduct under 162). Government concerned about disguised dividends and it believed that the “compensation” being paid to Mr. Smith was more like a dividend, not compensation for services. Disguised dividends are also known as constructive dividends. He still was clearly the brains behind this corporation so the only way the IRS can rectify the situation is to argue, pursuant to § 163, that the amount being compensated is unreasonable and therefore cannot be deducted (treating the corporation as if they had issued a dividend for tax purposes) 68
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In practical terms, this means that Mr. Smith is in the same position, tax wise, as a shareholder receiving a dividend. The corporation is the one losing out because their taxable income is higher since they are disallowed the deduction (have to pay taxes on the excess of what the court considers reasonable compensation instead of this total compensation amount being deducted) Professor: What about CEO’s earning a million gazillion dollars? Clinton tried to get security laws passed where compensation to the CEO would have to be disclosed (b/c most of the time shareholders are uninformed of these details). Additionally, he would disallow deductions for salaries above $1 million dollars (remember this was 12 years ago and the amount must be adjusted). Note: Not just CEO salaries The reasoning behind this was that corporations should be allowed to pay their CEO’s whatever they want to but the taxpayers shouldn’t be the ones who are subsidizing it. Baseball players got pissed b/c most of the juiceheads were making excess of $1 million in salary. The language of the proposal was then amended to read, “unless compensation is tied to performance.” This helps the ballplayers b/c they are paid and given raises based upon their performance. § 162(m): Certain excessive employment remuneration There is no deduction allowed for publicly held companies for salaries to the extent that the salaries exceed $1 million dollars for (1) the CEO, and (2) the next four highest paid people in the corporation. As mentioned above, this is LIMITED by § 162(m)(4)(C)(i) Deductions for salaries of over $1 million are allowed if the employee’s compensation is tied to the attainment of one or more performance goals. GOLDEN PARACHUTES: Oftentimes when ownership of a corporation changes hands through a takeover, merger, or otherwise, a key executive may “bail out,” either voluntarily or involuntarily. Such generous severance packages are called “golden parachutes.” § 280G: Golden Parachute Payments - Lets the air out of golden parachutes by prohibiting a §162 deduction to the payor corporation for excess parachute payments and by tagging the recipient of such payment with a 20% excise tax in addition to income and social security taxes. Parachute payment is any payment in the nature of compensation made to a “disqualified” individual. “A disqualified individual is an employee, independent contractor or other person specified in regulations who performs personal services for the corporation and who is an officer shareholder, or highly compensated individual of such corporation.” The payment must be contingent on a change in the ownership or effective control of a corporation, and the aggregate present value of all such payments must equal or exceed three times the disqualified individual's base amount. Problem 1 on Pg. 356 1. Employee is the majority shareholder (248 of 250 outstanding shares) and president of Corporation. Shortly after Corporation was incorporated, its Directors adopted a resolution establishing a contingent compensation contract for Employee. The plan provided for Corporation to pay Employee a nominal salary plus an annual bonus based on a percentage of Corporation’s net income. In the early years of the plan, payments to Employee averaged $50,000 annually. In recent years, Corporation’s profits have increased substantially and, as a consequence, Employee has received payments averaging more than $200,000 per year. 69
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(a) What are Corporation’s possible alternative tax treatments for the payments? To the corporation, if the compensation is masked as dividends, the compensation is taxed beyond its reasonableness. Whatever amount is deemed unreasonable is not deductible. Dividends aren’t salary, so a corporation cannot deduct them. However, since this is CONTINGENT COMPENSATION, if this is the result of a free bargain, then the salary can be deducted EVEN if it would normally not be reasonable. Was this the result of a free bargain? Probably NOT, because the employee owns 248/250 shares of the corporation, and the Board of Directors serves at the pleasure of the employee. IF THIS IS NOT A FREE BARGAIN, THEN WE LOOK TO WHETHER THE AMOUNT OF SALARY IS REASONABLE UNDER 162(a)(1). Only if the amount paid is unreasonable do you get to the fair bargain issue. If it’s reasonable under 162(a)(1), then it’s deductible. To determine if its reasonable, CTs employ several different factors. (b) What factors should be considered in determining the proper tax treatment for the payments? Test of Reasonableness: Contingent compensation, generally speaking, should be allowed as a deduction even though it may prove to be greater than the amount which would ordinarily be paid, if paid pursuant to a “free bargain” b/w the employer and the individual, and if the contract for compensation was reasonable under the circumstances “existing at the date when the contract for services was made” (1) Type and extent of the services rendered (wouldn’t expect a mailman to make a ton of $) (2) Scarcity of qualified employees (who can perform this job?) (3) Qualifications and prior earning capacity of the employee (4) Contributions of employee to the business venture (5) Net earnings of the employer (6) Prevailing compensation paid to employees with comparable jobs (7) Peculiar characteristics of the employer’s business. However, as in Harolds , at the date when the contract for services was made, the employee was a majority shareholder and in turn, the court might find that this compensation arrangement is not a result of a free bargain Now, you have to decide whether the compensation is reasonable? The court in Exacto Spring Corporation v. Commissioner adopted the “ Independent Investor Test This court said that it ought not to be the role of judges to second guess the decisions made by the business people (salaries made by these business experts) If an independent investor’s return is high enough, the independent investor wouldn’t care about the compensation amount and therefore it is reasonable. Hypo: Mother is a majority shareholder of a corporation owning 248/250 shares and mother hires son, who makes more money than a similarly situated employee. What result? The amount given in excess to the son could be a constructive dividend to the mom. The $ (dividend here) is a gift to the son, but it’s a constructive dividend that mom gets taxed on. Corporation would LOSE its deduction on the amount in excess that the son is paid (this would probably be the difference between his salary and the other employee) AND this is b/c even though the mom isn’t admitting this, a CT would deem this extra amount to the son as a dividend, which corporations cannot deduct. B/C Corporation isn’t taking a deduction, mother has income in the form of a dividend (taxed at capital gain rate). Gift to son (no tax since its excluded). 70
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(c) The problem assumes Employee always owned 248 of the Corporation’s 250 shares. Might it be important to learn that the compensation contract was made at a time when Employee held only 10 out of the 250 outstanding shares? If you only own 10 of the shares (non-controlling shareholder), then presumably there was a free bargain and regardless of the dollar amount being compensated it will be deemed reasonable b/c there was a free bargain exchange. This would definitely be a stronger argument for the existence of a free bargain. Difference in share amount is key (248 shares vs. 10 shares!) Galler: Important to look at the circumstances of when the bargain was made. Here, the number of shares is important/can be determinative. Key Takeaways from “Reasonable Salaries” Unit: If it’s (1) contingent compensation and the compensation agreement is (2) the result of a free bargain, then it doesn’t matter if the compensation amount is unreasonable. Corporation can still deduct amount as salary pursuant to § 162(a)(1). See also Reg. §1.162-7. If it’s not a free bargain, THEN we look to whether the amount of salary is reasonable! Once we are out of the realm of “free bargain,” then we look to whether the amount of salary is reasonable. In determining whether salary is reasonable, CTs employ various methods/factors. So, if it’s contingent compensation, and it’s a free bargain then it’s OK (even if it’s a huge amount). If it is not a free bargain, then look to whether it’s reasonable based on factors used by the courts. 2. Travel “Away From Home” IRC § 162(a)(2), 162(a) (second to last sentence); 274(n)(1). See § 162(h); 274(c), (h) and (m)(1) and (3). REGS: § 1.162-2(omit-2(c)). IRC § 162(a)(2) There shall be allowed as a deduction all the ordinary and necessary expenses paid or incurred during the taxable year in carrying on any trade or business, including – (a)(2) “traveling expenses (including amounts expended for meals and lodging other than amounts which are lavish or extravagant under the circumstances) while away from home in the pursuit of a trade or business.” ** HOME as defined in 162(a)(2) means PPB, Employers’ business, etc. NOT your personal home. ** Problems on Pgs. 375-376 1. Commuter owns a home in Suburb of City and drives to work in City each day. He eats lunch in various restaurants in City. (a) May commuter deduct his costs of transportation and/or meals? See Reg. § 1.162-(2)(e). Transportation Costs: NO. Transportation to and from work is a personal expense. ( Flowers ). Business travel starts when you get to work, not when you leave home (abode). See Regulation below. Meals costs: Not in a pursuit of a business when eating lunch. This is a personal expense. No deduction. 71
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i. Reg. § 1.162-2(e) Traveling expenses (Pg. 973 Tax/Reg. Book) Commuter’s fares are not considered as business expenses and are not deductible. Policy: The transportation cost is a personal choice, others shouldn’t have to subsidize this cost and therefore commutable expenses are considered personal expenses and are not deductible. ii. Reg. 1.62-2: Traveling Expenses - For a travel expense to be a deductible business expense the following three conditions must be met (via Flowers ): (1) Expense must be a reasonable and necessary traveling expense, as that term is generally understood (includes such items as transportation fares and food and lodging expenses incurred while traveling); (2) The expense must be incurred “while away from home”: The meaning of the word “home” with reference to a taxpayer residing in one city and working in another has engendered much difficulty and litigation, however the Tax Court and officials have consistently defined it as the equivalent of the taxpayer’s place of business Distinguish b/twn a residence home and “home” for the purposes of § 162. 2 courts have rejected that view and confined the term to the actual residence. (3) Expense must be incurred in pursuit of business: There must be a direct connection b/twn the expenditure and the carrying on of the trade or business of the taxpayer or of his employer. Moreover, such an expenditure must be necessary or appropriate to the development and pursuit of the business or trade. (b) Same as (a), above, but Commuter is an attorney and often must travel between his office and the City Court House to file papers, try cases etc. May Commuter deduct all or any of his costs of transportation and meals? Transportation Costs: The costs of going from your office to the City Court House ought to be deductible since you’re leaving your “home” in pursuit of business. In the case of a regular job, commuting to the office is simply a commuting cost and is non-deductible; however any travel that occurs AFTER you have ARRIVED at work is directly attributable to the business and should be deductible. What if it is simply easier for the lawyer to go straight to the court rather than driving to the office and then subsequently to the court? Should this commute be deductible? Professor: Reads the revenue ruling as if this were simply a commuting expense and therefore non- deductible. Essentially providing an incentive for firms not to locate their office close to the courthouse (however firms don’t always do this). Basically, the first travel of the day and the last travel home would not be deductible. Meal Costs: Not deductible, it’s a personal expense, NOT in pursuit of a trade/business. Arguably, the meals could be deductible if the attorney is having lunch with a client or another lawyer, if the “business pursuit” element of travel expenses is satisfied. ** If an employee is going to a temporary work place outside of the metropolitan area where that employee usually works, transportation expenses are deductible even without stopping at your BUSINESS HOME FIRST ** Can deduct from home to airport and other expenses without stopping at your business home. Example: Galler had a meeting in Chicago at noon. She drove from her house to LGA and flew out at 8 A.M., and arrived home at 7 P.M. She never stopped at her office. Galler was traveling b/twn her house and a 72
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temporary work location, so the commuting expense to LGA was deductible. But, if Galler eats lunch while in Chicago, it’s NOT deductible. (c) Commuter resides and works in City, but occasionally must fly to Other City on business for his employer. He eats lunch in Other City and returns home in the late afternoon or early evening. May he deduct all or part of his costs? Transportation/travel costs are deductible. Revenue Ruling also says that if you’re leaving the metropolitan area, you don’t need to stop at the office first, you can leave from your residential home (abode) and still get the deduction. (See above) However, the meals would not be deductible under the “overnight rule,” which provides that if you are traveling only for a short period of time, where meals do not necessarily have to be done on that travel, you are not allowed to deduct these meals (Seen in Rosenspan). Can deduct an otherwise personal meal (up to 50%) only if the travel requires an overnight stay! 2. Taxpayer lives with her husband and children in City and works there. (a) If her employer sends her to Metro on business for two days and one night each week and if Taxpayer is not reimbursed for her expenses, what may she deduct? See § 274(n)(1). §274(n)(1): Items not deductible Only 50% of meal and entertainment expenses allowed as deductible. Travel & Lodging expenses are DEDUCTIBLE b/c this expense was a reasonable and necessary traveling expense incurred away from home in pursuit of the business. Meals: The meal expenses can be deducted b/c the overnight rule is satisfied, HOWEVER § 274(n)(1) limits the amount that is deductible to 50% of the cost of meals. Why do you not have this restriction in lodging? You are paying for rent and paying for lodging at the same time (Double Cost). While, with food, you need to eat whether you are home or not, but Congress allows 50% deduction for meals on the road under the assumption that meals on the road would incur more of a cost then at home (where you know the area and can buy groceries, etc.). Professor: The real reason is the fact that there a revenue concerns regarding such expenses. (b) Same as (a), above, except that she works three days and spends two nights each week in Metro and maintains an apartment there. Travel & Lodging: Where is the taxpayer’s PPB (home)? If it’s Metro, then travel to City and back is deductible (as well as lodging). If PPB (home) is City, then travel to and from Metro is deductible (and lodging). ** Wherever HOME is, travel to the other place and back is deductible under § 162(a)(2). Meals Whenever you’re away from home and in pursuit of business, and overnight rule is satisfied, 50% of meals is deductible. This is a lot like Andrews v. Commissioner , it should be argued that the “exigencies of the trade or business” causes her to maintain said apartment and such expenses are deductible (both meals and lodging). In Andrews, the taxpayer argued that he had two tax homes. Government said there could only be ONE! 73
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Hantzis Where business necessity requires that a taxpayer maintain two places of abode, and thereby incur additional and duplicate living expenses, such duplicate expenses are a cost of producing income and should ordinarily be deductible. WHO DEDUCTS THIS? BUSINESS OWNER OR EMPLOYEE? Andrews: “Home” is where one’s “major post of duty” (FACTUAL QUESTION) Given this definition of home, you could make an argument the other way if you look at certain factors— see footnote 10 on pg. 370 . Markey An objective test to determine the status of TP’s “major post of duty,” including three factors… (1) ** Length of time spent at the location** (CARE MOST ABOUT THIS) (2) Degree of activity in each place; AND (3) Relative portion to Taxpayer’s income derived from each place. SO, looking at the facts of this problem, and using all three factors, it is likely that Metro should be considered the taxpayer’s home (three factors weight in favor of Metro). Metro should be her “home” b/c we’re counting business days. In which case, travel to and from City, as well as lodging in City would be deductible, when the taxpayer is in PURSUIT OF BUSINESS in City. Meals 50% deduction. §247(n)(1) (c) Taxpayer and Husband own a home in City and Husband works there. Taxpayer works in Metro, maintaining an apartment there, and travels to City each weekend to visit her husband and family. What may she deduct? See Robert A. Coerver, 36 T.C. 252 (1961) and Virginia Foote, 67 T.C. 1 (1976). Where is tax home (PPB)? Here, it’s Metro. In this case, taxpayer’s home is Metro, therefore any travel to City to see her family is personally motivated and is a PERSONAL EXPENSE, NOT IN PURSUIT OF BUSINESS. So, it is not deductible. See Reg. § 1.262-1(b) (5); see also Hantzis. 3. Burly is a professional football player for the City Stompers. He and his wife own a home in Metro where they reside during the 7-month “off season.” (a) If Burly’s only source of income is his salary from the Stompers, may Burly deduct any of his City living expenses which he incurs during the football season? See Ronald L. Gardin, 64 T.C. 1079 (1975). No b/c City would be considered his “major post of duty” under Andrews. Even though Burly only works in City for 5 months, it is his PPB and tax home, so no deductions for living in City. Remember: Only get deduction for travel “away from home.” Also, Burly would not receive any deductions for travel/lodging in Metro because he is NOT in pursuit of a business in the offseason. (b) Would there be any difference in result in (a), above, if during the 7-month “off-season” Burly worked as an insurance salesman in Metro? When you have two jobs, Andrews says that it is reasonable to maintain a residence by the “major post of duty,” and have a second place by your second place of business and deduct as such. You have to analyze the factors listed in Andrews in the Footnote 10 After applying the three factors from Andrews in class, we found that it is likely that City is still the tax home (PPB), so there would be no difference. 74
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City would likely be tax home b/c of substantial amount of money he makes in City, even though he spends more time (7 months) in Metro. So, there WOULD BE DEDUCTIONS for his travel to Metro and the costs of keeping a home in Metro. He’s traveling away from home (City) in pursuit of a trade or business. 4. Temporary works for Employer in City where Temporary and his family live. (a) Employer has trouble in Branch City office in another state. She asks Temporary to supervise the Branch City office for nine months. Temporary’s family stays in City and he rents an apartment in Branch City. Are Temporary’s expenses in Branch City deductible? Yes, Temporary’s expenses in Branch City are deductible. It is less than a year (temporary), so PPB (home) does NOT change. SO, all travel (including travel from original home to temporary home), lodging are deductible and 50% of his meals. §162(a): For the purposes of paragraph 2, one’s principal place of business or home DOES NOT CHANGE if they live somewhere else for LESS THAN 1 YEAR for purposes of temporary employment. (b) What result in (a), above, if the time period is expected to be nine months, but after eight months it is extended to fifteen months? See Rev. Rul. 93-86 1993-2 C.B. 71. Rev. Rul. 93-86 1993-2 C.B. 71. “If employment at a work location INITIALLY is realistically expected to last for 1 year or less, but at some later date the employment is realistically expected to EXCEED 1 year, that employment will be treated as TEMPORARY (in the absence of facts and circumstances indicating otherwise) until the date that the taxpayer’s realistic expectation changes, and will be treated as not temporary after that date.” Therefore, if you expect to be temporarily employed for less than a year, but temporary employment ends up being more than a year, you are allowed to deduct up UNTIL THE POINT you are made aware employment will last more than a year. ** So here, there is only a deduction for the first 8 months! ** ** However, if you EXPECT it to be more than a year and it ends up being less than a year, it is not deductible AT ALL even though it in fact lasted less than a year. (The expectation is determinative here). Galler has a major problem with this and says it is contrary to a strict reading of the statute. (c) What result in (a), above, if Temporary and his family had lived in a furnished apartment in City and he and family gave the apartment up and moved to Branch City where they lived in a furnished apartment for the nine months? Compare J.B. Stewart, 30 T.C.M. 1316 (1971), with Alvin L. Goldman, 32 T.C.M. 574 (1973). In (a), above, we determined that PPB was STILL City, despite temporary move to Branch City. So, despite family moving from City to Branch City, Temporary’s PPB is STILL CITY. Still has his office (PPB) in City. SO, as a matter of statute, lodging, travel, and 50% meals are deductible. In this situation there is no duplication of expenses (no longer 2 houses to cover, etc.), therefore the court may find either way depending on what stress the court gives this issue. Page 509- Problem 2 2. Traveler flies from her personal and tax home in New York to a business meeting in Florida on Monday. The meeting ends late Wednesday and she flies home on Friday afternoon after two days in the sunshine. (a) To what extent are Traveler’s transportation, meals, and lodging deductible? See Reg. § 1.162-2(a) and (b). 75
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TRAVEL/TRANSPORTATION: §1.162-2(b)(1): It depends on whether the travel was motivated primarily by business or personal. (ALL OR NOTHING DEDUCTION). The amount of time spent allocated to business and on personal pleasure is an IMPORTANT FACTOR, but not the only factor. If the trip is predominantly for business, then ALL of the expenses are deductible. If the trip is predominantly for personal pleasure, then NONE of the expenses are deductible. Key is to look at # of days expended for business and # expended for personal. Here, more days are spent on business (3 days) rather than personal (2 days), so the transportation expenses are ENTIRELY deductible. LODGING: §1.162-2(b)(1): Any business expenses that are legitimately linked to the business are deductible, whether or not the transportation is deductible. The transportation deduction is all or nothing, WHILE the lodging and meals are deductible TO THE EXTENT that they are in pursuit of trade or business, and not personal pleasure. Lodging is deductible for the 3 business days, not for 2 personal. MEALS: While subject to the 50% deduction rule, we still have to decide whether the costs of the meals are business expenses incurred while on travel. Meals deductible up to 50% for the 3 biz days. ** Side Note: For International travel, personal/standby days in between business days COUNT as business days because it is unreasonable to expect someone to go home and come back just for the business days. ** (b) May Traveler deduct any of her spouse’s expenses if he joins her on the trip? See § 274(m)(3) NO. Main reason is because under § 274(m)(3), spouse needs to be an employee of the taxpayer. It doesn’t matter how much work spouse does for taxpayer or how much help he/she offers, if he/she is not an employee, then no deduction for spouse’s expenses. ALL THREE elements of § 274(m)(3) must be satisfied, see below. Congress wanted to draw a bright-line rule here. §274(m)(3): Travel expenses for spouse, dependent or others Three requirements must be met in order for spouse expenses to be deductible: 1. Spouse must be employee of taxpayer (the person claiming the deduction); 2. Bona-fide business purpose; and 3. Such expenses would be otherwise deductible. What about the O’Connell Case, where the sales couple went to Hawaii? Under current law, she (wife) would not be able to deduct it, but the issue in that case, was whether the cost of travel and lodging, etc. was to be includable in the husband’s gross income, which it was not b/c not a prize/award. In that case, if it was gross income and they tried to take the deduction, they would not be able to. (c) What result in (a), above, if Traveler stays in Florida until Sunday afternoon? This might be seen as a personal trip now because a majority of the week (4 days) she is spending doing personal things rather than business (3 days). On the other hand, you might argue that Saturday and Sunday are not in the work week, so those days should not count in deciding whether the trip is business or not. Galler says she would argue that work weeks only means (Mon – Fri), and that weekends shouldn’t count, and thus, transportation should be completely deductible. If trip is predominantly personal, then NO transportation deductions, at all. But, Galler says you have legit. argument for disregarding weekends. She is not allowed to deduct for meals and lodging on the days that were personal. 76
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(d) What result in (a), above, if Traveler takes a cruise ship leaving Florida on Wednesday night and arriving in New York on Friday? See § 274(m)(1) §274(m)(1): Additional limitations on travel expenses No deduction shall be allowed for expenses incurred by transportation through water to the extent such expenses exceed twice the aggregate per diem amounts for days of such transportation. Per diem means the highest amount generally allowable with respect to a day to employees of the executive branch of the federal government. (e) What result in (a), above, if Traveler’s trip to Mexico City rather than Florida? See §274(c). This is an International Trip. § 274(c)(1) says that when it is an international trip, no deduction is allowed for personal days, even if business predominates the trip. HENCE, this language is contrary to the DOMESTIC regulation, which states that so long as business predominates the trip, ALL transportation costs are deductible even if there are personal days (remember, all or nothing rule). BUT, § 274(c)(2)(A) says that the preceding paragraph does NOT apply when the travel is LESS THAN ONE WEEK. *** If an International Trip is less than a week, then the DOMESTIC REGULATION regarding transportation (all or nothing depending on main purpose of trip) applies. *** SO, we have the same result as (a), and ALL transportation is deductible because the trip is less then a week and its main purpose is for business, not personal. §274(c): Certain foreign travel Basically Says: If the trip is International Travel, then the regulations pertaining to Domestic Travel (such as the all or nothing transportation rule) DO NOT APPLY. Simply put, no deductions if it’s not for business. However, exceptions appear in § 274(c)(2). (f) What result in (e), above, if Traveler went to Mexico City on Thursday and conducted business on Thursday, Friday, Monday, and Tuesday, and returned to New York on the succeeding Friday night? See Reg. § 1.274-4(d)(2)(v). This is International Travel. This is LONGER THAN A WEEK so the exception in § 274(c)(2)(A) doesn’t apply. Regulation cited below says that if there are business days on either side of a weekend (here, there are business days on Friday and Monday), then Saturday and Sunday count as business days. SO, # of business days here are 6/9, and # of personal days are 3/9. The OTHER EXCEPTION in § 274(c)(2)(B) says that if personal days on an international trip account for LESS than 25% of the total time on the trip, then the paragraph in § 274(c)(1) does not apply and ALL deductions for travel can be taken (even for personal days) IF the main purpose of trip is business (this is the domestic regulation). Here, 3/9 of the days are personal, which is 33%, so the other exception (§ 274(c)(2)(B)) does not apply. THUS, we have to follow § 274(c)(1), which tells us that there is no deduction for travel for personal days even if the main purpose of the trip was business. SO, transportation for 6/9 business days is deductible, and transportation for 3/9 personal days is NOT deductible. Same result for meals and lodging. Reg. §1.274-4(d)(2)(v): Allocation on per day basis The total time traveling outside the United States away from home will be allocated on a day-by-day basis separating days of business activity from those of non-business activity unless taxpayer shows a different method of allocation…See regulation for rest. If you have non-business days in the middle of the business trip, those days are not treated as personal days. Days in the middle are business days, but the days at the end are not business days. 77
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i. Rosenspan v. United States (1971) Facts: 1. Rosenspan, jewelry salesman who worked on commission basis, paying his own traveling expenses without reimbursement. 2. He traveled 300 days a year by automobile to extensive sales territory in the mid-west, where he would stay at hotels and motels and eat at restaurants. 5 or 6 times a year he would return to New York and spend several days at his employer’s offices. 3. He would do several essential things there like cleaning up his sample case, checking orders, discussing customers credit problems etc… 4. He had a brother in Brooklyn whom which he used as a personal address, kept some clothing and other belongings there and registered his tax returns and voting registration there. 5. However when he came to New York he stayed at a hotel so he wouldn’t have to burden his brother’s family. 6. Cockhead Commissioner contends that his expenses could not be “away from home” b/c he doesn’t really have a home. Holding: When assignment is truly temporary, it would be unreasonable to expect the taxpayer to move his home, and the expenses are thus compelled by the “exigencies of business”; when the assignment is “indefinite” or “indeterminate”, the situation is different and, if taxpayer decides to leave his home where it was, disallowance is appropriate not because he has acquired a “tax home” but b/c his failure to move his home was for his personal convenience and not compelled by business necessity. Analysis: It is enough to decide this case that “home” means “home” and Rosenspan had none. He satisfied the first and third conditions of Flowers, but not on our reading of the statute, the second. Here the IRS changed its tune on the definition of “home” Where they had previously defined “home” as principal place of business, here, they say that he does not have a home in the sense of a “residence.” “Home” should be accorded its natural non-technical ordinary meaning of primary residence in a tax statute. Is this a just outcome? Well, yes under the principal that travel and meal expenses are deductible because you have to incur them twice and that situation is not present. If he stayed at his brother’s place for free, would the case come out the same? Under the reasoning here, the case would be the same b/c there are no double incurrence of expenses. However, there is nothing in the Code that says that there is a prerequisite to incur “double expenses” to be eligible for travel and meal deductions. Commissioner v. Flowers Test: Travel expenses are deductible only if: (1) “reasonable and necessary”; (2) “incurred while away from home”; and (3) incurred “in pursuit of business.” Rev. Ruling 73-529: Lists three conditions to satisfy a “residence” in a case of a traveling salesman In that case, if the conditions are satisfied, they will allow that residence to be their principal place of business. ii. Andrews v. Commissioner (1991) Facts: 1. Andrews was CEO and president of AG, which engaged in swimming pool construction in New England. This was a seasonal business which earned him $108,000. 2. Beginning in 1964, during off-season, he established a sole-proprietorship known as Andrew Farms (AF), and in 1972 moved such horse business to Florida where his business prospered and ultimately, by the time of trial his pool business, was one of the biggest, if not the biggest builder of pools in Florida, with offices in West Palm Beach and Orlando and plans for a third office in Tampa. Andrews resided in Lynfield, Massachussetts. 78
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3. During the time of the expansion of the horse business, in order to reduce travel costs and facilitate lodging arrangements, Andrews purchased a condominium in Pompano Beach, Fla. 4. Tax court found he worked 6 months in Florida in the horse business and 6 months in UMass for pool construction business in 1984 but he claimed tax deductions as if 100% usage in Florida. Issue: Whether, within the meaning of “home” in § 162(a)(2), Andrews could have had two homes in 1984 Holding: Where necessity requires that a taxpayer maintain two places of abode, and thereby incur additional and duplicate living expenses, such duplicate expenses are a cost of producing income and should ordinarily be deductible. Analysis: The ultimate allowance or disallowance of a deduction is the function of the court’s assessment of the reason for a taxpayer’s maintenance of two homes with the exigencies of the business rather than personal conveniences and necessities of the traveler as motivating factors (Flowers) Effectuation of the travel expense provision must be guided by the policy underlying the provision that costs necessary to producing income may be deducted from taxable income Where business necessity requires that a taxpayer maintain two places of abode, and thereby incur additional and duplicate living expenses, such duplicate expenses are a cost of producing income and should ordinarily be deductible Living expenses duplicated as a result of business necessity are deductible, whereas those duplicated as a result of personal choice are not. “Major Post of Duty” vs. “Minor Post of Duty” (1) the length of time spent at the location (ordinarily is the most important); (2) the degree of activity in each place; and (3) the relative portion of taxpayer’s income derived from each place. The length of time spent engaged in business at each location should ordinarily be determinative of which is the taxpayer’s principal place of business or major post of duty. Living expenses are considered duplicated and deductible in business at the minor post of duty. iii. Revenue Ruling 99-7 (Pg. 398-401)— Sheds light on when daily transportation expenses incurred by a taxpayer in going b/w taxpayer’s residence and work location will be deductible under § 162(a). In general, daily transportation expenses incurred in going between a taxpayer’s residence and a work location are nondeductible commuting expenses. Exceptions: (1) going between a residence and a temporary work location outside of the metropolitan area where the taxpayer lives and normally works; (2) if the taxpayer has one or more work locations, he may deduct transportation expenses incurred going between the taxpayer’s residence and temporary work location in the same trade or business; and (3) if a taxpayer’s residence is the taxpayer’s principal place of business, he may deduct transportation expenses incurred going between the residence and another work location in the same trade or business. Temporary = employment at a work location that is realistically expected to last (and in fact does last) for 1 year or less. 3. Business Meals and Entertainment IRC § 274(a)(1)(A) Basically says that there is NO DEDUCTION for an activity involving entertainment, amusement, or recreation, UNLESS the taxpayer establishes that the item/activity was directly related to, or, in the case of an item directly preceding or following a substantial and bone fide business discussion, that such item was associated with, the active conduct of the taxpayer’s trade or business. 79
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Basically saying, there is no deduction UNLESS 1. Activity/Item is directly related to active conduct of the taxpayer’s trade or business. OR 2. The Activity/Item precedes or follows a substantial and bona fide business discussion that is associated with the active conduct of the taxpayer’s trade or business. IRC § 274(k) (1) No deduction for food or beverages UNLESS – (A) such expense is not lavish or extravagant under the circumstances, AND (B) the taxpayer (or an employee of the taxpayer) is present * And always remember, pursuant to § 274(n), only 50% of meal and entertainment expenses are deductible* Problems Pg. 424 1. Employee spends $100 taking 3 business clients to lunch at a local restaurant to discuss a particular business matter. The $100 cost includes $5 in tax and $15 for a tip. They each have two martinis before lunch. (a) To what extent are Employee’s expenses deductible? None of the limitations in § 274(k) are applicable here. Since Employee and Clients are discussing business at lunch, this meal seems to be an activity directly related to the conduct of TP’s trade or business pursuant to § 274(a)(1)(A). AND OF COURSE, § 274(n) applies, which limits the meal to a 50% deduction. Here, the meal, tax, tip, and martinis are all included in the cost, subject to 50% limit. (b) To what extent are the meals deductible if the lunch is merely to touch base with the client? “Touch base” is the issue here. Strictly speaking, if employee is just touching base with the clients then this is not directly related to business, and is more personal. If that’s the case, then NO DEDUCTIONS pursuant to 274(a)(1)(A). (c) What result if Employee merely sends the three clients to lunch without going herself but picks up their $75 tab? Pursuant to § 274(k)(1)(B), employee must be present. Since employee is not present, there is NO DEDUCTION. (d) What result in (a), above, if, in addition, Employee incurs a $15 cab fare to transport the clients to lunch? The $15 cab fare (transportation) would seem to be deductible as a “Travel Away from Home” expense in pursuit of business. Presumably, employee and clients are leaving the employee’s PPB (Tax Home) and we know they are going to a meal where they will discuss business. (e) What result in (a), above, if Employer reimburses Employee for the $100 tab? 80
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If employer is reimbursing the employee, then EMPLOYER receives the deduction for the meal, and it is NOT subject to the 50% deduction limit on meals pursuant to § 274(n) Under § 274(n)(2)(A), there is an exception to the 50% limit on meals which applies to § 274(e)(3), which is reimbursement of expenses to employees. Employee DOES NOT have income on this reimbursement because there is two ways to look at it o It could be a working condition fringe benefit to the employee. No income to employee here. But not really a benefit at all here since he had to front the money. o Alternatively, one could argue that it wouldn’t even be income in the first place, then there is no benefit here, its just work, and he had to front the money. 2. Businessperson who is in New York on business meets with two clients and afterward takes them to the Broadway production of Jersey Boys. To what extent is the $600 cost of their tickets deductible if the marked price on the ticket is $100 each, but Businessperson buys them from the hotel concierge for $200 each? Here, a deduction is PROPER since this entertainment activity DIRECTLY FOLLOWED a business meeting that was associated with the active conduct of the taxpayer’s business. According to § 274(l)(1)(A), in determining the amount allowable as a deduction for entertainment tickets, the amount taken into account shall not exceed the face value of such ticket. AND, 50% limit on deduction applies because it is ENTERTAINMENT, pursuant to § 274(n). SO, even though the tickets cost $200 each, the face value of the ticket is $100, and this is the most that can be deducted. Per the 50% deduction limitation rule, taxpayer gets to deduct $50 of each $100 ticket (this is ½). $50 x 3 (businessperson and two clients) = $150 total deduction for the three tickets. IRC § 274(l)(2) Skyboxes, etc. Says that in the case of a skybox or other private luxury box leased for more than one event, the amount allowable as a deduction shall not exceed the sum of the face value of non-luxury box seat tickets for the seats in such box covered by the lease. § 274(l)(2) limits the business deduction for skyboxes/luxury suite seats to the highest priced (face value) non-luxury box seat in the stadium. You basically look at the face value of the most expensive seat in the stadium that is NOT a luxury box to determine what you can deduct. AND OF COURSE, since its entertainment, only 50% is deductible. SO, say a corporation leases a skybox in Yankee Stadium that includes 10 seats for 81 games and each seat is $1,000 per game. 10 (seats) x 81 (games) x $1,000 (cost) = $810,000 cost for the 10 luxury seats for the season. What can you deduct? Say the highest-priced non-luxury box seat has a face value of $100. 10 (seats) x 81 (games) x $100 (cost) = $81,500, which is then multiplied by .50 (50%), and we get a deduction of $40,500. If the highest non-luxury box seat were $1,000, then you would have a $405,000 deduction (50%). 10 (seats) x 81 (games) x $1,000 (cost) = $810,000 x 50% = $405,000 deduction. 81
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C HAPTER 21 – C APITAL G AINS AND L OSSES A. Introduction Gains are always included in income. However, there is a question of whether or not it is an ordinary gain or a capital gain. The general rule , for a corporation or business, is that you get to take a deduction for any loss that is incurred. In the case of individuals it is different, and pursuant to § 165, you would only be allowed to take a deduction if it was property purchased for business purposes (etc… see that section for the other categories). Hypo: You get a car for $25,000 and then later on you go to sell it for $10,000. Basis is $25,000 and you have incurred a loss of $15,000 upon the sale of the car, can you deduct that loss? Analysis: No, it is a personal piece of property which you sold and it therefore doesn’t fit into any of the categories of § 165(c) and it is not deductible. Conversely, if you had realized a gain on the sale of the car you would have to report the gain. 1. Capital Gains Almost every year since 1932, capital gains have been entitled to PREFERENTIAL treatment. The tax rate that is paid on capital gain is less than or lower than the tax rate that is paid on anything else. Capital gains are taxed at a lower rate than ordinary income. Capital gains are gains that are realized on investments in property (ex: securities, real estate) that have been held over a long period of time. Real estate and stock are the major examples of things people buy that are held over a period of time, the value of which has gone up with little or no effort. Top rate on ordinary income is 40%. Meanwhile, the top rate on capital gains is 20%. In the case of a corporation, capital losses mean nothing unless you have capital gains. To the extent that you have a capital gain, you get to deduct a capital loss. If a corporation has capital losses of $1 million with no 82
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capital gain, then the capital losses mean nothing to the corporation. If the corporation does have capital gains, they will be offset with capital losses up to $1 million and not be taxed. See IRC §1211(a). In the case of individuals, you can deduct capital losses up to the amount of your capital gains, plus an additional $3,000 annually for any losses still left. See IRC §1211(b)(1)-(2). Example: You have $14,000 in capital gains and $22,000 in capital losses. Year One: You can offset the $14,000 in capital gains with $14,000 in capital losses, leaving you with $8,000 in capital losses. You are also allowed to take an additional $3,000 since you have capital losses. Leaving you with $5,000 of capital losses to be carried over the next year. Year Two: If you still have $5,000 in capital losses, and no other capital gains, you can again take a deduction of $3,000, leaving you with $2,000 in capital losses for the following year (Year 3). 2. Capital Gains and Capital Losses Illustrated (For Individual) 1. $10,000 of capital gains and $10,000 of capital losses. Off-set each other, no gain, no loss. 2. $10,000 of capital gains and $5,000 of capital losses. Offset the $10,000 capital gains with the $5,000 of capital losses, leaving you with $5,000 capital gains to be taxed. Here, you have used all of your capital losses, you are not entitled to any more deductions. 3. $5,000 of capital gains and $10,000 of capital losses. To get rid of the $5,000 capital gains that you will pay tax on, you can offset them with $5,000 of your Capital Losses. This then leaves you with $0 Capital Gains (no tax) and $5,000 Capital Losses. An individual can also receive an automatic $3,000 deduction from ordinary income once the capital gains are completely offset. So, in total, you are left with $2,000 capital losses after offsetting the capital gains and receiving the automatic $3,000 deduction the individual is entitled to. See IRC §1211(b)(1). This $2,000 of capital losses cannot further be deducted in the current tax year. However, the $2,000 of capital losses can carry over to the following year. Assuming no other capital gains exist the next year, individual can deduct the $2,000 capital losses completely from ordinary income (up to $3,000 per year for individual). ** Capital losses can be carried over each year indefinitely. ** o Policies regarding Capital Gain Tax Treatment One argument for capital gains rate “Lock in” argument. Hypo: Suppose taxpayer in 1990 bought a home and has been there for a long time. Analysis: Under Gross Income Tax House Worth: $1,000,000 Paid: $100,000 Gain: $900,000 Tax: 40% Tax = $360,000 83
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Leaves you with: $640,000. Under Capital Gains House Worth: $1,000,000. Paid: $100,000. Gain: $900,000. Tax: 20%. Tax = $180,000. Leaves you with: $720,000 (Far more than what you’re left with above). Some argued that the gross income tax treatment of such gains discouraged the sale of their house. Congress, in turn, adopted capital gains to prevent discouragement of the sale of such capital assets purely because of tax disadvantages. This is known as the “Locked In” argument, because a taxpayer above, without the existence of a capital gains rate, would essentially be locked into their current investment/house because it would make no sense for them to sell their house at that tax rate and move somewhere else. Argument is that if the rate of tax is much lower, say at a capital gains rate of 15%, people would be more incline to move and sell property. On a larger, economic basis, why would the government grant such a nice break on taxes? Economists in favor of the capital gain tax treatment say that while the government will definitely take a hit in their tax “base,” the break will create more revenue because such transactions will increase and in turn will bring in more tax revenue. More revenue on a macro-level ** Simply put, the “Locked in” argument is premised on the belief that an ordinary tax rate on such transactions would impair the mobility of capital (impair the buying and selling of capital), while a capital gains rate on gain of the transaction would encourage buying & selling and enable individuals and corporations to raise money more easily. *** Second argument Inflation Argument: The change in the value of money. Hypo: House bought 25 years ago, and nothing done to the house in the way of increasing the basis. Amount paid: 50,000, but 50,000 dollars 25 years ago is worth a lot more in today’s dollars. The worth of money is going down. Argument: Not fair to tax them on inflationary gains. Professor: In this example, it does make sense… Back in the day the tax statutes did not take this into account… It was strictly a bright line basis v. gain received formula. The capital gains preference ties the availability of the rate to a holding period of one year This is another case where the time value of money comes into play (E.g. Paying for your hamburger (that you eat today) on Tuesday). Third Argument Savings Incentive Argument Americans were not saving enough and it was becoming a concern. Maybe the capital gains tax advantages would encourage investment savings. Banks need money to lend to businesses and people need to have savings in the bank so that the Banks can lend to those businesses (it is cyclical). If you lower the tax on the sale of capital assets, you are decreasing the burden on investments. Fourth Argument Bunching Capital gains accrue over many years, yet all the gain is recognized in a single year. This bunching effect can result in the taxation of gain at the highest marginal rate in the year of recognition, even though the incremental gains might have been taxed at lower rates had they been recognized in the years 84
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they accrued. The capital gains preference is said to mitigate the impact of the bunching effect by allowing a reduced rate in the year of sale. Counter-arg. Yes, but they never had to pay any tax on this growing value over the past 25 years. B. The Meaning of “Capital Asset” The Statutory Definition: IRC §1221(a)(1)-(4). See §§ 1221(a)(5)-(8) § 1221: Capital Asset defined (a) In general, for purposes of this subtitle, the term “capital asset” means property held by the taxpayer, whether or not connected with the taxpayer’s trade or business, but does not include certain exceptions. Analysis: Any property held by the taxpayer is a capital asset unless it falls within one of the exceptions enumerated in the statute. Every piece of property is presumptively a capital asset unless it is excluded by § 1221(a). Under a plain reading of this first sentence in the statute, a personal home is a capital asset subject to capital gains tax rate. Therefore, stock is a capital asset, all personal use property is a capital asset (e.g. car, home, jewelry). NOTE: Dividends are not a capital gain per se, BUT are taxed at the capital gain rate. There are also exceptions to this. Remember: Capital losses only become valuable to the taxpayer if they have capital gains as well. If an individual has capital losses and no capital gains, the government does throw you a bone by allowing the $3,000 a year capital loss deduction. Hypos.: (1) The hypo. above. Mom owns a home and sells it for $1,000,000. Is this a capital asset under §1221(a)? Held 1 Yes, this is a capital asset. No exclusion under §1221(a) applies to this. (2) Guy owns a hardware store and purchases a delivery truck to be used to deliver his goods. He does not use the delivery truck for his own personal use. Held 2 According to §1221(a)(2), any property, used in a trade or business, of a character which is subject to the allowance for depreciation is NOT considered a capital asset. (3) Is a stock a capital asset under § 1221? Held 3 Yes, stock is a capital asset. Stock is the quintessential capital asset. (4) What if Artist paints a picture, is that a capital asset to HER? Held 4 NO. Under §1221(a)(3)(A), an artistic composition held by a taxpayer whose personal efforts created such property is NOT a capital asset. NOTE: Under §1221(a)(3)(C), even if artist gave the painting to her son, it would still be taxed as ordinary income, NOT capital gains rate, when son sells the painting. Unless artist dies and leaves it to him by will. 85
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As a matter of policy, this is not a capital asset b/c it’s similar to the hardware store inventory in the problem below. This is how you make your living. It would be like J.K. Rowling selling her Harry Potter books (i.e., it’s ordinary income to her). (5) What if hardware store owner SELLS his accounts receivable (money owed to him)? Held 5 NOT A CAPITAL ASSET. See §1221(a)(4). This is taxed as ordinary income. Right to collect money has to be ordinary income, b/c otherwise you could turn everything from ordinary income into capital gains by selling accounts receivable to other people instead of just collecting the profits yourself. (6) What about if Hardware store owner sells the building (hardware store) with the land it sits on? Building Held 6 Under §1221(a)(2), the building is both of a character subject to depreciation and is real property used in the taxpayer’s trade or business. NOT A CAPITAL ASSET. Land Under §1221(a)(2), the land is real property used in the taxpayer’s trade or business. NOT A CAPITAL ASSET. (7) What about the sale of inventory, such as screws in the hardware store? Is this a capital asset? Held 7 NO. §1221(a)(1) Inventory Exception. Inventory of the taxpayer or property held by the taxpayer primarily for sale to customers is NOT a capital asset. i. Malat v. Riddell Facts: 1. Taxpayer was a participant in a joint venture to buy a piece of land. 2. The taxpayer claimed the purpose of the venture was to develop the land, build apartments on it and sell or rent out apartments. 3. The IRS viewed this as a dual purpose, depending on what occurred the taxpayer was going to either sell out the apartments or rent out the apartments. 4. Taxpayer ended up selling apartments and they were including in gross income but the venture continued to have zoning problems and sold it all off claiming it was a capital gain. 5. The IRS argued that this should be taxed as ordinary income. Taxpayer argues that he had 2 purposes, either (i) put apartment complex on the land; or (ii) sell the land. Issue: Whether the parcels sold were “property held primarily for sale to customers in the ordinary course of his trade or business.” (i.e., whether this is property held for investment that falls under §1221(a) as a capital asset, or is in the exception §1221(a)(1) and thus is not a capital asset). Held: While the purpose for which the property was acquired is of some weight, the ultimate question is the purpose for which it was held. CT SAYS PRIMARILY MEANS “PRINCIPALLY” OR “OF FIRST IMPORTANCE.” NOT A SUBSTANTIAL PURPOSE. Analysis: Supreme Court remanded and said that substantial purpose IS NOT THE TEST, the question is whether or not the taxpayer’s property was held primarily for sale to customers in their ordinary course of trade or business. 86
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On remand, the T.C. said the primary purpose was for the apartment complex business. Thus, this was held to be capital gains income. Hypos.: (1) Person (lawyer) buys a farm for $200,000, which it leases to a third party. Say he later sells it to a developer for $800,000. Developer subsequently pours $200,000 on improvements to the property to increase its value and sells if for $1.6 million. Analysis: Owner’s Gain $600,000 Gain (800K – 200K) Is it a Capital Gain? YES. There is no exception for this capital asset in §1221. The owner/landlord is an investor/landlord, and has nothing to do with the property beside collect rent, which is why it is NOT his trade or business. The property is an INVESTMENT here. Developer’s Gain Also, a $600,000 gain (1.6 Mil – 1 Mil) Say the developer sold the property by dividing up the lots and selling each lot off. Is this a capital gain? Is this a capital asset? This is arguably NOT a capital asset, since the developer is in the business of doing this and the lots are effectively inventory held for the sale to customers, which is excluded from being a capital asset under §1221(a)(1). So, the gain here would be taxed as ordinary income, not capital gain rate. (3) Go back to the original facts of (1). As a lawyer, you’ve never subdivided any property, but you notice that other people in the area are doing this. So, you hire someone to work with you to subdivide this property up. You put $200,000 into the property yourself in order to achieve this. You are now selling all of the subdivided properties to willing buyers. A/B = $400,000 A/R = $1,600,000 YOUR GAIN IS $1.2 million. Issue: What’s the characterization of this $1.2 million gain? Held This would technically be ordinary income b/c you’ve gone from being just a passive owner (investor) into being involved in the trade/business like the developer in (2). However, Congress realized this would be a problem, so they drafted §1237. Under §1237(b)(1), the first 5 parcels you sell well be all capital gains. For the rest of the parcels you sell, you get taxed as ordinary income on 5% of the selling price. § 1237: Real property subdivided for sale Basically says that parcels of real property in the hands of a taxpayer SHALL NOT be deemed to be held primarily for the sale of customers in the ordinary course of trade or business at the time of sale SOLELY because the taxpayer divided the lots for purpose of sale. Subdivision won’t count as inventory for sale to customers if the requirements in this section are met. Purpose is to NOT penalize those who subdivide property for sale. (4) You bought real estate. You decided to run an apartment complex. You run the apartment complex for 10 years and then decide you want to sell the entire thing to buyer. What’s the characterization of your gain? Held 4 Capital gains. It’s not inventory under §1221(a)(1) b/c you’re an investor selling to another investor. Even if you sold 4-5 apartments at a time over the course of some years, this would still be capital gains. 87
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C. § 1231 (HOTCHPOT) RECHARACTERIZATION IRC § 1231 Function of this section is exclusively RECHARACTERIZATION. § 1231(a)(3) Applies TO: 1. Any recognized gain or loss from the sale or exchange of property used in the trade or business, 2. AND 3. Any recognized gain or loss from the compulsory or involuntary conversion of i. property used in the trade or business, OR ii. any capital asset held for more than one year and is held in connection with a trade or business or a transaction entered into for profit. So, it’s clearly applicable only to property connected with a trade or business or a profit-seeking activity. NO PERSONAL STUFF IN §1231. If the §1231 gains EXCEED the §1231 losses, then ALL such gains and losses shall be treated as long-term capital gains or long-term capital losses. Conversely, if the losses exceed gains, then all such gains and losses shall be treated as ordinary gains and losses. IRC § 1231(a)(4)(C) (SUBHOTCHPOT) “In the case of any involuntary conversion (subject to the provisions of this subsection but for this sentence) arising from fire, storm, shipwreck, or other casualty, or from theft of any – i. property used in the trade or business, or ii. any capital asset which is held for more than 1 year and is held in connection with a trade or business or a transaction entered into for profit, this subsection SHALL NOT APPLY to such conversion if during the taxable year the recognized losses from such conversions exceed the recognized gains from such conversions. Basically this: Before any gains and losses from involuntary conversions (fire, storm, shipwreck, other casualty or from theft) are to be included in the main hotchpot, gains from such conversions MUST equal or exceed the losses from such conversions. If Gains > Losses, then all gains and losses go in the main hotchpot. If Losses > Gains, then these gains and losses DO NOT go into the main hotchpot, and all gains and losses are ordinary gains and losses. Analysis Process for § 1231 Step 1: Figure out and list what all of the §1231 gains or losses are. Step 2: Figure out which of these gains and losses are subject to §1231(a)(4)(c) (SUBHOTCHPOT). Then compare the sub-hotchpot gains and losses. Are any of these gains or losses subject to the SUBHOTCHPOT? If yes, then deal with them. If the sub-hotchpot gains exceed the sub-hotchpot losses, then put them in the main hotchpot. If the sub-hotchpot losses exceed the sub-hotchpot gains, then the losses are ordinary income. Step 3: Do the main hotchpot analysis and figure out if the §1231 gains exceed the §1231 losses, or if the losses exceed the gains. If gains exceed the losses, then the gains and losses are treated as capital gains and losses, respectively. If the losses exceed the gains, then the gains and losses are treated as ordinary gains and losses, respectively. 88
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Problem 1- Pgs. 761-762 1. Hotchpot engaged in (or encountered) the following transactions (or events) in the current year. Determine separately for each part below how the matters indicated will be characterized for the current year, assuming in all parts other than (g) – (i) that § 1231(c) is inapplicable. (a) Hotchpot sells some land (Land 1) used in his business for four years for $20,000. It had cost him $10,000. He also receives $16,000 when the State condemns some other land (Land 2) that he had purchased for $18,000 three years ago which he has leased to a third person. Analysis: Step 1: What are the §1231 gains and losses? Land 1: It was bought for $10,000 and sold for $20,000 therefore there is a gain of $10,000. Land was used in the trade or business, so it is excluded as a capital asset under §1221(a)(2). However, this is a §1231 asset because it is “a recognized gain on the sale or exchange of property used in the trade or business.” Land 2: Purchased for $18,000 and sold it for $16,000 on the condemnation, therefore he realized a loss of $2,000. This would normally NOT be a capital asset under §1221(a)(2) BUT...This is a §1231 loss because this is a loss from the compulsory or involuntary conversion (CONDEMNATION HERE) of “any capital asset which is held for more than 1 year and is held in connection with a transaction entered into for profit.” Step 2: Do any of these gains or losses fall under § 1231(a)(4)(c)’s involuntary conversions? Land 1 clearly does not. Land 2 would normally, however, the language of 1231(a)(4)(C) specifically omits involuntary conversions due to condemnations. SO, neither of these gains or losses fall under here, therefore proceed. Step 3: Analysis of the numbers. The total §1231 gains ($10,000) exceed the losses ($2,000). SO, we have $10,000 in capital gains, and $2,000 in capital losses. (b) Same as (a), above, except that both pieces of land were inherited from Hotchpot’s Uncle who died three months before the dispositions. At Uncle’s death, the business land (Land 1) was worth $16,000 (ultimately sold for $20,000) and the leased land (Land 2) was worth $18,000 . Analysis: Step 1: What are the §1231 gains and losses? 89
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When computing gain below, A/B is FMV, since it’s an inheritance. See §1014. Land 1 (business) Gain of $4,000 (20K – 16K). This is a § 1231 gain because it’s used in business. Land 2 (lease) Loss of $2,000 (16K – 18K) This would normally NOT be a §1231 loss because the property was not held for more than one year by the taxpayer. HOWEVER, §1223(2) says that we can take into consideration the amount of time the Uncle held the property for plus however long the nephew holds it for. So long as this amount is more than one year, then it’s a §1231 LOSS. Step 2: Do any of these gains or losses fall under § 1231(a)(4)(c)’s involuntary conversions? Nope, as seen above. Step 3: Analysis of the numbers. So, §1231 gains (4K) exceed the losses (2K), so we have $4,000 in capital gains and $2,000 in capital losses. (c) Hotchpot sells a building used for several years in his business, which he depreciated under the straight-line method. The sale price is $15,000 and the adjusted basis is $5,000. His two-year-old car, used exclusively in business, is totally destroyed in a fire. The car had a $6,000 adjusted basis but was worth $8,000 prior to the fire. He received $4,000 in insurance proceeds. Analysis: Step 1: What are the §1231 gains and losses? Building: Gain of $10,000 (15K – 5K) Not a capital asset under §1221(a)(2), but §1231 re-characterizes since it was used in business. So, this is a §1231 $10,000 gain. Car: - Must look at regulation for business losses- Reg. 1.165-7(b)(1) Was totally destroyed, was worth $8,000 prior to fire, adjusted basis of $6,000 and was only sold for $4,000. §165 says: Value of the car is not determinative of the amount of the loss. The tax loss is limited to the basis of the property, whether or not there is insurance on the property. This is not a capital asset under §1221(a)(2), but §1231 re-characterizes, since it was an involuntary conversion of property used in the business. So, this is a §1231 loss of $2,000. (A/B of 6K – A/R of 4K) = $2,000. Step 2: Does anything go in the sub hotchpot? We have an involuntary conversion, the car, which was destroyed in a fire. So, a $2,000 loss goes into the sub hotchpot. The statute says, “If the losses in the sub-hotchpot exceed the gains in the sub hotchpot, then you don’t put any of them in the main hotchpot” What we have in the sub-hotchpot is only a loss (2K) and no gains. Since the losses (2K) in the sub-hotchpot exceed the gains (0), nothing goes into the main hotchpot and we have an ordinary loss of $2,000. Step 3: Main Hotchpot gains and losses. 90
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There are no §1231 losses here, only a §1231 gain of $10,000. So, the 1231 gains exceed the losses here, so we have a $10,000 capital gain. Bottom line: $10,000 capital gain, $2,000 ordinary loss. (d) In addition to the building and the car in (c) above, assuming that Hotchpot had a painting that he had purchased two years ago which was held in connection with his business and which was also destroyed in the fire. The painting had been purchased for $4,000 and he received $8,000 in insurance proceeds. Step One: The building has a §1231 gain of $10,000. The car has a loss of $2,000, which is in the sub-hotchpot. The painting has a gain of $4,000. This is a §1231 gain since it is an involuntary conversion of property used in business. Painting was held in connection w/ the business. It does not have to be “used,” just held. (e.g., painting on law firm wall). Step Two: The car and the painting are included in the sub-hotchpot here because they have been destroyed in the fire. See IRC §1231(a)(4)(C). In the sub-hotchpot: $4,000 gain (painting) $2,000 loss (car) GAINS EXCEED LOSSES HERE, so all items go into the main hotchpot. Step Three: In the main hotchpot: $10,000 gain (building) $4,000 gain (painting) $2,000 loss (car) §1231 gains (14K) exceed 1231 losses (2K), so everything is a capital gain or loss. Total capital gains here is $14,000 and total capital losses are $2,000. (e) In addition to the building sale, car loss, and painting gain in (c) and (d), above, assume Hotchpot sells land used for several years in his business for $30,000. The land, which he had hoped contained oil, had been purchased for $50,000. Step One: Land here is not a capital asset under §1221(a)(2), since it was used in business, but §1231 re- characterizes (since it was used in business). The land when purchased was worth $50,000 therefore he has a $20,000 loss. (50 – 30). Step Two: The land here is not an involuntary conversion, so the sub-hotchpot analysis above does not change (sub-hotchpot gains still exceed sub-hotchpot losses). So, we go to main hotchpot. 91
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Step Three: $10,000 gain (building) $4,000 gain (painting) $2,000 loss (car) $20,000 loss (land) Total: $14,000 in gain, and $22,000 in losses. Here, main hotchpot losses EXCEED gains, so everything is taxed as ordinary income . Ultimately, we have $14,000 in ordinary gain and $22,000 in ordinary losses. SO, $8,000 loss as ordinary income treatment. (f) Would Hotchpot be pleased if the Commissioner successfully alleged that the land in problem (e), above, was held as an investment rather than for use in Hotchpot’s business? Analysis: Since land is not used in a trade or business, the land is a capital asset under §1221 (doesn’t fit into any of the § 1221 exceptions/exclusions). Furthermore, the land, as an INVESTMENT, does not get re-characterized under any provisions in § 1231. SO, the land is a normal $20,000 capital loss. NO §1231 TREATMENT AT ALL. In that case, the land DOES NOT go into the §1231 main hotchpot anymore, and when we take it out of the main hotchpot, the §1231 gains ($14,000) exceed the losses ($2,000). Since §1231 gains exceed §1231 losses, we have $14,000 of capital gains and $2,000 of capital losses. THEN, we add the $20,000 capital loss from the land, leaving us with a total of $14,000 capital gains and $22,000 capital losses (direct opposite of problem (e), which was $14,000 ordinary gain and $22,000 ordinary losses). Main issue comes down to whether taxpayer wants these gains/losses to be ordinary or capital. Likelihood is that taxpayer WOULD NOT be pleased here if the gains and losses are capital. Because, if he has $14,000 in capital gains, and $22,000 in capital losses, the losses can offset his gains, so he would be left with $8,000 of capital losses. PLUS he can take an additional $3,000 deduction, since he has losses to begin with, and would be left with $5,000 of capital losses in this current taxable year that are NOT deductible. This $5,000 capital loss would carry over to the next year. But that doesn’t help now. HOWEVER, if all the gains and losses were ordinary, as in problem (e), then the taxpayer would be better off, since he could offset all of his ordinary gains with his $22,000 ordinary losses, and presumably, he would have more than just $22,000 in ordinary gains, therefore leaving taxpayer with the ability to deduct all $22,000 of his losses in the current tax year. Bottom line: Taxpayer would not be pleased here, because Commissioner’s allegation would change the gains and losses to capital gains and losses. Taxpayer would rather the gains and losses be ordinary, so that he can use all of the ordinary losses in the current tax year. If the gains/losses are capital, then he is left with $5,000 capital losses that he cannot deduct in the current tax year and that will be carried over to the next year. 92
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C HAPTER 22 – C HARACTERIZATION ON THE S ALE OF D EPRECIABLE P ROPERTY - §1245 To the extent that the recapture provisions of §1245 apply, they convert what would normally be § 1231 capital gain or capital loss to § 64 ordinary income. IRC § 1245: Gain from dispositions of certain depreciable property (a) General Rule: (1) ORDINARY INCOME . – Except as otherwise provided in this section, if section 1245 property is disposed of the amount by which the LOWER OF – (A) The ORIGINAL (RECOMPUTED) basis of the property, OR (B) (i) In the case of a sale, exchange, or involuntary conversion, the amount realized, OR (ii) in the case of any other disposition, the fair market value of such property, EXCEEDS the ADJUSTED BASIS of such property shall be treated as ordinary income . Such gain shall be recognized notwithstanding any other provision of this subtitle. (2) Recomputed Basis: (A) In general. The term “recomputed basis” means, with respect to any property, its ADJUSTED BASIS recomputed by ADDING thereto ALL ADJUSTMENTS reflected in such adjusted basis on account of deductions allowed or allowable to the taxpayer or to any other person for depreciation or amortization. Basically means your adjusted basis plus all deductions you took. So, in essence, your original basis (cost). (3) Section 1245 Property: For purposes of this section, the term “section 1245 property” means any property which is or has been property of a character subject to the allowance for depreciation provided in § 167 AND is either – (A) Personal property: BASICALLY, any property that is of a depreciable character, whether you have ACTUALLY taken the depreciation deductions or not doesn’t matter. Code treats you as if you did even if you didn’t. Reg. § 1.1016-382 If you don’t take the ACRS deductions, then the amount that your basis will go down will reflect what the basis would be under the straight-line method. What happens if everything else is the same, except the property is transferred to the spouse? Inter-spousal transfers are usually not recognized Remember, under § 1041 the spouse would take whatever the wife’s basis in the property was Spouse would realize a gain of $30,000 (same facts from the hypos). The question is whether that gain will be included in ordinary income or not § 1245(b): Gain from dispositions of certain depreciable property; Exceptions Subsection (a) shall not apply in a gift transaction*** Professor: This seems as if it is not necessarily a gift since the spouse is paying $30,000 for the property and there is some kind of consideration here, however under § 1041 transfers to spouses are considered a gift. 93
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What result if: in 1996 paid $100,000 A/R = $110,000 A/B = 0 Gain = $110,000 Analysis: The gain of $110,000 reflects $100,000 in ACRS deductions and only $10,000 in an increase in value of the property The ACRS deduction recaptures and out to be ordinary income The other $10,000 depends on whether it is a capital asset If it is a capital asset, it should be capital gains If it is not a capital asset, it should be included in ordinary income Is the property here a capital asset or not? Does it fall within any of the exceptions? According to § 1221(a)(2), property used in a trade or business of the character that is subject to depreciation deductions is not a capital asset and that is what we have here This is b/c of the § 1231 incident Problems Pg. 777-778 1. Recap, a calendar year taxpayer, owns a piece of equipment that Recap uses in business. The equipment was purchased in year one for $100,000, is “5-year property” within the meaning of § 168(c), and Recap has taken the ACRS deductions on it allowed by § 168 . Recap did not elect § 179 . Assume Recap has no net § 1231 losses in prior years. (a) What result to Recap if Recap sells the equipment to Buyer in year seven for $30,000? Under § 1245 , if the lesser of the amount realized or recomputed basis EXCEEDS the adjusted basis, then the taxpayer has ordinary income (not capital gain rate). The first step is to ALWAYS see what is less, the recomputed basis or the amount realized. Here, the recomputed basis is $100,000, and the amount realized is $30,000. Amount realized of $30,000 is less. Here, A/B is 0 because he took all depreciation deductions possible. SO, A/R of $30,000 – A/B of 0 = $30,000 $30,000 on this sale is taxed as ordinary income. (b) What difference in result if Recap had elected to use § 179? It would all be deductible in the first taxable year. No difference in result. The A/B is still 0 here because the method of deducting wouldn’t matter because we’re still in the 7th year. Anyway, § 1245(a)(2)(C) treats § 179 deductions exactly the same as regular depreciation deductions under § 168. $30,000 ordinary income. (c) What result to Recap in (a), above, if Recap had failed to take any depreciation deductions on the equipment? Would Recap be content to let things be or would Recap want to seek a refund based on depreciation allowable for prior years? Reg. §1.1016-3(a)(2) says that if the taxpayer didn’t take deductions, he is STILL treated as if he took deductions via a straight-line method ANYWAY. SO, basis is reduced REGARDLESS of whether you actually receive the benefits of the deductions. Essentially, ACRS is NOT elective, and you get a reduced basis anyway. SO, because basis is still 0 whether he has taken the deductions or not, the $30,000 is still taxed as ordinary income rate. 94
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What advice could we give to Recap here, who did not receive the economic benefit of receiving actual deductions? Galler says two options: 1. Amend return (she says you can amend the last 3 year’s returns) 2. Sue accountant for malpractice (d) What results in (a), above, if Recap sells the equipment to Spouse? This is dealing between spouses. Recap’s $30,000 gain is realized, but NOT RECOGNIZED - § 1041 For Recap’s spouse, she assumes his basis (carry-over basis ). The basis assumed by the spouse is 0, since Recap had an adjusted basis of 0. HOWEVER, “recapture” rule of §1245 is never forgotten, and will apply whenever spouse eventually sells the property. §1245 still applies when spouse eventually sells the property because under §1245(a)(3), section §1245 property “means any property which is or HAS BEEN property of a character subject to the allowance for depreciation.” This property HAS BEEN subject to depreciation, so §1245 recapture will apply whenever she sells it. Galler says the asset is “tainted” by §1245. (e) What result if as a result of a scarcity of equipment Recap is able to sell the equipment to Desperate for $110,000? A/R here is $110,000. Recomputed basis (R/B) is $100,000. According to § 1245, we take the LESSER of A/R or R/B and then subtract the A/B. Here, R/B is less. So, $100,000 – 0 = $100,000 in Ordinary Income Remember, its ordinary income b/c under § 1245, amount over the A/B is treated as ordinary income. BUT, what about the other $10,000 that you realized from the sale? $10,000 extra gain is not from a capital asset. This is a §1221(a)(2) asset, i.e., a §1231 asset. Thus, §1231 would re-characterize the $10,000 gain. Not a sub hotchpot. So, just at these facts, you have $10,000 gains and NO losses in the main hotchpot. Since gains exceed losses in main hotchpot, you have $10,000 in capital gains. Bottom Line: $100,000 in ordinary income and $10,000 in capital gains. (f) What result to Recap in (e), above, if in addition Recap sold some land used for storage in Recap’s business for $9,000? Recap had owned the land for three years and it had a $20,000 adjusted basis. Starting with (e), above, we have $100,000 ordinary income gains and $10,000 in § 1231 gains. Now the Land It’s an $11,000 loss (9 – 20) It’s a § 1231 loss since its land used in business. No sub hotchpot. SO, in the main hotchpot, we have a $10,000 gain and $11,000 loss. Losses EXCEED gains, so it’s all ordinary gains and ordinary losses. In total from these facts, we have $100,000 ordinary gains from (e), and now $10,000 ordinary gains and $11,000 ordinary losses. Net total from these facts is $99,000 in ordinary income gains. (g) Same as (f), above, but the sale price of the land is $15,000? So, still same from (e), we have $100,000 in ordinary income and $10,000 in §1231 gains. If land is sold for $15,000, there is a $5,000 loss (15 – 20) This is a §1231 loss of $5,000 95
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No sub hotchpot. So, we have $10,000 in § 1231 gains and $5,000 in § 1231 losses. Gains EXCEED losses. So, it’s all capital gains and losses. $10,000 in CG and $5,000 in CL Net is $5,000 in capital gains So, we have $100,000 in ordinary income and $5,000 in capital gains. 2. Do you see a significant relationship between §1245(a)(2) and the transferred basis rules of § 1015 and §1041(b)(2)? Does the statute sanction assignment of “fruit” in these circumstances? § 1015 (gifts) and § 1041(b)(2) (spouses) both provide transferee with a carry-over basis of the transferor. Under § 1245, any property retains the § 1245 qualities despite being transferred or gifted. The asset is “tainted.” So, whenever a donee or spouse sells the property he/she is given, its subject to § 1245 treatment. In all instances, the Donor could have taken depreciation deductions, so the transferee must account for that in a future sale. So, §1245 “taints” the property, such that when the donee/spouse sells the property later on, it will be re-characterized as ordinary income. 96
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